1. Jumping gene is known as: 12.

HCV belongs to genus:

A. Transposon A. Togavirus
B. Episome B. Flavivirus
C. Cosmid C. Filovirus
D. Plasmid D. Retrovirus
2. Staphylococcus bacteria secrete all, EXCEPT: 13. HIV infects most commonly:
A. Lipase A. CD4+ cells
B. Cellulase B. CD8+ cells
C. Coagulase C. B-lymphocytes
D. Lecithinase D. Basophils
3. The following test is used to differentiate Streptococcus 14. Aflatoxin is produced by:
from Staphylococcus: A. Candida
A. Coagulase test B. Penicillium
B. Catalase test C. Aspergillus flavus
C. Phosphatase D. Clostridium
D. Indole test 15. Which one is an essential part of life cycle of
4. Quellung reaction is due to ________ swelling. Toxoplasma gondii is spread by:
A. Capsular A. Dog
B. Flagellar B. Cat
C. RBC C. Human
D. Ribosomal D. Sheep
5. Gram negative cocci is: 16. Helper cells belong to:
A. Staphylococcus A. T cells
B. Streptococcus B. B cells
C. Neisseria C. Macrophages
D. Salmonella D. Monocytes
6. Medusa head colony is found in: 17. All of these are antigen presenting cells EXCEPT:
A. Clostridium A. T cells
B. Bacillus B. B cells
C. Pseudomonas C. Dendritic cells
D. E. coli D. Langerhans cells
7. All of the following are acid fast bacteria except: 18. Vaccination is based on the principle of:
A. Cryptosporidium A. Agglutination
B. Mycoplasma B. Phagocytosis
C. Mycobacterium C. Immunological memory
D. Nocardia D. Clonal deletion
8. Widal test is an example of: 19. Reaction of soluble antigen with antibody is _______.
A. Flocculation A. Agglutination
B. Precipitation B. Precipitation
C. Agglutination C. Flocculation
D. Both “A” and “B” D. CFT
9. Genome of Herpes Simplex Virus comprised of: 20. Which of the following is not included in intrinsic
A. ssDNA determinants of a disease?
B. dsDNA A. Specie
C. ssRNA B. Environment
D. dsRNA C. Genetics
10. The following methods are used for serological D. Both “A” and “B”
diagnosis, EXCEPT: 21. Preliminary screening can be done by:
A. CFT A. restriction enzyme
B. PCR B. dyes
C. SRH C. antibiotics
D. Western blot D. radiation
11. Which of the following virus is not associated with 22. Which of the following substance can only induce
respiratory infections? immune response after binding to a larger molecule?
A. Rotavirus A. Antigen
B. Adenovirus B. Virus
C. Influenza virus C. Hapten
D. RSV D. Antibody

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23. To identify participants based on their disease / 34. ________ is chain forming, & round shaped bacteria.
outcome status, compare presence of risk factor: A. Pneumococcus
A. Case-control B. Streptococcus
B. Experimental C. Staphylococcus
C. Cross-sectional D. Diplococcus
D. None of these 35. All the following can be zoonotic EXCEPT:
24. ___ is an example of arthropod vector borne disease? A. Influenza A H5N1
A. Avian influenza B. Hantaviruses
B. Tuberculosis C. Poliomyelitis
C. Spirochetosis D. Rabies
D. CRD 36. Presence of maternal Abs ____ the effect of vaccine.
25. Latent infection is seen in viral infections EXCEPT: A. Antagonize
A. HIV B. Enhance
B. EBV C. Synergize
C. Rotavirus D. Complement
D. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) 37. A diagnostic test lacking in ________ results in false
26. Endotoxin for Gram-negative organism is: positive results.
A. Polysaccharide A. Specificity
B. Glycoprotein B. Predictive value
C. Lipoprotein C. Sensitivity
D. Lipopolysaccharide D. Reproducibility
27. Which of the following is not an oncogenic virus? 38. Which one of the following is NOT included in innate
A. HTLV-1 immune response?
B. Adenovirus A. phagocytosis
C. Papilloma virus B. complement activation
D. HBV C. antibodies production
28. Which of the following is obligate anaerobe? D. NK cells activation
A. Clostridium 39. Viruses are:
B. Bacillus A. Obligate intracellular parasites
C. Staphylococcus B. Have their own metabolism
D. Klebsiella C. Divide by binary fission
29. ______ refers only to the number of new cases of a D. Have both DNA and RNA
disease occurring in a given period. 40. The vector of plague is:
A. % positivity A. Flies
B. Prevalence B. Mosquitoes
C. Hyperendemic C. Ticks
D. Incidence D. Fleas
30. Fungi that possess a capsule is: 41. Positive tuberculin test is an example of:
A. Candida A. hypersensitivity type-I
B. Aspergillus B. hypersensitivity type-II
C. Cryptococcus C. hypersensitivity type-III
D. Mucor D. hypersensitivity type-IV
31. The lethal dose required to kill 50% of the lab 42. Process of binding primer to DNA template is called:
animals tested under standard called____. A. Denaturation
A. ID50 B. Annealing
B. MLD50 C. Extension
C. TCIC50 D. Bounding
D. LD50 43. _________ reagent is used to precipitate DNA?
32. All are used in Gram’s staining, EXCEPT: A. Isopropanol
A. Methylene blue B. SDS
B. Iodine C. Phenol
C. Safranin D. Chloroform
D. Crystal violet 44. _________ enzyme is used to synthesize DNA using
33. Viruses do not contain: an mRNA template.
A. DNA A. Taq polymerase
B. RNA B. Alkaline Phosphatase
C. Enzyme C. Reverse transcriptase
D. Cell wall D. Nuclease

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45. Making routine observations on health, productivity 55. Macrophages present in liver are called:
& environment is called as: A. microglial cells
A. GIS B. alveolar macrophages
B. Monitoring C. Kupffer cells
C. Surveillance D. wondering macrophages
D. Cohort studies 56. Antibiotic penicillin was introduced by:
46. _____ disease is transmitted from parrot to human? A. Pasteur
A. Typhoid B. Fleming
B. Bird flu C. Jenner
C. Psittacosis D. Lister
D. Cholera 57. Prokaryotic cell lacks:
47. The ability of the immune system to recognize self- A. DNA
antigens versus non-self-antigen is an example of: B. Ribosomes
A. Specific immunity C. Mitochondria
B. Humoral immunity D. Plasma membrane
C. Cell mediated immunity 58. Immunity against yellow fever in new born is an
D. Tolerance example of:
48. The coagulase test is used to differentiate between A. Active naturally acquired
Staphylococcus aureus from: B. passive artificially acquired
A. Streptococci C. passive naturally acquired
B. Micrococci D. artificial immunity
C. Enterococci 59. All structures are external to cell wall EXCEPT:
D. other staphylococci A. Glycocalyx
49. All are antigen-antibody interaction in living host B. Flagella
EXCEPT: C. Pilli
A. Neutralization D. Spores
B. Precipitation 60. A typical bacterial cell has only _____ volume of a
C. Opsonization typical eukaryotic cell.
D. Agglutination A. 1/10
50. Which of the following is type of leukocytes are B. 1/100
included in agranulocytes? C. 1/1000
A. Neutrophils D. 1/10000
B. Basophils 61. PCR reaction includes all, EXCEPT:
C. Monocytes A. DNA ligase
D. Eosinophils B. four DNTPs
51. Which one is NOT protective mechanism of body: C. DNA template
A. Fever D. DNA polymerase
B. Necrosis 62. If disease is endemic, prevalence equals to:
C. Phagocytosis A. C x I
D. Inflammation B. I x D
52. Bioterrorism microbial agents are classified based C. P x D
upon: D. C x D
A. Pathogenicity 63. Southern hybridization is used to identify:
B. Spread A. A specific protein
C. Availability B. A specific RNA seq
D. Both “A” and “B” C. A specific DNA sequence
53. Which one of the following immunoglobulins can D. Both “A” and “B”
cross the blood placental barrier? 64. All of the following bacteria are members of family
A. Ig G Enterobacteriaceae EXCEPT:
B. Ig M A. E. coli
C. Ig A B. Shigella
D. Ig D C. Staphylococcus
54. Hematopoietic stem cells are precursor cells for all of D. Salmonella
the following EXCEPT: 65. A library of DNA fragments results from the use of:
A. Lymphocytes A. Viruses
B. Monocytes B. Restriction endonucleases
C. Erythrocytes C. DNA ligases
D. Vascular smooth muscle cells D. Plasmids

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66. Swarming growth is the characteristic of Gram- 77. O157:H7 is pathogenic type of:
negative bacteria known as: A. Salmonella typhi
A. Clostridium B. E. coli
B. Proteus C. S. aureus
C. Pasteurella D. Streptococcus
D. Pseudomonas 78. All of the following bacteria are non-spore forming
67. Mesophilic bacteria CANNOT grow at temperature: bacteria EXCEPT:
A. 16oC A. E. coli
B. 25oC B. Clostridium
C. 35oC C. Streptococcus
D. 38oC D. Leptospira
68. Facultative anaerobic bacteria grow in presence of: 79. The ability of Microscope to distinguish two objects
A. only O2 into two separate objects, is called:
B. O2 and also CO2 A. Magnification power
C. only CO2 B. Wave length
D. N2 C. Resolving power
69. Mannitol salt agar is an example of: D. None of these
A. Selective medium 80. A sudden outbreak of disease in which number of
B. Differential medium cases increase beyond expected trends is known as:
C. Both “A” and “B” A. Endemic
D. Enrichment medium B. Epidemic
70. Translation occurs in: C. Sporadic
A. Nucleus D. Pandemic
B. Cytoplasm 81. Serum is collected from____________ blood.
C. Ribosomes A. Heparinized
D. Both “A” and “B” B. Unclotted
71. An intron is found in: C. Clotted
A. DNA D. All of these
B. RNA 82. Amboceptors are Abs raised against RBCs of:
C. mRNA A. Sheep
D. tRNA B. Cow
72. Signal responsible for the end of transcription is: C. Goat
A. Stop codon D. Horse
B. RNA polymerase run out 83. GET buffer in plasmid isolation of bacteria contains:
C. End of DNA chain A. Glucose
D. Terminator B. EDTA
73. Plasmids are inserted in bacterial cell from C. Tris
environment: D. All of these
A. Transformation 84. Majority of the antigens are:
B. DNA ligase A. Protein
C. Transfection B. Nucleic acid
D. Transduction C. Lipids
74. Which of following could NOT be a portal of entry? D. Carbohydrates
A. Meninges 85. RNAi’ stands for which of the following:
B. Skin A. RNA inducer
C. Placenta B. RNA insertion
D. Small intestine C. RNA interference
75. Highly communicable pathogen, especially via direct D. RNA intron
contact is known as: 86. The botulism intoxication occurs due to:
A. Zoonotic A. An enterotoxin
B. Contagious B. A neurotoxin
C. Nosocomial C. A mycotoxin
D. Communicable D. All of these
76. Motility of the bacteria can be observed by: 87. An animal that only acts as short-term transmitter:
A. Hanging drop method A. Passive carrier
B. Soft agar method B. Mechanical carrier
C. Both “A” and “B” C. Biological carrier
D. Pour plate method D. Asymptomatic carrier
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88. Adenine and guanine are example of which class of 99. ________ is NOT an example of inflammation?
nitrogen base: A. Pain
A. Large B. Sweating
B. Pyrimidines C. Heat
C. Small D. Swelling
D. Purines 100. Typhoid is usually diagnosed by:
89. Which of the following is not a function of capsule? A. Typhidot test
A. Attachment B. Widal test
B. Motility C. Precipitation test
C. Biofilm D. Both “A” and “B”
D. Used as nutrition 101. Clostridium bacillus is:
90. Whiff test is used for the diagnosis of: A. Facultative anaerobe
A. Entamoeba B. Facultative aerobe
B. Giardia C. Obligate anaerobe
C. E. coli D. Obligate aerobe
D. Trichomonas 102. α-hemolytic streptococci are also known as_______.
91. _____is Gram positive rod & spore forming bacteria. A. Streptococcus pyogenes
A. Pseudomonas B. Virulence group
B. Staphylococcus C. Viridans group
C. Salmonella D. CoNS
D. Bacillus 103. __________ is/are used to determine glucose
92. Which of the following vaccine is recommended for fermentation by bacteria?
pregnant women? A. Methyl red test
A. Tetanus B. TSI test
B. Tuberculosis C. Urease test
C. AIDS D. Both “A” and “B”
D. Poliomyelitis 104. Protein particles which can cause disease are:
93. Natural competence was first time described in: A. Virions
A. E. coli B. Nucleoida
B. Streptococcus C. Bacteriophages
C. Staphylococcus D. Prions
D. Bacillus 105. Bacteria are more sensitive to antibiotics at which
94. In genomic DNA isolation, TE buffer functions as: phase of growth curve?
A. Block endonucleases A. Decline phase
B. Maintain pH B. Lag phase
C. Denature protein C. Log phase
D. Both “A” and “B” D. Stationary phase
95. An example of non-communicable disease is: 106. Syphilis is a bacterial STD, caused by________.
A. Measles A. Trichomonas vaginalis
B. Tuberculosis B. Treponema pallidum
C. Leprosy C. Leptospira
D. Tetanus D. Neisseria gonorrhea
96. E. coli O157:H7 produces ______. 107. Staining material of Gram-negative bacteria is
A. Colon toxin A. Crystal violet
B. Neurotoxin B. Safranin
C. Exotoxin C. Carbol fuchsin
D. Shiga toxin D. Methylene blue
97. Treatment with which salt gives properties of 108. The bacterium that is most commonly used in
competency to bacterial cells? genetic engineering is:
A. NaCl A. Staphylococcus
B. HgCl B. Klebsiella
C. NaHCO3 C. Proteus
D. CaCl2 D. Escherichia
98. Lyophilization means: 109. In autoclave, the principle involved is:
A. Sterilization A. Dry heat
B. Burning to ashes B. Moist heat
C. Exposure to formation C. Steam under pressure
D. Freeze-drying D. Both “B” and “C”
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110. ____ is NOT an example of immuno-diagnostic test. 121. Which of the following has optimum growth
A. PCR temperature greater than 45oC?
B. Serum plate agglutination test A. Mesophilic
C. ELISA B. Psychrophiles
D. FAT C. Psychrophilic
111. Staph-110 used for the isolation of Staphylococcus, D. Thermophiles
is an example of ___________ medium. 122. The enzyme ____________ unzips and unwinds the
A. Selective DNA.
B. Enrichment A. DNA polymerase
C. Differential B. Helicase
D. General purpose C. Primase
112. Production of RNA from DNA is called: D. Reverse transcriptase
A. Translation 123. Helicobacter pylori possesses __________ that helps
B. Transcription to neutralize stomach acid (HCl).
C. RNA splicing A. Coagulase
D. Replication B. Urease
113. Virus will contain: C. Hyaluronidase
A. Cell membrane D. Catalase
B. Capsule 124. Capnophiles bacteria grow at optimum in:
C. Both DNA and RNA A. Small percentage of CO2
D. DNA or RNA B. Excess CO2
114. Example of anaerobic medium is: C. Excess of O2
A. Nutrient agar D. Absence of O2
B. Selenite F broth 125. First line of body defense is:
C. Robertson cooked-meat medium A. Antibody molecules
D. MacConkey agar B. Antigen molecules
115. All of following are waterborne diseases EXCEPT: C. Phagocytic cells
A. Cholera D. Unbroken skin
B. Scabies 126. ‘Toxic shock syndrome’ is caused by the toxin of:
C. Giardiasis A. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Salmonellosis B. Streptococcus pyogenes
116. Existence of Tuberculosis in population of C. Vibrio cholerae
Faisalabad is an example of: D. Proteus vulgaris
A. Epidemic 127. _________ reagent is used to precipitate DNA?
B. Endemic A. SDS
C. Pandemic B. Isopropanol
D. Sporadic C. Phenol
117. Mycotoxins are produced by: D. EDTA
A. Bacteria 128. The nosocomial infections are acquired from:
B. Viruses A. Plants
C. Fungi B. Hospitals
D. Protozoa C. Animals
118. In polymerase chain reaction, extension step is done D. Community
at temperature: 129. Virus family causing mumps is also responsible for:
A. 50-60 oC A. Hepatitis
B. 95 oC B. Rabies
C. 37 oC C. Measles
D. 72 oC D. Smallpox
119. Basophils have receptors for _________ antibodies. 130. Carcinoma refers to
A. IgG A. Malignant tumors of the connective tissue
B. IgE B. Malignant tumors of the colon
C. IgA C. Malignant tumors of skin or mucus membrane
D. IgD D. Malignant tumors of the lungs
120. Enzymes are chemically: 131. Batch fermentation is also called:
A. Lipids A. Open system
B. Proteins B. Closed system
C. Carbohydrates C. Sub-merger system
D. Lipoproteins D. Continuous system
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132. Live bacterial cells can be examined: 143. Formation of nitrate from ammonia is called:
A. In dark field microscope A. Ammonification
B. After Gram staining B. Denitrification
C. After special staining C. Nitrogen fixation
D. Acid-fast staining D. Nitrification
133. IgM type of antibodies has been found to occur in: 144. Which types of cells are the main target of HIV?
A. Monomer A. CD4+ cells
B. Dimer B. CD8+ cells
C. Trimer C. Neutrophils
D. Pentamer D. Macrophages
134. Which sequence is a palindrome? 145. Which of the following is a start codon?
A. 5'-GATTA-3' A. GUG
B. 5'-GACTTT-3' B. UGA
C. 5'-GACCAA-3' C. GAA
D. 5' AGGCCT 3’ D. AUG
135. Bacterial cells are at their metabolic peak during: 146. Acquisition of naked DNA by intact bacteria is:
A. Lag phase A. Transduction
B. Log phase B. Transcription
C. Stationary Phase C. Conjugation
D. Decline Phase D. Transformation
136. The antibiotic acting on cell was is: 147. T4 enzyme is an example of:
A. Chloramphenicol A. Restriction enzyme
B. Rifampin B. Polymerase
C. Polymyxins C. Ligase
D. Penicillin D. Integrase
137. Which of the following is a motile bacterium? 148. _____________ are thin and help in attachment and
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae colonization.
B. Bacillus anthracis A. Fimbriae
C. Salmonella typhi B. Sex pilli
D. Shigella flexneri C. Capsule
138. Migration of leukocytes in response to specific D. Cell wall
chemicals towards the site of injury or infection: 149. _________ is the killing of all microorganisms both
A. Specific immunity in vegetative and sporing states.
B. Phagocytosis A. Disinfection
C. Inflammation B. Pasteurization
D. Chemotaxis C. Sterilization
139. _____ is a vector to transmit Dengue virus to man. D. Antisepsis
A. Male Culex 150. ______________ technique requires previously
B. Male Aedes diluted samples carpeted over agar plate.
C. Female Aedes A. Streak plate
D. Female Culex B. Spread plate
140. The organisms which grow best in the presence of a C. Pour plate
low concentration of oxygen: D. Stab tube
A. Microaerophilic 151. ______ is Gram positive spherical & chain forming.
B. Anaerobic A. Streptococcus
C. Facultative anaerobic B. Staphylococcus
D. Obligate aerobes C. Bacillus
141. Which one the following blood cells primarily D. Diplococcus
functions as phagocytic cells? 152. Negri bodies are observed in cells infected by:
A. B-lymphocytes A. Cytomegalovirus
B. T-lymphocytes B. Rabies virus
C. Eosinophils C. Herpes simplex virus
D. Neutrophils D. Pox virus
142. Acquired immunity is: 153. Temperature of autoclave at 15 psi will be_____.
A. Natural A. 110oC
B. Artificial B. 115oC
C. Active C. 121oC
D. All of these D. 125oC
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154. ___ is a culture medium having liquid consistency. 165. Which of the following is an example general
A. Broth purpose medium is ________?
B. Agar A. Selenite F broth
C. Soft agar B. Mannitol salt agar
D. All of these C. MacConkey agar
155. Which of the following is an example acid-fast D. Nutrient agar
bacterium? 166. MacConkey agar, it differentiates b/w __________
A. Vibrio fermenting and non-fermenting bacteria.
B. Staphylococcus A. glucose
C. Mycobacterium B. lactose
D. Leptospira C. mannitol
156. _______ is a pigment giving golden color to colonies. D. sucrose
A. Catalase 167. BCG vaccine is used for the prevention of ____.
B. Staphyloxanthin A. Botulism
C. Coagulase B. Tuberculosis
D. Hemolysin C. Cholera
157. Streptolysin O is inactivated by __________. D. Anthrax
A. CO2 168. What is the reservoir for Salmonella typhi?
B. Nitrogen A. Humans
C. Oxygen B. Wild rodents
D. Serum C. Soil
158. Influenza virus genome is _________? D. Domestic Animals
A. dsRNA 169. All protozoan pathogens have a ______ phase?
B. ssRNA A. Cyst
C. dsDNA B. Sexual
D. ssDNA C. Trophozoite
159. All are accessory proteins of HIV EXCEPT? D. latent
A. Vif 170. All are correct for Giardia lamblia EXCEPT?
B. Tat A. It has only trophozoite stage.
C. Vpu B. It is transmitted by the fecal oral route.
D. Vpr C. It can be diagnosed by the string test
160. Trichomoniasis can be diagnosed by ________. D. It is a heart shape protozoan.
A. Demonstration of cysts by fecal examination 171. Cholera toxin is a form of _____.
B. Acidic vaginal pH A. Exotoxin
C. Whiff test B. Endotoxin
D. Demonstration of oocysts by fecal examination C. Neurotoxin
161. All Gram-Negative bacilli have _______? D. Hemolytic toxin
A. Capsule 172. ________________ leads to expression of antiviral
B. Exotoxin proteins.
C. Endotoxin A. Complement
D. DNase B. Interferon
162. _____ can cause food INTOXICATION? C. Cytokines
A. Staphylococcus aureus D. Enzymes
B. Streptococcus pyogenes 173. Cell-mediated immune response is mediated by:
C. E. coli A. B-lymphocytes
D. Salmonella B. Endothelial cells
163. Enhancement of size using ocular and objective lens C. T-lymphocytes
is called ________. D. Granulocytes
A. Magnification 174. Passive immunity lasts for the period of:
B. Resolution A. About 10-days
C. Contrast B. 6-9 months
D. All of these C. 9-10 years
164. __________contains substances favoring the growth D. All of the above
of organism being sought. 175. ______ is an endospore forming aerobic bacteria.
A. Selective A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Enrichment B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Differential C. Both “A” and “B”
D. General purpose D. Staphylococcus aureus
Page 8 of 100
176. Sporulation is a process of ______________. 187. A culture containing a single kind of
A. Reproduction microorganisms is known as ______.
B. Preservation A. Colony culture
C. Both ‘A’ & ‘B’ B. Liquid culture
D. None of these C. Mixed culture
177. Thickest layer of spore envelope is __________. D. Pure culture
A. Core 188. ____ is major Ig present in human serum & can
B. Spore wall provide naturally acquired immunity for new born?
C. Cortex A. IgA
D. Spore coat B. IgG
178. India ink is an example of_________. C. IgE
A. Principle stain D. IgM
B. Basic stain 189. Failure to eliminate self-reactive cells results in___.
C. Counter stain A. Negative selection
D. Acidic stain B. Autoimmunity
179. 100X objective lens is also known as ________. C. Positive Selection
A. Dry lens D. Tolerance
B. High dry lens 190. Active immunity is induced by:
C. Scanning lens A. Injection of γ-globulins
D. Oil immersion lens B. Placental transfer of Abs
180. Rod shaped bacteria are known as________. C. Injection of antibodies
A. Cocci D. Infection
B. Bacilli 191. T-cells are produced from:
C. Vibrio A. Bone marrow
D. Coco-bacilli B. Thymus
181. Mordant used in Gram’s staining is ___________. C. Spleen
A. Acid alcohol D. Thyroid gland
B. Safranin 192. Antibodies are produced from:
C. Gram’s iodine A. T lymphocytes
D. Crystal violet B. Plasma Cells
182. _____________ is an instrument effectively used to C. NK cells
sterilize metals, glassware, powders, oils and waxes. D. Eosinophils
A. Autoclave 193. Immunological memory is provided by:
B. Hot air oven A. B lymphocytes
C. Water bath B. T lymphocytes
D. Seitz filter C. Both “A” and “B”
183. Bacteria that can only be grown in the absence of D. phagocytes
oxygen, are commonly cultivated in _________. 194. Basophils have receptors for Fc fragment of ______.
A. Deep agar tube A. IgG
B. Anaerobic jar B. IgA
C. Both “A” and “B” C. IgM
D. Broth culture D. IgE
184. Visible growth of bacteria on solid medium is ____. 195. Light chain does not originate from _____ region.
A. colony A. variable
B. turbidity B. diversity
C. sediment C. joining
D. None of these D. constant
185. Immune individuals will not harbor it thus reducing 196. Vaccine used against viral infection is:
occurrence of pathogens is concept of _________. A. Mumps vaccine
A. Innate immunity B. Cholera vaccine
B. Herd immunity C. Sub-cellular vaccine
C. cell mediated immunity D. Typhoid vaccine
D. Autoimmunity 197. ____________ immune cells mainly act against
186. Sugar solution is commonly sterilized by_______. helminth worm?
A. Autoclave A. Lymphocytes
B. Hot air oven B. Eosinophils
C. Filtration C. Basophils
D. X-rays D. Neutrophils

Page 9 of 100
198. Monoclonal antibodies recognize a single: 208. Reproduction in bacteria occurs by:
A. Antigen A. Budding
B. Bacterium B. Bursting
C. Epitope C. Binary Fission
D. B cell D. Fragmentation
199. Which of the following cells do not have MHC class 209. Bacteria eating viruses are known as:
II surface molecules? A. Phagocytes
A. Ig producing plasma cells B. Viricides
B. Dendritic cells C. Prophages
C. Cytotoxic T cells D. Bacteriophages
D. Macrophages 210. Which of the following is Gram-positive bacteria?
200. Small chemical groups on the antigen molecule A. Staphylococcus
that can react with antibody: B. E. coli
A. Epitope C. Salmonella
B. Paratope D. Pseudomonas
C. Isotope 211. In plasmid DNA isolation, ____________ is used to
D. Allotope neutralize the solution, enabling DNA to renature.
201. To be antigen, the chemical molecule (protein) A. NaCl
needs: B. potassium acetate
A. High molecular weight C. acetic acid
B. Chemical complexity D. All of these
C. Both “A” and “B” 212. In genomic DNA isolation, disruption of
D. Nucleic acid nucleoproteins and degradation of proteins is
202. The immunity acquired by inoculation of living carried out by:
organism of attenuated virulence is: A. SDS
A. Artificial active immunity B. proteinase K
B. Passive immunity C. isopropanol
C. Natural active immunity D. Alcohol
D. Local immunity 213. Streptococci are classified according to:
203. Fluid extruded from clotted blood is known as ____. A. their cell walls antigens
A. Plasma B. reaction on blood agar
B. Serum C. toxin production
C. buffy coat D. Both “A” and “B”
D. Lymph 214. Selective media for TB bacilli is:
204. Which PRR recognizes distinct molecular A. NNN media
structures, abundant to many cells and there is ten B. Lowenstein–Jensen (LJ) medium
in humans? C. Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA)
A. Nod-like receptors D. MacConkey media
B. RIG-like receptors 215. Widal test is used for:
C. Toll-like receptors A. Typhoid fever
D. PAMP of neutrophils B. Salmonella
205. A signaling molecule from microbes recognized by C. Brucellosis
phagocytes is: D. All of these
A. Complement 216. All of the Salmonellae are motile EXCEPT:
B. PAMP A. S. typhi
C. Pyrogen B. S. enteridis
D. Lectin C. S. gallinarum
206. Which of the following is NOT produced by D. S. chester
phagocytes? 217. Ascoli’s test helps to confirm lab diagnosis of _____.
A. Hydroxyl radical A. Tetanus
B. Superoxide anion B. Anthrax
C. Hydrogen peroxide C. Typhoid
D. Bradykinin D. Cholera
207. Acquired / adaptive immune cells include? 218. Transfection is insertion of DNA into ______ cells.
A. Lymphocytes A. bacterial
B. Eosinophils B. eukaryotic
C. Basophils C. Viruses
D. Neutrophils D. Both “A” and “B”
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219. In agarose gel electrophoresis, loading buffer gives 229. TE buffer functions as:
___________ to sample. A. Maintain pH
A. Color B. Block endonucleases
B. Density C. Both “A” and “B”
C. Shade D. Denature proteins
D. Both “A” & “B” 230. Agarose gel electrophoresis is a widely-used
220. The virulence factor of botulism is a/an_______. method that separates molecules based on:
A. Endotoxin A. Electrical charge
B. Enterotoxin B. Size
C. Neurotoxin C. Shape
D. Hemolysin enzyme D. All of these
221. Which of the following is a spirochete? 231. Which are components of INNATE IMMUNITY in
A. Gonococci respiratory system?
B. Treponema 1. mucus 2. mucociliary escalator 3. normal flora
C. Staphylococcus 4. lysozyme 5. acidic environment
D. Streptococcus A. 1,2,5.
222. Once the Phagosome and lysosome fuse, the B. 1,3.
structure is known as: C. 1,2,3,4.
A. Lysophagosome D. 1,2,3.
B. Macrophage 232. 0.7% agarose gel provides good resolution for
C. Membrane attack complex _______ DNA, while 2% gel for ________ DNA.
D. Phagolysosome A. Large, small
223. T-lymphocytes mature in which tissue/organ? B. small, large
A. Thyroid C. Both ‘A’ & ‘B’
B. Bone marrow D. None of these
C. Thymus 233. Innate immunity involves all EXCEPT?
D. Tonsils A. Anatomical barriers
224. Place following events of phagocytosis in the order. B. Phagocytosis
1.Chemotaxis 2.Ingestion 3.Digestion 4.Attachment C. Inflammatory mechanisms
A. 1,2,4,3. D. Antibody production
B. 4,1,2,3. 234. You enter a dusty room, feel an itch in your nose,
C. 1,4,2,3. and sneeze. This is an example of the operation of
D. 4,2,3,1. which of the following innate immune mechanism?
225. An enzyme found in our tears, saliva, serum, and A. The low pH of the environment.
mucus that degrades the peptidoglycan of the cell B. The physical barrier produced by hairs.
wall of Gram-positive bacteria is called? C. Phagocytosis by macrophages.
A. Amylase D. Mucus joint with movement of cilia of lining cells.
B. Lysozyme 235. Which of the following is a distinction between the
C. Keratinase innate and adaptive immune systems?
D. Peptidase A. Only one system to produce cytokines.
226. Internalization of the pathogen via endocytosis B. Antigenic specificity in only one system.
encase the pathogen in a membrane vacuole known C. Only one system to recognize virally infected cells.
as a? D. Only one system to mediate cell cytotoxicity.
A. Lipid bilayer 236. Stomach clears out pathogens by?
B. Lysosome A. Secreting HCl
C. Phagosome B. Normal microflora
D. Phagolysosome C. Phagocytosis
227. Which of the following is primarily human D. All of these
pathogenic bacteria? 237. Kupffer cells are macrophages found in_______.
A. S. typhi A. Lung
B. E. coli B. Bone
C. S. aureus C. Kidney
D. Mycobacterium D. Liver
228. An enrichment medium for Salmonella is ________. 238. Temperature rising chemicals are?
A. Alkaline peptone water A. Thermogens
B. MacConkey broth B. Pyrogens
C. Nutrient broth C. Pyogenic
D. Selenite F broth D. All of these

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239. Physical barriers of immune system are: 249. Penicillin is an antibiotic obtained from?
A. Skin and the mucosal membranes. A. A capsular bacterium
B. Skin, body temperature and mucosal membranes. B. A yeast
C. Skin, inflammation and the mucosal membranes. C. A fungus
D. The bones and the mucosal membranes. D. An alga
240. Chemical barriers include: 250. Viruses that infect bacteria are known as ________.
A. Tears, sweat, saliva, stomach acid and feces. A. virons
B. Tears, breast milk, sweat, saliva, stomach acid. B. bacteroids
C. Hair, breast milk, sweat, saliva, stomach acid. C. bacteriophages
D. Tears and urine. D. retrovirurses
241. Interferons protect which of the following? 251. The Kingdom of recyclers is known as _____.
A. Only viral infected cells A. Algae
B. Only bacterial infected cells B. Bacteria
C. Healthy host cells C. Fungi
D. Blood cells D. Embryophata
242. RNA contains: 252. Unicellular yeast cells reproduce by _______.
A. Alanine A. Sporing
B. Thymidine B. Conidiation
C. Uracil C. Budding
D. Arginine D. Both “A” and “B”
243. Time taken for a bacterium to multiple from 1 to 2? 253. Interferons protect healthy cells by production of?
A. Incubation time A. Antibacterial proteins
B. Growth rate B. Antifungal proteins
C. Generation time C. Antiviral proteins
D. Both “B” and “C” D. Antiprotozoal proteins
244. Self-replicating, small circular DNA molecules 254. Branch of Microbiology related with study of fungi:
present in bacterial cell are known: A. Protozoology
A. Plasmids B. Phycology
B. Cosmids C. Mycology
C. Plasmomeros D. Biotechnology
D. Plastids 255. Penicillin acts by inhibiting:
245. Some of the dust particles are not expelled by sneeze A. Cell wall synthesis
and make their way further down the respiratory B. RNA synthesis
tract but not yet into the alveolar space. Here their C. Folate synthesis
elimination is the job of which of the following? D. DNA gyrase
A. Released granular contents of your granulocytes. 256. Schizogony is mode of reproduction in:
B. The low pH of the environment. A. Algae
C. The physical barrier produced by hairs. B. Protozoa
D. Mucus joint with movement of cilia of lining cells C. Fungi
246. Formation of proteins in ribosomes occur through D. Embryophata
process known as: 257. Disease that effects many people at different
A. Central dogma countries is termed as:
B. Transcription A. Sporadic
C. Translation B. Epidemic
D. Both “A” and “C” C. Pandemic
247. Mostly bacteria grow in aerobic conditions, but D. Endemic
some require more CO2 for their growth, these are 258. Some bacteria form dormant structure during
known as: harsh environmental conditions is known as:
A. Halophiles A. Endospore
B. Acidophiles B. Capsule
C. Capnophiles C. Cyst
D. Hyperthermophiles D. Bud
248. Transfer of antibodies from mother to her baby 259. Many clostridial diseases require a/an _________
through breast milk is example of: environment for their development.
A. Active natural acquired immunity A. living tissue
B. Passive artificial acquired immunity B. anaerobic
C. Passive natural acquired immunity C. aerobic
D. Active artificial acquired immunity D. low-pH
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260. Bacterial cells multiply rapidly during: 271. Malaria is caused by pathogen known as ______.
A. Lag phase A. Plasmodium
B. Log phase B. Paramecium
C. Death phase C. Pseudomonas
D. Stationary phase D. Pasteurella
261. A group of fungal hyphae are called ______. 272. First phase of a bacterial growth curve is
A. Filtering body A. Log phase
B. Mycelia B. Lag phase
C. Conidia C. γ phase
D. Yeast D. Exponential
262. Most human pathogenic bacteria are: 273. Spirochete bacteria move with the help of:
A. Psychrophiles A. Pseudopodia
B. Psychrotrophes B. Axial filament
C. Thermophiles C. Endoflagella
D. Mesophiles D. Both “B” and “C”
263. DNA contains: 274. Viruses are:
A. Alanine A. Living
B. Thymine B. Non-Living
C. Uracil C. Only living inside cells
D. Arginine D. Capsular
264. Type of immunity through vaccination is: 275. All of the following prokaryotes are bounded by a
A. Active natural acquired immunity cell wall EXCEPT?
B. Passive artificial acquired immunity A. Spirochetes
C. Passive natural acquired immunity B. Actinomycetes
D. Active artificial acquired immunity C. Mycoplasma
265. Shrinkage of the cell occur in ______ environment. D. Streptococcus
A. Hypotonic 276. Tubercles are granulomas with a central core
B. Hypertonic containing TB bacilli and enlarged ______.
C. Isotonic A. Neutrophils
D. Both “A” and “C” B. Lymphocytes
266. Bacterium is ________ type of organism. C. Eosinophils
A. Prokaryotic D. Macrophages
B. Eukaryotic 277. Conversion of DNA to RNA is:
C. Acellular A. Transcription
D. May be prokaryotic or eukaryotic B. Transduction
267. Botulin toxin prevents release of what chemical C. Translation
that initiates the signal for muscle contraction? D. Replication
A. Serotonin 278. The bases Adenine and Thymine are paired with:
B. Acetylcholine A. Double hydrogen bonds
C. Dopamine B. Single hydrogen bonds
D. Norepinephrine C. Triple hydrogen bonds
268. An infection peculiar to swine causes _______ when D. Both “B” and “C”
transmitted to humans. 279. Fungi reproduce by:
A. Anthrax A. Sexual Spores
B. Diphtheria B. Fragmentation
C. Tuberculosis C. Asexual spores
D. Erysipeloid D. All of these
269. ____ DOES NOT predispose to gas gangrene? 280. For TB control, vaccine is based on attenuated
A. Surgical incisions “Bacille Calmette-Guérin” (BCG) strain of _______.
B. Compound fractures A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Puncture wounds B. Mycobacterium avium complex
D. Dislocated shoulder C. Mycobacterium bovis
270. In general, humans are rather prone to ____ with D. Mycobacterium paratuberculosis
tubercle bacillus but are resistant to ____? 281. Antibiotics are the drugs which commonly kill?
A. disease, infection A. Bacteria
B. infection, disease B. Virus
C. TB, Leprosy C. Algae
D. Leprosy, TB D. Protozoa
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282. Genital herpes is caused by? 293. Virulence of tubercle bacillus is due to _______ that
A. HSV-1 avoid destruction by lysosomes/macrophages.
B. HSV-2 A. Exotoxin
C. HSV-3 B. Cord factor
D. HSV-4 C. Enterotoxin
283. Blood agar is an example of: D. Endotoxin
A. Enrichment media 294. The form of leprosy associated with severe
B. Selective media disfigurement of the face is:
C. Enriched media A. Tuberculoid
D. General purpose media B. Lepromatous
284. A mutation that produces termination codon is: C. Borderline
A. Mis-sense mutation D. Papular
B. Reverse mutation 295. Diphtheria is caused by:
C. Non-sense mutation A. Staphylococcus
D. Frame shift mutation B. Corynebacterium
285. Gas gangrene bacillus is: C. Bacillus
A. Facultative anaerobe D. Clostridium
B. Obligate aerobe 296. ______ reside in sebaceous glands in human skin?
C. Facultative aerobe A. Bacillus
D. Obligate anaerobe B. Propionibacterium
286. If vector ONLY transmits pathogen is called: C. Erysipelothrix
A. Biological vector D. Corynebacterium
B. Biological reservoir 297. The largest virus is:
C. Biological carrier A. Parvo virus
D. Mechanical vector B. Picorna virus
287. What genus of organisms is important as C. Pox virus
decomposers and involve in bioremediation? D. HIV
A. Pseudomonas 298. Endospores can be stained with:
B. Brucella A. Malachite green
C. Francisella B. Safranin
D. Bordetella C. Methylene blue
288. Brucellosis is spread from human to human contact D. Crystal Violet
with ALL BUT which of the following? 299. All of the following are DNA viruses EXCEPT:
A. Blood A. Parvo virus
B. Urine B. Pox virus
C. Placenta C. Polio virus
D. Cerebrospinal fluid D. Hepatitis B Virus
289. What enzyme possessed by Helicobacter pylori helps 300. Comparing the two, Actinomyces ______ sulfur
to neutralize stomach acid? granules and Nocardia is _______.
A. Coagulase A. Form; Acid-fast
B. Urease B. Form; Not acid-fast
C. Hyaluronidase C. Does not form; Acid-fast
D. DNase D. Does not form; Not acid-fast
290. The technique used to kill all microorganisms is: 301. _____fungi that can exist as a mold as well as yeast.
A. Disinfection A. Hyphae
B. Sterilization B. Tinea pedis
C. Antisepsis C. Dimorphic
D. Pasteurization D. Spore forming
291. Glassware are sterilized by: 302. The viruses that attack bacteria are:
A. Hot air oven A. Bacteriophages
B. Autoclave B. Bacterial viruses
C. Incineration C. Bacterial pathogens
D. Boiling D. Virions
292. ________ CAN NOT be found in the lymph node? 303. Fungal hyphae may be:
A. Lymphoid follicle A. Septate
B. B cells B. Non-septate
C. Red pulp C. Branched
D. T cells D. All of these
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304. Where are target cells of diphtherotoxin located? 315. How are most cases of listeriosis transmitted?
A. The skin A. Insect vectors
B. The skeletal muscles B. Respiratory secretions
C. The lungs C. Transplacental
D. The heart and nervous system D. Contaminated food
305. Fusion of nuclei in fungi is: 316. Which infectious agent is an obligate parasite?
A. Karyogamy A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Progamy B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Microgamy C. Mycobacterium leprae
D. Pregamy D. Clostridium difficile
306. Which of the following is a purine? 317. Which infection can be considered as zoonosis?
A. Adenine A. Anthrax
B. Thymine B. Gas gangrene
C. Uracil C. Diphtheria
D. Cytosin D. leprosy
307. Haemophilus influenzae requires _____________ for 318. Bacterial cells divide by:
growth. A. Budding
A. Hemin B. Binary Fission
B. NAD C. Spores
C. Blood D. Sexual reproduction
D. Both “A” and “B” 319. A classic symptom of pertussis is:
308. What type of vaccine is the anthrax vaccine? A. Diarrhea
A. Attenuated bacteria B. Paroxysmal coughing
B. Toxoid C. Convulsions
C. Killed whole bacterial cells D. Headache
D. Recombinant 320. Complications of typhoid fever are:
309. Tuberculosis is spread by: A. Neurological damage
A. Contaminated fomites B. Intestinal perforation
B. Food C. Liver abscesses
C. Respiratory droplets D. Both “B” and “C”
D. Vectors 321. How are Leptospira species transmitted from their
310. What causes the major symptoms of tetanus? animal reservoirs to humans?
A. Production of tetanospasmin A. Animal bites
B. Multiplication of organisms at the site of infection B. Arthropod vectors
C. Production of botulin toxin C. Contact with urine from an infected animal
D. Superinfection due to antibiotic therapy D. Inhalation
311. Clostridium difficile is associated with: 322. Coliforms are used as indicator organisms of
A. Myonecrosis sewage pollution because ________.
B. Food poisoning A. They are pathogens
C. Antibiotic-induced colitis B. They ferment lactose
D. Gas gangrene C. They are abundant in human intestines
312. Which of the following can swarm on a plate, D. All of the above
making it difficult to distinguish colonies? 323. A patient with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
A. E. coli within 5 hours after eating most likely has:
B. Shigella dysenteriae A. Shigellosis
C. Salmonella typhi B. E. coli gastroenteritis
D. Proteus vulgaris C. Salmonellosis
313. Only one of the followings is characteristic of B-cell D. Intoxication
but not T-cells: 324. The bubo of bubonic plague is a/an:
A. Class I MHC A. Ulcer where the flea bite occurred
B. CD3 B. Granuloma in the skin
C. Polyclonal activation by concanavalin A C. Enlarged lymph node
D. Surface immunoglobulin D. Infected sebaceous gland
314. Robert Koch developed his postulates using _____. 325. Escherichia coli displays which antigens?
A. Bacillus cereus A. Capsular
B. Clostridium tetani B. Flagellar
C. Bacillus anthracis C. Somatic
D. Staphylococcus aureus D. All of these

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326. Cardinal manifestation of human brucellosis is: 337. Primary virulence factor for E. coli is ________.
A. Vomiting and diarrhea A. Inflammatory response
B. A pseudo-membrane in the throat B. cAMP inducing toxin
C. A fluctuating pattern of fever C. Toxin disrupts protein synthesis
D. Peeling of the skin on the palms and soles D. Superantigen
327. Which is not a characteristic of coliform group? 338. Sweat glands produces enzymes like lysozymes,
A. Non-glucose fermenting which is more effective against _________.
B. Lactose fermenting A. Gram Negative Cell Wall
C. Oxidase negative B. Gram Positive Cell Wall
D. Gram negative rods C. Viruses
328. Which one is NOT discovered by Robert Koch? D. Parasites
A. Bacillus anthracis 339. Mycoplasmas attack the _____ of host cells.
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis A. Nucleus
C. Salmonella typhi B. Ribosomes
D. Vibrio cholerae C. Mitochondria
329. What stage of syphilis has disseminating rash, D. Cell membranes
alopecia, lymphadenopathy, & flulike symptoms? 340. Rickettsia and chlamydia are similar in being:
A. Primary syphilis A. Free of a cell wall
B. Secondary syphilis B. The cause of eye infections
C. Tertiary syphilis C. Carried by arthropod vectors
D. Congenital syphilis D. Obligate intracellular bacteria
330. Which one would be unsusceptible to penicillin? 341. What stage(s) of Chlamydia is/are infectious?
A. Leptospira A. Reticulate body
B. Mycoplasma B. Vegetative cell
C. Chlamydia C. Elementary body
D. Rickettsia D. Both “A” and “B”
331. Lyme disease is caused by _____ & spread by _____. 342. Endotoxin is responsible for symptoms caused by
A. Borrelia recurrentis, lice which of the following organisms?
B. Borrelia hermsii, ticks A. Neisseria meningitidis
C. Borrelia burgdorferi, chiggers B. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Borrelia burgdorferi, ticks C. Clostridium. tetani
332. Which of following cells do not have MHC II D. Bacillus anthracis
molecules? 343. Which of the following blood cells function
A. Antibody producing B cells primarily as phagocytes in parasitic infections?
B. Cytotoxic T cells A. Lymphocytes
C. Dendritic cells B. Eosinophils
D. Macrophages C. Basophils
333. Indole test indicates the cleavage of ________. D. Neutrophils
A. Lactose 344. What is characteristic of primary syphilis?
B. Tryptophan A. Painful chancre
C. Glucose B. Painless chancre
D. Tyrosine C. Several painful ulcers in genital region
334. What is the most common human disease? D. Several painless ulcers in genital region
A. Walking pneumonia 345. __________ can recognize MHC I molecules.
B. Strep throat A. B-lymphocyte
C. Tuberculosis B. CD4 + lymphocyte
D. Dental caries C. CD8 + T lymphocytes
335. Which of following is related with Ureaplasma? D. Monocytes
A. Genitourinary tract infection 346. APCs can be all but which of the following?
B. Atypical pneumonia A. B-cells
C. Tracheobronchitis B. Dendritic cells
D. Influenza-like illness C. Macrophages
336. What order do T lymphocytes express CD4/CD8 D. T-helper cells
markers during maturation in the thymus? 347. Light chains and heavy chains are joined by:
A. DN - DP – SP A. Covalent bond
B. DP - DN – SN B. Hydrogen bond
C. SP - DN – DP C. di-sulphide bond
D. All of the above D. ionic bond

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348. Which one of the following is NOT a structural 358. The initial complement component that is bound by
chain in class I MHC? complement-fixing antibodies is:
A. Alpha-1 A. C1q
B. Alpha-2 B. C1s
C. Beta-1 C. C3b
D. Beta-2 D. C5a
349. Complement component C3 can be cleaved by: 359. The _____ immune system uses ____ as well as
A. C3b antigen recognition molecules and the ______
B. C3bBb immune system uses ______ as well as molecules
C. Factor B (e.g. interferons).
D. Factor D A. Adaptive; Phagocytes; Innate; Lymphocytes
350. At what age does thymus reach its maximal size? B. Adaptive; Lymphocytes; Innate; Phagocytes
A. During the first year of life C. Innate; Phagocytes; Adaptive; Lymphocytes
B. Teenage years (puberty) D. Innate; Lymphocytes; Adaptive; Phagocytes
C. Between 40 and 50 years of age 360. Which of the following immune cells uses antibodies
D. After 70 years of age as membrane bound receptors?
351. Which of following mediates an initial response to A. T-helper cell
viral infections by the innate immune system? B. Cytotoxic T-cell
A. Complement components C. B-lymphocyte
B. T and B lymphocytes D. Macrophage
C. Cytokines 361. Which of the complement pathway among various
D. Interferons pathways will activate first?
352. Which one is a messenger that mediates connection A. Classical pathway
between the innate and adaptive immune systems? B. Alternate pathway
A. Complement components C. Lectin pathway
B. T and B lymphocytes D. All act simultaneously
C. Cytokines 362. Which one of the following is NOT usually included
D. Interferons in physical barriers?
353. _______ are resident macrophages present in CNS. A. Sweat glands
A. Kupffer cells B. Salivary glands
B. Alveolar cells C. Meibomian glands
C. Microglial cells D. Lacrimal glands
D. Langerhans 363. Which of the following is NOT lymphoid tissue?
354. If you were a neutrophil recruited to an anaerobic A. Thyroid gland
site to kill such a bacterium, which of the following B. Spleen
substances would you most likely use? C. Lymph node
A. IL-12 D. GALT
B. Nitric oxide 364. Toll-like receptors are proteins on ____________.
C. Cathelicidin A. skin cells that provide barriers to infection
D. Respiratory burst oxidase B. viruses that stimulate immune reactions
355. Which of the following is a “pattern recognition C. phagocytes that recognize foreign molecules
receptor”? D. lymphocytes that damage parasitic worms
A. BCR 365. ___________is NOT produced by phagocytes?
B. Interleukin-1 receptor A. hydroxyl radical
C. Mannose receptor B. superoxide anion
D. Fc receptor C. hydrogen peroxide
356. A molecule that reacts with specific antibody but is D. bradykinin
not immunogenic by itself is called: 366. _______ increases chemotaxis, phagocytosis & blood
A. Carrier coagulation and serves as endogenous pyrogen.
B. Antigen A. Interferon gamma
C. Hapten B. Histamine
D. Immunogen C. Prostaglandin
357. Lymphatic system and blood circulatory can be D. Tumor Necrosis Factor
differentiated by: A. Major Ig present in the human serum is
A. Presence of pumping organ A. IgG
B. Direction of fluid flow B. IgA
C. Both ‘A’ & ‘B’ C. IgE
D. None of these D. IgM

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367. _________________ is an immune regulator of 377. MHC class I is a cell surface molecule present on:
macrophage, B & T cells. A. B cells
A. Interferon Alpha B. all nucleated cells
B. Interferon Beta C. APCs
C. Interferon Gamma D. T cells
D. All of these 378. MHC class II is a cell surface molecule present on:
368. T-cell antigen receptors are distinguished from A. B cells
antibodies by which of the following? B. all nucleated cells
A. TCRs are glycosylated C. APCs
B. TCRs cannot interact with free antigen D. T cells
C. T-Cell receptors bind various cytokines 379. Humoral immunity involves all the following
D. T-Cell receptors bind complement to lyse cells EXCEPT:
369. Which is LEAST likely to be involved in cell- A. Tc cells
mediated immunity? B. B cells
A. Macrophage C. Antibodies
B. Eosinophils D. Plasma cells
C. Antibodies 380. _______ is artificial passive acquired immunity.
D. T-lymphocytes A. γ-globulin injection
370. Which of the following can provide naturally B. Inactivated vaccine
acquired passive immunity for the new born? C. Ingestion of colostrum
A. IgA D. Having infection
B. IgG 381. Antibodies
C. IgE A. are carbohydrates
D. IgM B. are made from α & β chains
371. The major molecules responsible for rejection of C. contain no CHOs
transplant is: D. contain heavy & light chains
A. Cytokine 382. B-lymphocytes are involved in
B. Interferon A. Humoral immunity
C. MHC molecule B. Cell-mediated immunity
D. Antibodies C. Active immunity
372. Self-renew and ability to differentiate into diverse D. Passive immunity
cell types are two capacities of? 383. Hybridoma technique is used for:
A. Pluripotent stem cell A. Monoclonal antibodies
B. Adult stem cell B. Polyclonal antibodies
C. Immature blood cells C. Both “A” and “B”
D. None of these D. None of these
373. Which of the following pathogen can counter 384. Example for cell-mediated immunity is/are:
stomach pH and produce infection in stomach? A. Tuberculin type
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Contact dermatitis
B. Campylobacter jejuni C. Granulomatous
C. Helicobacter pylori D. All of these
D. Salmonella typhi 385. In ______________ repair, first enzyme complex
374. Natural infection will produce__________ acquired removes incorrect bases and second enzyme places
immunity. with correct bases.
A. Natural passive A. Light repair
B. Artificial active B. Back mutation
C. Natural active C. Excision repair
D. Artificial passive D. All of these
375. Interferon is composed of: 386. Antitoxin is used for _____ immunization.
A. Lipids A. Active
B. Lipoprotein B. Passive
C. Glycoprotein C. Both “A” and “B”
D. Nucleic acid D. None of these
376. Delayed type of hypersensitivity is seen in: 387. The cell-mediated immune response is produced by:
A. Penicillin allergy A. B lymphocytes
B. Contact dermatitis B. T lymphocytes
C. Arthus reaction C. B & T lymphocytes
D. Anaphylaxis D. Endothelial cells

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388. Antibodies are: 399. All of the following can be part of innate immune
A. Glycoproteins responses EXCEPT:
B. Secreted by plasma cells A. B-cells
C. Produced in response to Ag B. Alternative pathway of complement system
D. All of these C. Natural killer cells
389. Virus mediated transfer of host DNA from one cell D. Macrophages
to another is known as: 400. The cellular immune response is mediated by:
A. Transduction A. B cells
B. Transformation B. T cell
C. Conjugation C. B & T cells
D. Integration D. Endothelial cells
390. Acquirement and expression genetic material by 401. To influence microbes, mutation must be:
eukaryotic cells from the environment is known as: A. Inheritable
A. Transformation B. Permanent
B. DNA ligase C. Beneficial
C. Transfection D. Both ‘A’ & ‘B’
D. Transduction 402. Which of following features is NOT true for
391. Genes of a pathogen is inserted into a live carrier plasmid?
non-pathogen; recombinant expresses foreign genes: A. It is a circular piece of DNA.
A. Subunit vaccine B. It is required for normal cell function.
B. Killed vaccine C. It is found in bacteria.
C. Trojan horse vaccine D. It can be transferred from cell to cell.
D. Acellular vaccine 403. What is the smallest unit of heredity?
392. Class II MHC proteins are: A. Chromosome
A. Recognized by the CD8 protein B. Gene
B. Used to mark a cell for killing by cytotoxic T-cells C. Codon
C. Used to participate in helper function D. Nucleotide
D. Not able to carry an antigen fragment 404. _____ is ‘general feeling of illness and discomfort’.
393. Active immunity can be induced by: A. Cystitis
A. Toxoids B. Malaise
B. Subclinical infection C. Arthritis
C. Both “A” and “B” D. Lymphopenia
D. Antitoxin 405. Point mutation involves
394. ________is the least abundant Igs in normal adult. A. Deletion
A. IgA B. Insertion
B. IgM C. Duplication
C. IgD D. Change in single base pair
D. IgG. 406. ________ does not have any normal microbiota.
395. Which of following is most resistant to antiseptics? A. Upper respiratory tract
A. Spore B. Ovary
B. Prion C. External genitalia
C. Cyst D. Skin
D. Fungus 407. Salt and sugar preserve food because they:
396. Which of the following is enrichment media? A. Make them acid
A. Selenite F broth B. Produce a hypotonic environment
B. Chocolate media C. Produce a hypertonic environment
C. Egg media D. Deplete nutrients
D. Meat extract media 408. An infant with neonatal meningitis has a positive
397. ________ contains both DNA and RNA? CAMP test, the causative agent is:
A. Plasmids A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Bacteria B. E. coli
C. Prions C. Streptococcus agalactiae
D. Viroids D. Haemophilus
398. Gene mutation occurs at the time of: 409. ___ two hallmarks of the adaptive immune system?
A. DNA repair A. Immediate and Broad
B. DNA replication B. Innate and Short
C. Translation C. Specificity and Memory
D. RNA transcription D. Non-specific and Fast
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410. Which of the following mutations would likely to 421. Those mutations that arise in the absence of known
cause the greatest impact? mutagen are known:
A. Silent A. Induced mutations
B. Missense B. Fused mutations
C. Nonsense C. Spontaneous mutations
D. Inversion D. None of the above
411. X-rays causes mutation by: 422. DNA is copied during a process called:
A. Deletion A. Transformation
B. Transition B. Replication
C. Transversion C. Translation
D. Base substitution D. Transcription
412. All Gram-Negative bacilli have _______? 423. An example/examples of a nonspecific chemical
A. Capsule barrier to infection is/are:
B. Exotoxin A. Unbroken skin
C. Coagulase B. Cilia in respiratory tract
D. Endotoxin C. Lysozyme in saliva
413. ______enzyme of HIV-1 converts RNA to DNA. D. All of these
A. Protease 424. _____is nonspecific host defense related to trachea?
B. Integrase A. Lacrimation
C. Reverse transcriptase B. Ciliary Lining
D. RNase C. Desquamation
414. Leptospira is transmitted (animal to human) by? D. Lactic acid
A. Animal scratch 425. Autoclaving is done in:
B. Contact with urine from infected animal A. Dry air at 121oC and 15 lbs pressure
C. Animal bite B. Steam at 100oC for 30 minutes
D. Arthropod vector C. Steam at 121oC for 30 minutes
415. Which causes food INTOXICATION? D. Dry air at 160 oC for 30 minutes
A. Clostridium tetani 426. Culture media are sterilized by:
B. Staphylococcus aureus A. Autoclaving
C. Streptococcus pyogenes B. β-radiation
D. Salmonella C. Hot air oven
416. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever (CCHF) is D. Tyndallization
transmitted by a vector i.e. __________. 427. pH of Sabouraud dextrose agar is adjusted to:
A. Mosquitoes A. 1-2
B. Ticks B. 4-6
C. Fleas C. 6-8
D. Sand-fly D. 8-10
417. All are correct for Giardia lamblia EXCEPT? 428. Monocytes are ______________ leukocytes that
A. It is transmitted by the fecal oral route. develop into ___________?
B. It has only trophozoite stage. A. granular, phagocytes
C. It can be diagnosed by the string test B. agranular, mast cells
D. It can divide by binary fission. C. agranular, macrophages
418. All are correct for anthrax bacilli EXCEPT? D. granular, T cells
A. They are spore forming. 429. Which of the following is a sterilizing agent?
B. They are non-fastidious. A. Dry heat
C. They produce endotoxin. B. Ether
D. They have polypeptide capsule. C. Ethanol
419. Culture media are commonly sterilized by: D. Chlorohexidine
A. Autoclaving 430. _____________ is included in GALT.
B. β-radiation A. Thymus
C. Hot air oven B. Tonsils
D. Tyndallization C. Peyer’s patches
420. All of the following are functions of IgG EXCEPT: D. Breast lymph nodes
A. Opsonize bacteria 431. _________ is the MOST resistant to antiseptics?
B. Be secreted into mucus A. Spore
C. Activate complement B. Prion
D. Cross the placenta C. Cyst
D. Fungus

Page 20 of 100
432. Which of the following inflammatory signs specifies 442. Which of the followings microorganism is used as
pain? indicator in autoclave?
A. Tumor A. Clostridium tetani
B. Calor B. Bacillus stereothermophilus
C. Dolor C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Rubor D. Clostridium botulinum
433. An example of an exogenous pyrogen is ________. 443. MacConkey agar is an example of:
A. Interleukin-1 A. Enrichment medium
B. Complement B. Selective medium
C. Interferon C. Differential medium
D. Endotoxin D. Both “B” and “C”
434. ______________ is an example of an inflammatory 444. Virus mediated transfer of DNA from one cell to
mediator that stimulates vasodilation. another is known as:
A. Collagen A. Transfection
B. Histamine B. Transduction
C. Complement C5a C. Transformation
D. Interferon D. Transcription
435. ______ is an example of an inflammatory mediator 445. Bacterial may acquire characteristics by all of the
that stimulates chemotaxis. following EXCEPT:
A. Tumor necrosis factor A. Taking up soluble DNA from the environment
B. Serotonin B. Through bacteriophages
C. Granulocyte-colony stimulating factor C. Through conjugation
D. Interleukin-2 D. Incorporating part of host DNA
436. _____interferon, produced by T lymphocytes, 446. The __________ is responsible for antibiotic
activates cells called _____and is involved in resistance is bacteria due to slime production.
destroying viruses. A. Co-aggregation
A. Beta, lymphocytes B. Biofilm formation
B. Gamma, fibroblasts C. Mutation evolving in altered target site for
C. Alpha, natural killer cells antibiotic
D. Beta, fibroblasts D. Mutation evolving a target bypass mechanism
437. Which of the following is the end-product of the 447. Which one statement is correct regarding functions
complement system? of plasmid?
A. Properdin A. Involved in multidrug resistance transfer
B. Cascade reaction B. Imparts capsule formation
C. Membrane attack complex C. Imparts pilli formation
D. Complement factor C9 D. All of the above
438. TNF is NOT involved in the which process? 448. Phage typing is useful as an epidemiological tool in
A. Chemotaxis of phagocytes all, EXCEPT:
B. Fever A. Salmonella
C. The inflammatory response B. Staphylococcus aureus
D. The classic complement pathway C. Vibrio cholerae
439. Which of the following statement is true? D. Shigella dysenteriae
A. Solid media are enrichment media 449. The segment of DNA between chromosomal and
B. Nutrient broth is basal media extrachromosomal DNA molecules within cells are:
C. Agar adds nutrient to media A. Cosmids
D. Chocolate agar is selective media B. Plasmids
440. Choose the correct ones for the decreasing order of C. Transposons
resistance to sterilization: D. Episomes
A. Prions, bacterial spores, bacteria 450. True about bacteriophage is:
B. Bacterial spores, bacteria, Prions A. Can transmit toxin to bacteria
C. Bacteria, Prions, Bacterial spores B. Bacterial which transmits DNA to another bacteria
D. Prions, bacteria, bacterial spores C. Causes transformation of bacteria
441. A signaling molecule from microbes recognized by D. Is a virus which invades bacteria
phagocytes is? 451. Drug resistance transfer by bacteriophage involves:
A. Pyrogen A. Transformation
B. Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns B. Conjugation
C. Complement C. Convocation
D. Lectin D. Transduction

Page 21 of 100
452. S. aureus differs from S. epidermidis by: 462. A person from village is complaining of
A. Is coagulase positive development of pustules. Extract from pus has
B. Forms white colonies shown Gram-positive cocci, showing hemolysis,
C. A common cause of UTI catalase negative, identified as a group of
D. Causes endocarditis of prosthetic valve streptococci. Following test is used:
453. A cook prepared sandwiches for 10 people going A. Bacitracin sensitivity
for picnic. Eight out of them develop sever B. Novobiocin sensitivity
gastroenteritis within 4-6 hrs of consumption of the C. Optochin sensitivity
sandwiches. It is likely that on study the cook is D. Hemolysis test
found to be carrier of: 463. Hot cold phenomenon is seen due to which toxin of
A. Salmonella typhi staphylococci:
B. Entamoeba histolytica A. Alpha hemolysin
C. Vibrio cholerae B. Beta hemolysin
D. Staphylococcus aureus C. Gamma hemolysin
454. Methicillin resistance in S. aureus is due to: D. Theta hemolysin
A. β-lactamase 464. Staphylococcus differ from Streptococcus by:
B. MECA gene A. Coagulase test
C. AMPC gene B. Phosphatase test
D. Porin develop C. Catalase test
455. Acute hematogenous osteomyelitis is commonly D. Gram-negative
caused by: 465. Which of the following statements is correct
A. S. aureus regarding non-coagulase Staphylococci?
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae A. They are non-pathogenic
C. E. coli B. They commonly infect indwelling prosthesis
D. Pneumococcus C. They may cause scarlet fever
456. Staphylococcus aureus remains in the skin for D. They are separated by Gram’s staining
longer period because of: 466. Catalase positive, β-hemolytic Staphylococci is:
A. Catalase A. S. aureus
B. Coagulase B. S. epidermidis
C. DNAase C. S. saprophyticus
D. Hyaluronidase D. Pneumococci
457. Eight months after prosthetic valve replacement, 467. An infant with neonatal meningitis has a positive
which of the following pathogen can cause infective CAMP test, the causative agent is:
endocarditis? A. Staphylococcus aureus
A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococcus agalactiae
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis C. E. coli
C. Streptococcus viridans D. Hemophilus influenzae
D. All of these 468. Most common organism responsible for post-
458. Staphylococcus aureus secretes all, EXCEPT: splenectomy infections include:
A. Lipase A. Streptococcus
B. Cellulose B. Staphylococcus
C. Coagulase C. Pseudomonas
D. Lecithinase D. Influenza Virus
459. Lancefield grouping of streptococci is done using: 469. In a case of neonatal meningitis, pathogen was
A. M protein found to have properties of β-hemolysis, bacitracin
B. Group C carbohydrate antigen resistance, CAMP positive. Which of following is
C. Group C peptidoglycan cell wall most likely causative agent?
D. M antigen A. Streptococcus pyogenes
460. Streptococci causing dental caries: B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
A. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Streptococcus agalactiae
B. Streptococcus mutans D. Enterococcus faecalis
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae 470. A β-hemolytic bacterial isolate is resistant to
D. Streptococcus bovis vancomycin, shows growth in 6.5 % NaCl, is non-
461. Quelling phenomenon is seen in: bile sensitive. It is likely to be:
A. Pneumococcus A. Streptococcus agalactiae
B. Streptococcus B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Staphylococcus C. Streptococcus bovis
D. Hemophilus D. Enterococcus faecalis

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471. Sputum specimen of a 70 years old male culture 481. CSF in meningococcal meningitis shows:
showed α-hemolytic colonies on blood agar. Further A. Gram-positive diplococci, in pus cells
processing of this organism is most likely to yield: B. Gram-negative diplococci, in pus cells
A. Staphylococcus aureus C. Gram-negative bacilli, in pus cells
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Gram-positive bacilli, in pus cells
C. Legionella 482. Regarding gas gangrene one of the following is
D. Streptococcus pyogenes correct:
472. Most common organism causing sore throat: A. It is due to Clostridium botulinum infection.
A. Staphylococcus B. Clostridia are Gram-negative anaerobes
B. Hemophilus C. Clinical features are due to protein endotoxin
C. Bacillus D. Gas is invariable present in muscle compartments
D. Streptococcus 483. Which of the following cause/s of Gas gangrene?
473. Quellung reaction is due to: A. Clostridium novyi
A. Mitochondrial swelling B. Clostridium septicum
B. Capsular swelling C. Clostridium perfringens
C. RBC swelling D. All of the above
D. Cell wall swelling 484. Necrotizing gastrointestinal enteritis is caused by?
474. Griffith demonstrated biotransformation with: A. Clostridium difficile
A. Enterococcus B. Clostridium perfringens
B. Gonococcus C. Clostridium tetani
C. Pneumococcus D. Clostridium botulinum
D. Staphylococcus 485. Nagler’s reaction is shown by:
475. A person has received complete immunization A. Clostridium septicum
against tetanus 10years ago. Now he presents with a B. Clostridium botulinum
clean wound without any lacerations from an injury C. Clostridium perfringens
sustained 2.5 hours ago. He should now be given: D. Clostridium tetani
A. Full course of tetanus toxoid 486. A 10-year old boy following a road traffic accident
B. Single dose of tetanus toxoid presents to the causality with contaminated wound
C. Human tetanus globulin over the left leg. He has received his complete
D. Human tetanus globulin and single dose of toxoid primary immunization before preschool age and
476. All of the following bacteria are most often received a booster of DT at school entry age. All of
associated with acute neonatal meningitis EXCEPT: the following can be done EXCEPT:
A. Escherichia coli A. Injection of tetanus toxoid
B. Streptococcus agalactiae B. Broad spectrum antibiotics
C. Neisseria meningitidis C. Wound debridement and cleaning
D. Listeria monocytogenes D. Injection of human antiserum
477. Which deficiency would cause Neisseria infection? 487. What types of viruses contain the enzyme lysozyme
A. C9 to aid in their infection?
B. C5 A. Bacteriophage
C. C7 B. Animal viruses
D. All of the above C. Plant viruses
478. Differentiation of Neisseria gonorrheae and D. Human viruses
Neisseria meningitidis is by: 488. All are correct regarding Cl. tetani, EXCEPT:
A. Glucose fermentation A. Soil & intestine of human / animals are reservoirs
B. VP reaction B. Predominantly seen in dry and winter season
C. Indole test C. Transmission through contaminated wounds
D. Maltose fermentation D. No heard immunity is seen
479. ______ is catalase positive but coagulase negative. 489. Viruses that can remain latent (usually in neurons)
A. Streptococcus pyogenes for many years are most likely:
B. Staphylococcus aureus A. Togaviruses
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis B. Herpesviruses
D. Enterococci C. Enteroviruses
480. A pus cultured on chocolate agar shows Gram- D. Rhinoviruses
negative cocci, most likely organisms is: 490. The most effective way of preventing tetanus is:
A. Hemophilus A. Surgical debridement and toilet
B. Streptococcus B. hyperbaric oxygen
C. Staphylococcus C. Antibiotics
D. Neisseria D. Tetanus toxoid

Page 23 of 100
491. An 18-year old male presented with acute onset 501. A boy with skin ulcer on leg, culture revealed β-
descending paralysis of 3 days duration. There is hemolysis. School physician said that similar
also a history of blurring of vision for the same hemolysis was seen in organism from sore throat,
duration. Both pupils are non-reactive. The most what is the similarity between both pathogens?
probable diagnosis is: A. Protein-A is same for both
A. Poliomyelitis B. C-carbohydrate antigen is different
B. Botulism C. C-carbohydrate antigen is the same
C. Diphtheria D. Strain causing both are same
D. Porphyria 502. A type of cell culture that can reproduce for an
492. A patient of acute lymphocytic leukemia with fever extended number of generations and is used to
and neutropenia develops diarrhea after amoxicillin support viral replication is a:
therapy, which of the following organism is most A. Primary cell culture
likely to be the causative agent? B. Continuous cell line
A. Salmonella typhi C. Secondary cell culture
B. Clostridium perfringens D. Diploid fibroblast cell
C. Clostridium difficile 503. Bacteriophage are readily counted by process of:
D. Shigella flexneri A. Immunoassays
493. Swarming growth on culture is characteristic of B. ELISA
which Gram-negative organism: C. Tissue culture
A. Clostridium tetani D. Plaque assays
B. Clostridium botulinum 504. Non-motile clostridium is:
C. Bacillus cereus A. Clostridium perfringens
D. Proteus mirabilis B. Clostridium novyi
494. Viruses range in size from C. Clostridium botulinum
A. 1-100 nm D. Clostridium difficile
B. 25-300 nm 505. Which of the following is not an RNA virus?
C. 10-100 μm A. Retrovirus
D. 400-1000 nm B. Enterovirus
495. Structural component that is found in all viruses is: C. Rhabdovirus
A. The envelope D. Adenovirus
B. DNA 506. In name of family Reovirus, word 'reo' refers to:
C. Capsid A. Respiratory enteric orphans
D. Spikes B. Respiratory
496. Chemical component that is found in all viruses is: C. Enteric
A. Protein D. Orphans
B. Lipid 507. Virus that is well known in causing 'latent
C. DNA infection' is:
D. RNA A. Adenovirus
497. A common polyhedral capsid shape of viruses is a: B. Hepatitis B Virus
A. Pentagon C. Influenza virus
B. Cube D. Herpesvirus
C. Icosahedron 508. Which one of the following statements is NOT true
D. Pyramid about viral infections?
498. Which of the following is the cause of smallpox? A. Virus infections are all life threatening
A. Varicella zoster B. number of viruses cause similar symptoms
B. Variola virus C. Virus infection may cause immunosuppression
C. Vaccinia virus D. Some viruses require other viruses for replication
D. Cowpox virus 509. Which one of following viruses is not oncogenic?
499. The following are cell culture types EXCEPT: A. Adenoviruses
A. Semi-continuous B. HSV-2
B. Primary C. HCV
C. Continuous D. EBV
D. Hemagglutination 510. Laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection is usually
500. Enteroviruses differ from rhinoviruses mainly by: made by which of the following:
A. Type of nucleic acid A. Biochemical tests
B. Size B. Growth of virus in chicken embryo
C. Capsid shape C. Detection of antigen and antibodies
D. Ability to survive in acidic conditions D. Light microscopy

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511. What is a primer? 521. An important paramyxovirus of poultry is:
A. A short DNA sequence A. Infectious bursal disease virus
B. A short RNA sequence B. Newcastle disease virus
C. A short sequence of oligonucleotide C. Avian influenza virus
D. A promoter sequence D. Avian leukosis virus
512. Direct viral diagnostic techniques include all of the 522. The surface receptor for HIV is ____on ____ cells.
following EXCEPT: A. MHC, macrophage
A. Electron microscopy B. CD8, T helper
B. Antibodies detection C. CD4, T helper
C. Light microscopy D. CD4, cytotoxic T
D. Viral genome detection 523. For cultivation of FMD virus, foot pad of ________
513. The first step in all virus infection is: (lab animal) is commonly used.
A. Uncoating A. Mouse
B. Migration to nucleus B. Chicken
C. Attachment to cell receptor C. Guinea pig
D. Transcription D. Hamster
514. The first step in virus replication after uncoating of 524. NDV is cultivated via _____ in embryonated Eggs.
the positive-sense, single-stranded RNA viruses is A. Allantoic inoculation
which of the following? B. Yolk sac inoculation
A. Transcription C. Intra-cerebral inoculation
B. Translation D. Chorioallantoic membrane inoculation
C. Genome replication 525. Viral diagnostic techniques include all EXCEPT:
D. Assembly A. Electron microscopy
515. Rubella has the most serious consequences in: B. Antigen detection
A. Children C. Antibodies detection
B. Pregnant Women D. Light microscopy
C. Summer months 526. Transfection is insertion of DNA into ______ cells.
D. Years with heavy rainfall A. Eukaryotic
516. Immunopathology (immune-mediated disease) may B. Bacterial
be involved with a severe form of which of the C. Parasitic
following Flavivirus infections? D. Both “A” and “B”
A. Yellow fever 527. Calculate 4HA units from the following HA results.
B. West Nile A. 128
C. Hepatitis C B. 64
D. Dengue fever C. 32
517. Infectious bursal disease of chickens leads to loss of D. 16
which of the following cell types? 528. Diagnosis of rabies is commonly done by ________.
A. Thymic cells A. Direct Sandwich ELISA
B. B-lymphocytes B. Florescent Antibody Technique
C. Neurons C. Hemagglutination assay
D. Neutrophils D. Hemagglutination inhibition assay
518. Deltavirus infection is always associated with 529. In _____ vaccine, genetic material from a pathogen
coinfection with: is inserted into a live carrier non-pathogen.
A. Hepatitis C A. Subunit
B. Dengue fever B. Acellular
C. Hepatitis B C. Trojan horse
D. Influenza D. Live attenuated
519. Hemagglutination inhibition assay is used for 530. 1% or 0.8% dilution of washed RBCs is prepared
detection of________ in the sample. for use in HA assays by diluting washed RBCs in___.
A. Antigen titer A. Distilled H2O
B. Virus titer B. Double distilled H2O
C. Antibody titer C. Double distilled deionized H2O
D. 4HA titer D. Normal Saline
520. Rabies virus reaches brain and salivary glands via: 531. Calculate antigen titer from following HA results.
A. Blood A. 4
B. Lymph B. 8
C. SQ tissue C. 16
D. Nerves D. 32

Page 25 of 100
532. Cell culture that can reproduce for an extended 543. Regarding MHC-I, which statement is FALSE?
number of generations and is used to support viral A. Ag. presented by MHC-I is recognized by CTL.
replication is: B. It typically processes antigens exogenously.
A. Primary cell culture C. Peptide binding cleft is formed by α 1/α2.
B. Secondary cell culture D. It is present on all nucleated host cells.
C. Continuous cell culture 544. Treatment with ______________ is required for
D. Diploid fibroblast cell culture isolation of viruses from tissues; it precipitates
533. Calculate antibody titer from following HI results. _________ present in the sample.
A. 1024 A. Formalin, lipids
B. 512 B. Chloroform, lipids
C. 256 C. Chloroform, proteins
D. 128 D. Formalin, proteins
534. Cells that use antibodies to recognize their targets: 545. ______ is an example of suspension cell line?
A. CD4+ T cells A. Vero cell line (Monkey Kidney cells)
B. CD8+ T cells B. Hela cell line (Human Cervix cells)
C. Macrophages C. HEK 293 cell line (Human kidney cells)
D. B lymphocytes D. YAC-1 cell line (Mouse Lymphoma cells)
535. B-lymphocytes bind and respond to: 546. Which one of the following is NOT the desired
A. Soluble antigens property for enzyme in ELISA?
B. Virus-infected host cell A. High turnover rate
C. Bacteria B. Readily coupled to proteins
D. Particulate matter C. Resistant to high salt concentration
536. ______ complement pathway/s will activate first. D. Cheap
A. Classical 547. Light chain DOES NOT originate from ____region.
B. Alternative A. Variable
C. Lectin B. Joining
D. All act simultaneously. C. Diversity
537. Sample of choice in Marek’s disease is ________. D. Constant
A. Liver tissue 548. With respect to lymphocyte antigen receptors,
B. Feather follicle which of the following statements is FALSE?
C. Pieces of lymph node A. The pool of lymphocytes can express several
D. Bursa of fabricius million different antigen receptors.
538. In AGPT, precipitation band will appear if: B. A single lymphocyte can express several thousand
A. Antigen antibody reaction is specific antigen receptors.
B. Antigen is soluble C. A single lymphocyte can only recognize a single
C. Conc. of antigen and antibody are optimum antigenic epitope.
D. All of the above D. A single lymphocyte can express several thousand
539. If LD50 is 10-5.6 using 100µl of sample, then what different antigen receptors.
will be the virus titer. 549. Autoclave standards for decontamination of most
A. 10-4.6 microbiological materials is:
B. 10-5.6 A. 100oC at 15 psi for 10 minutes
C. 106.6 B. 121oC at 15 psi for 10 minutes
D. 10-6.6 C. 100oC at 10 psi for 60 minutes
540. Which one of following is CORRECT about T-cell? D. 121oC at 15 psi for 60 minutes
A. Has both MHC-I and MHC-II molecules. 550. Which is true for immunogenicity & antigenicity?
B. Can kill infected host cells. A. An antigenic particle is always immunogenic, but
C. Does not require antigen processing/presentation the reverse is not true.
D. Differentiate into plasma cells B. The terms are synonymous.
541. Stick method of virus inoculation is used for: C. A particle that is immunogenic will trigger an
A. Newcastle disease virus adaptive immune response.
B. Fowl pox virus D. A particle that is antigenic will trigger an adaptive
C. FMD virus immune response.
D. Avian influenza virus 551. Which one of the followings is INCORECT for live
542. A T-cell that has the CD8+ marker can be a: vaccine?
A. Cytotoxic T cell A. Require larger dose / more boosters
B. Natural Killer T cell B. Require special storage (cold chain)
C. Helper T cell C. Can conceivably mutate back to virulent stain
D. T Regulatory cell D. Confer long-lasting protection

Page 26 of 100
552. Acquired immunity is produced by: 562. Biosafety level that includes most common
A. Both B and T lymphocytes laboratory microorganisms & involves organisms
B. Only T lymphocytes such as HBV, Staphylococcus & enteric pathogen is:
C. Neutrophils, dendritic cells and macrophages A. BSL 1
D. Only B lymphocytes B. BSL 2
553. ______ provokes an overwhelming T-cell response. C. BSL 3
A. Autoantigen D. BSL4
B. Autoantigen 563. Which of the following open biological safety
C. Allergen cabinets sterilize both the air entering and leaving
D. Superantigen the cabinet and utilizes a HEPA filter?
554. Indirect protection of unimmunized animals is___. A. Class I
A. Artificial active immunity B. Class II
B. Herd immunity C. Class III
C. Artificial passive immunity D. Class IV
D. Natural active immunity 564. Which of the following hazardous chemicals causes
555. Which of the following statements regarding clonal serious biological effects following inhalation,
selection theory is INCORRECR? ingestion or skin contact with even small amounts?
A. Specificity for Ag of T cells produced is identical A. Corrosive
to the specificity of the TCR on initial T cell. B. Toxic
B. The body is equipped with billions of lymphocytes. C. Carcinogenic
Each is devoted to respond to one specific epitope. D. Ignitable
C. An epitope triggers the production of a number of 565. Bacterial fimbriae present on the outer cell surface
lymphocytes, each with different receptors. are used for:
D. Antigen binding to a TCR triggers proliferation and A. Cellular activity
differentiation of T cells into effector cells. B. Sexual reproduction
556. Which one of the following property is NOT C. Adherence to surfaces
required for vaccine? D. Adherence and exchange of genetic information
A. Should protect against natural exposure 566. An infection that may occur as a result of accidental
B. Should be cheaper. needle sticks or through broken glass is classified as
C. Should have relatively longer shelf life. which of the following routes?
D. Should be less immunogenic A. Direct inoculation
557. In a host, virus-infected host cells are killed by: B. Airborne
A. Activated cytotoxic T lymphocytes C. Ingestion
B. Activated B lymphocytes D. Mucous membrane contact
C. Activated T helper cells 567. What is the total magnification if the eyepiece is
D. Monoclonal antibodies 10X and the objective lens is 40X?
558. The Petroff-Hausser chamber is used for ______. A. 40 times bigger
A. Incubation of culture medium B. 4 times bigger
B. Direct microscopic count C. 14 times bigger
C. Viable count D. 400 times bigger
D. To grow anaerobic bacteria 568. _________ is intended to destroy all microorganism
559. Toxoid injection to protect future tetanus infection and their spores on inanimate surfaces?
is an example of: A. Disinfectant
A. Natural passive immunity B. Sterilizer
B. Artificial active immunity C. Antiseptic
C. Natural active immunity D. Antibiotic
D. Artificial passive immunity 569. What part of the microscope is used to change the
560. ______has the ability induce a malignant tumor. amount of light entering the stage?
A. Toxic A. Eyepiece
B. Carcinogenic B. Nosepiece
C. Corrosive C. Diaphragm
D. Ignitable D. Coarse adjustment knob
561. Secretory component that facilitate to move across 570. _______ is used for microorganism that have no
the mucus membrane is present in: known pathogenic potential like Bacillus subtilis.
A. Ig M A. BSL-I
B. Ig G B. BSL-II
C. Ig A C. BSL-III
D. Ig E D. BSL-IV

Page 27 of 100
571. Membrane filtration method has all the following 581. ____ contains many different species in a sample.
advantages EXCEPT: A. Broth culture
A. More turbid samples can be processed easily. B. Pure culture
B. Results are available in a shorter period of time. C. Mixed culture
C. Larger volumes of sample can be processed. D. Streak plate culture
D. The results are readily reproducible. 582. ______ culture medium is supplemented with
572. _______ is used as chemical germicide used on skin. highly nutritious material such as serum.
A. Disinfectant A. Differential medium
B. Antiseptic B. General purpose medium
C. Sterilizer C. Enrichment medium
D. Moist heat D. Enriched medium
573. _______ causes visible destruction or irreversible 583. Crystal violet agar is an example of _______.
damage to human skin on contact. A. General purpose medium
A. Toxic B. Enriched medium
B. Carcinogenic C. Selective medium
C. Explosive D. Differential medium
D. Corrosive 584. In microbiology lab, mouth pipetting is done for:
574. Any chemical that can burn and includes both A. Dispensing liquid culture medium
combustible and flammable liquids is called _____. B. Dispensing water to wash glass slide
A. Corrosive C. To transfer bacterial culture to fresh medium
B. Toxic D. Strictly prohibited for any use
C. Ignitable 585. The temperature at which the rate of reproduction
D. Explosive is most rapid is known as ___________.
575. ______ are reactive and unstable substances that A. Optimum growth temperature
readily undergo violent chemical changes. B. Minimum growth temperature
A. Toxic C. Maximum growth temperature
B. Corrosive D. None of the above
C. Explosive 586. What will be CFU/ml if colonies per plate = 75,
D. Ignitable Dilution = 10-7 and volume added per plate 0.5ml.
576. What is the purpose of a biosafety cabinet in a A. 1.5 x 107
microbiology laboratory? B. 1.5 x 109
A. To sterilize materials, such as media and glassware C. 1.5 x 108
B. To provide a proper temp. for microbes to grow D. 7.5 x 109
C. To prevent sample from contamination 587. Oldest eukaryotic organisms are considered to be:
D. For long term storage of microbes at low temp. A. Archaea
577. What lab equipment is used to accurately measure B. Diplomonads like Giardia
the volume of liquids? C. Fungi
A. Balance D. Animals
B. Erlenmeyer flask 588. MacConkey agar is an example of:
C. Ruler A. Enriched medium
D. Graduated cylinder B. Selective medium
578. What lab equipment is used to measure the amount C. Differential medium
of matter in an object? D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’
A. Balance 589. Petri dish/plate is commonly labeled:
B. Graduated cylinder A. On the bottom-side of plate
C. Thermometer B. On the top of plate
D. Autoclave C. On the side of plate
579. ____ is used to culture microbes at a specific temp. D. On the inside of plate
A. Incubator 590. Isolation of pure culture refers to ________.
B. Autoclave A. Purification of culture
C. Hot air oven B. Separation of a single colony
D. Desiccator C. Introduction of inoculum
580. ____ is an example of indicator coliform bacterial D. To grow microorganism on a surface
species used to check quality of drinking water. 591. Salmonella from fecal sample is isolated using:
A. Staphylococcus aureus A. Crowded-plate technique
B. Escherichia coli B. Pour plate technique
C. Salmonella typhimurium C. Enrichment culture technique
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Gradient-plate technique

Page 28 of 100
592. _______is best used for long term storage of 601. 20 grams of food sample are mixed with 180 ml of
microbial samples when carried out properly? water. What will be the dilution?
A. storage in a freezer A. 10-2
B. storage in a refrigerator on an agar slant B. 10-1
C. storage on a petri plate at room temperature C. 10-3
D. storage in a freezer at ultra-low temperatures D. 10-4
593. Which of the following method is used for viable 602. Which were the scientist lived at the same time?
count of a culture? A. Koch and Pasteur
A. Plate-count method B. Darwin and Woese
B. Membrane-filter count C. Van Leeuenhoek and Ricketts
C. Plate-count method and membrane-filter count D. Berg and Hooke
D. Direct microscopic count 603. The feature of the archaea that distinguishes them
594. Soil microbes serially degrade nitrogenous organic from the bacteria is:
compounds derived from dead plants and animals to A. Habitats which are extreme environments
coverts them finally into NH3, the process is ____. B. Absence of a nuclear membrane
A. Denitrification C. Presence of a cell wall
B. Nitrogen fixation D. Cytoplasmic ribosomes that are 70S
C. Nitrification 604. Gram staining was introduced by:
D. Ammonification A. Christian Gram
595. The process of killing all microorganisms along B. Alfred Gram
with their spores is ________. C. Robert Cooke
A. Sterilization D. Louis Pasteur
B. Sanitization 605. Which of the following is considered the most
C. Disinfection unifying concept in biology?
D. Antisepsis A. Taxonomy
596. Antimicrobial activity of a NEW compound is B. Anatomy
checked against all the bacteria EXCEPT: C. Genetics
A. Staphylococcus aureus D. Evolution
B. Salmonella typhimurium 606. Various bacterial species can be subdivided into:
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa A. Subspecies
D. Escherichia coli B. Bio-varieties
597. ______ technique is used for isolation of antibiotic- C. Sero-varieties
producing microorganism from soil samples. D. All of these
A. Enrichment culture 607. A characteristic of protein synthesis in both the
B. Pour plate archaea and eukarya is:
C. Crowded-plate A. Transcription and translation are coupled
D. Streak plate B. Translation is inhibited by diphtheria toxin
598. All of followings are the sugars used in Triple sugar C. Proteins are synthesized from D-, rather than L-,
iron test to check their fermentation EXCEPT: isomers of amino acids
A. Sucrose D. The initiator tRNA is charged with N-formyl-
B. Glucose methionine
C. Lactose 608. All of the following are features of prokaryotes
D. Dextrose EXCEPT:
599. Triple sugar iron test can be used for all EXCEPT: A. Nitrogen fixation
A. To differentiate b/w fermentation of lactose and B. Photosynthesis
sucrose C. Sexual reproduction
B. To observe H2S production D. Locomotion
C. To observe gas production from glucose 609. The virulence of _____ is linked to its cell wall, an
fermentation exotoxin (PLD) and a protective antigen (CP40).
D. To differentiate b/w fermentation of glucose and A. Mycobacterium
lactose B. Campylobacter
600. Which of the following may account for the small C. Brucella
size of the cells? D. Corynebacterium
A. The rate of diffusion 610. E. coli O157:H7 is an example of:
B. The surface area/volume ratio A. Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)
C. The number of mRNAs that can be produced by the B. Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)
nucleus C. Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)
D. All of the above D. Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)

Page 29 of 100
611. Genetic and biochemical similarities between 620. Which of the following is opportunistic pathogen?
contemporary cyanobacteria and eukaryotic A. Salmonella Typhimurium
chloroplasts are accepted to mean that: B. Escherichia coli
A. Eukaryotes evolved from bacteria C. Proteus mirabilis
B. Eukaryotes evolved from archaea D. Yersinia pestis
C. Oxygenic photosynthesis first evolved in 621. If result of TSI test show, Red/Yellow with bubbles
eukaryotes and black precipitate, what is your interpretation?
D. Cyanobacteria arose from chloroplasts which A. Glucose fermentation and H2S production
escaped from plant cells B. Lactose fermentation with gas and H2S production
612. Staph. aureus differs from S. epidermidis by: C. Glucose fermentation with gas and H2S production
A. Is coagulase positive D. Glucose fermentation and H2S production
B. Forms white colonies 622. Which one of these is extremely resistant to
C. A common cause of UTI antibiotics and disinfectants?
D. Causes endocarditis of prosthetic valve A. Bacillus anthracis
613. A cook prepares snacks from 10 people going for a B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
picnic. 08 out of them develop severe gastroenteritis C. Clostridium tetani
within 4-6 hours of consumption of snacks. It is D. Salmonella Typhimurium
likely that on investigations cook is found to be 623. Which one of these is NOT correct about B. mallei?
carrier of: A. B. mallei can grow at 42oC
A. Salmonella typhi B. B. mallei is non-motile
B. Vibrio cholerae C. B. mallei is non-hemolytic
C. E. coli D. B. mallei can ferment glucose
D. Staphylococcus aureus 624. B. mallei is classified as Category B bioterrorist
614. Ahmad comes from dinner, he complained about agent because:
diarrhea, vomiting after 4 hours of meal. Most likely A. It causes chronic disease in equines
causative agent: B. It presents as nasal, and cutaneous forms
A. Salmonella typhi C. Disease leads to formation of nodules on the skin
B. Vibrio cholerae D. Infection by inhalation requires small number of
C. E. coli pathogens
D. Staphylococcus aureus 625. Infection with _________ can lead to abortion in
615. _______ is capsulated and shows positive Negler’s pregnant women & can be life-threatening in
reaction due to presence of α-toxin. neonates, elderly and immunocompromised patients.
A. Clostridium tetani A. Clostridium tetani
B. Clostridium botulinum B. Burkholderia mallei
C. Clostridium perfringens C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Clostridium difficile D. Mycoplasma mycoides
616. Giemsa-stained blood smear with bipolar-staining 626. Lumpy jaw disease with yellowish ‘sulfur granules’
pathogens indicates involvement of: is caused by:
A. Bacillus anthracis A. Actinomyces bovis
B. Pasteurella multocida B. Borrelia anserina
C. Brucella abortus C. Actinobacillus lignieresii
D. Mycobacterium bovis D. Mycoplasma bovis
617. Primary differences between cilia and flagella are: 627. Which of the followings is NOT a predisposing
A. Arrangement of microtubules factor for enterotoxaemia in elder sheep?
B. Length and location of basal bodies A. Incomplete establishment of normal microbiota
C. Number, length and direction of force B. Abrupt change to a rich diet
D. How the microtubules are fused to each other? C. Gorging on energy-rich diet
618. All Gram-Negative bacilli have _______? D. Intestinal hypomotility
A. Capsule 628. ______ is used to determine glucose fermentation.
B. Endotoxin A. Voges Proskauer test
C. Exotoxin B. TSI test
D. Coagulase C. Catalase test
619. Causative agent of lockjaw disease is hemolytic on D. Coagulase test
blood agar due to the production of __________. 629. Zoonotic cases of TB are usually associated with?
A. tetanolysin A. Mycobacterium bovis
B. tetanospasmin B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. endotoxin C. Mycobacterium avium
D. beta-hemolysin D. Mycobacterium caprae

Page 30 of 100
630. Causative agent of bovine reproductive disease is? 641. Dermatophytosis in human is caused by __________
A. Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus contracted from infected cats.
B. Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis A. Microsporum capri
C. Campylobacter coli B. Trychophyton canis
D. Campylobacter jejuni C. Microsporum canis
631. All are correct for anthrax bacilli EXCEPT? D. Epidermyphyton canis
A. They produce endotoxin. 642. Which of the following is NOT a SEROLOGICAL
B. They are spore forming. test used for diagnosis of bovine brucellosis?
C. They have polypeptide capsule. A. Rose-Bengal plate test
D. They produce non-hemolytic colonies. B. Polymerase chain reaction
632. Shiga toxin is a form of? C. Brucella milk ring test
A. Exotoxin D. Complement fixation test
B. Endotoxin 643. Wooden tongue or timber tongue with history of
C. Neurotoxin grazing rough pasture indicates the infection by:
D. Exfoliative toxin A. Borrelia anserina
633. Which of the following drug is NOT used to treat B. Actinomyces bovis
dermatophytosis (fungal disease) in cats and dogs? C. Actinobacillus lignieresii
A. Itraconazole D. Mycoplasma bovis
B. Ciprofloxacin 644. Fungi can cause disease by:
C. Fluconazole A. Tissue invasion
D. Terbinafine B. Toxin production
634. Which of the following is NOT the characteristic of C. Induction of hypersensitivity
all members of Enterobacteriaceae? D. All of these
A. Motile 645. Virulence factor/s of C. neoformans include?
B. Gram-negative A. Capsule
C. Catalase positive B. Ability to grow at mammalian body temp.
D. Facultative anaerobes C. Production of phenol oxidase
635. Borrelia burgdorferi is transmitted by: D. All of these
A. Ixodes 646. All are bounded by a cell wall EXCEPT?
B. Aedes A. Actinomyces bovis
C. Anapholes B. Mycobacterium bovis
D. Argus C. Mycoplasma bovis
636. Addition of glycerol in the culture medium D. Borrelia anserina
enhances the growth of: 647. Gas gangrene causing bacillus is:
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis A. Facultative anaerobe
B. Mycobacterium avium B. Microaerophilic
C. Mycobacterium bovis C. Obligate anaerobe
D. Both ‘A’ & ‘B’ D. Obligate aerobe
637. Which causes food INTOXICATION? 648. Leptospira is transmitted (animal to human) by?
A. Clostridium botulinum A. Animal scratch
B. Clostridium tetani B. Contact with urine from infected animal
C. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Animal bite
D. Salmonella Typhimurium D. Arthropod vector
638. Colonies of __________ give egg-fried appearance. 649. Zearalenone (mycotoxin) is produced by:
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae A. Aspergillus species
B. Bacillus anthracis B. Fusarium species
C. Mycobacterium bovis C. Penicillium species
D. Mycoplasma bovis D. Claviceps species
639. Fowl typhoid is caused by: 650. Example of anaerobic medium is
A. Salmonella Typhimurium A. Robertson cooked-meat medium
B. Salmonella Pullorum B. Sabouraud dextrose agar
C. Salmonella Gallinarum C. MacConkey agar
D. Salmonella Enteritidis D. Mannitol salt agar
640. _____ is a property of Listeria monocytogenes 651. MacConkey agar is an example of?
A. It is an extracellular pathogen A. General purpose medium
B. It can grow at refrigerator temperatures (4°C) B. Enrichment medium
C. It is non-motile C. Differential medium
D. After Gram-staining, it exhibits G+ large bacilli D. Enriched medium

Page 31 of 100
652. Which of the following is the most commonly 661. The O antigen used to help characterize members of
affected non-pulmonary site by Mycoplasma? Enterobacteriaceae are found on:
A. Meningitis A. Capsules
B. Prosthetic heart valve B. Endotoxins
C. Septic arthritis C. Exotoxins
D. Urethritis D. Flagella
653. Which of the following is the current preferred 662. The most frequent source of L. monocytogenes
antimicrobial treatment of cutaneous anthrax? infection is through which of the following?
A. Aminoglycosides A. Human feces
B. Ciprofloxacin B. Soil
C. Penicillin C. Raw milk
D. Tetracycline D. Ticks
654. Bacillus anthracis is unique to other bacteria. It is 663. The ability of the Neisseria meningitidis to colonize
the only bacteria to possess which of the following? the respiratory mucosa is associated with its ability
A. An endotoxin to synthesize:
B. A polypeptide capsule A. Coagulase
C. A polysaccharide capsule B. Collagenase
D. Teichoic acid in its outer cell wall C. Lipases
655. Which of the following diseases could also be D. Pilli
transmitted by ticks? 664. UTI as a result of Proteus mirabilis facilitates the
A. Q fever formation of kidney stones because the organism
B. Leptospirosis does which of the following?
C. Ehrlichiosis A. Destroys blood vessels in the kidney
D. Yellow fever B. Exhibits ‘swarming’ motility
656. Which of the following are the special laboratory C. Ferments many sugars
conditions needed to recover C. jejuni? D. Produces a potent urease
A. 98.6 oF (37 oC) aerobic blood agar plates 665. A woman is noted to have pyelonephritis with
B. 98.6 oF (37 oC) anaerobic blood agar plates shaking chills and fever. Blood cultures are obtained
C. 107.6 oF (42 oC) microaerophilic Skirrow medium and the Gram-negative is read preliminary as
D. 107.6 oF (42 oC) anaerobic Skirrow medium consistent with Proteus species. Which of the
657. Testing of blood culture revealed Gram-positive following bacteria also may be the etiology?
cocci, vancomycin-resistant, PYR-positive and the A. Escherichia coli
presence of Lancefield group D antigen. Which of B. Group B Streptococcus
the following is the most likely isolate identification? C. Staphylococcus aureus
A. Enterococcus faecalis D. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Staphylococcus aureus 666. A man is diagnosed with meningitis. CSF grows out
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae Gram-positive diplococci. This is most likely to be:
D. Streptococcus agalactiae A. Neisseria meningitidis
658. Verotoxin producing E. coli O157:H7 serotype B. Staphylococcus aureus
belongs to which group? C. Salmonella typhi
A. Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC) D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Enterhemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC) 667. Which of the following viral families is known to
C. Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC) be causally associated with tumor formation?
D. Enterotocigenic E. coli (ETEC) A. Flavivirus
659. Which of the following is a key typical B. Papovavirus
characteristic of H. pylori as compared to C. Paramyxovirus
Campylobacter species? D. Polyoma virus
A. Coagulase production 668. In which of the following sites is Salmonella typhi
B. Catalase production most likely to be found during the carrier state?
C. Urease production A. Blood
D. Curved shape B. Gallbladder
660. A 4-year-old has fever and diarrhea. Blood culture C. Kidney
grows a Gram-negative rod. This is most likely to be D. Lungs
which of the following? 669. Which of the following is mismatched?
A. Group B Streptococcus A. Halophilic – Salmonella typhi
B. Listeria species B. Severe dehydration – Vibrio choleae
C. Salmonella species C. Multi-drug resistance – Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Neisseria species D. Coagulase positive – Staphylococcus aureus

Page 32 of 100
670. A 12-hour-old newborn has a temperature of 679. The primary pathologic effect of polio viral
103oF. Blood culture grows Gram-positive cocci in infection is a result of which of the following?
chains. This is most likely to be: A. Destruction of infected cells
A. Group A Streptococcus (S. pyogenes) B. Persistent viremia
B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Immune complex formation
C. Neisseria meningitidis D. Aseptic meningitis
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis 680. Which of the following statements best describes an
671. _________ is primary factor of S. pneumoniae? advantage of the oral polio vaccine when compared
A. Pilli to inactivated polio vaccine?
B. Polypeptide capsule A. It can be given to immunocompromised patients.
C. Polysaccharide capsule B. It is not associated with vaccine-related cases of
D. Coagulase poliomyelitis.
672. Virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus include C. It induces local intestinal immunity.
all of the following EXCEPT: D. It is easily administered as a series of multiple
A. Coagulase injections.
B. Enterotoxin 681. Which of the following paramyxoviruses lacks an
C. Protein A envelope viral attachment protein with HA activity?
D. M protein A. Parainfluenza virus
673. Short incubation food poisoning caused by B. Mumps virus
ingestion of preformed enterotoxin, is caused by: C. Measles virus
A. Staphylococcus aureus D. Respiratory syncytial virus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis 682. Escherichia coli differs from Klebsiella by:
C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus A. Gram- negative
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Motile
674. A nurse experienced a needle stick injury. The C. Non- sporogenous
patient used illicit intravenous drugs. One month D. Non lactose fermenting
later, nurse develops jaundice. Which of following 683. Which of the following morphological structures is
findings would implicate hepatitis B as the etiology? not associated with Candida albicans?
A. Positive anti-hepatitis B surface antibody A. Yeast
B. Positive anti-hepatitis B-core antibody B. Hyphae
C. Positive hepatitis B surface antigen C. Pseudohyphae
D. Positive anti-hepatitis A antibody D. Sporangium
675. A man tests positive for HCV infection. Which of 684. A definitive diagnosis of ascariasis can be made by
following is the most likely method of transmission? observing which of the following?
A. Fecal-oral A. An eosinophilia in a differential WBC count
B. Fomite B. Motile larvae in a stool sample
C. Intravenous drug (needles) C. Larvae in radiography of lungs
D. Sexual transmission D. An adult worm passed during a bowl movement
676. In an HIV-1 patient, which of following is the most 685. An examination of sputum for a suspected case of
predictive of the patient’s prognosis? fungal infection may reveal hyphae in which?
A. Degree of lymphadenopathy A. Aspergillosis
B. CD4+:CD8+ cell ratio B. Cryptococcosis
C. Level of HIV-1 RNA in plasma C. Histoplasmosis
D. Rate of decline in anti-HIV antibody D. Paracoccidioidomycosis
677. Which of the following is the pathogen responsible 686. An immunocompromised woman is diagnosed as
for blindness in advanced HIV infection? having meningitis. A latex agglutination test on the
A. Cytomegalovirus CSF for capsular polysaccharide antigen is positive.
B. Candida albicans Which of the following is the most likely the cause?
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis A. Aspergillus fumigatus
D. Neisseria meningitidis B. Cryptococcus neoformans
678. A seconds-year MPhil student is researching the C. Toxoplasma gondii
role of HPV in causing cancer. Which of the D. Nocoradia asteroides
following types of cancer is HPV most commonly 687. Ascariasis is most effectively treated with which of
associated with? the following drugs?
A. Anogenital A. Mebendazole
B. Breast B. Metronidazole
C. Lung C. Penicillin
D. Prostate D. Niclosamide

Page 33 of 100
688. A woman has chronic diarrhea. Identification of 698. Antigen becomes more potent because of:
which of the following stages of the organism would A. Increased number of epitopes
provide evidence for cryptosporidiosis? B. Larger antigen determinants
A. Cyst C. Repetitive occurrence of antigenic determinants
B. Oocyst D. None of the above
C. Merozoites 699. Fungus is cultured on:
D. Egg A. Nutrient broth
689. Which of the following is a host in the life cycle of B. Nutrient agar
all trematodes that infect humans? C. MaConkey medium
A. Flea D. Sabouraud agar
B. Mosquito 700. After overnight incubation, the lowest concentration
C. Snail of the drug that restricts the growth of bacterium
D. Sand fly inoculated is called:
690. If 35 colonies were counted on a 10-2 dilution plate A. Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
inoculated with a loop calibrated to deliver 0.01 ml B. Minimum bacterial concentration (MBC)
of urine, what will be the bacteria/ml in the urine? C. Lf dose
A. 35,000 D. LD50
B. 350,000 701. The commonest infectious viral disease of man is:
C. 3,500 A. Rabies
D. 350 B. Chicken pox
691. What will be your result interpretation, if MPN C. Measles
results shows 0,1,3 after presumptive test? D. Common cold
A. Water is potable 702. Chemical contaminants in water can lead to
B. Error in collecting water sample teratogenicity, which can be defined as:
C. Dilution of media is incorrect A. Ability to cause abortion in pregnant women
D. Water is not polluted with E. coli B. Ability to cause heritable changes in DNA
692. Ability to ferment ____ is used to detect coliforms? C. Ability to cause cancerous growth
A. Lactose D. Ability to cause abnormalities in developing fetus
B. Glucose 703. The therapy for genetic disorders which is aimed at
C. Mannitol mutant gene, to replace it with normal function gene
D. Dextrose by use of DNA/RNA tumor viruses is known as:
693. Ames test general requires addition of ____ to make A. Active Immunotherpy
bacterial system comparable to mammalian system. B. Genetic counseling
A. Liver homogenate C. Gene therapy
B. Kidney homogenate D. Interferon therapy
C. Spleen homogenate 704. Intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies are seen for:
D. Blood homogenate A. Echovirus
694. Acid fastness of tubercle bacilli is attributed to: B. Rabies virus
A. A. Presence of mycolic acid C. Cytomegalovirus
B. Integrity of cell wall D. Influenza virus
C. Both of above 705. Transformation is defined as:
D. Cell Membrane
A. Transfer of DNA into bacterium
695. The majority of non-immunized patients infected
B. Infection of bacterium with phage
with poliovirus would be expected to experience
C. Transfer of phage from one bacterium to another
which of the following symptoms?
D. Transfer of DNA to mammalian cell
A. Flaccid paralysis of ≥1 extremities
706. The total number of viable bacteria present in a
B. Aseptic meningitis
sample is better determined by:
C. Muscle spasms and pain
A. Direct microscopic count
D. Asymptomatic infection
B. Colony count or pore plate method
696. _____ protect pneumococci against phagocytosis.
C. Photometeric measurement of turbidity
A. Haemolysin
D. Agglutination with specific antiserum
B. Hyaluronidase
707. The organisms which are devoid of their own
C. Necrotizing toxin
metabolic system and obtain energy from the host
D. Capsular polysaccharides
cell are called:
697. Routine sugar bacterial culture medium contain:
A. Autotrophs
A. 2 % sugar
B. Hypotrophs
B. 0.5 -1 % sugar
C. Heterotrophs
C. 0.1 – 0.5 % sugar
D. L-forms
D. <0.1 % sugar
Page 34 of 100
708. Which of the following antibiotic dose not act on cell 718. Killed vaccines are characterized by all of the
membrane? following EXCEPT:
A. Colistin A. Less immunogenic
B. Polymyxin B. Protection lasts for a short period
C. Nystatin C. Repeated doses (booster) required
D. Chloromycetin D. Are given by injection only
709. ‘Epitopes’ is the: 719. The correct match is:
A. Effective number of reacting sites on the antigen A. Small pox : Guarnieri bodies
B. Precipitate formed when both antigen and antibody B. Streptococcus : Quellung reaction
react in appropriate proportions C. Corynebacterium : Paul Bunnel test
C. Distinct combining sites on the surface of a given D. Vibrio : Schick test
antigen which is responsible for the specificity of 720. The following penicillins are penicillinase resistant
the immune response EXCEPT:
D. Three dimensional lattice structures formed by A. Methicillin
antigen antibody reaction B. Ampicillin
710. Number of domains in IgM is: C. Oxacillin
A. Four D. Cloxacillin
B. Tow 721. Carbol fuchsin (used for Zeihl Neelsen staining)
C. One consists of all the following EXCEPT:
D. Five A. Basic fuchsin
711. The immunoglobulin which can cross placenta is: B. Absolute alcohol
A. IgG C. Formaldehyde
B. IgM D. Aqueous phenol
C. IgA 722. “Step-wise” mutation for drug resistance is seen
D. IgD with:
712. 1 definite host and 2 intermediate hosts are seen in: A. Penicillin
A. Schistosoma haematobium B. Strepromycin
B. Diphyllobothrium latum C. Garamycin
C. Echinococcus D. Kanamycin.
D. Ascariasis 723. Blood groups were first discovered by:
713. Which of the following can be prevented by filtering A. Landsteiner
water? B. Richet
A. Tapeworm C. Metchnikoff
B. Roudworm D. Jenner
C. Pinworm 724. Which of the following, regarding acid-fastness of
D. Guineaworm the two Mycobacteria is true?
714. Cutaneous larva migrant is caused by: A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is more acid-fast than
A. Ankylostoma braziliensis Mycobacterium leprae
B. Ankylostoma duodenale B. Mycobacterium leprae is more acid-fast than
C. Toxocara canis Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Toxoplasma gondii C. Bothe are equally acid-fast
715. Which of the following crosses placenta? D. Both are acid-fast but not acid-alcohol-fast
A. Malarial parasite 725. Bacterial resistance to antibiotics is transmitted by:
B. Tuberculosis A. Transduction
C. Toxoplasmosis B. Transformation
D. Amoebiasis C. Mutation
716. The best route of administering Anti-lymphocytic D. Plasmids
globulin is: 726. Ramsay Hunt Syndrome is caused by:
A. Oral A. Virus
B. S/C B. Bacteria
C. I/M C. Chlamydia
D. I/V D. Fungus
717. All of the following human interferons are mainly 727. Which of the following virus has double stranded
induced by viral infections except: RNA?
A. Alpha A. Hepatitis A
B. Beta B. Hepatiris B
C. Gamma C. Polio
D. Delta D. Reovirus

Page 35 of 100
728. In electron microscope, wavelength of electrons is: 739. Albert’s stain (used for metachromatic granules
A. 0.005 nm staining) consists of all of the following except:
B. 0.005 μ A. Toludine blue
C. 0.5 μ B. Carbol fuchsin
D. 0.05 nm C. Malachite green
729. Gram positive bacteria are characterized by all of D. Acetic acid
the following EXCEPT: 740. The cell wall of bacteria can be visualized by all of
A. Thicker the following EXCEPT:
B. Absent lipids A. Azure II staining
C. Absent Teichoic acid B. Silver impregnation technique
D. Absence of aromatic amino acids C. Ultraviolet microscopy
730. Organelles with hydrolytic enzymes are: D. Electron microscopy
A. Mitochondria 741. Gram positive bacteria are more susceptible to all of
B. Lysosomes the following EXCEPT:
C. Golgi bodies A. Sulfas and penicillin
D. Ribosomes B. Basic dyes
731. Mesosomes are: C. Anionic detergents
A. A kind of Ribosome D. None of the above
B. A part of cell wall 742. Which of the following is not absent in prokaryotes?
C. Formed during cell lysis A. Mitochondria
D. Principle sites of respiratory enzymes B. Nucleolus
732. BSE was first reported from: C. Muramic acid
A. France D. Sterols
B. Canada 743. Genotypic variations are not:
C. United Kingdom A. Stable
D. Pakistan B. Heritable
733. COFAL test is used for the diagnosis of: C. Influenced by environment
A. Equine infectious anemia D. Not influenced by environment
B. AIDS 744. The fungi which do not a sexual stage are called:
C. Avian leukosis A. Phycomycetes
D. Bovine leukosis B. Ascomycetes
734. The following retroviruses produce tumors, C. Basidiomycetes
EXCEPT: D. Fungi imperfecti
A. Caprine arthritis encephalitis virus 745. The counter stain used in Zeihl Neelsen staining is:
B. Bovine leukemia virus A. Carbol fuchsin
C. Avian leukosis virus B. Gentian violet
D. Feline leukemia virus C. Gram’s iodine
735. Predilection site for parvovirus is D. Loeffler’s methylene blue
A. Bone marrow 746. Hepatitis A virus is:
B. Enteric epithelium A. Double stranded DNA
C. Fetus B. Single stranded DNA
D. All the above C. Double stranded RNA
736. Following Immunoglobulin classes manifest D. Single stranded RNA
antiviral activity except: 747. Staphylococcus bacteria are:
A. Ig M A. Chemosynthetic autotrophs
B. Ig G B. Photosynthetic autotrophs
C. Ig A C. Chemosynthetic heterotrophs
D. Ig E and Ig D D. Photosynthetic heterotrophs
737. Term vaccine was coined by: 748. Viruses come under the category:
A. Robert Koch A. Autotrophs
B. Louis Pasteur B. Hypotrophs
C. Needham C. Heterotrophs
D. F. Redi D. L-forms
738. The following bacteria have a single curve 749. Rhinovirus has:
A. Borrelia A. Double stranded DNA
B. Vibrio B. Single stranded DNA
C. Treponema C. Double stranded RNA
D. Pasteurella D. Single stranded RNA

Page 36 of 100
750. For Staphylococcus, _________ is essential. 761. In Albert’s staining, the volutin granules are stained
A. Glutamic acid _______ against a _______ background:
B. Tryptophan A. Bluish black, green
C. Valine B. Pink, green
D. Folic acid C. Green, black
751. Rubber catheters are best sterilized by: D. Bluish, purple
A. Formalin vapor 762. ________ %age of ethanol is used for disinfection.
B. Glutaraldehyde A. 30
C. Gamma radiation B. 70
D. Autoclaving C. 80
752. Which of the following is highly sensitive to heat? D. 90
A. Staphylococcus 763. Most effective practical way of sterilization is:
B. Pseudomonas A. Boiling
C. Clostridia B. Autoclaving
D. Treponema C. Alpha rays
753. Soiled dressings are destroyed by: D. Gamma rays
A. Hot air oven 764. Due to acidic nature of their protoplasm, bacteria
B. Autoclaving have affinity for:
C. Boiling A. Basic dyes
D. Incineration B. Acidic dyes
754. Spores of which of the following are used as a C. Neutral dyes
microbiological test of dry heat efficiency: D. All of the above
A. Toxigenic strains of E. coli 765. ______________ does not stimulate phagocytes.
B. Toxigenic strains of Clostridium tetani A. Cytokines
C. Non-toxigenic strains of Clostridium tetani B. C3b
D. Non-toxigenic strains of Proteus C. Histamine
755. The following is the direct stain for capsule: D. γ-IFN
A. Fleming’s Nigrosin method 766. Immunogenicity of an antigen is related with
B. Dry India ink film method A. Foreignness
C. Welch method B. Chemical nature
D. Both “A” and “B” C. Immune response
756. The major mechanism of the lethal effect of UV D. None of these
light on bacteria is attributed to its effect on: 767. Helper T cell does not activate
A. Ribosome A. B-cells
B. Lysosome B. Macrophages
C. Mesosome C. T-cytotoxic cells
D. DNA D. Mast cells
757. Koch’s old tuberculin is preserved in: 768. _________ is NOT sign of inflammation?
A. 70% formalin A. Sweating
B. 50% glycerine B. Pain
C. 2% phenol C. Swelling
D. Absolute alcohol D. Redness
758. “Turbidity test” for milk is used to detect its: 769. Natural transfer of Igs from mother to fetus is
A. Pasteurization A. Active immunity
B. Sterilization B. Passive immunity
C. Contamination C. Non-specific
D. Lactobacillus contents D. Artificial immunity
759. Microorganisms can be phagocytosed after 770. The most common antibody in the serum is
A. Opsonization A. IgA
B. Hydrolysis B. IgD
C. Cytolysis C. IgM
D. Ingestion D. IgG
760. The colors of acid fast and non-acid fast bacteria 771. Which of the following is not involved in non-
are respectively: specific defense?
A. Blue, red A. Lacrimal apparatus
B. Red, blue B. Sweat gland
C. Red, black C. Mucus
D. Black, purple D. IgM

Page 37 of 100
772. According to clonal deletion theory, self-reacting 783. The following are characteristics of Pseudomonas
lymphoid cells become aeruginosa EXCEPT:
A. Normal A. Produce pigment
B. Destroyed B. Obligate anaerobe
C. Amplified C. Produce local suppurative lesions
D. Activated D. Spore forming and capsulated
773. Which one of the following is not related to 784. The following antibodies CANNOT cross placenta
Hypersensitivity Type I? EXCEPT:
A. Histamine A. IgA
B. Prostaglandins B. IgD
C. Perforins C. IgM
D. Leukotrienes D. IgG
774. _________ is NOT related with Antigens? 785. All of the following are true about interferons
A. Epitopes EXCEPT:
B. Globulins A. Virus specific
C. Hapten B. Antiviral
D. Lipoproteins C. Host cell specific
775. IgM antibodies has been found to occur in D. Class of proteins
A. Pentamer 786. The following statements regarding varicella and
B. Monomer zoster are true EXCEPT ONE:
C. Dimer A. They are two diseases caused by one virus
D. All forms B. Varicella is the primary illness, whereas zoster is
776. Autoimmunity develops due to the recurrent form of the disease
A. Immunological tolerance C. They have the same clinical picture
B. Self-tolerance D. Varicella can be prevented by vaccination
C. Clonal deletion 787. The following statements about herpesviruses are
D. None of the above true EXCEPT ONE:
777. Tetanus is caused by the spread of A. There are eight human herpes viruses
A. Exotoxin in sympathetic system B. All are morphologically identical
B. Exotoxin in parasympathetic system C. All are DNA-viruses
C. Endotoxin in Sympathetic system D. All cause vesicular rash
D. Endotoxin in parasympathetic system 788. Chlamydia have the following properties EXCEPT:
778. All of the following cause gas gangrene EXCEPT: A. Possess cell wall
A. Clostridium botulinum B. Possess DNA as well as RNA
B. Clostridium welchii C. Are susceptible to antibiotics
C. Clostridium oedemaiens D. Are not filterable
D. Clostridium septicum 789. Regarding viral pathogenesis, which is WRONG:
779. Following are anaerobic bacteria EXCEPT: A. Spread of virus in the body through different route
A. Nocardia asteroids B. Humoral immunity but not cell mediated immunity
B. Actinomyces bovis (CMI) act against viruses
C. Clostridium tetani C. In cytocidal infection, cell usually die
D. None of the above D. Several RNA viruses can cause persistent infection
780. Spirocheates are motile by 790. The following diseases are caused by enteroviruses
A. Flagella EXCEPT ONE:
B. Cilia A. Pleurodynea
C. Pseudopodia B. Glomerulonephritis
D. all of above C. Paralysis
781. Kauffman-White scheme is for classification of D. Meningitis
Salmonella? 791. Spirocheates are
A. Biochemically A. Gram positive rods
B. Antigenically B. Gram negative rods
C. Chemotyping C. Gram negative cocci
D. Phage typing D. Acid Fast rods
782. All of the following produce hemolysin EXCEPT: 792. Lyme disease is transmitted by
A. Clostridium tetani A. Flea
B. Streptococcus hemolyticus B. Ticks
C. Staphylococcus aureus C. Aedes
D. E. coli D. Culex

Page 38 of 100
793. For virus, choose the WRONG STATEMENT: 803. The following statements regarding HIV are true
A. The viral envelope contains lipoprotein EXCEPT ONE:
B. Viruses can replicate in non-living media A. It belongs to the family Reteroviridae
C. Viruses need live cells to grow B. It is an oncogenic virus
D. Viruses have no ribosome C. The virus is present in all body fluids
794. Regarding Poliovirus, the WRONG statement is: D. The sexual route is the main mode of transmission
A. Two vaccine are available 804. The following viruses are transmitted by the fecal-
B. There is no vaccine for polio oral route EXCEPT ONE:
C. Can be isolated from throat swab or stool A. HAV
D. Sub-clinical infections are common B. HEV
795. In structure and classification of viruses, circle the C. HDV
WRONG STATEMENT: D. Entero
A. Icosahedral symmetry has 12 vertices 805. The following viruses can be transmitted sexually
B. Helical symmetry such as Othomyxo virus EXCEPT ONE:
C. Transcription is the formation of protein A. HIV
D. Translation is the formation of protein B. HBV
796. Regarding HCV & HBV, circle the correct answer: C. HSV-2
A. HBV is dsRNA D. Rubella
B. HCV is ssRNA 806. Which of following is a segmented ds-RNA virus?
C. Both viruses can grow in cell culture A. Togavirus
D. HBV has not chronicity complication B. HAV
797. Regarding viral hepatitis, circle the WRONG: C. Rotavirus
A. HCV-Abs can’t be diagnosed in lab by EIA test D. Parvovirus
B. The risk factor for hepatocellular carcinoma by 807. All the following viruses are transmitted by
HCV are: underlying liver disease, alcohol, age respiratory routes EXCEPT ONE:
C. HCV-DNA integrate into liver cell chromosomes A. Human papilloma virus
in most HCC patients. B. Rhinovirus
D. The RNA and protein of HDV is surrounded by C. Adenovirus
HBsAg D. Measles virus
798. An abortive infection is one in which: 808. All the following viruses are disseminated
A. The infected cells are killed throughout the body EXCEPT ONE:
B. Progeny virus is not produced A. HIV
C. Transplacental infection of the fetus occurs B. HBV
D. Cell multiplication is stopped C. Rabies virus
799. The human diploid cell vaccine is used for D. Human papilloma virus
prevention of: 809. An important defense function of cytotoxic T
A. Rabies lymphocytes in viral infection is to:
B. Varicella A. Lyse virus infected cells
C. Hepatitis A B. Fragment viral nucleic acid by nucleases
D. Yellow fever C. Neutralize free virus particles
800. The following viral diseases are characterized by D. Lyse viral capsid
maculopapular rash EXCEPT ONE: 810. All of the following association are true EXCEPT
A. Measles ONE:
B. Rubella A. CMV causes heterophil-negative mononucleosis
C. Erythema infectiosum B. Mumps virus can cause meningitis
D. Herpangina C. Poliovirus can cause paralytic disease
801. All of the following are true about cytokines D. Astrovirus causes gastroenteritis only in adults
EXCEPT: 811. The bacterial flagellin is detected by which TLR?
A. Communicators A. TLR2
B. Interleukine-I B. TLR6
C. TNF C. TLR5
D. Perforin D. TLR9
802. The following viruses are associated with congenital 812. Each of the following diseases is associated with
infection EXCEPT ONE: infection by picornaviruses EXCEPT ONE:
A. Rubella virus A. Myocarditis
B. CMV B. Hepatitis
C. Varicella C. Meningitis
D. RSV D. Mononucleosis

Page 39 of 100
813. Certain viruses have been associated with birth 822. Infectious mononucleosis is characterized by which
defects, these teratogenic viruses include EXCEPT: of the following statements?
A. Rubella virus A. It is cause by rhabdovirus
B. CMV B. The causative pathogen is an EBV
C. VZV C. Affected person respond to treatment with the
D. Rhinovirus production of heterophil antibodies
814. Which one of the following statements concerning D. Ribavirin is the treatment of choice
mumps is CORRECT? 823. The most sensitive method of detecting infection by
A. The testes, ovaries and pancreas can be involved CMV in the newborn is:
B. There is no vaccine against mumps A. Isolation of virus
C. Passive immunization is the only means of B. Detection of IgM antibody by IF
preventing the disease C. Direct detection of antigen by ELISA
D. Second episodes of mumps can occur, since there D. Detection of complement fixing antibodies
are 2 serotypes 824. All the following statements about cytomegalovirus
815. Each of the following statements concerning HAV is infection are true EXCEPT:
correct EXCEPT ONE: A. It can be cultured from RBCs of infected persons
A. The initial site of viral replication is the GIT B. It can be transmitted transplacently
B. The diagnosis is usually made by isolating the virus C. It can be activated by immunosuppressive agents
in cell culture D. It can cause retinitis
C. HAV commonly causes asymptomatic infection in 825. All the following statements about human
children rotaviruses are true EXCEPT that they:
D. It is a member of the family picornaviridae A. Produce an infection that is seasonally distributed
816. All the following viruses belong to the peaking in fall and winter
Picornaviridae EXCEPT ONE: B. Produce cytopathic effects in many conventional
A. Rhinoviruses cell culture systems
B. Poliovirus C. Can be sensitively and rapidly detected in stools by
C. Rabies virus the ELISA technique
D. Echovirus D. Have been implicated as a major etiologic agent of
817. Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is caused by infantile gastroenteritis.
which of the following viruses: 826. A gene for insulin has been inserted into a vector
A. Coronovirus for the purpose of obtaining its protein product only.
B. Reovirus Such a vector is called
C. Rhinovirus A. Expression vector
D. Enterovirus B. Suppression vector
818. Epidemic pleurodynia and mycarditis are both C. Storage vector for genomic library
caused by: D. None of the above
A. Group B Coxsackievirus 827. MHC-I molecules make complex with which
B. Polymavirus immune cells to kill intracellular antigens.
C. RSV A. Neutrophils
D. Reovirus B. TH cells
819. All the following are acceptable specimens for the C. CD68 cells
isolation enterovirus EXCEPT ONE: D. Tc or cytotoxic T-cells
A. Feces 828. The development, maturation and differentiation of
B. CSF T-lymphocytes occur in which organ?
C. Throat secretions A. Bursa of Fabricious
D. Urine B. Liver
820. When infectious mononucleosis is suspected, all the C. Thymus
following tests can be useful EXCEPT ONE: D. Tonsils
A. IgM antibody to EB-VCA 829. Birna viruses destroy which organ in chicken
B. IgG antibody to EB-VCA A. Heart
C. Antibody to EB-NAs B. Bursa of Fabricious
D. Culture C. Lungs
821. Which of the following statements best describes D. Thymus
rotavirus? 830. Example of an obligate anaerobic bacterium is
A. It is an RNA virus A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Tests for detection of antigen are rarely useful B. Brucella abortus
C. It is rarely a nosocomial pathogen C. Clostridium tetani
D. Person-to-person transmission is rare D. Salmonella

Page 40 of 100
831. Which antibody class is mainly involved in 841. After Gram’s staining, Gram positive bacteria are:
mucosal immunity? A. Green
A. IgY B. Yellow
B. IgA C. Red
C. IgD D. Blue/violet
D. IgE 842. Example of yeast is
832. The oldest and traditionally used adjuvant in A. Mucor
vaccines is: B. Rhizopus
A. BCG C. Candida albicans
B. ISCOMS D. Penecillium
C. Alum 843. Mycolic acid is present in cell wall ______.
D. Montanide A. Listeria
833. A plasmid consisting of its own DNA with a foreign B. Mycoplasma
DNA inserted into it is called C. Staphylococcus
A. Recombinant plasmid D. Mycobacterium
B. Non-coding DNA 844. To be useful in the preparation of recombinant
C. Junk DNA DNA, a plasmid must have
D. None of the above A. No origin of replication
834. The extra chromosomal, self-replicating, double B. An origin of replication
stranded, closed, circular DNA molecules are called: C. The ability to alternate between the linear and
A. Plasmids circular forms
B. Phages D. Restriction endonuclease activity
C. Viruses 845. The first human protein produced through
D. Chloroplasts recombinant DNA technology is
835. The jumping genes in bacterial DNA are called as A. Insulin
A. Volutin B. Erythropoitin
B. Endosomes C. Interferon
C. Histones D. Somatostatin
D. Transposons 846. Humulin, a genetically engineered insulin was
836. TTS is used against tetanus and is an example of produced and marketed for the first time by
A. DNA vaccine A. Biocon India Limited
B. Attenuated vaccine B. Glaxo
C. Sub-unit vaccine C. Eli Lilly and Company
D. Autogenous vaccine D. Cipla
837. A gene produced for rDNA technology contains a 847. In one of the techniques of recombinant insulin
gene from one organism joined to the regulatory production the genes for α and β polypeptides were
sequence of another gene. Such a gene is called: inserted into the plasmid by the side of
A. Oncogene A. Ori
B. Junk gene B. β-galactosidase gene
C. Chimeric gene C. Antibiotic resistant gene
D. Oncogene D. Restriction endonuclease gene
838. Which Ab class is not present in chicken? 848. Endonucleases, a group of enzymes cleave DNA.
A. IgY A. Externally
B. IgG B. Internally
C. IgM C. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
D. IgD D. Neither ‘A’ nor ‘B’
839. A recombinant DNA molecule is produced by 849. Insulin, a protein, consisting of
joining together A. 2 Polypeptide chains
A. One mRNA with a DNA segment B. 3 Polypeptide chains
B. One mRNA with a tRNA segment C. 4 Polypeptide chains
C. Two mRNA molecules D. More than 4 Polypeptides chains
D. Two DNA segments 850. Before the production of recombinant insulin,
840. A group of genetically similar organisms obtained insulin for the treatment of diabetes in human was
by a sexual reproduction is called obtained from:
A. Clone A. Healthy humans
B. Population B. Dead human body
C. Assembly C. Cows and pigs
D. None of these D. Dogs and cats

Page 41 of 100
851. The first licensed drug produced through genetic 861. Transfer of recombinant plasmid into E. coli needs:
engineering is: A. Heat treatment
A. Interferon B. UV-rays treatment
B. Insulin C. MgCl2 treatment
C. Penicillin D. lysis
D. Somatotropin 862. During recombinant insulin synthesis, the bond
852. The plasmid generally used for the production of between insulin polypeptide and galactosidase can
recombinant insulin is: be removed by using:
A. RK 646 A. Cyanogen bromide
B. Ti plasmid B. Chymotrypsin
C. ACY 17 C. Carboxy peptidase
D. pUC 18 D. Amylase
853. Rauolfia serpentine, to save this plant under the 863. Which of the following statement about a vector is
threat of extinction, which of the following correct?
techniques is useful? A. All vectors are plasmids only
A. Genetic engineering B. Plasmids, phages can be used as vectors
B. DNA finger printing C. Fungi can also be used as vectors
C. Hybridoma technology D. Cyanobacteria can also be used as vectors
D. In vitro culture 864. Which of the following statement about plasmids is
854. ______ are popularly called “Molecular stichers”. correct?
A. Restriction Endonuclease A. Plasmids are present in bacteria only
B. Ligases B. Plasmids are present in all organisms
C. RNA polymerase C. Plasmids present in bacteria and phages
D. DNA polymerase D. Plasmids present in plants and animals
855. Restriction endonucleases have ability of cutting: 865. ____is autonomously replicating minichromosome.
A. DNA at random sites A. Virus
B. DNA at specific sites B. Phage
C. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ C. Plasmid
D. DNA and RNA at random sites D. Lichen
856. A clone is a group of organisms produced by: 866. Which one of the following statement are not
A. Asexual method and genetically similar attributed to plasmids?
B. Asexual method and genetically dissimilar A. They are circular DNA molecule
C. Sexual method and genetically similar B. They have antibiotic resistant genes
D. Sexual method and genetically dissimilar C. They have the ability of autonomous replication
857. Expression vectors are those: D. They have DNA that is as long as chromosomal
A. Produce protein products DNA
B. Used for genomic libraries 867. DNA finger printing was first developed by:
C. Used for chromosome synthesis A. David Suzuki
D. Used for finger printing B. Khorana
858. E. coli is generally used for gene cloning because: C. Alec Jaffreys
A. It supports the replication of recombinant DNA D. Gilbert
B. It is easy to transform 868. Which one of the following statements about
C. It is free from elements that interferes with plasmids is correct?
replication and recombination of DNA A. Plasmids are mobile.
D. All of these B. Plasmids are made up of RNA and proteins.
859. An ideal plasmid to be used for recombinant DNA C. Plasmids are present in eukaryotes.
technology must have: D. Plasmids are present in fungi.
A. Minimum amount of DNA 869. Which one of the following statements about
B. Relaxed replication control Restriction Endonuclease (RE) is TRUE?
C. One recognition site for one restriction A. All “RE” cut DNA at specific sites
endonuclease B. All “RE” cut DNA at random sites
D. All of these C. All “RE” join DNA segments at specific sites
860. Restriction endonucleases cut DNA at a specific site D. All “RE” join DNA at random sites
that is known as: 870. Transgenic organisms are:
A. Ligation site A. Produced by gene transfer technology
B. ori B. Extinct organisms
C. Restriction site C. Naturally occurring and endemic
D. Replication site D. Produced by traditional plant breeding technique

Page 42 of 100
871. Restriction endonucleases, when present in a host 880. DNA Ligase, used in recombinant DNA technology
cell act on foreign DNA molecule and cleave them, is obtained from:
but they do not act on host DNA molecule. It A. E. coli only
happens because: B. E. coli and also Ligase encoded by T 4 phage
A. Restriction endonuclease cannot act on host DNA C. Saccharomyces
B. Host DNA is packed into chromosomes D. Retroviruses
C. Host DNA is methylated hence restriction 881. Using genetic technique in forensic science is:
endonucleases can’t act. A. Genetic finger printing
D. Restriction endonucleases become inactive when B. In vitro culture
they reach host DNA C. Hybridoma technology
872. The presence of Restriction endonucleases was D. Gene therapy
postulated in 1960 by: 882. A technique called southern blotting is used in:
A. Khorana A. Monoclonal antibody production
B. Watson B. In vitro culture
C. Crick C. Genetic finger printing
D. Arber D. Polymerase chain reaction
873. The scientists who won Nobel prize for physiology 883. Genetic finger printing is useful in:
for their discovery of restriction endonucleases are: A. Identifying criminals involved in rape, murder etc.
A. Jacob and Monad B. Establishing the parentage of a disputed child
B. Smith, Nathans and Arber C. Identifying illegal immigrants
C. Watson and Crick D. All of these
D. Alec Jaffreys and Milstein 884. RFLP is
874. Restriction endonucleases are also called: A. Restriction fragment length polymorphism
A. Molecular scissors B. Repeated fragment length polymorphism
B. Molecular stichers C. Renewed fragment length polymorphism
C. DNA synthesis D. Required fragment length polymorphism
D. Polymerases 885. Gene therapy, a technique that helps in
875. In restriction endonuclease EcoR1, “E” stands for A. Saving endangered species
A. Extraction B. Curing genetic disorders
B. The first letter of the genus in which it is present C. Clonal propagation
C. Endonuclease D. Producing monoclonal antibodies
D. Endangered 886. A small, 15-30 bases long nucleotide sequences used
876. VNTR is to detect the presence of complementary sequences
A. Variable nucleotide triplet repeat in DNA sample during DNA finger printing is called
B. Variable nucleoside tandem repeat A. RFLP
C. Variable nucleoside triplet repeat B. Probe
D. Variable number tandem repeats C. VNTR
877. Restriction endonucleases recognize specific D. Reporter gene
sequences on DNA called: 887. A radioactive probe used in DNA finger printing
A. Non-coding sequences contains
B. Satellites A. 32 P
C. Palindromes with rotational symmetry B. 14 C
D. Tandem repeats C. 12 N
878. Main tools required for recombinant DNA D. pUC18
technology are: 888. Electrophoresis, a technique used in DNA
A. Vector, desired gene fingerprinting helps to separate:
B. Vector, desired gene, mRNA of desired gene, host, A. DNA segments
restriction enzymes, ligases B. Cells from DNA
C. Desired gene, host, vector C. Tissues
D. Vector, desired gene, mRNA of desired gene, host D. RNA from DNA
879. Prior to the production of recombinant insulin, 889. In DNA finger printing, even a smallest amount of
insulin obtained from cows and pigs were given to DNA obtained from samples collected at crime
patients. Some of the problems faced by this place, can be multiplied into millions of copies by
treatment was: using a technique called:
A. The insulin was not active A. Autoradiography
B. In some humans it induced antibody production B. Southern blotting
C. It reduces the weight of patients C. Polymerase chain reaction
D. Loss of memory power D. Electrophoresis

Page 43 of 100
890. Southern blotting is a technique used in genetic 899. A device in which a substrate of low value is utilized
finger printing is called so because: by living cells or enzymes to generate a product of
A. The blotting is done from the south side. higher value is called
B. It was discovered by a scientist, E.M. Southern. A. Bioreactor
C. It was popular in South-America. B. Test tube culture
D. It was popular in southern countries. C. Electrophoresis
891. In DNA finger printing, the DNA from the gel is D. Chromatography
transferred to ______ for hybridization. 900. Gene therapy, a method to cure inherited disease by
A. Nitrocellulose membrane A. Repairing the faulty gene
B. Agarose B. Introducing the correct copy of the gene
C. Autoradiogram C. Adding new cells to the body
D. PCR D. Polymerase chain reaction
892. During DNA finger printing, DNA nucleotides 901. During gene therapy, the possible ways through
hybridized with probe can be detected through: which the genes can be introduced into the cell are:
A. Electrophoresis A. Micro injection
B. Polymerase chain reaction B. Some viruses
C. Autoradiography C. Both “A” and “B”
D. Hybridoma D. Erythrocytes
893. In somatic cell gene therapy, the functional genes 902. DNA finger printing helps in:
can be introduced into: A. Identifying illegal immigrants
A. Sperm B. Detecting the real parent of child
B. Egg C. Detecting the suspect involved in crime
C. Any body cells D. All of these
D. Germinal cells 903. In one type of gene therapy, functional genes are
894. During the recent tsunami disaster, a child was introduced into the sperm or the egg. This is called:
separated from its parents in Sri lanka. Later with A. Somatic cell gene therapy
the help of technique the child was made to reunite B. Germline gene therapy
with its true parents. The technique is: C. Vegetative cell gene therapy
A. DNA finger printing D. Gametic gene therapy
B. Gene therapy 904. Glucose is added to the tissue culture media as:
C. Tissue culture A. Growth regulator
D. Hybridoma technology B. Carbon source
895. Genes have been transferred into animals with a C. Solidifying agent
view to obtain a large scale production of the D. An antibiotic
proteins encoded by these genes in the milk, blood 905. Explant is
etc. This approach is also referred generally as A. Any cut part of the plant used in tissue culture
A. In vitro culture B. A plant extract used in tissue culture
B. Molecular farming C. A source of growth regulators added to media
C. Gene therapy D. Solidifying agent
D. Hybridoma technology 906. The work ‘Hybridization’ in DNA finger printing
896. RFLP, VNTR, Probe are some of the terminologies means:
associated with: A. Pairing b/w nucleotides of DNA sample with probe
A. Hybridoma technology B. Pairing b/w the nucleotides of DNA and mRNA
B. Tissue culture C. Pairing b/w the nucleotides of probe with mRNA
C. DNA finger printing D. Pairing between the nucleosides with mRNA
D. CFT 907. Dolly, the first animal produced through cloning is:
897. In 1990, the first gene-therapy was conducted on a A. Camel
4-year-old girl in US. The girl was suffering: B. Rat
A. AIDS C. Cow
B. CANCER D. Sheep
C. SCID 908. Fearing that the child to be born may have a genetic
D. Malaria disorder, a couple goes to a doctor. Which one of the
898. SCID, a disease can be cured by Gene therapy is techniques will be suggested by the doctor cure
due to the deficiency of: genetic disorder?
A. ADA enzyme A. Hybridoma technology
B. Insulin B. Gene therapy
C. Glucagon C. ELISA
D. Dystrophin D. DNA finger printing

Page 44 of 100
909. The genes introduced through somatic cell gene 919. Agar, used in plant tissue culture is extracted from:
therapy are: A. A fungus
A. Heritable B. A bacterium
B. Non-heritable C. An alga
C. Partially heritable D. A virus
D. None of these 920. Totipotency refers to:
910. In biotechnology, mass culturing of cells / microbes A. The ability of a plant cell to arrest growth of a plant
can be achieved by using B. The ability of a plant cell to develop disease
A. Test tube culture C. The ability of a plant cell to develop into a
B. Bioreactor complete plant
C. Autoclave D. The ability of a plant cell to develop into a callus
D. Electrophoresis 921. The main aim of human genome project is:
911. A bioreactor known for mass culturing of cells / A. To identify and sequence of all the genes present in
microbes must have the human body
A. Agitation for mixing of cells and medium B. To introduce new genes to human beings
B. Sterile conditions C. To remove disease causing genes from humans
C. Regulation of temperature, aeration, etc., D. To improve techniques of finger printing
D. All of these 922. Bt cotton is a:
912. In vitro culture of plant parts need A. A cotton variety obtained by crossing two different
A. Controlled environmental condition cotton plants
B. Aseptic condition B. A cotton variety brought from South America
C. Maintenance of pH C. An insecticide sprayed on cotton plant
D. All of these D. A transgenic cotton variety
913. Bioreactors are used for 923. Somatic embryos are:
A. Large scale production of desired substances by A. Embryos developed from zygote after fertilization
using cells / microbes B. Embryos developed from egg without fertilization
B. Kill bacteria C. Embryo like structure settled from cells of callus
C. To store viruses D. Embryo developed by ovules
D. To get chemicals 924. An amorphous mass of loosely arranged thin walled
914. The basic components of tissue culture media are parenchyma cells developing from explant is called:
A. Micro and macro nutrients, glucose A. Thallus
B. Micro and macro nutrients, vitamins, agar B. Callus
C. Micro and macro nutrients and growth regulators, C. Callose
glucose D. Embryoids
D. Micro and macro nutrients, growth regulators, agar, 925. The name “Golden rice” is given to a rice variety
vitamins, glucose because:
915. Agar is added to tissue culture media as: A. It contains traces of gold
A. Carbon source B. It is obtained from areas where gold mining is done
B. A growth regulator C. The seeds are golden yellow in color because of the
C. Nitrogen source presence of β–carotene
D. Solidifying agent D. It is made of gold
916. Stem cells found in umbilical cord blood is 926. Fruit juice or coconut milk is added to plant tissue
A. Totipotent culture media because:
B. Pluripotent A. It is a source of micronutrients
C. Omnipotent B. It is a source of macronutrients
D. Multipotent C. It is a source of growth regulators
917. Which one of the following statements about plant D. It helps in maintaining pH of the media
tissue culture is correct? 927. pUC 18 is a
A. The culturing of root is not possible A. Phage used as a vector
B. Any cell that is totipotent can be cultured B. Bacteria used for transformation
C. The pH of the media need not be maintained C. Restriction endonuclease
D. Fruit juices are added to media as carbon source D. A plasmid
918. With reference to biotechnology, microinjection is a 928. The process of introduction of foreign DNA into an
method of: animal cells is called
A. Injecting a solution of DNA into nucleus of a cell A. Transversion
B. Injecting nutrients into a cell culture media B. Conversion
C. Injecting microbes into a cell culture media C. Inversion
D. Injecting medicine to human beings D. Transfection

Page 45 of 100
929. The cloned sheep “Dolly” had a genotype which is: 938. Which one of the following organism is used for the
A. Haploid and identical to that of mother’s egg cell large scale production of recombinant insulin?
B. Diploid & alike to that of mother’s somatic cells A. Plasmodium
C. Diploid with the haploid set of chromosomes from B. Agrobacterium
the father and other from the mother C. Rhizobium
D. Diploid & alike to that of the donor’s somatic cells D. E. coli
930. Pluripotent cells derived from the early pre 939. The unique feature of monoclonal antibody is that:
implantation of an embryo in mice are called: A. It is specific to a single antigenic determinant of a
A. Stem cells single antigen
B. Organ culture B. It is non-specific
C. Somatic cell hybridization C. It is specific to a few antigenic determinants
D. Hybridoma D. Restricted growth
931. A segment of DNA that reads from the same 940. ‘Thermal Cycler’ is used in the reaction:
forward and backward is called: A. Enzyme linked immune-sorbant assay
A. Palindromic DNA B. Ligation reaction
B. Complementary DNA C. Polymerase chain reaction
C. Plasmid DNA D. Immobilization reaction
D. Copy DNA 941. Construction of a recombinant DNA involves:
932. The chemical nature of ‘humulin’ produced by A. Cleaving DNA with restriction endonuclease and
recombinant DNA technology is: joining with ligase
A. Lipid B. Cleaving DNA with ligase and joining with
B. Protein endonuclease
C. Monosaccharide C. Cleaving and joining DNA with restriction
D. Vitamin endonuclease
933. Which of the following is associated with DNA D. Cleaving DNA with restriction endonuclease and
finger printing? joining with polymerase
A. Hybridoma 942. ECOR1 is a:
B. Site specific mutagenesis A. DNA ligase enzyme
C. Shotgun cloning B. Restriction endonuclease
D. RFLP C. A vector used for insulin synthesis
934. Which technique would most likely to be used to D. A plasmid used as a vector
produce a large number of genetically identical 943. Which one of the following techniques is
offspring? successfully used to compare two DNA samples?
A. Cloning and in vitro culture A. Hybridoma technology
B. Polymerase chain reaction B. ELISA
C. Chromatography C. Genetic finger printing
D. Electrophoresis D. Gene therapy
935. The restriction endonucleases are called so because: 944. The unique feature of pluripotent stem cells is:
A. They have a very restrictive or site specific A. They can develop into any tissue of the body
endonuclease activity B. They can develop into whole individuals
B. They cut DNA at a few restricted sites C. They help in production of monoclonal antibodies
C. They restrict the entry of foreign DNA into the cell D. All of these
by cleaving the DNA due to endonuclease activity 945. Stem cells can be obtained from:
D. Their distribution is restricted to only some A. Embryo only
bacterial cells B. Any part of the body
936. A hybridoma cell: C. Blood only
A. Produces different types of antibodies against D. Embryo, bone marrow, umbilical cord blood etc
different types of antigens 946. All antibodies produced through hybridoma are:
B. Produces only specific antibodies only against a A. Polyclonal
specific antigen B. Monoclonal
C. Produces different types of antibodies but only one C. Non-active
type of antigen D. Over-active
D. None of the above 947. Which of the following codons is NOT a termination
937. A cancerous / myeloma cell in hybridoma helps in: codon for protein synthesis?
A. Continuous growth of hybridoma A. UUU
B. Production of antibodies B. UAG
C. Both “A” and “B” C. UAA
D. Neither “A” nor “B” D. UGA

Page 46 of 100
948. A type of β–lymphocyte that produces antibody is: 958. A hybridoma is:
A. Plasma cell A. A hybrid cell obtained by fusing a β–lymphocyte
B. Memory cell with a myeloma cell in vitro
C. Adipocyte B. A hybrid cell obtained by fusing a β–lymphocyte
D. Erythrocyte with a myeloma cell in vivo
949. Which of the following are the two methods of C. A hybrid cell obtained by fusing 2 β–lymphocyte
screening? cells in vitro
A. Hybridization and PCR D. A hybrid cell obtained by fusing any 2 body cells
B. ELISA and blotting in vitro
C. ELISA and PCR 959. Monoclonal antibodies are nowadays used in:
D. PCR and RFLP A. Disease diagnosis
950. Monoclonal antibodies are usually produced from: B. Detection of specific type of pathogen
A. Myeloma cells C. Very early and accurate detection of cancer
B. Hybridoma cells D. All of these
C. Monocytes 960. _______ is a non-essential amino acid.
D. Adipocytes A. Serine
951. To produce monoclonal antibodies in large scale, B. Threonine
the techniques that can be used are: C. Lysine
A. In vivo in the peritoneal cavity of mice D. Histidine
B. In vitro in large scale culture vessels 961. Which of the following is an essential amino acid?
C. Both “A” and “B” A. Cysteine
D. Neither “A” nor “B” B. Asparagine
952. Which one of the following therapies can be C. Glutamine
suggested to cure a person who is suffering from D. Phenylalanine
spinal cord injuries? 962. Peptide bond is a:
A. Hybridoma A. Covalent bond
B. Gene therapy B. Ionic bond
C. Stem cell therapy C. Metallic bond
D. Recombinant DNA technology D. Hydrogen bond
953. cDNA, a term used in recombinant DNA 963. A tripeptide has:
technology means: A. 3 amino acids and 1 peptide bond
A. Competitive DNA B. 3 amino acids and 2 peptide bonds
B. Chemical DNA C. 3 amino acids and 3 peptide bonds
C. Complex DNA D. 3 amino acids and 4 peptide bonds
D. Complementary DNA 964. Immunoglobulin consists of:
954. Which of the following enzyme is used in PCR? A. A light chain and two heavy chains joined by
A. Taq DNA polymerase disulfide bond
B. HRP B. Two light chains and a heavy chain joined by
C. EcoRI disulfide bond
D. EcoRII C. Two light chains and two heavy chains joined by
955. Which of the following enzyme is used in ELISA? disulfide bond
A. Taq DNA polymerase D. Two light chains and two heavy chains joined by
B. HRP hydrogen bond
C. EcoRI 965. The pattern on paper in chromatography is called:
D. EcoRII A. Chroming
956. Which of the following is helpful in distinguishing B. Chroma
DNA of one individual from another? C. Chromatograph
A. PCR D. Chromatogram
B. Reverse transcriptase 966. Antibody present in secretions like tears & saliva is:
C. cDNA A. IgA
D. RFLP B. IgE
957. Which of the following is the correct order of C. IgG
organization of genetic material from largest to D. IgM
smallest? 967. Unfolding of a protein can be termed as:
A. Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide A. Renaturation
B. Nucleotide, gene, chromosome, genome B. Denaturation
C. Gene, nucleotide, chromosome, genome C. Oxidation
D. Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene D. Reduction

Page 47 of 100
968. A process by which a protein structure assumes its 977. Which of the following antibody first reaches the
functional shape or conformation is site of infection?
A. Denaturing A. IgA
B. Folding B. IgE
C. Synthesis C. IgG
D. Hydrolysis D. IgM
969. Which of the following is an IMINO ACID 978. Where do T-lymphocytes develop into fully
(Secondary amino acid)? competent but not activated T-cells?
A. Alanine A. The thymus gland
B. Glycine B. The lymph nodes
C. Proline C. The thyroid gland
D. Serine D. The bone marrow
970. Which of the following is a true statement? 979. Which of the following is an example of
A. IgG is involved in primary immune response monosaccharide?
B. IgM is involved in primary immune response A. Galactose
C. IgG is involved only in secondary immune B. Sucrose
response C. Lactose
D. IgG and IgM both are involved in primary immune D. Maltose
response 980. The allosteric inhibitor of an enzyme:
971. Which of the following enzyme is responsible for the A. Causes the enzyme to work faster
regulation of biological nitrogen fixation? B. Binds to the active site
A. Dinitrogenase reductase C. Participates in feedback regulation
B. Dinitrogenase oxidase D. Denatures the enzyme
C. Phosphatase 981. What is the composition of nucleoside?
D. Kinase A. a sugar + a phosphate
972. Which of following is a function of macrophages? B. a base + a sugar
A. Ingest large particles and cells by phagocytes C. a base + a phosphate
B. Produce and secrete antibodies D. a base + a sugar + phosphate
C. Interact with infected host cells through receptors 982. Which of the following is an example of
on T-cell surface disaccharide?
D. Interact with macrophages and secrete cytokines A. Glucose
973. Which of the following is a function of B B. Fructose
lymphocytes? C. Galactose
A. Ingest large particles and cells by phagocytes D. Maltose
B. Produce and secrete antibodies 983. Lactose is a disaccharide of which of the following
C. Interact with infected host cells through receptors sugar units?
on T-cell surface A. Glucose and fructose
D. Interact with macrophages and secrete cytokines B. Glucose and galactose
974. Which of the following is a function of T C. Glucose and sucrose
lymphocytes? D. Glucose and ribose
A. Ingest large particles and cells by phagocytes 984. Which of the following is an example of bacterial
B. Produce and secrete antibodies and yeast polysaccharide?
C. Interact with infected host cells through receptors A. Starch
on TCR B. Glycogen
D. Interact with macrophages and secrete cytokines C. Cellulose
975. The extra chromosomal, self-replicating, closed, D. Dextran
double stranded and circular DNA molecule is 985. When all monosaccharides in a polysaccharide are
generally termed as: same type, such type of a polysaccharide is called a
A. Chromosome A. Glycogen
B. Plasmid B. Homoglycan
C. Genomic DNA C. Heteroglycan
D. Bacteriophage D. Oligosaccharide
976. Which of the following is the largest 986. Which of the following are the storage
immunoglobulin? polysaccharides?
A. IgA A. Glycogen
B. IgE B. Cellulose
C. IgG C. Chitin
D. IgM D. Glucose

Page 48 of 100
987. The most abundant immunoglobulin is: 998. Number of hydrogen bonds between adenine and
A. IgA thymine?
B. IgE A. One
C. IgG B. Two
D. IgM C. Three
988. Glucose is stored in plants as ________. D. Four
A. Glycogen 999. Number of hydrogen bonds between guanine and
B. Starch cytosine?
C. Dextrin A. One
D. Cellulose B. Two
989. Glucose is stored in liver as ___________. C. Three
A. Glycogen D. Four
B. Starch 1000. Which ratio is constant for DNA?
C. Dextrin A. A + G / T + C
D. Cellulose B. A + T / G + C
990. Which of the following are the structural C. A + C / U + G
polysaccharides? D. A + U / G + C
A. Glycogen 1001. Arrangement of nucleotides in DNA can be seen by
B. Starch A. Ultracentrifuge
C. Chitin B. X-Ray crystallography
D. Glucose C. Light microscope
991. Which of the following is an analogous to starch? D. Electron microscope
A. Cellulose 1002. Which of the following does not act as a restriction
B. Glycogen enzyme?
C. Sucrose A. EcorI
D. Chitin B. BamHI
992. Identify the purine base of nucleic acids in the C. HindIII
following: D. Polydeoxyribonucleotide synthase
A. Cytosine 1003. Which of the following enzyme is responsible for
B. Thymine making a DNA copy from RNA?
C. Uracil A. Reverse transcriptase
D. Adenine B. DNA polymerase
993. Which of the following are not the components of C. RNA polI
RNA? D. RNA polII
A. Thymine 1004. Generally, a plasmid vector contains how many
B. Adenine elements?
C. Guanine A. One
D. Cytosine B. Two
994. What is the composition of nucleotide? C. Three
A. a sugar + a phosphate D. Four
B. a base + a sugar 1005. To make the recombinant plasmid permeable to
C. a base + a phosphate DNA molecules, which of the chemicals is added?
D. a base + a sugar + phosphate A. MgCl2
995. Group of adjacent nucleotides are joined by: B. CaCl2
A. Phosphodiester bond C. NaCl
B. Peptide bond D. HCl
C. Ionic bond 1006. In which stage of genetic engineering a probe is
D. Covalent bond used?
996. The sugar molecule in a nucleotide is: A. Cleaving DNA
A. Pentose B. Recombining DNA
B. Hexose C. Cloning
C. Tetrose D. Screening
D. Triose 1007. Which of the following temperature best suits for
997. Building blocks of nucleic acids are: the growth and multiplication of transformed cells?
A. Nucleotides A. 35°C
B. Nucleosides B. 36°C
C. Amino acids C. 37°C
D. Histones D. 30°C

Page 49 of 100
1008. Electrophoresis helps to separate: 1018. During DNA profiling, DNA nucleotides
A. DNA segments hybridized with probe can be detected through:
B. Cells from DNA A. Electrophoresis
C. Tissues B. Polymerase chain reaction
D. RNA from DNA C. Autoradiography
1009. Which of the following is a DNA element that D. Hybridoma
instructs RNA polymerase where to bind on DNA? 1019. The effects of protein on an entire organism is
A. Operator described in:
B. Promoter A. Phenotypic function
C. Enhancer B. Cellular function
D. Hormone response element C. Molecular function
1010. Site directed mutagenesis facilitated research on: D. Structural genomics
A. Carbohydrates 1020. The network of interactions engaged in by protein
B. Proteins at cellular level is described in:
C. Lipids A. Phenotypic function
D. Fats B. Cellular function
1011. Where does a restriction endonuclease cuts DNA? C. Molecular function
A. Ligation site D. Structural genomics
B. Recognition sequence 1021. DNA unwinding is done by:
C. Ori A. Ligase
D. Replication site B. Helicase
1012. Which of the following statements is true about a C. Topoisomerase
vector? D. Hexonuclease
A. Plasmids, phages can be used as vectors 1022. Sequencing of genomic DNA is included in:
B. All vectors are plasmids A. Phenotypic function
C. Cyanobacteria can also be used as vectors B. Cellular function
D. Fungi can also be used as vectors C. Molecular function
1013. Which of the following is true about plasmids? D. Structural genomics
A. They are present in all organisms 1023. Collection of microscopic DNA spots attached to
B. They are present in bacteria only solid surface are:
C. They are present in bacteria and phages A. Ortholog
D. They are present in plants and animals B. Synteny
1014. DNA Ligase, used in recombinant DNA technology C. Paralog
is obtained from: D. Microarray
A. E. coli only 1024. Transgenic organisms are generally:
B. E. coli and also Ligase encoded by T4 phage A. Extinct organisms
C. Saccharomyces B. Naturally occurring and endemic
D. Retroviruses C. Produced by traditional plant breeding technique
1015. The main aim of human genome project is: D. Produced by gene transfer technology
A. To identify and sequence of all the genes present in 1025. Gene therapy is a technique preferred to cure
the human body inherited diseases by:
B. To introduce new genes to human beings A. Repairing the faulty gene
C. To remove disease causing genes from humans B. Introducing the correct copy of the gene
D. To improve techniques of finger printing C. Adding new cells to the body
1016. . The work ‘Hybridization’ in DNA finger printing D. PCR
means: 1026. Migration of cancerous cells from the site of origin
A. Pairing between the nucleotides of DNA sample to other part of the body forming secondary tumors
with probe is called:
B. Pairing between the nucleotides of DNA and A. Diapedesis
mRNA B. Metastasis
C. Pairing between the nucleotides of probe with C. Proliferation
mRNA D. Apoptosis
D. Pairing between the nucleosides with mRNA 1027. The enzyme used in the formation of cDNA from
1017. Southern blotting technique is used in mRNA is:
A. Monoclonal antibody production A. Polymerase
B. In vitro culture B. Helicase
C. Genetic finger printing C. Reverse transcriptase
D. Polymerase chain reaction D. Gyrase

Page 50 of 100
1028. Oncogenes do not encode for: 1038. Transcription is catalyzed by:
A. Trans-membrane protein receptors A. DNA-dependent RNA polymerases
B. Growth factors B. RNA-dependent DNA polymerases
C. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase C. Reverse transcriptases
D. Cytoplasmic G-proteins and protein kinases D. DNA ligases
1029. Programmed cell death is termed as: 1039. Where does RNA polymerase bind DNA?
A. Metastasis A. Promoter
B. Apoptosis B. Operator
C. Proliferation C. Enhancer
D. Mitotic termination D. None of these
1030. Which of the following could be coded by a tumor- 1040. Which of the following has the self-repairing
suppressor gene? mechanisms?
A. A protein that helps prevent progression through A. DNA and RNA
cell cycle B. DNA, RNA and protein
B. A protein that helps prevent apoptosis C. Only DNA
C. A protein that codes for a DNA repair enzyme D. DNA and proteins
D. A protein that forms part of a growth factor 1041. An alteration in a nucleotide sequence that
signaling pathway changes a triplet coding for an amino acid into a
1031. The characteristic of malignant other than a termination codon is:
benign tumor is: A. Nonsense mutation
A. Undergoes metastasis B. Mutagenesis
B. Develops blood supply C. Mutation
C. Cell divides an unlimited number of times D. Mutagen
D. Grows without needing a growth signal 1042. A point mutation that replaces a purine with
1032. DNA replication is: another purine, or a pyrimidine with another
A. Conservative pyrimidine:
B. Non-conservative A. Nonsense mutation
C. Semi-conservative B. Silent mutation
D. None of these C. Transition mutation
1033. The precise biochemical activity of a protein is D. Transversion
described in: 1043. The enzyme of E. coli is a nuclease that initiates
A. Phenotypic function the repair of double stranded DNA breaks by
B. Cellular function homologous recombination:
C. Molecular function A. DNA glycosylase
D. Structural genomics B. DNA ligase
1034. Which of the following is true about DNA C. DNA polymerase
polymerase? D. RNA polymerase
A. It can synthesize DNA in the 5’ to 3’ direction 1044. Which of the following involves remarkable
B. It can synthesize DNA in the 3’ to 5’ direction capacity of short segment of DNA to move from one
C. It can synthesize mRNA in the 3’ to 5’ direction place to another?
D. It can synthesize mRNA in the 5’ to 3’ direction A. DNA transposition
1035. Which of the following enzymes is the principal B. DNA replication
replication enzyme in E. coli? C. Translation
A. DNA polymerase I D. Transcription
B. DNA polymerase II 1045. Which of the following contain only the sequences
C. DNA polymerase III required for transposition and the genes for proteins
D. None of these that promote the process?
1036. The enzyme used to join bits of DNA is: A. Insertion sequences
A. DNA polymerase B. Complex transposons
B. DNA ligase C. Transposons
C. Endonuclease D. Chromosomes
D. Primase 1046. Which of the following pathogen produces
1037. If the mutation has a negligible effect on the “walking pneumonia” i.e., a relatively mild lung
function of a gene, it is known as a: infection that only rarely requires hospitalization?
A. Silent mutation A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B. Frame shift mutation B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Substitution mutation C. Treponema pallidum
D. Insertion mutation D. Clostridium botulinum

Page 51 of 100
1047. Binding of the prokaryotic DNA dependent RNA 1057. Repressors bind to:
polymerase to promoter site is inhibited by: A. Promoter
A. Rifampicin B. Enhancer
B. Tetracycline C. Operator
C. Penicillin D. Hormone response element
D. Streptomycin 1058. The function of enzyme involved in base excision
1048. First nucleic acid synthesizing enzyme discovered repair is:
is: A. Addition of correct base
A. Polynucleotide phosphorylase B. Addition of correct nucleotide
B. DNA polymerase C. Removal of incorrect base
C. RNA polymerase D. Removal of phosphodiester bond
D. DNA ligase 1059. Which of the following solves the problem of
1049. 70S prokaryotic ribosome is the complex of: shortening of chromosomes in each cell cycle?
A. 30S + 50S A. DNA ligase
B. 30S + 40S B. Endonuclease
C. 20S + 60S C. Telomerase
D. 20S + 30S D. RNA polymerase
1050. 80S eukaryotic ribosome is the complex of: 1060. HIV may not respond to:
A. 60S and 40S A. Nucleoside analogues
B. 40S and 20S B. Protease inhibitors
C. 60S and 50S C. Neuraminidase inhibitors
D. 30S and 20S D. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
1051. The main function of t-RNA is: 1061. Which of the following inactivates the 60S subunit
A. Proof reading of eukaryotic ribosomes?
B. Inhibits protein synthesis A. Chloramphenicol
C. Identifies amino acids and transport them to B. Cycloheximide
ribosomes C. Diphtheria toxin
D. None of these D. Ricin
1052. Cell-mediated immunity is well documented to be 1062. Which of the following inhibits initiation at higher
critical for control of which of following pathogen? concentrations?
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae A. Chloramphenicol
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Streptomycin
C. Treponema pallidum C. Diphtheria toxin
D. Clostridium botulinum D. Ricin
1053. Which of the following plays a key role in inducing 1063. Posttranslational modification of many eukaryotic
shock and fever during Gram-negative sepsis? proteins begins in the
A. Cholera toxin A. Endoplasmic reticulum
B. Tetanus toxin B. Mitochondria
C. Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome toxin C. Chloroplasts
D. Lipopolysaccharide D. Nucleus
1054. Which of the following binds to MHC and specific 1064. How many t-RNAs are required to translate all 61
Vβ chains of the T cell receptor? codons?
A. Cholera toxin A. 31
B. Tetanus toxin B. 32
C. Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome toxin C. 30
D. Lipopolysaccharide D. 29
1055. Growth of microbes in a solid media is identified 1065. ________________ makes an A-B toxin that ADP
by the formation of? ribosylates a G protein in the host cell.
A. pellicle at the top of media A. Vibrio cholerae
B. colonies B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. sediment at the bottom C. Clostridium difficile
D. turbidity D. Neisseria meningitidis
1056. Which microorganism(s) among the following 1066. Which among the following are produced by
perform photosynthesis by utilizing light? microorganisms?
A. Cyanobacteria A. Fermented dairy products
B. Fungi B. Breads
C. Viruses C. Alcoholic beverages
D. Cyanobacteria, Fungi and Viruses D. All of these

Page 52 of 100
1067. Which of following serves as bactericidal agent? 1078. The genetic code translated the language of:
A. Ribonuclease A. Proteins into that of RNA
B. Lysozyme B. Amino acids into that of RNA
C. Cytochrome c C. RNA into that of proteins
D. Myoglobin D. RNA into that of DNA
1068. Which of the following is a hypertonic solution? 1079. Which out of the following is not an example of
A. Oceans inducible operon?
B. Freshwater habitats A. Lactose operon
C. 0.45% sodium chloride B. Galactose operon
D. Red blood cells placed in fresh water C. Maltose operon
1069. LPS in cell walls is characteristic of? D. Tryptophan operon
A. Gram-positive bacteria 1080. ____ is an intracellular pathogen and it breaks out
B. Gram-negative bacteria of the phagosome and grows freely in the cytoplasm.
C. Fungi A. Vibrio cholerae
D. Algae B. Listeria monocytogenes
1070. What are the blood serum proteins produced by C. Clostridium difficile
animals called? D. E. coli
A. Enzymes 1081. Infection caused by __________ is usually divided
B. Antibodies into primary, secondary and tertiary phases.
C. Amino acids A. Vibrio cholerae
D. Toxins B. Listeria monocytogenes
1071. Bdellovibrios come under which group of C. Borrelia burgdorferi
microorganisms? D. Neisseria meningitidis
A. Viruses 1082. Toxin produced by ____________ acts primarily
B. Bacteria on peripheral nerves.
C. Fungi A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D. Algae B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
1072. Polysaccharide capsule of ____ is antiphagocytic. C. Treponema pallidum
A. Vibrio cholerae D. Clostridium botulinum
B. Listeria monocytogenes 1083. Total Magnification is obtained by__________.
C. Clostridium difficile A. Magnifying power of the objective lens
D. Neisseria meningitidis B. Magnifying power of eyepiece
1073. __________________ is the most common cause of C. Magnifying power of condenser lens
hospital acquired diarrheal infection. D. Both “A” and “B”
A. Vibrio cholerae 1084. Which of following produces life-threating disease
B. Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC) that can be well treated by fluid replacement?
C. Clostridium difficile A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D. Neisseria meningitidis B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
1074. A codon contains how many nucleotides C. Treponema pallidum
A. One D. Vibrio cholerae
B. Two 1085. Which of the following intracellular pathogen has
C. Three a propensity to cause disease in pregnant women due
D. Four to their weakened cytotoxic T-cell response?
1075. The initiation codon is A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
A. AUG B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. UAA C. Listeria monocytogenes
C. UAG D. Clostridium botulinum
D. UGA 1086. Which of the following proteins directly inhibits
1076. Which of the following are not DNA viruses? phagocytosis?
A. Hepatitis B virus A. M protein
B. Influenza A virus B. Listeriolysin O
C. CMV virus C. Lipopolysaccharide
D. Parvovirus D. Cholera toxin
1077. The termination codon is not 1087. What are ribosomes composed of?
A. AUG A. Proteins
B. UAA B. DNA
C. UAG C. RNA
D. UGA D. Proteins and RNA

Page 53 of 100
1088. Which of the following can easily be visualized by 1097. The greatest resolution in light microscopy can be
Gram staining? obtained with ___________.
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis A. Shortest wavelength of visible light used
B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae B. An objective with minimum numerical aperture
C. Aspergillus flavis C. Longest wavelength of visible light used
D. Neisseria meningitidis D. Both “A” and “B”
1089. Disease caused by __________ typically shows 1098. The correct order of taxonomic groups from
indolent (slow) progression. higher to lower rank is?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis A. Kingdom—Order—Class—Family
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Order—Class—Division—Family—Genus—
C. Bacillus anthracis Species
D. Neisseria meningitidis C. Kingdom—Order—Division—Family—Class—
1090. Which among the following come under Gram- Genus—Species
positive eubacteria? D. Kingdom—Division—Class—Order—Family—
A. Clostridium Genus—Species
B. Actinomyces 1099. In fluorescence microscopy, which of the following
C. Rhizobium performs the function of removing all light except
D. Clostridium, and Actinomyces the blue light?
1091. According to Bergey’s Manual of Systematic A. Exciter filter
Bacteriology, prokaryotes that lack a cell wall B. Barrier filter
belong to the group? C. Dichroic mirror
A. Gracilicutes D. Mercury arc lamp
B. Firmicutes 1100. In light microscopy, which of following is usually
C. Tenericutes used as fixatives prior to staining technique?
D. Mendosicutes A. Osmic acid
1092. Which among the following kingdoms were B. Glutaraldehyde
proposed by Whittaker? C. Heat
A. Monera D. Osmic acid, glutaraldehyde, heat
B. Protista,Fungi 1101. Which part of the light microscope controls the
C. Plantae,Animalia intensity of light entering the viewing area?
D. Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia A. Coarse adjustment screw
1093. Which part of the compound microscope helps in B. Fine adjustment screw
gathering and focusing light rays on the specimen? C. Diaphragm
A. Eyepiece lens D. Condenser lens
B. Objective lens 1102. Which of the following is used in electron
C. Condenser lens microscope?
D. Magnifying lens A. Electron beams
1094. Resolving power of a microscope is a function of: B. Magnetic fields
A. Wavelength of light used C. Light waves
B. Numerical aperture of lens system D. Electron beams and magnetic fields
C. Refractive index 1103. Electron Microscope can give a magnification up
D. Wavelength of light used and numerical aperture of to ___________.
lens system A. 400,000X
1095. In the classification of bacteria according to shape. B. 100,000X
Which among the following refer to cuboidal C. 15000X
arrangement of bacterial cells? D. 100X
A. Tetrads 1104. Which of the following are true for electron
B. Staphylococci microscopy?
C. Sarcinae A. Specimen should be thin and dry
D. Streptococci B. Image is obtained on a phosphorescent screen
1096. Which of the following pathogens can establish a C. Electron beam must pass through evacuated
persistent infection of the gall bladder, making the chamber
infected individual a chronic carrier who can shed D. All of the above
the organism for years? 1105. In Gram-staining, iodine is used as a_________.
A. Salmonella typhi A. Fixative
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Mordant
C. Listeria monocytogenes C. Solublizer
D. Clostridium botulinum D. Stain

Page 54 of 100
1106. Which among the following are “Spirochetes”? 1116. When rod shaped bacteria appears in pairs, it is
A. Spirillum volutans known as?
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae A. Diplobacilli
C. Streptomyces sp. B. Streptobacilli
D. Treponema pallidum C. Diplococci
1107. Negative Staining is used for examining ______. D. Staphylococci
A. Virus particles 1117. Bacteria with less than a complete twist or comma
B. Protein molecules shaped is known as?
C. Bacterial flagella A. Spirilla
D. All of the above B. Helical
1108. Which among the following helps us in getting a C. Vibrio
three-dimensional picture of the specimen? D. Spirochetes
A. Transmission Electron Microscope 1118. Bacteria having cluster of flagella at both poles of
B. Scanning Electron Microscope cells are known as?
C. Compound Microscope A. Lophotrichous
D. Simple Microscope B. Peritrichous
1109. The secondary electrons radiated back in scanning C. Amphitrichous
microscope is collected by? D. Monotrichous
A. Specimen 1119. Salmonella typhi has which type of flagella
B. Anode arrangement?
C. Vacuum chamber A. Amphitrichous
D. Cathode B. Peritrichous
1110. Which of the following techniques are used in C. Monotrichous
TEM for examining cellular structure? D. Lophotrichous
A. Negative-Staining 1120. F pilus has a major role as___________.
B. Shadow Casting A. Motility of the cell
C. Ultrathin Sectioning B. Port of entry of genetic material during mating
D. All of the above C. Attachment to host cell
1111. Correct order of reagents in Gram-Staining is: D. Human infection
A. Crystal violet, alcohol, iodine solution, safranin 1121. Peptidoglycan layer is present in large quantity in?
B. Crystal violet, iodine solution, alcohol, safranin A. Gram-positive bacteria
C. Crystal violet, safranin, alcohol, iodine solution B. Gram-negative bacteria
D. Iodine solution, crystal violet, alcohol, safranin C. Fungi
1112. Which bacteria appears purple-violet colour after D. Algae
staining? 1122. When a bacteria swim towards a chemical, it is
A. Gram-positive termed as__________.
B. Gram-negative A. Positive chemotaxis
C. Both Gram-positive and Gram-negative B. Phototaxis
D. Neither Gram-positive nor Gram-negative C. Negative chemotaxis
1113. Which of the following are true for Gram-negative D. Magnetotaxis
bacteria? 1123. Cord factor is a ___________.
A. Alcohol usage increases permeability of cell wall A. Protein
B. Crystal violet-iodine (CV-I) complex is extracted B. Teichoic acid derivative
C. Pore size decreases and the CV-I complex cannot C. Mycolic acid derivative
be extracted D. Carbohydrate
D. Both “A” and “B” 1124. Teichoic acid present in Gram-positive bacteria
1114. Gram-positive bacteria are usually more can bind to which ion?
susceptible to? A. Fe ions
A. Streptomycin B. Phosphorus ions
B. Tetracycline C. Mg ions
C. Penicillin D. Sulphur ions
D. Chloramphenicol 1125. Which among the following acts as receptors for
1115. Which of the following is the example of Gram- bacteriophage attachment in Gram-negative
negative bacteria? bacteria?
A. Lactobacillus A. Cilia
B. Escherichia coli B. O antigens
C. Staphylococcus aureus C. Lipid A
D. Bacillus subtilis D. Teichoic acid

Page 55 of 100
1126. Gram-negative bacteria are more resistant to 1136. Which of the following amino acids require
antibiotics due to the presence of? Sulphur for their synthesis?
A. Thin peptidoglycan wall A. Tryptophan
B. Outer lipopolysaccharide layer B. Methionine
C. Porin proteins C. Cystine
D. Teichoic acid D. Methionine and cystine
1127. Which of following are present in teichoic acids? 1137. Phosphorus is essential component of __________.
A. Ribitol residues A. Teichoic acid
B. Glycerol residues B. Nucleotides
C. Glucose residues C. Phospholipids
D. Ribitol or glycerol residues D. All of these
1128. Cytoplasmic membrane and cell material bounded 1138. Which of the following are trace elements?
by it plus outer membrane of cell is known as ____. A. Potassium ion
A. Protoplast B. Sodium ion
B. Cytoplast C. Copper ion
C. Spheroplast D. Magnesium ion
D. Cell membrane 1139. Which of the following ions are cofactors for
1129. Which among the following is associated with various enzymes?
export of exocellular enzymes? A. Potassium ion
A. Central mesosomes B. Iron ion
B. Peripheral mesosomes C. Magnesium ion and Iron ion
C. Thylakoids D. Calcium ion
D. Nucleus 1140. Which of the following is a characteristic of beef
1130. Ribosomes of prokaryotes have a sedimentation extract?
coefficient of? A. Product resulting from the digestion of
A. 90S proteinaceous materials
B. 80S B. Aqueous extract of lean beef tissue
C. 50S C. Aqueous extract of yeast cells
D. 70S D. Complex carbohydrate obtained from certain
1131. _______ is used as a solidifying agent for media. marine algae
A. Beef extract 1141. Which of following is a rich source of B vitamins?
B. Peptone A. Peptone
C. Agar B. Yeast extract
D. Yeast extract C. Beef extract
1132. What helps in the heat resistance of endospore? D. Agar
A. Calcium-DPA complex 1142. The isolation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae by the use of
B. Water certain antibiotics in media is an example of which
C. Methylene of the following?
D. Calcium A. Selective media
1133. Which of the following methods can be utilized for B. Differential media
removing peripheral proteins of the cytoplasmic C. Enriched media
membrane? D. Assay media
A. Treatment by detergents 1143. Nutrient broth contains beef extract and peptone
B. Osmotic shock respectively in how much amounts?
C. Heat application A. 0.2%, 0.4%
D. Destruction of the membrane B. 0.1%, 0.6%
1134. The organisms which can use reduced inorganic C. 0.3%, 0.5%
compounds as electron donors are known as ____. D. 0.7%, 0.3%
A. Chemotrophs 1144. Growth of bacteria refer to ________.
B. Organotrophs A. An increase in the size of an individual organism
C. Lithotrophs B. An increase in the mass of an individual organism
D. Phototrophs C. Changes in the total population
1135. Which of the following is nutritional D. An increase in number of cells
characterization of Escherichia coli? 1145. What is the temperature of liquid nitrogen?
A. Chemotrophic A. -120-degree C
B. Organotrophic B. 0-degree C
C. Heterotrophic C. -150-degree C
D. All of the above D. -196-degree C

Page 56 of 100
1146. Lag phase is also known as ___________. 1156. Colony-forming units per ml is the unit of ______.
A. Period of initial adjustment A. Microscopic count
B. Transitional period B. Electronic enumeration
C. Generation time C. Viable count
D. Period of rapid growth D. Turbidimetric measurement
1147. Which of the following instrument is used for 1157. The optimum pH for the growth of most bacteria
sterilizing the media after it has been prepared? lies between_______.
A. Autoclave A. 5-9
B. Laminar Air Flow Chamber B. 6.5-7.5
C. Water bath C. 2-3.5
D. Incubator D. 9-9.5
1148. Which of the following is a Complex media for 1158. Which of the following bacterial species divides by
fungal growth? fragmentation?
A. Nutrient broth A. Bacillus subtilis
B. Luria-Bertani media B. Streptococcus faecalis
C. Potato Dextrose Agar(PDA) media C. Rhodopseudomonas acidophila
D. Mac Conkey Agar media D. Nocardia species
1149. Which of the following bacteria requires nicotinic 1159. Which of the following does not occur during
acid as a growth factor in their media? binary fission in bacteria?
A. Proteus vulgaris A. Cell elongation
B. Staphylococcus aureus B. Cytokinesis
C. E. coli C. DNA duplication
D. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Spindle formation
1150. The generation time for E. coli is ________. 1160. The portion of the growth curve where a rapid
A. 20 minutes growth of bacteria is observed is known as ______.
B. 35 minutes A. Lag phase
C. 2 minutes B. Logarithmic phase
D. 13 minutes C. Stationary phase
1151. Temperature that allows for most rapid growth D. Decline phase
during a short period of time is known as _____. 1161. In which of the following phase secondary
A. Minimum Temperature metabolites are produced during growth?
B. Maximum Temperature A. Lag phase
C. Optimum Temperature B. Log/Exponential phase
D. Growth Temperature C. Stationary phase
1152. Mesophiles are group of bacteria that grow within D. Death phase
the temperature range of? 1162. Which phase shows reproduction rate equal to the
A. 0-20 degree Celsius equivalent death rate?
B. 25-40 degree Celsius A. Log phase
C. 45-60 degree Celsius B. Stationary phase
D. more than 60 degrees Celsius C. Death phase
1153. The bacterium Staphylococcus aureus is which type D. Lag phase
of bacteria? 1163. Which of the following is used to grow bacterial
A. Psychrophile culture continuously?
B. Mesophiles A. Chemostat
C. Thermophile B. Hemostat
D. Mesophile and psychrophile C. Coulter-Counter
1154. The GasPak system is suitable for which of the D. Turbidostat
following? 1164. The average size of the cells in the exponential
A. Aerobic bacteria phase is ___________.
B. Anaerobic bacteria A. Larger than the initial size
C. Facultative anaerobic bacteria B. Smaller than the initial size
D. Microaerophilic bacteria C. Equal to the initial size
1155. Which of the following are functions of phosphates D. Maybe smaller or larger than the initial size
used in the preparation of media? 1165. Isolation of pure culture refers to ___________.
A. They act as buffer A. Purification of culture
B. Source of phosphorous B. Introduction of inoculum
C. Act as “reserve alkali” C. Separation of a single colony
D. They act as buffer and is a source of phosphorous D. To grow microorganisms on a surface

Page 57 of 100
1166. Which of the following is an indirect method for 1176. Disease-producing species occurring in a mixed
measuring bacterial growth? culture can be selected by taking advantage of ___.
A. Cell count A. Its pathogenic properties
B. Cell mass B. Special carbon source
C. Cell activity C. Special nitrogen source
D. Both Cell mass and Cell activity D. Toxic chemicals
1167. Which of the following instrument is used for 1177. Treponema can be selected by taking advantage of
bacterial count? ____________.
A. Petroff-Hausser counting chamber A. Small cell size
B. Microscope B. Motility
C. Chemostat C. Dilute media
D. Turbidostat D. Small cell diameter and bacterial motility
1168. Which of the following method is used for viable 1178. In pour-plate method, the medium should be
count of a culture? maintained at what temperature?
A. Direct microscopic count A. 25 to 37-degree C
B. Plate-count method B. 60 to 67-degree C
C. Membrane-filter count C. 45 to 50-degree C
D. Plate-count method and membrane-filter count D. 0 to 15-degree C
1169. How many cells present per millilitre in a bacterial 1179. Which of the following method can be used to
culture can make the culture turbid? determine the number of bacteria quantitatively?
A. 1 cell A. Streak-plate
B. 1000 cells B. Spread-plate
C. 10000 cells C. Pour plate
D. 107-108 cells D. Pour-plate and spread plate
1170. Which of the following is a direct measurement of 1180. Which of the following are NOT performed in
growth? lyophilization?
A. Determination of nitrogen content A. Agar slant is covered with mineral oil
B. Turbidimetric methods B. Cell suspension is frozen at -60-degree C
C. Determination of Dry weight of cells C. Vials are connected to high-vacuum line
D. Measurement of a specific chemical change D. Bacterial sample is dehydrated
1171. Which of the following method is used for 1181. Which of the following is a function of
enumeration of bacteria in vaccines and cultures? cryoprotective agents?
A. Microscopic Count A. For long-term preservation of cultures
B. Membrane filter B. Prevents cell damage due to ice crystal formation
C. Plate count C. Prevents formation of ice
D. Dry weight determination D. To trap the liquid nitrogen
1172. Which of the following is not a physical method for 1182. The American Type Culture Collection, located in
selection of pure culture? Rockville, Maryland in the year 1980 has a
A. Heat treatment collection of bacterial strain in what numbers?
B. pH of the media A. 100,000
C. Cell size and motility B. 1,000
D. Use of dilute media C. 500
1173. Which of the following has a larger diameter? D. 11,500
A. Well-separated colonies 1183. What is the color of colonies of S. aureus?
B. Crowded colonies A. Pink
C. Young colonies B. Red
D. Old colonies C. Violet
1174. During exponential phase, growth rate is ______. D. Gold
A. Same as generation time 1184. Pyoverdin is which type of pigment?
B. Reciprocal of generation time A. Water-insoluble pigment
C. Time required for population to double B. Water-soluble pigment
D. Rate of doubling population C. Fluorescent pigment
1175. Vibrio cholerae can grow in a medium with a pH of D. Sparingly water-soluble pigment
___________. 1185. Glycolysis can occur in ___________.
A. 5.5 A. Aerobic cells
B. 7.0 B. Anaerobic cells
C. 8.5 C. Both aerobic and anaerobic cells
D. 2.0 D. Neither aerobic and anaerobic cells

Page 58 of 100
1186. Platinum loop wire is used in which of the 1196. Which of the following genus of bacteria causes
following techniques? gastroenteritis in humans?
A. Pour-plate A. Salmonella
B. Streak-plate B. Enterobacter
C. Spread-plate C. Escherichia
D. Roll-tube technique D. Shigella
1187. Which of the following bacteria can synthesize all 1197. ________ is the causative agent of plague.
of the amino acids required for protein synthesis? A. Y. enterocolitica
A. E. coli B. Y. pestis
B. Lactobacillus bravis C. P. mirabilis
C. Saccharomyces cerevisiae D. E. coli
D. Bacillus subtilis 1198. Which of the following family contains organisms
1188. Which of the following organism causes whooping that are non-motile / atrichous?
cough in humans? A. Enterobacteriaceae
A. E. coli B. Vibrionaceae
B. Bordetella pertussis C. Pseudomonadaceae
C. Treponema pallidum D. Pasteurellaceae
D. Mycobacterium laprae 1199. The X factor and/or the V factor is required by
1189. S, the Svedberg unit is a measure of _________. which genus of bacteria?
A. The size of the ribosome A. Pasteurella
B. The composition of the ribosome B. Hemophilus
C. How fast a particle sediments during C. Actinobacillus
ultracentrifugation. D. Streptococcus
D. How fast the subunits combine in a ribosome. 1200. C. burnetti causes which of the following diseases?
1190. Endoflagella is present in which class of bacteria? A. Q fever
A. Spirilla B. Trench fever
B. Spirochetes C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
C. Bacillus D. Typhoid
D. Coccus 1201. The colonies of Mycoplasmas in agar plate can be
1191. Where is the endoflagella located in Spirochetes? observed by means of a __________________.
A. In the cell membrane A. Low-power microscope
B. In the cytoplasm B. High-power microscope
C. In the peptidoglycan layer C. Phase contrast microscopy
D. In the periplasmic space D. Dark-field microscopy
1192. Which of the following methods is used for viewing 1202. What type of colonies are formed by Mycoplasmas
spirochetes? on agar plate?
A. Bright-field microscopy A. Colorless
B. Phase-contrast microscopy B. Colored
C. Dark-field microscopy C. Lawn formation
D. Electron microscopy D. Fried-egg
1193. Which among the following are microaerophilic 1203. Among the following which is positive for
bacteria? coagulase test?
A. Bacillus A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Treponema C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
D. Borrelia D. E. coli
1194. Which of the following bacteria causes syphilis in 1204. S. pneumoniae produces which of the following
humans? type of colonies?
A. Treponema dysenteriae A. Alpha-haemolytic
B. Treponema pallidum B. Beta-haemolytic
C. Leptospira biflexa C. Non-haemolytic
D. Leptospira interrogans D. Alpha-, beta-haemolytic
1195. Pyocyanin, a blue water-soluble pigment is 1205. Which of the following genus of organisms causes
produced by which of the following pseudomonads? meningitis in adults?
A. P. mallei A. Erysipelothrix
B. P. syringae B. Listeria
C. P. fluorescens C. Mycoplasma
D. P. aeruginosa D. Treponema

Page 59 of 100
1206. C. perfringens is the major causative agent of ___. 1217. Which of the following is non-sense codons?
A. Botulism A. AUG
B. Tetanus B. GUG
C. Gas gangrene C. UAA
D. Anthrax D. UCU
1207. Cryptococcosis is a disease of ________________. 1218. Sabouraud media has _________________.
A. Bacterial infection A. High pH, low sugar concentration
B. Parasitic infection B. High pH, moderate sugar concentration
C. Viral infection C. Low pH, high sugar concentration
D. Mycotic infection D. Low pH, moderate sugar concentration
1208. Coenocytic hyphae have ________________. 1219. Which of the following are the oxygen
A. Septate with uninucleate cells requirements of molds?
B. Septate with multinucleate cells A. Strictly aerobic
C. Non-septate B. Facultatively aerobic
D. Non-septate with uninucleate cells C. Anaerobic
1209. What do the term dimorphic mean? D. Microaerophilic
A. Bisexual 1220. Mycoplasmas can be cultivated in vitro on
B. Unisexual nonliving media as _____________.
C. Exists in two forms A. Facultative aerobes
D. Exists in single form B. Obligate aerobes
1210. Which among the following are asexual spores? C. Facultative anaerobes
A. Blastospores D. Microaerophiles
B. Ascospores 1221. Fungi are sensitive to which of the following
C. Basidiospores antibiotics?
D. Zygospores A. Penicillins
1211. Classical typhus fever caused by Rickettsia is B. Tetracyclins
transmitted by which of the following arthropod? C. Chloramphenicol
A. Ticks D. Griseofulvin
B. Mites 1222. When the gametes are morphologically alike, they
C. Fleas are called ______________.
D. Lice A. Isogametes
1212. Spores formed by sexual reproduction on a club- B. Anisogametes
shaped structure are _______________. C. Macrogametes
A. Ascospores D. Microgametes
B. Zygospores 1223. The famous Japanese dish sushi is made with the
C. Basidiospores help of the red algae named ____________.
D. Oospores A. Nemalion
1213. The mycoplasmas require which of the following B. Porphyra
substance for growth? C. Chondrus
A. Nitrogen D. Eucheuma
B. Carbon 1224. Protozoa that eat other organisms are known as
C. Cholesterol _______________.
D. Glucose A. Saprophytic
1214. What is the other name of glycolysis? B. Holozoic
A. PPP cycle C. Parasitic
B. TCA cycle D. Mutualistic
C. C4 cycle 1225. The process in which protozoa attaches themselves
D. EMP pathway to a host’s body is known as ____________.
1215. Stickland reaction is the alternative name for ___. A. Endocommensalism
A. Lactic acid fermentation B. Ectocommensalism
B. Alcoholic fermentation C. Parasitic
C. Mixed acid fermentation D. Mutualism
D. Amino acid fermentation 1226. Rhizopus produces clusters of root-like holdfasts
1216. Pathogenic fungi love to grow at ______________. called _____________.
A. 30 to 37 degree celsius A. Stolons
B. 22 to 30 degree celsius B. Hyphae
C. 37 to 42 degree celsius C. Runners
D. 42 to 50 degree celsius D. Rhizoids

Page 60 of 100
1227. Aspergillus niger is used in the production of ___. 1238. African sleeping sickness is transmitted by which
A. Cheese of the following agents?
B. Citric acid A. Biting insects
C. Gluconic acid B. Lice
D. Citric acid and gluconic acid C. Tsetse fly
1228. What do you mean by hypertrophy? D. Bloodsucking insects
A. Repeated cell division 1239. The nucleic acid core of phages is covered by a
B. Infection by zoospore protein coat known as _______________.
C. Increase in cell volume A. Capsomere
D. Decrease in cell volume B. Capsid
1229. _____ is/are filamentous phage of E. coli? C. Outer envelope
A. f1 D. Nuclear membrane
B. T3 1240. Which of the following is the first step in
C. f1 and fd replication by bacterial phages?
D. T3 and T7 A. Adsorption
1230. The optimum pH for the growth of fungi is ______. B. Penetration
A. 7.8-9.0 C. Transcription
B. 12-14 D. Assembly and release
C. 3.8-5.6 1241. In the growth curve of plaque-forming units, the
D. 1.0-2.0 time from infection until lysis is known as _____.
1231. Agar is obtained from the algal species of _____. A. Eclipse period
A. Chondrus B. Rise period
B. Gigartina C. Burst period
C. Gelidium D. Latent period
D. Laminaria 1242. What is the color of the plaque formed?
1232. What is the shape of helical phages? A. Yellow
A. Regular solids B. Opaque
B. Polyhedra C. Clear
C. Rod-shaped D. Blue
D. Icosahedral 1243. Which of the following is the actual opening in
1233. African sleeping sickness is caused by ________. ciliates through which food is ingested?
A. Bacteria A. Cytosome
B. Fungi B. Oral groove
C. Protozoa C. Peristome
D. Viruses D. Cytopharynx
1234. Which of following is not a function of protozoa? 1244. What does a viral DNA become after being
A. Acts as a link in food chain associated with the bacterial chromosome?
B. Used in manufacture of food products A. Gene
C. Decomposition process B. Prophage
D. To study cell cycles C. Plasmid
1235. Which of the following type of fission takes place D. Plaque
in flagellates? 1245. In which of the following method, the viral
A. Longitudinal particles are transmitted through lysis of cell?
B. Right angle to the cell axis A. Lytic cycle
C. Transverse B. Lysogeny
D. Cytoplasm protrudes from the aperture C. Replication
1236. Plasmodium divides by which of the following D. Translation
method most commonly? 1246. Which of the following phage DOES NOT cause
A. Binary fission lysogeny?
B. Multiple fission A. T2
C. Budding B. T1
D. Regeneration C. lambda
1237. Long, slender bodies with oval nucleus & capable D. P1
of producing new infection are known as _____. 1247. Vaccination was invented by ____________.
A. Ookinetes A. Jenner
B. Sporozoites B. Pasteur
C. Anisogametes C. Watson
D. Spermatozoa D. Fleming

Page 61 of 100
1248. Effective poliomyelitis vaccines were developed by 1257. From which of the following animal was the
culturing the virus of poliomyelitis on the kidney material isolated which was used for the vaccination
cells of which animal? for the first time?
A. Cow A. Cat
B. Monkey B. Cow
C. Giraffe C. Pig
D. Pig D. Goat
1249. Translation of mRNA into proteins takes place in 1258. For the cultivation of viruses, the fertile chicken
the ________________. eggs should be incubated for how many day(s)?
A. Host cell nucleus A. 1
B. Host cell cytoplasm B. 2-4
C. Viral nucleus C. 5-12
D. Viral cytoplasm D. 2-7
1250. The envelope surrounding the nucleocapsid of 1259. Which of the following method is used for the
some animal viruses is made up of which of the production of vaccines against yellow fever?
following structures? A. Tissue-culture method
A. Lipoproteins B. Chick-embryo method
B. Lipopolysaccharides C. Through susceptible animals
C. Peptidoglycan D. Through appropriate media
D. Chitin 1260. Which of the following inclusion bodies are present
1251. Adenoviruses exhibit which of the following in the cytoplasm of the Purkinje cells of the
symmetry? cerebellum in case of rabies infection?
A. Helical symmetry A. Paschen bodies
B. Circular symmetry B. Guarnieri bodies
C. Icosahedral symmetry C. Negri bodies
D. Complex structure symmetry D. Elementary bodies
1252. Which of the following is the correct sequence of 1261. Bollinger bodies are found in the cytoplasm of cells
events in replication by bacterial phage? infected by which of the following viruses?
A. Adsorption, pinning, DNA injection, sheath A. Variola virus
contraction B. Fowl pox virus
B. Adsorption, pinning, sheath contraction, DNA C. Rabies virus
injection D. Herpes virus
C. Adsorption, absorption, sheath contraction, pinning 1262. ___________ carry minus-strand RNA?
D. Absorption, adsorption, DNA injection A. Rhabdoviruses
1253. Enterovirus belongs to which of the following B. Picornaviruses
family of viruses? C. Retroviruses
A. Reteroviridae D. Poxviruses
B. Picornaviridae 1263. Scrapie is a chronic disease of which of the
C. Reoviridae following animals?
D. Closterovirus A. Sheep
1254. Which of the following viruses possess an B. Mouse
envelope? C. Horse
A. Herpesvirus D. Cow
B. Reovirus 1264. Which of the following are resistant to desiccation?
C. Tobacco mosaic virus A. Gonococci
D. Papillomavirus B. Streptococci
1255. Which among the following is the family of RNA C. Meningococci
containing viruses that can cause cancer in animals? D. Bacillus
A. Herpesviridae 1265. EBV can induce tumors in _____________.
B. Adenoviridae A. Mouse
C. Papovaviridae B. Monkey
D. Retroviridae C. Humans
1256. Which of the following viruses have a complex D. Rodents
symmetry? 1266. Which of the following inhibits DNA replication?
A. Alphavirus A. Cathode rays
B. Mobillivirus B. UV light
C. Orthopoxvirus C. X-rays
D. Parvovirus D. Gamma rays

Page 62 of 100
1267. Which of the following show the maximum 1276. Which of the following methods is used for killing
resistance to physical and chemical agents? microorganisms of only certain types and not all
A. Viruses microorganisms?
B. Mold spores A. Pasteurization
C. Bacterial spores B. Incineration
D. E. coli C. Boiling water
1268. Which of the following radiations have the energy D. Fractional Sterilization
to knock electrons away from molecules and ionize 1277. A chemical agent that kills the microorganisms
them? and is commonly applied to substances used on
A. Non-ionizing radiations inanimate objects is _______________.
B. Acoustic radiations A. Antiseptic
C. Subatomic particles B. Sanitizer
D. Ionizing radiations C. Disinfectant
1269. Which of the following actions are not affected by D. Antibiotic
antimicrobial agents? 1278. Which of the following instruments is used to
A. Cell wall synthesis perform tyndallization?
B. Nucleic acid synthesis A. Autoclave
C. Protein synthesis B. Steam Arnold
D. Capsule formation C. Hot air oven
1270. Among the following which one is the most D. Incubator
effective method of killing microorganisms? 1279. Cancer of the lip of mouth have been associated
A. High temperature with ___________.
B. Low temperature A. HSV1
C. High temperature, high moisture B. HSV2
D. Low temperature, high moisture C. EBV
1271. Liquid water-soluble substances appropriately D. HIV-2
diluted are dispensed into sterile test tubes, to which 1280. Which of the following actions occur due to low
are added a measured amount of the test organism temperature?
and then this is transferred into tubes of sterile A. Coagulation of proteins
media. This method helps in determining ______. B. Death of microorganisms
A. Whether the inhibitory action is bactericidal C. Rate of metabolism is reduced
B. Whether the inhibitory action is bacteriostatic D. Denatures proteins
C. Decrease in the amount of growth 1281. Chlorinated lime is the alternative name for ___.
D. Complete absence of growth A. Calcium hypochlorite
1272. How much time is required by spores of C. B. Sodium hypochlorite
botulinum to be killed by moist heat at 120oC? C. Chloramine-T
A. 2 hours D. Azochloramide
B. 4 to 20 minutes 1282. Nystatin is produced from the strain _______.
C. 24 hours A. Streptomyces noursei
D. 6-7 hours B. Streptomyces aureofaciens
1273. Which of the following conditions are required for C. Streptomyces kanamyceticus
determination of thermal death time? D. Streptomyces fradiae
A. Temperature is varied 1283. Tyrocidines are more effective against _______.
B. Time is fixed A. Gram-positive organisms
C. Temperature is fixed and time is varied B. Gram-negative organisms
D. Temperature is fixed and time is not selected C. Mycoplasmas
1274. Which of the following apparatus is used to D. Spirochetes
provide steam under regulated pressure? 1284. Which of the following is the characteristics of a
A. Autoclave sanitizer?
B. Laminar air flow A. Destroys all microbial forms
C. Incubator B. Prevents the growth or action of microorganisms
D. Hot oven C. Reduces the microbial population to safe levels
1275. The general pressure at which the autoclave is D. Kills all the bacteria and the bacterial spores
operated is ___________. 1285. _________ prevents the growth of bacteria.
A. 5 Psi A. Bactericide
B. 20 Psi B. Bacteriostatic
C. 15 Psi C. Antimicrobial
D. 40 Psi D. Antibiotic

Page 63 of 100
1286. Which of the following is not a chemical agent for 1295. Which of the following agents cause death to the
microbial control? cell by coagulation of cytoplasmic proteins?
A. Radiations A. Alcohol
B. Antibiotics B. Dyes
C. Antiseptics C. Chlorine
D. Germicide D. Heavy metals
1287. The process of killing all microorganisms along 1296. Which of the following agents are used as a
with their spores is ____________________ preservative in ophthalmic solutions?
A. Disinfection A. Alcohol
B. Antisepsis B. Quaternary ammonium salts
C. Sanitization C. Phenol
D. Sterilization D. Aldehydes
1288. Which of the following are generally applied on 1297. Which of the following acts as a test organism in
living animal tissues? the procedure of phenol-coefficient method?
A. Antiseptics A. Escherichia coli
B. Disinfectants B. Streptococcus faecalis
C. Preservatives C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Sanitizer D. Lactobacillus
1289. How much percentage of aqueous solution of 1298. Alcohol concentrations above 60% are effective
phenol rapidly kills vegetative cells of pathogens? against _________________.
A. 1% A. Bacteria
B. 2% B. Fungi
C. 5% C. Germs
D. 10% D. Viruses
1290. Which of the following interferes with 1299. Which of the following is the mode of action of
regeneration of the monophosphate form of formaldehyde?
bactoprenol from the pyrophosphate form? A. Interference with glycolysis
A. Vancomycin B. Shows oxidizing property
B. Ampicillin C. Combines with vital nitrogen compounds
C. Bacitracin D. Changes the permeability of cell membrane
D. Cephalosporins 1300. For sterilization of plastic syringes in hospitals
1291. Which of the following methods is used for which of the following agents are used?
determining the decrease in the amount of growth? A. Ethylene oxide
A. Test done on agar medium plate B. Dyes
B. Test done into an agar medium or broth C. Radiations
C. Test done by transferring water-soluble substances D. Heavy metals
to sterile media 1301. Which of the following is subterranean water?
D. By phenol-coefficient method A. Atmospheric water
1292. Which among the following is an example of B. Surface water
organic compound of mercury? C. Groundwater
A. Mercuric chloride D. Rainwater
B. Mercuric oxide 1302. _____ is produced by Streptomyces rimosus.
C. Mercurochrome A. Chlortetracycline
D. Ammoniated mercury B. Oxytetracycline
1293. Bacterial cells grown in a medium exposed to high C. Tetracycline
osmotic pressure, changes shape from rod-shaped to D. Doxycycline
__________ shaped. 1303. Solutions of sodium hypochlorite of a 1%
A. Spherical concentration are used for ______.
B. Rod shaped A. Sanitizing dairy equipment
C. Irregular B. Personal hygiene and a household disinfectant
D. Elongated C. Household bleaches
1294. The degradation of complex molecules in soil by D. Disinfecting open wounds
fungi for utilization by bacteria is an example of 1304. Which was the first disease for which a
which type of association? chemotherapeutic agent was used?
A. Neutralism A. Syphilis
B. Mutualism B. Malaria
C. Commensalism C. Small pox
D. Antagonism D. AIDS

Page 64 of 100
1305. The antibiotic penicillin was discovered by which 1314. Which of the following inhibits protein synthesis
of the following researchers? by combining with the 50S subunit ribosome?
A. Emmerich and Low A. Streptomycin
B. Gratia and Dath B. Tetracycline
C. Alexander Flemming C. Chloramphenicol
D. Robert Koch D. Penicillin
1306. Cell-wall biosynthesis is inhibited by antibiotics by 1315. Which of the following is the most accurate
inhibiting the biosynthesis of which of the following? method for microbial assay of antibiotics?
A. Lipopolysaccharide A. Physical assay
B. Cellulose B. Chemical assay
C. Peptidoglycan C. Biological assay
D. Proteins D. Chemical and biological assay
1307. Benzylpenicillin is the chemical name for which of 1316. Pigs respond dramatically to the addition of which
the following penicillin? of the following antibiotics to their diet?
A. Penicillin G A. Bacitracin
B. Penicillin V B. Polymyxin
C. Penicillin F C. Penicillin
D. Phenethicilin D. Oxytetracycline
1308. Streptomyces orientalis produces which of the 1317. Which of the following antibiotic have a sparing
following antibiotics? effect on the B12 in the diet?
A. Cephalosporins A. Streptomycin
B. Cycloserine B. Tetracycline
C. Bacitracin C. Polymyxin
D. Vancomycin D. Chloramphenicol
1309. Polymyxin inhibits the growth of the microbes by 1318. Lytic enzymes which destroy are secreted by which
carrying out which of the following actions? of the following microorganism?
A. Inhibition of cell-wall synthesis A. Fungi
B. Damage to cytoplasmic membrane B. Algae
C. Inhibition of nucleic acid and protein synthesis C. Staphylococcus
D. Inhibition of specific enzyme systems D. Myxobacteria
1310. _________ are the diverse collection of organisms 1319. Streptomycin is produced by which of the
that live in large bodies of water and are unable to following organisms?
swim against a current. A. Streptomyces noursei
A. Plankton B. Streptomyces nodosus
B. Phytoplankton C. Streptomyces fradiae
C. Zooplankton D. Streptomyces griseus
D. Mycoplankton 1320. ______ is a symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacteria.
1311. Which of the following techniques can be used to A. Rhizobium
separate different-size fractions of the aquatic B. Clostridium
microbial community? C. Azotobacter.
A. Submerged-slide technique D. Staphylococcus
B. Fluorescent antibody technique 1321. In carbon cycle flow of energy is ________.
C. Membrane-filter technique A. Bidirectional
D. By measuring biochemical activity B. Linear
1312. In the high-temperature short-time (HTST) C. Cyclic
method of pasteurization, milk is exposed to a D. Irreversible
temperature of _________. 1322. Acycloguanosine is a nucleoside analog which is
A. 32-degree C active against ___________________.
B. 45-degree C A. Influenza A virus
C. 63-degree C B. HIV virus
D. 72-degree C C. Herpes virus
1313. Which of the following types of association is D. Influenza B virus
present among Staphylococcus aureus and 1323. Which of the following has its antiviral action
Aspergillus terreous? attributed to interference of protein synthesis?
A. Antagonism A. Amantadine
B. Mutualism B. Interferons
C. Parasitism C. Acycloguanosine
D. Commensalism D. Bacteriocin

Page 65 of 100
1324. Which of the following is effective in the control of 1334. Green plants and _______ are the most important
tuberculosis in humans? agents of carbon dioxide fixation.
A. Nitrofurans A. Bacteria
B. Nalidixic Acid B. Fungi
C. Sibromycin C. Algae
D. Isoniazid D. Protozoa
1325. Anthramycin is which of the following type of 1335. . Fresh air contains approximately ______ percent
antibiotic? carbon dioxide by volume.
A. Antiviral A. 0.001
B. Antitumor B. 2
C. Antifungal C. 5
D. Antibacterial D. 0.03
1326. Pasteurization of milk takes place at _______. 1336. Cellulose is degraded to cellobiose by ________.
A. 55oC A. Cellulase
B. 37oC B. Beta-glucosidase
C. 63oC C. Hexokinase
D. 45oC D. Cellulose dehydrogenase
1327. What will be plate count of good quality water? 1337. The surface water is susceptible to contamination
A. 10 per ml with microorganisms from ___________.
B. 50 per ml A. The air
C. 100 per ml B. The surface runoff
D. 1000 per ml C. Precipitation
1328. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a D. Atmospheric water and the surface runoff
chemotherapeutic agent? 1338. Thermus aquaticus, a common bacterial inhabitant
A. Low toxicity for host cells generally prevails in temperatures of ________.
B. High toxicity for the parasites A. 00oC to 05oC
C. Less penetrating power B. 30 oC to 40 oC
D. Does not affect the host’s natural defense C. 70 oC to 72 oC
mechanism D. 90 oC to 95oC
1329. ___ inhibitory toxic product is produced by fungi. 1339. Primary producers are found growing in which of
A. Cyanide the following layers of water?
B. Fatty acids A. Upper layer
C. Methane B. Middle layer
D. Sulphides C. Intermediate layer
1330. Which of the following comes under the category D. Bottom layer
of positive association? 1340. The microorganisms from lakes and rivers can
A. Neutralism grow at a salt concentration of _________.
B. Parasitism A. 2.5 to 4 percent
C. Commensalism B. 5 percent
D. Ammensalism C. Below 1 percent
1331. Which of the following organisms are known to D. Above 1 percent
grow on the surfaces of freshly exposed rocks? 1341. Which among the following is a gas producer?
A. Green algae A. Streptococcus lactis
B. Diatoms B. Lactobacillus fermentum
C. Cyanobacteria C. Micrococcus luteus
D. Yeast D. Clostridium butyricum
1332. The transformation of nitrates to gaseous nitrogen 1342. Which of the following compounds are required
is known as ___________. for growth of saprophytic bacteria and fungi?
A. Ammonification A. Organic compounds
B. Nitrification B. Nitrates
C. Reduction of nitrate to ammonia C. Phosphates
D. Denitrification D. Mercury
1333. Which of the following conditions decreases the 1343. The moisture contained in clouds and precipitated
level of denitrification? as snow, hail, rain etc. constitutes ___________.
A. Abundance of organic matter A. Atmospheric water
B. Acidic pH B. Surface water
C. Elevated temperatures C. Groundwater
D. Availability of oxygen D. Subterranean water

Page 66 of 100
1344. Which of the following genus of bacteria is NOT 1354. The upper region of the trickling filter is favorable
found in fresh waters? for the growth of _____________.
A. Pseudomonas A. Fungi
B. Flavobacterium B. Protozoa
C. Aeromonas C. Algae
D. Vibrio D. Bacteria
1345. _____ form of water is the most contaminated. 1355. Which of the following gases are produced in large
A. Underground water amounts during sludge digestion?
B. Rainwater A. Methane
C. Surface water B. Carbon-dioxide
D. Water stored in ice caps C. Hydrogen
1346. Alum is used for which of the following D. Nitrogen
purification process? 1356. Which of the following organism occurs on the
A. Sedimentation skin of fresh poultry?
B. Filtration A. Pseudomonads
C. Disinfection B. Staphylococci
D. Ozonation C. Micrococci
1347. The coliform group of bacteria includes all the D. Enterococci
__________________ bacilli. 1357. Which among following group of microorganisms
A. Aerobic are found in the ducts of cow’s mammary glands?
B. Anaerobic A. Coliforms
C. Aerobic, non-sporulating B. Lactobacilli
D. Aerobic, Gram-negative, non-sporulating C. Micrococci
1348. Which of the following organism does not belong D. Mycobacteria
to coliform group of bacteria? 1358. The coloration of the milk is caused by which of
A. Salmonella the following organism?
B. Klebsiella A. Pseudomonas sp.
C. Enterobacter B. Bacillus sp.
D. Proteus C. Penicillium sp.
1349. Among the following which microorganism acts as D. Streptococcus sp.
a representative of fecal streptococci group? 1359. Which of the following type of spoilage occurs in
A. Streptococcus faecalis fresh meat?
B. Streptococcus bovis A. Souring
C. Streptococcus equinus B. Greening
D. Streptococcus faecium C. Putrefaction
1350. Which of the following sewerage systems carry D. Moldy
domestic and industrial wastewater? 1360. Spoilage of bread is caused by which of the
A. Sanitary sewers following microorganism?
B. Storm sewers A. Saccharomyces
C. Combined sewers B. Rhizopus
D. Storm and combined sewers C. Leuconostoc
1351. In which of the following treatment involve D. Pseudomonas
oxidation of organic constituents of the wastewater? 1361. Temperatures used for canning foods ranges from:
A. Primary treatment A. 0-20-degree C
B. Secondary treatment B. 20-60-degree C
C. Advanced treatment C. 60-100-degree C
D. Final treatment D. 100-121-degree C
1352. Acetic acid and lactic acid are used for _________. 1362. ____ microorganism survive at -9 to -17-degree C?
A. Curing meats A. Salmonella
B. Preservation of color B. Staphylococcus
C. Preservation of pickles C. Bacillus
D. Inhibiting mold growth D. Clostridium
1353. Microbial inhabitants of the bottom region of a 1363. Which of the following microorganism should be
body of water are referred to as _________. eliminated in canned foods?
A. Phytoplankton A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Benthic organisms B. Coxiella burnetii
C. Zooplankton C. Clostridium botulinum
D. Mycoplankton D. Lactobacillus

Page 67 of 100
1364. Phosphatase enzyme present in milk is destroyed 1374. ______ is used to inhibit mold growth in bread.
in which of the following processes? A. Benzoic acid
A. Sterilization B. Nitrates
B. Canning C. Sorbic acid
C. Dehydration D. Lactic acid
D. Pasteurization 1375. VP3 protein is isolated from:
1365. Which of the following microbe is used in the A. TMV
production of blue cheese? B. HIV
A. Streptococcus thermophilus C. HRV
B. Lactobacillus bulgaricus D. FMDV
C. Penicillium roqueforti 1376. Which of the following carbohydrates are mainly
D. Rhizopus stolonifer present in whey?
1366. Bacterial cell grown on hydrocarbon wastes from A. Glucose
the petroleum industry are a source of ________. B. Lactose
A. Carbohydrates C. Fructose
B. Proteins D. Sucrose
C. Vitamins 1377. What temperature is necessary for the production
D. Fats of vinegar?
1367. _____ microorganism have a high vitamin content. A. 43-degree C
A. Bacteria B. 60-degree C
B. Yeast C. 10-13-degree C
C. Algae D. 15-34-degree C
D. Protozoa 1378. Diaminopimelic acid (DAP) is produced by which
1368. Shredded cabbage is the starting product for of the following microorganism?
which of the following fermented food? A. E. coli
A. Sauerkraut B. Enterobacter aerogenes
B. Pickles C. Bacillus subtilis
C. Green olives D. Streptococcus equisimilis
D. Sausage 1379. Insulin was isolated from which of the following
1369. _____ product utilizes whey as its raw material. organs of animals?
A. Lactic acid A. Small intestine
B. Acetic acid B. Tongue
C. Glutamic acid C. Pancreas
D. Lysine D. Stomach
1370. Which of the following is NOT a desired 1380. Which among the following are NOT used as raw
characteristic of the organism to be used for materials for alcohol production?
industrial application? A. Corn
A. Should be readily available B. Molasses
B. Should grow rapidly C. Whey
C. Should produce less amount of product D. Grapes
D. Should be nonpathogenic 1381. What is the pH required for production of baker’s
1371. Solvents and enzymes are found in which of the yeast?
following categories of microbial products? A. 1 to 2
A. Pharmaceutical chemicals B. 4 to 5
B. Commercially valuable chemicals C. 7 to 8
C. Food supplements D. 10 to 12
D. Alcoholic beverages 1382. The leavening or rising of dough is due to which of
1372. Which of the following enzymes cut the DNA the following gases?
molecule at particular nucleotide sequence? A. Oxygen
A. Restriction endonuclease B. Carbon dioxide
B. Exonuclease C. Hydrogen
C. Ligase D. Sulphur dioxide
D. Polymerase 1383. Which of the following instrument is used for
1373. ______ is used for the treatment of blood clots? recovery of yeast cells?
A. Insulin A. Fermenter
B. Interferon B. Centrifuge
C. Urokinase C. Filter press
D. Somatostatin D. Mash storage

Page 68 of 100
1384. Which of the following product is used as a food 1394. Populations of cells descending from a single cell
condiment? are known as ____________.
A. Baker’s yeast A. Mutants
B. Ethanol B. Clones
C. Wine C. Wild-type cells
D. Soy sauce D. Parent cell
1385. Gluconic acid is produced by which of the 1395. The replacement of a purine by a pyrimidine or
following molds? vice versa is known as ____________.
A. Aspergillus niger A. Transversion
B. Rhizopus nigricans B. Transition
C. Aspergillus terreus C. Base-pair substitution
D. Rhizopus oryzae D. Missense mutation
1386. Fermentation of rice is carried out by which of the 1396. Sickle cell anemia is which type of mutation?
following microorganisms? A. Nonsense mutation
A. Bacteria B. Missense mutation
B. Yeasts C. Deletion mutation
C. Molds D. Insertion mutatio
D. Protozoa 1397. Which of the following mutations result in
1387. Which of the following techniques is used to frameshift mutation?
improve penicillin production? A. Missense mutation
A. Fed-batch fermentation B. Transition
B. Submerged-culture technique C. Transversion
C. Continuous fermentation D. Insertion
D. Batch fermentation 1398. Which of the following mutagen causes a break in
1388. Which of the following product acts as a substrate the phosphodiester backbone of the nucleic acid?
for the production of citric acid? A. UV light
A. Molasses B. X-rays
B. Corn-steep liquor C. Nitrous acid
C. Barn D. Base analogs
D. Soyabeen meal 1399. Photoreactivation can cause repair of DNA
1389. Which of the following enzymes is used to damaged by which of the following mutagens?
hydrolyze starch to dextrin? A. UV rays
A. Invertase B. X-rays
B. Pectinase C. Nitrous acid
C. Amylase D. Base analogs
D. Protease 1400. Which of the following enzyme is used to join the
1390. Which of the following enzyme is used in the DNA fragments together?
process of bating? A. Polymerases
A. Invertase B. Exonuclease
B. Pectinase C. Endonuclease
C. Amylase D. Ligase
D. Protease 1401. What is the mutation rate for E. coli per bacterium
1391. Invertase causes hydrolysis of ___________. per cell division?
A. Starch A. 5.8 x 10-6
B. Sucrose B. 5.8 x 109
C. Proteins C. 5.8 x 10-8
D. Pectins D. 5.8 x 107
1392. Rhizopus nigricans produces which of the following 1402. The transfer of genes from one cell to another by a
products? bacteriophage is known as ____________.
A. Citric acid A. Recombination
B. Fumaric acid B. Conjugation
C. Gibberellic acid C. Transduction
D. Lactic acid D. Transformation
1393. Which is the functional unit of inheritance? 1403. _______ used to cut the recipient DNA.
A. DNA A. Endonuclease
B. Chromosome B. Exonuclease
C. Gene C. Ligases
D. RNA D. Polymerase

Page 69 of 100
1404. Bacterial recombination causes transformation of 1414. Which among the following species have not been
the recipient cell to __________. transformed?
A. Donor cell A. Bacillus
B. Merozygote B. Neisseria
C. Zygote C. Rhizobium
D. Recipient cell D. Aspergillus
1405. The transfer of naked DNA from one cell to 1415. In which phase of growth does the recipient cell
another is referred to as __________. take up the donor DNA?
A. Transduction A. Lag phase
B. Lysogeny B. Early logarithmic phase
C. Transformation C. Late logarithmic phase
D. Conjugation D. Stationary phase
1406. What are bacteriocins? 1416. Which among the following was the first germ-free
A. Proteins animal to be reared?
B. Toxins A. Guinea pigs
C. Plasmid B. Rats
D. Sex factor C. Chickens
1407. What is shape of DNA in the male cells of E. coli? D. Monkey
A. Linear 1417. Which of the following vitamins are not required
B. Supercoiled by normal animals?
C. Circular A. Vitamin K
D. Relaxed B. Vitamin B
1408. How much time is taken by the new DNA to make C. Vitamin C
whole phage particles? D. Vitamin A
A. 24 hours 1418. When the phage transduces only those bacterial
B. 60 minutes genes adjacent to the prophage in the bacterial
C. 2 minutes chromosome then it is known as?
D. 10-20 minutes A. Generalized transduction
1409. Which of the following role is performed by a B. Specialized transduction
bacteriophage in transduction? C. Restricted transduction
A. Vector D. Conjugation
B. Donor 1419. Tuberculosis is which type of infection?
C. Recipient A. Acute
D. Episome B. Chronic
1410. What are the characteristics of rough pneumococci C. Primary
strain? D. Secondary
A. Non-capsulated and pathogenic 1420. Enterococci is found in which part of the intestine?
B. Non-capsulated and nonpathogenic A. Duodenum
C. Capsulated and pathogenic B. Jejunum
D. Capsulated and nonpathogenic C. Ileum
1411. In Griffith’s experiment which of following strains D. Large intestine
of pneumococci was isolated from dead mice? 1421. Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by the strains
A. Live rough cells of which of the following microorganism?
B. Dead rough cells A. Streptococcus mutans
C. Live smooth cells B. Clostridium difficile
D. Dead smooth cells C. Streptococcus salivarius
1412. Which of the following things was identified as the D. Clostridium botulinum
transforming principle? 1422. Where does the Streptococcus mutans adhere to the
A. DNA body site?
B. RNA A. Intestinal tract
C. Ribosomes B. Tongue
D. Carbohydrates C. Teeth
1413. Which of the following enzymes acts on the DNA D. Hairs
after its entry into the cell? 1423. ____________ produces colicins in intestine?
A. Ligases A. E. coli
B. Endonucleases B. B. subtilis
C. Deoxyribonucleases C. Clostridium botulinum
D. Exonucleases D. Streptococcus salivarius

Page 70 of 100
1424. Which of the following viruses are termed as 1434. Which type of strains are used in vaccines?
‘orphan’ viruses? A. Virulent
A. Retroviruses B. Avirulent
B. Echoviruses C. Attenuated
C. Coxsackieviruses D. Non-pathogenic
D. Adenoviruses 1435. When the infection occurs suddenly and with
1425. The bacteria most frequently and most consistently severe intensity it is known as __________.
found in the nose are _______ and S. epidermidis. A. Chronic
A. Haemophilus sp. B. Fulminating
B. S. pneumoniae C. Acute
C. Corynebacterium sp. D. Localized
D. S. aureus 1436. Where does Streptococcus pyogenes infects in the
1426. The microorganisms stick to which of the following body to cause infection?
regions of the respiratory tract? A. Cervix
A. Nasal baffle B. Small intestine
B. Nasopharynx C. Urethra
C. Mucus D. Throat
D. Oropharynx 1437. Vibrio cholerae adheres to the epithelial cells of the
1427. Fusobacterium and Bacteroides belong to which small intestine by means of ___________.
type of bacterial group? A. Pili
A. Aerobes B. Hooks
B. Facultative anaerobes C. Hemagglutinin
C. Obligate anaerobes D. Spikes
D. Microaerophilic 1438. Poliovirus attaches to central nervous system by
1428. Which of the following microorganism is found in means of ___________.
the gingival crevices at puberty? A. Pili
A. Lactobacillus B. Proteins
B. Treponema sp. C. Hooks
C. Actinomyces D. Slime layer
D. S. mutans 1439. Which of the following microorganism causes
1429. Which body part contains the largest microbial infection in burns?
population? A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
A. Stomach B. Clostridium perfringens
B. Small intestine C. Borrelia sp.
C. Large intestine D. Streptococcus sp.
D. Mouth 1440. Which of the following microorganism causes
1430. Which of following is not Gram-positive bacilli? relapsing fever in humans?
A. Bacteroides A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Staphylococcus B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Lactobacillus C. Borrelia sp.
D. Bifidobacterium D. Streptococcus sp.
1431. Which microorganism among the following can 1441. Which of the following microorganism participates
live as a commensal but can also be pathogenic? in active penetration into the body?
A. Trichomonas hominis A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Entamoeba histolytica B. Shigella
C. Endolimax C. Borrelia sp.
D. Iodamoeba D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
1432. Degree of pathogenicity is referred to as _____. 1442. In which of the following body part does the
A. Infection influenza virus does not penetrate?
B. Virulence A. Small intestine
C. Avirulent B. Nasopharynx
D. Attenuated C. Trachea
1433. Bacillary dysentery is caused by which of the D. Bronchi
following microorganism? 1443. _______ is an arthropod-borne pathogen.
A. Clostridium perfringens A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Borrelia sp. B. Borrelia species
C. Shigella C. Shigella
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Page 71 of 100
1444. Gas gangrene is caused by which of the following 1454. Which bacteria has an unusual capsule among the
microorganisms? following (composed of polypeptide rather than a
A. Staphylococcus aureus polysaccharide)?
B. Clostridium perfringens A. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. E. coli C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
1445. Which of the following condition is false for tissue D. Bacillus anthracis
invasion by C. perfringens? 1455. Which of the following characteristics of the
A. Anaerobic condition of the wound microorganism does not help in causing the
B. Production of large amounts of hydrogen gas infectious disease?
C. Production of small amounts of hydrogen gas A. Must enter the host
D. Release of toxins B. Must metabolize in the host tissue
1446. Which of the following statement is wrong C. Must resist host defenses
regarding the effects of cholera toxin? D. Must not damage the host
A. Loss of fluid from the body 1456. What is the chemical nature of endotoxins?
B. pH of blood remains constant A. Protein
C. Hemoconcentration B. Polysaccharide
D. Bicarbonate ions are lost from blood C. Lipopolysaccharide
1447. Which of the following is a plasmid-mediated D. Lipid
toxin? 1457. Which type of toxin is tetanus toxin?
A. Diphtheria toxin A. Enterotoxin
B. Botulism toxin B. Neurotoxin
C. Tetanus toxin C. Cytotoxin
D. Food-poisoning toxin D. Endotoxin
1448. Lymph enters a lymph node by several _____. 1458. What is the shape of the lymph nodes?
A. Lymphatic trunks A. Tubular
B. Lymphatic vessels B. Circular
C. Lymphatic capillaries C. Cuboidal
D. Arteries D. Ovoid
1449. Where does Neisseria meningitidis reach after 1459. Which of the following organisms produces
entering the body? neurotoxin as a virulence factor?
A. Kidney A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Intestine B. Clostridium tetani
C. Nasopharynx C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Meninges D. Staphylococcus aureus
1450. Which of the following microorganism can cause 1460. Clostridium perfringens type A occurs as a natural
acute renal failure? flora of ______________.
A. Leptospira A. Stomach
B. Salmonella typhi B. Mouth
C. Neisseria meningitidis C. Intestine
D. Bacillus anthracis D. Eyes
1451. Which of the following disease is caused by the 1461. Which toxin causes paralysis of muscles?
pathogen directly infecting the lymphatic system? A. Diphtheria toxin
A. Meningitis B. Botulinum toxin
B. Typhoid fever C. Tetanus toxin
C. Renal failure D. Cholera toxin
D. Anemia 1462. Hyaluronidase enzyme is produced by which of the
1452. Which of the following disease is an example of following organism?
septicemic infection? A. C. perfringens
A. Typhoid fever B. S. pyogenes
B. Meningitis C. S. aureus
C. Anthrax D. Mycoplasma
D. Renal failure 1463. Which of the following is a major virulence factor
1453. LT toxin is produced by __________. of Streptococcus pneumoniae?
A. S. aureus A. Polysaccharide capsule
B. E. coli B. M protein
C. B. anthracis C. Streptolysin O
D. C. perfringens D. Streptolysin S

Page 72 of 100
1464. Which of the following has the ability to bind Igs? 1474. Which of the following toxin is a hemolysin?
A. Coagulase A. Diphtheria toxin
B. Streptokinase B. Botulism toxin
C. Protein A C. Tetanus toxin
D. Hydrogen Peroxide D. Streptolysin O
1465. Syphilis is caused by ____________. 1475. Which of the following microorganism causes
A. Treponema pallidum lesions in the form of abscesses?
B. Treponema pertenue A. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Treponema endemicum B. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Treponema carateum C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
1466. Which of the following is a specific test for D. Clostridium perfringens
detecting antibodies against Treponema pallidum? 1476. Streptococus pyogenes comprises which Lancefield
A. VDRL group?
B. RPR A. Group A
C. TPH B. Group B
D. Widal Test C. Group C
1467. In which body part does the C. jejuni causes D. Group D
infection? 1477. Which of the following microbe does not belong to
A. Mouth Group D enterococci group?
B. Stomach A. S. faecalis
C. Small and large intestine B. S. faecium
D. Limbs C. S. durans
1468. Which of the following antibiotics is most D. S. bovis
effective? 1478. Which drug is used for treatment of anthrax?
A. Streptomycin A. Erythromycin
B. Tetracycline B. Penicillin
C. Gentamicin C. Tetracycline
D. Ampicillin D. Ampicillin
1469. Which of the following microorganism occurs in 1479. Toxin A involved in pseudomembranous colitis is a
swine? type of _______________.
A. Brucella melitensis A. Endotoxin
B. Brucella abortus B. Enterotoxin
C. Brucella suis C. Cytotoxin
D. Legionella pneumophila D. Neurotoxin
1470. Which drug is used for treatment of brucellosis in 1480. Which among the following species causes
humans? tuberculosis?
A. Erythromycin A. Mycobacterium leprae
B. Tetracycline B. Mycobacterium kansasii
C. Carbenicillin C. Mycobacterium bovis
D. Gentamicin D. Mycobacterium ulcerans
1471. Thayer-Martin medium is used for isolation of 1481. Polioviruses belongs to which of the following
organism for which disease? groups?
A. Diphtheria A. Enteroviruses
B. Meningococcal meningitis B. Rhinoviruses
C. Gonorrhea C. Foot and mouth disease viruses
D. Gastroenteritis D. Retroviruses
1472. Which of the following toxins cause damage to the 1482. Which of the following viruses consists of a helical
tissue cells by its phospholipase action? nucleocapsid?
A. Alpha toxin A. Picornaviruses
B. Delta toxin B. Togaviruses
C. Protein A C. Adenoviruses
D. Coagulase D. Coronaviruses
1473. Complement- fixation is done for laboratory 1483. Which drug is used to cure influenza caused by
diagnosis of which of the following disease? type A strains?
A. Poliomyelitis A. Penicillin
B. Mumps B. Amantadine
C. Measles C. Ampicillin
D. FMD D. Tetracycline

Page 73 of 100
1484. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever is transmitted 1495. Which of the following causes epidemic ringworm
by _____________. of the scalp in children?
A. Mosquitoes A. Microsporum audouinii
B. Ticks B. Trichophyton rubrum
C. Biting flies C. Candida albicans
D. Rabbits D. Epidermophyton floccosum
1485. What is the shape of the Rhabdoviruses? 1496. Which of the following disease is an infection of the
A. Bullet reticuloendothelial system?
B. Circular A. Cryptococcosis
C. Brick shaped B. Moniliasis
D. Ovoid C. Histoplasmosis
1486. What is the shape of the nucleoid of poxviruses? D. Coccidioidomycosis
A. Circular 1497. Which of the following DOES NOT grow in
B. Brick-shaped Sabouraud’s glucose agar media?
C. Irregular A. Histoplasma capsulatum
D. Dumbbell-shaped B. Coccidioides immitis
1487. Which strain of adenoviruses can cause cancer? C. Sporothrix schenckii
A. Subgroup I D. Blastomyces dermatitidis
B. Subgroup II 1498. Animals that are routinely infected with a
C. Subgroup III protozoan or parasite are termed as ________.
D. Subgroup IV A. Definitive host
1488. Marek’s disease virus affects which of following? B. Intermediate host
A. Chickens C. Reservoir host
B. Cattle D. Parasitic host
C. Humans 1499. Laboratory diagnosis of Entamoeba histolytica
D. Birds depends on identification in the ___________.
1489. Which drug is used for healing genital herpes? A. Blood
A. Acyclovir B. Urine
B. Penicillin C. Saliva
C. Erythromycin D. Stool
D. Tetracycline 1500. African sleeping sickness is caused:
1490. Mononucleosis is caused by which of the following A. Entamoeba histolytica
viruses? B. Trypanosoma gambiense
A. VZV C. Leishmania donovani
B. HSV D. Plasmodium vivax
C. EBV 1501. The ability of an organism to resist infections by
D. HIV the pathogens is called___________.
1491. SV 40 causes diseases in which animal? A. Infection
A. Monkeys B. Hypersensitivity
B. Rabbits C. Immunity
C. Humans D. Allergy
D. Cattle 1502. __________ is NOT found in tears?
1492. Dermatophytic diseases attributed infections to A. Lysozyme
_________. B. Lactoferin
A. Humans C. IgA
B. Insects D. IgE
C. Monkeys 1503. Name the cytokines which released in response to
D. Birds virus infection?
1493. Where does polioviruses multiply first? A. Interferons
A. Skin B. Monokines
B. Oropharynx C. Lymphokines
C. Lymph nodes D. Interleukins
D. Spinal cord 1504. Name the group of pattern recognition molecules
1494. Yellow fever is caused by ____________. which functions exclusively as a signaling receptor?
A. Alphavirus A. CRP
B. Rubellavirus B. Toll-like receptor
C. Flavivirus C. MBL
D. Pestivirus D. LPS

Page 74 of 100
1505. Name the first cell which recruited at the place of 1515. What is the name of MHC in humans?
infection. A. HLA
A. Nk cells B. H2
B. Basophils C. Adjuvants
C. Neutrophils D. Haplotype
D. Lymphocytes 1516. Which of the following polypeptide is important
1506. Which of the following is NOT the characteristics for the expression of MHC I on the cell membrane?
of a good antigen? A. Interferons
A. Large in size B. β2-microglobin
B. Foreignness C. Lymphokines
C. Highly complex D. Interleukins
D. Reproduce only by binary fission 1517. Which of these are non-professional antigen
1507. Which of these is NOT a characteristic feature of presenting cells?
adaptive immunity? A. Macrophages
A. Immunogenic memory B. Dendritic cells
B. Antigen non-specific immunity C. Fibroblast
C. Self/ non-self-recognition D. B lymphocytes
D. Diversity 1518. Name the cell which receives antigen presented by
1508. Which of the following cell is a “multipotent cell? MHC molecule.
A. T-cell A. Nk cells
B. B-cell B. B-cells
C. HSC C. T-cells
D. Monocytes D. Macrophages
1509. Mark the one, which is NOT a lymphoid 1519. Name the class of MHC which is recognized by
progenitor cell. CD4 TH cell.
A. Monocyte A. MHC cannot recognize T cells
B. B-cell B. MHC III
C. T-cell C. MHC I
D. NK cells D. MHC II
1510. What is the origin of B-cell? 1520. Which MHC molecule recognizes CD8 TC cells?
A. Pancreas A. MHC I
B. Liver B. MHC II
C. Thymus C. MHC III
D. Bone marrow D. HLA-C
1511. Which of the following is NOT polymorphonuclear 1521. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT
leukocytes? about superantigens?
A. Eosinophils A. Viral or bacterial proteins
B. Mast cell B. Endogenous by nature
C. Macrophages C. Unique binding ability
D. Basophils D. Activate a large number of T-cells
1512. Which of the following cells has a high affinity 1522. Synthesis of antibodies takes place by which of the
receptor for IgE? following cells?
A. Dendritic cell A. Bone marrow cells
B. Mast cells B. T-cells
C. Eosinophils C. B-cells
D. Basophils D. Lymph
1513. Name the macrophages which are associated 1523. Which immunoglobulin can pass through
central nervous system. placenta?
A. Alveolar macrophages A. IgD
B. Kupffer cell B. IgE
C. Mesangial C. IgM
D. Microglial cells D. IgG
1514. Name the molecule which constitutively expressed 1524. Which of these immunoglobulins is present in
on the dendritic cell? external secretion?
A. Class I MHC A. IgG
B. Class II MHC B. IgM
C. APC C. IgA
D. Antigen D. IgE

Page 75 of 100
1525. The basic structure of antibody is ______. 1535. Which of the following steps is NOT involved in
A. Y-shaped the ACTIVATION of T-cell?
B. X-shaped A. Double positive converts to single positive T-cell
C. Linear B. Foreign peptide bound to MHC provide signals
D. Hyperbolic C. CD28 of TCR interacts with B7 of APC
1526. Name the class of immunoglobulin which takes D. CD23 has ITAM, which transducer signals
part in hypersensitivity reaction? 1536. _____ cytokine acts as a T-cell growth factor.
A. IgG A. IL-3
B. IgE B. IL-2
C. IgA C. IL-4
D. IgM D. IL-5
1527. Which of the following is responsible for B-cell 1537. Name the cytokines which involved in
activation? hematopoiesis and secreted by TH1 and TH2 cells?
A. Infection A. IL-3
B. Antibody B. IL-2
C. Antigen C. IL-4
D. Allergy D. IL-5
1528. What is the meaning of thymus independent B-cell 1538. Mark the correct role of cytotoxic T-cells.
activation? A. Help in B-cell activation
A. Without the participation of T-cell B. Produce cytotoxin
B. Do not mature in the thymus C. Proliferate T-cell
C. Thymus would not take part in its activation D. Kill the infected cell
D. Affinity maturation takes place in the thymus 1539. Name the major constituents of cytotoxic T-
1529. Which of the following acts as a co-receptor for B- lymphocyte?
cell activation? A. Lysozyme
A. Interferon B. Lymph
B. IL-2 C. Protein
C. IgA D. Perforin and granzyme
D. CD19 1540. The correction of changes in DNA by a set of
1530. Hybridoma technology is used to produce_____. process known as___________.
A. Interferons A. DNA Replication
B. Monoclonal antibodies B. DNA repair
C. Polyclonal antibodies C. DNA Translation
D. Immune response D. DNA Transcription
1531. Name the most commonly used monoclonal 1541. Which of the following is NOT a type of reverse
antibody for treatment of breast cancer? mutation?
A. Fluconazole A. Back mutation
B. Prostaglandin B. Intergenic suppressor mutation
C. Acyclovir C. Intragenic suppressor mutation
D. Herceptin D. Missense mutation
1532. Mark the one which is NOT used in generating 1542. Name the type of mutation in which the cause of
antibody diversity? mutation is not known?
A. Combinatorial V(D)J joining A. Spontaneous mutation
B. Juntional and insertional diversification B. Suppressor mutation
C. Somatic hypermutation C. Nonsense mutation
D. Binary fission D. Missense mutation
1533. Which of the tracing is NOT the role of T-cell 1543. Addition or deletion of bases causes which kind of
receptor complex? mutation?
A. CDR A. Transversion
B. CD3 B. Frameshift mutation
C. CD19 C. Transition
D. CD40L D. Transcription
1534. Name the syndrome occurs in children due to 1544. Name the phenomenon where a single cell is able
deficiency of the thymus. to reproduce the whole organism?
A. Acromegaly A. Transfection
B. Gigantism B. Gene knockin
C. Cushing syndrome C. Transgenesis
D. DiGeorge syndrome D. Animal cloning

Page 76 of 100
1545. Which cloning technique is used to clone the whole 1555. Arrange the following sequences of tumor
organism? development in the correct order?
A. DNA cloning 1) Metastasis 2) Progression
B. Reproductive cloning 3) Promotion 4) Initiation
C. Gene cloning A. 2, 3, 4, 1
D. Therapeutic cloning B. 4, 3, 2, 1
1546. Name the mechanism which is used to correct the C. 1, 2, 3, 4
defective gene? D. 1, 3, 4, 2
A. Gene therapy 1556. Name the chemical carcinogen which causes
B. Gene knockout prostate cancer.
C. Gene knock-in A. Radon
D. Restriction Fragment Length Polymers B. Arsenic
1547. Name the type of culture which is prepared by C. Cadmium
inoculating directly from the tissue of an organism D. Asbestos
to culture media? 1557. Extrachromosomal DNA present in prokaryotes is
A. Primary cell culture called_______.
B. Secondary cell culture A. Cocci group of bacteria
C. Cell lines B. Chainlike group of bacteria
D. Transformed cell culture C. Plasmid
1548. What is a cell line? D. Grapelike cluster of bacteria
A. Multilayer culture 1558. What is the pH of an empty stomach?
B. Transformed cells A. 0.13
C. Multiple growth of cells B. 1.3
D. Sub culturing of primary culture C. 13
1549. Name the organism from which first cell line was D. 130
derived? 1559. Islets of Langerhans are found in _______.
A. E. coli A. Liver
B. Sheep B. Stomach
C. Mouse C. Pancreas
D. Drosophila D. Intestines
1550. Which of the following is the characteristics of a 1560. The movement of an esophagus to help the food
normal cell? down the GI tract __________.
A. Anchorage independent A. Mastication
B. Continuous cell lines B. Emulsification
C. Dependent on external growth factor C. Peristalses
D. No contact inhibition D. Ejection
1551. Which of the following is NOT the part of growth 1561. The three different cells found in the stomach are:
medium for animal culture? A. Chief cells, renal cells, nephron
A. Starch B. Renal cells, mucous cells, hepatic cells
B. Serum C. Nephrons, hepatic cells, parietal cells
C. Carbon source D. Chief cells, parietal cells, mucous cells
D. Inorganic salts 1562. A vestigial organ for humans found near the
1552. Name the cells which lost their control of the junction of the small and large intestine is the ___.
regulated division, differentiation, and apoptosis? A. Appendix
A. Tumor cell B. Nictitating Membrane
B. Immune cell C. Coccyx
C. Platelets D. Pinna
D. Stem cells 1563. Extraction of a small section of diseased tissue to
1553. Which of the following is NOT the type of cancer? study and diagnose is called ______.
A. Carcinomas A. Autopsy
B. Sarcomas B. Biopsy
C. Leukemia C. Necrosis
D. Caspases D. Endoscopy
1554. Damage and errors in DNA cause_______. 1564. pH in the small intestine of human is _______.
A. Mutation A. 2
B. DNA repair B. 5
C. Translation C. 7
D. Transcription D. 8

Page 77 of 100
1565. The cells of the small intestine have a special 1575. Which blood type is a universal donor?
structure that helps in the absorption of food. This A. O Negative
structure is ________. B. O Positive
A. Villi C. AB Negative
B. Pseudopodia D. AB Positive
C. Flagella 1576. If a person has AB negative blood, who all can
D. Attachment sites donate blood to him?
1566. The _____ connects the small intestine and liver. A. A+, B-, O -, AB+
A. Pulmonary vein B. A-, B -, O+, AB+
B. Renal vein C. A+, B+, O+, AB-
C. Hepatic portal D. A-, B-, O-, AB-
D. Cardiac vein 1577. Anemia is caused due to deficiency of _____.
1567. What solution is used to maintain sterility in labs? A. Hemoglobin
A. Sodium Chloride B. Fibrin
B. Sodium Hypochlorite C. Thrombin
C. Sodium Cyanide D. Neutrophils
D. Sodium Sulphate 1578. A virus that destroys the immunity of the body and
1568. An electrophoresis machine is used to _______. can spread through blood is __________.
A. Separate DNA A. HIV
B. Separate blood components B. Gonorrhea
C. Separate the bone components C. HBV
D. Separate the muscle fibers D. Herpesvirus
1569. Which of the following devices are used to 1579. The leaving of neutrophils from the blood vessels
maintain a sterile environment while working with to act on the site of injury is called as _____.
microorganisms? A. Histosis
A. Laminar Airflow B. Diapedesis
B. Microwave oven C. Amboidal Movement
C. Water Bath D. Flagellation
D. Incubator 1580. Process of killing or removal of microorganism
1570. The cells related to blood are collectively called as from inanimate objects is known as
A. Oestoblast cells A. Sterilization
B. Concdrocyte cells B. Pasteurization
C. Hematopoietic cells C. Sanitization
D. Megakaryocytes D. Disinfection
1571. How many blood types exist including the positive 1581. In the purification of a plasmid DNA what will the
and negative factors? clear lysate consist of?
A. Six A. Genomic DNA
B. Seven B. Plasmid DNA
C. Eight C. Buffer
D. Nine D. Cell debris
1572. If the blood of two different groups is mixed 1582. How can it be determined that a DNA molecule is
together, what problem is observed? cleaved by the action of endonuclease?
A. Coagulation A. Temperature check
B. Agglutination B. Color indication
C. Thrombus formation C. Checking the viscosity of the solution
D. Embolism D. pH check
1573. Other than transfusion, when is it necessary to 1583. To be able to coexist in the same cell, different
take the Rh factor into consideration? plasmids must be ______.
A. Cathertization A. Compatible
B. Spleen Rupture B. Conjugative
C. Pregnancy C. Stable at high temperatures
D. Blood Donation D. Of high copy number
1574. What will happen if the incubation period, post 1584. A longitudinal or prospective study is also referred
restriction digestion is shortened? to as a:
A. Indigestion A. Ecological study
B. Complete digestion B. Cross-sectional study
C. Partial digestion C. Cohort study
D. Double digestion D. Observational study

Page 78 of 100
1585. Modifications of histones can affect? 1595. Where are the platelets produced?
A. Transcription A. In Liver
B. Gene expression B. In Spleen
C. Translation C. In Gall Bladder
D. Both “A” and “B” D. In Megakaryocytes
1586. Splicing protects RNA from 1596. On collecting blood, what solution is added to it?
A. Replication A. Sodium citrate
B. Amplification B. Potassium chloride
C. Degeneration C. Sodium phosphate
D. Degradation D. Potassium phosphate
1587. The Greek word “demos” means what? 1597. How is dengue detected in blood?
A. Native A. Low level of RBCs
B. Epidemiology B. Low level of WBCs
C. People C. Low level of Platelets
D. All given answers D. Low level of fibrin
1588. Which of the following is enrichment media? 1598. Gram negative curved rod bacterium is:
A. Selenite F broth A. Campylobacter
B. Chocolate media B. Streptococcus
C. Dorset egg media C. Neisseria
D. Meat extract media D. Mycoplasma
1589. If you want to know the proportion of the disease 1599. Animal sources for 'Brucella' includes cattle, goats,
that could be prevented by eliminating the exposure sheep and _____.
in entire study population, you should calculate: A. Pigs
A. Attributable fraction B. Fowl
B. Attributable risk C. Chickens
C. Population attributable risk percentage D. Reptiles
D. Negative predictive value 1600. 'Retroviruses' are also called as:
1590. Wound infection caused by 'Pasteurella multocida' A. DNA tumor virus
is associated with bite of: B. RNA tumor virus
A. Cats C. Naked virus
B. Dogs D. Enveloped virus
C. Rodents 1601. Genome of Pox Viruses comprised of:
D. Both “A” and “B” A. ssDNA
1591. Which of following contains both DNA and RNA? B. dsDNA
A. Plasmids C. ssRNA
B. Bacteria D. dsRNA
C. Prions 1602. Negri bodies are observed in cells infected by:
D. Mature Virion A. CMV
1592. Which one of the following factors, released by B. EBV
heating a suspension of sheep erythrocytes, is C. HSV
required for the growth of Haemophilus Influenzae D. Rabies virus
in chocolate agar? 1603. Dengue virus belongs to genus:
A. Coagulase A. Togavirus
B. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) B. Flavivirus
C. Hemoglobin C. Filovirus
D. Protein A D. Retrovirus
1593. The synthesis of erythrogenic toxin by specific 1604. T cytotoxic cells are also known as ______.
strains of group A Streptococcus is determined by: A. CD4+ cells
A. Bacterial chromosomal gene B. CD8+ cells
B. Gene carried by a lysogenic phage C. Macrophages
C. Specific virulence plasmid D. Megakaryocytes
D. Transposon 1605. Public health surveillance includes various
1594. A mutation in DNA gyrase is likely to result in activities. Which one is not part of public health
resistance to which one of the following antibiotics? surveillance?
A. Amphotericin B A. Data collection
B. Penicillin B. Data dissemination
C. Ciprofloxacin C. Disease control
D. Rifampin D. Data analysis

Page 79 of 100
1606. The complement fixation test (CFT) has largely 1615. Compared to the secondary antibody response, the
been replaced by improved assays for evidence of primary response.
infection. Select the organism for which CFT A. Attains a higher IgG titer.
remains a useful laboratory diagnostic test of B. Has a longer lag phase.
infection. C. Persists for a longer plateau period.
A. Coxiella burnetii D. Produces Igs with a higher affinity for antigen.
B. Cytomegalovirus 1616. Many antiviral drugs act by inhibition of a viral
C. Herpes simplex virus DNA polymerase enzyme. Select the virus for which
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae this class of drugs would be effective.
1607. A 5-year-old boy is seen in the paediatric A. Cytomegalovirus
respiratory clinic for regular review of his cystic B. Influenza
fibrosis. He has a productive cough and a specimen C. Measles
is forwarded to the laboratory. D. Mumps
Select the culture medium which would be most 1617. Each of the following statements concerning the
appropriate to isolate Haemophilus influenzae from fluorescent treponemal antibody-absorbed (FTA-
this patient. ABS) test for syphilis is correct EXCEPT:
A. Blood agar A. Once positive, the test remains so despite
B. Chocolate bacitracin agar appropriate therapy.
C. MacConkey agar B. The test is specific for Treponema pallidum.
D. Methicillin mannitol salt agar C. The patient’s serum is absorbed with saprophytic
1608. Ochratoxins are produced by: treponemes.
A. Candida species D. The test is rarely positive in primary syphilis.
B. Cryptosporidium species 1618. The transmission electron microscope has the
C. Aspergillus species greatest resolving power because it uses an electron
D. Clostridium species beam to view the sample instead of a light beam. The
1609. Which DOES NOT provide long term immunity? electron beam is used because electrons:
A. Artificially acquired active immunity A. Do not penetrate the sample
B. Artificially acquired passive immunity B. Are less invasive
C. Naturally acquired active immunity C. Have longer wavelengths than light waves
D. None of the above D. Have shorter wavelengths than light waves
1610. An epitope is _________. 1619. Which of the following statements about
A. a B-cell. Transmission Electron Microscopy is NOT true?
B. a hapten. A. Specimen must be stained with acidic stain.
C. an antibody. B. Specimens must be sliced very thin.
D. the antigen determinant site. C. Beam is focused by electromagnetic lenses.
1611. An immunoglobulin is a ________. D. Specimens are placed in vacuum for viewing.
A. Carbohydrate. 1620. Place the structures of the compound light
B. Fatty acid. microscope in the order that light passes through
C. Glycoprotein. them on the way to the observer's eyes:
D. Protein. (1) condenser, (2) ocular lens, (3) illuminator, (4)
1612. Which of the following is the major specimen, (5) objective lens.
immunoglobulin in human serum, accounting for A. 2-1-4-5-3
80% of the immunoglobulin pool? B. 3-5-4-1-2
A. IgA C. 3-1-4-5-2
B. IgD D. 3-4-1-5-2
C. IgG 1621. Most light microscope contains a/an ___________
D. IgM that converges the light beam so that it passes
1613. Which immunoglobulin is the least prevalent? through the specimen.
A. IgA A. Condenser
B. IgD B. Objective lens
C. IgE C. Ocular lens
D. IgM D. Iris diaphragm
1614. Which of the following is useful to STIMULATE 1622. Light of ________ wavelength typically will result
antibody production? in _______ resolving power.
A. An adjuvant A. shorter, better
B. A hapten B. longer, better
C. Antiserum C. any, poor
D. Purified antigen D. shorter, worse

Page 80 of 100
1623. Which of the following is defined as the ability to 1632. Regarding the Gram stain, which one of the
distinguish or separate two adjacent objects or following is the MOST accurate?
points from one another in a microscopic specimen? A. If you forget to heat-fix, both Gram-positive &
A. Refraction Gram-negative bacteria will appear blue.
B. Resolving power B. If you forget to stain with safranin, both Gram-
C. Magnification positive & Gram-negative bacteria will appear blue
D. Illuminate C. After adding crystal violet and Gram’s iodine, both
1624. Negative staining is useful for observing: Gram-positive bacteria and Gram-negative bacteria
A. Endospores will appear blue.
B. Flagella D. One reason why bacteria have a different color in
C. Capsule this stain is because the Gram-positive bacteria
D. Mycolic acid have lipid in their membrane, whereas Gram-
1625. In ________, surface of a specimen is bombarded negative bacteria do not.
with electrons during sample preparation. 1633. Each of the following statements concerning
A. Dark field Microscope Mycobacterium tuberculosis is correct EXCEPT:
B. Scanning Electron Microscope A. M. tuberculosis has a large amount of mycolic acid
C. Bright-light Microscope in its cell wall.
D. Transmission Electron Microscope B. M. tuberculosis appears as a red rod in acid-fast
1626. When a microscopic image is brightly illuminated, stained specimens.
but is surrounded by a black field, what type of C. After being stained with carbol fuchsin, M.
microscope is being used? tuberculosis resists decolorization with acid
A. Fluorescence alcohol.
B. Phase-contrast D. M. tuberculosis appears as a red rod in Gram-
C. Dark-field stained specimens.
D. Bright-field 1634. While viewing the stained slides in 100x, a drop of
1627. Monochromatic light is sometimes used to increase oil is placed between the tip of the oil immersion lens
the resolution of light microscopes. Light of which and the specimen on a glass slide. What is the
color below would give you the best resolution? purpose of using the oil?
A. Red A. The oil increases the total power of magnification.
B. Green B. The oil prevents light from bending as it passes
C. Blue through the specimen.
D. Orange C. The oil increases the degree of refraction.
1628. All of the following are examples of special stains D. The oil helps to illuminate the specimen.
EXCEPT: 1635. Transmission electron microscopy is best for high
A. Endospore stain magnification viewing of:
B. Flagellar stain A. Surface membranes of live, motile cells.
C. Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast stain B. Internal structure of fixed cells.
D. Negative stains C. Surface structure of fixed cells
1629. Drumstick appearance in the microscopy is the D. Internal structure of live, motile cells.
distinguishing characteristics of: 1636. Which of the following microscopic techniques
A. Clostridium difficile provide three-dimensional images of a bacterial cell?
B. Clostridium perfringens A. Scanning electron microscopy
C. Clostridium tetani B. Transmission electron microscopy
D. Clostridium botulinum C. Fluorescent microscopy
1630. How many magnifying lenses does a compound D. Dark-field microscopy
light microscope contain? 1637. Which of the following stains is used to classify
A. One microorganisms based on their cell wall content?
B. Two A. Capsular stain
C. Three B. Gram stain
D. Four C. Methylene blue
1631. The presence of a capsule around bacterial cells D. Negative stain
usually indicates their increased disease-causing 1638. What type of microscopy allows for the
potential and resistance to disinfection. Capsules are visualization of internal components within live,
generally viewed by: unstained specimens?
A. Negative staining A. Dark-field
B. Ziehl-Neelsen staining B. Electron
C. Scanning electron microscopy C. Fluorescence
D. Gram staining D. Phase-contrast

Page 81 of 100
1639. The compound light microscope can be used to 1648. A family has a diarrhea after eating raw shellfish
observe: due to an oxidase positive, gram-negative curved
A. Viruses, bacteria, cell organelles, and RBCs bacillus that requires a special media for growth.
B. Ribosomes, bacteria, cell organelles, and DNA Which of the following is the most likely cause?
C. Atoms, proteins, viruses, and bacteria A. Clostridium botulinum
D. Bacteria, cell organelles, and red blood cells B. Staphylococcus aureus
1640. The order of reagents used in the Gram stain are: C. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
A. Iodine, crystal violet, safranin, alcohol D. Bacillus anthracis
B. Crystal violet, iodine, safranin, alcohol 1649. The total magnification of a microscope is
C. Crystal violet, iodine, alcohol, safranin calculated by:
D. Crystal violet, safranin, alcohol, iodine A. Multiplication of the objective lens and condenser
1641. Which of the following statements is MOST lens magnification powers.
CORRECT about the differential Gram stain? B. Addition of the objective lens and ocular lens
A. Gram's iodine differentially stains Gram positive magnification powers.
cells. C. The objective lens power squared.
B. Safranin differentially stains Gram negative cells. D. Multiplication of the objective lens and ocular lens
C. Crystal violet differentially stains Gram positive magnification powers.
cells. 1650. A 26-year-old male with AIDS presents with
D. Alcohol differentially destains Gram negative cells. painful bloody diarrhea. Stool culture on
1642. Your patient is a 30-year-old woman with MacConkey agar medium and subsequent analyses
nonbloody diarrhea for the past 14 hours. Which reveals predominantly a gram -negative facultative
one of the following organisms is LEAST likely to anaerobic rod, which is oxidase negative, lactose
cause this illness? negative, H2S negative and non-motile. Which of the
A. Streptococcus pyogenes following is the most likely cause of this infection?
B. Clostridium difficile A. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Salmonella enteritidis B. Vibrio cholerae
D. Shigella dysenteriae C. Shigella flexneri
1643. Each of the following agents is a recognized cause D. Clostridium botulinum
of diarrhea EXCEPT: 1651. Which of the following pathogenic bacteria is
A. Clostridium perfringens MOST COMMONLY associated with traveler’s
B. Vibrio cholerae diarrhea?
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis A. Salmonella Typhimurium
D. Escherichia coli B. Escherichia coli ETEC (enterotoxingenic)
1644. _______ process involves a sex pilus. C. Clostridium botulinum
A. Integration of a temperate bacteriophage D. Treponema pallidium
B. Transduction of a chromosomal gene 1652. The formation of a mating pair during the process
C. Conjugation resulting in transfer of an R of conjugation in Escherichia coli requires:
(resistance) factor A. Intergration of Transposon
D. Transposition of a mobile genetic element B. Transfer of both strands of DNA
1645. The first vaccine for human use produced using C. Restriction endonuclease
recombinant DNA technology was the: D. Sex pilus
A. Polio vaccine 1653. The ability of a cell to bind DNA to its surface and
B. Hepatitis A vaccine import it is required for which genetic process?
C. AIDS vaccine A. Transformation
D. Hepatitis B vaccine B. Specialized transduction
1646. The form of genetic exchange in which donor DNA C. Conjugation
is introduced to the recipient by a bacterial virus is: D. Generalized transduction
A. Transformation 1654. A 25-year-old female medical student reports that
B. Transduction she had lunch at an Indian restaurant in afternoon.
C. Conjugation She is presented in the emergency department of
D. Transfection hospital with the complaints of abdominal cramps,
1647. Which one of the following organisms that infects nausea and vomiting. Culture and gram stain reveal
the gastrointestinal tract is the MOST frequent gram- positive aerobic rods. Which of the following
cause of bacteremia? is the most likely cause of this infection?
A. Salmonella typhi A. Bacillus cereus food poisoning
B. Campylobacter jejuni B. Clostridium botulinum food poisoning
C. Vibrio cholerae C. Staphylococcal food poisoning
D. Shigella flexneri D. Clostridium perfringens food poisoning

Page 82 of 100
1655. A specimen suspected of containing members of 1662. In the laboratory, cells can be rendered ______ by
Enterobacteriaceae was subjected to a few the use of cold calcium chloride or electroporation.
laboratory tests and generated the following results: A. Transducible
Gram negative rod; colorless colonies on B. Competent
MacConkey agar. All of following microorganisms C. Conjugated
may be included in the diagnosis, EXCEPT D. Transposable
A. Salmonella species 1663. Diarrhea associated with prolonged antibiotic
B. Escherichia coli treatment, including pseudomembranous colitis, is
C. Both Salmonella and Shigella MOST FREQUENTLY caused by:
D. Shigella species A. Shigella dysenteriae
1656. Five hours after eating reheated rice at a B. Salmonella Typhimurium
restaurant, a 24-year-old woman and her husband C. Clostridium difficile
both developed nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. D. Rota Virus
Which one of the following organisms is the MOST 1664. Hybridomas are formed by fusing antibody-
likely to be involved? producing white blood cells with:
A. Bacillus cereus A. Viruses
B. Clostridium perfringens B. Red blood cells
C. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli C. Myeloma cells
D. Salmonella typhi D. Bone marrow cells
1657. For which one of the following enteric illnesses is a 1665. Which of the following events is most likely due to
chronic carrier state MOST likely to develop? bacterial transformation?
A. Shigella enterocolitis A. A strain of Neisseria gonorrhoeae starts producing
B. Campylobacter enterocolitis a plasmid-encoded beta-lactamase similar to that
C. Typhoid fever another Gram-negative strain.
D. Cholera B. A formerly non-toxigenic strain of
1658. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely Corynebacterium diphtheriae becomes toxigenic.
to be involved in multiple drug resistance transfer C. A non-encapsulated strain of Streptococcus
from one cell to another? pneumoniae acquires a gene for capsule formation
A. Conjugation with a cell with chromosomal drug from the extract of an encapsulated strain.
resistance appears in the genome of a D. A gene for gentamicin resistance from an
bacteriophage that has infected it. Escherichia coli chromosome
B. Transformation of chromosomal genes 1666. Which type of genetic exchange in bacteria is
C. Specialized transduction of a chromosomal gene susceptible to the activity of deoxyribonuclease?
for drug resistance A. Transfection
D. Conjugation with a cell with a free plasmid B. Generalized transduction
carrying drug resistance. C. Specialized transduction
1659. The process by which bacterial DNA may be D. Transformation
mistakenly incorporated (during assembly) into one 1667. Which of following statements is INCORRECT:
phage being produced by the lytic life cycle and then A. People with TB infection may or may not develop
that DNA-transferred to another bacterial cell which TB disease
may acquire some new genetic traits is called: B. risk of developing TB disease is highest in first 2
A. Homologous recombination years after infection
B. Conjugation C. Every individual exposed to TB develops disease
C. Transformation D. People who are exposed to TB may or may not
D. Transduction develop TB infection
1660. Phages that destroy host cell DNA, direct synthesis 1668. The scientist who discovered M. tuberculosis was:
of phage particles, and cause lysis of the host cell are A. Jean-Antoine Villemin
called: B. Robert Koch
A. Virulent phages C. Calmette and Guerin
B. Prophages D. Edward Jenner
C. Transductions 1669. Which of the following statements concerning
D. Lysogenic phages antigenic drift in influenza viruses is correct?
1661. What bacterial gene transfer process is most A. It results in new sub types over time
sensitive to extracellular nucleases? B. It is exhibited by only influenza A viruses
A. Homologous recombination C. It is due to frame shift mutations in viral genes
B. Conjugation D. It results in major antigenic changes
C. Transduction 1670. XDR TB is defined as:
D. Transformation

Page 83 of 100
 A. MDR TB that is resistant to either one of the A. Mature virion are released by budding
injectable second line drugs or second-line B. Attaches to cell-surface sialic acid
therapeutic fluoroquinolones. C. Single stranded positive sense RNA virus
B. Strain resistant to more than one drug (excluding D. Viral transcription occurs in the nucleus
co resistance to INH and rif). 1679. Influenza virus contains hemagglutinin and
C. resistant to two most effective first-line therapeutic neuraminidase. What does these represent?
drugs, isoniazid and rifampin irrespective of A. Proteins found in the nucleus of influenza virus
resistance to any other drug. B. Glycoproteins on influenza virus that contribute to
D. MDR TB that also is resistant to fluoroquinolones virulence
and at least one of the three injectable second-line C. Glycoprotein receptors on influenza's target cells
drugs used to treat TB (amikacin, kanamycin, or D. Proteins that surround each segment of the nucleic
capreomycin). acid in influenza
1671. Cord growth seen on mycobacterial culture is 1680. Which of the following is commonly used in the
characteristic of: laboratory setting to provide a measure of
A. Saprophytic strains protection against transmission of the human
B. Atypical mycobacteria immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
C. Virulent strains A. Hot air
D. Avirulent strains B. Germicidal soap
1672. Which one of the following is a non-cultivable C. Bleach
mycobacterium? D. Iodine
A. M. avium intracellulare 1681. Which of the following is a limitation of the
B. M. tuberculosis autoclave?
C. M. leprae A. It lacks the ability to inactivate viruses
D. M. Bovis B. It will destroy heat labile materials
1673. All of the following statements regarding C. It takes too long to sterilize
Mycobacterium tuberculosis are correct EXCEPT: D. It lacks the ability to kill endospores
A. Increased CO2 tension enhances growth 1682. Identify the term that can describe a disinfectant
B. Mycobacteria are obligate aerobes that can inhibit the growth of fungi:
C. Can grow in cell free media A. Microbiostatic
D. Doubling time of tubercle bacilli is about 18 hours B. Fungistatic
1674. Latency is an outcome particularly characteristic C. Fungicidal
of which one of the following virus groups? D. Microbicidal
A. Herpesviruses 1683. Which is a form of cold sterilization?
B. Polioviruses A. Gamma rays
C. Rhinoviruses B. Hot air oven
D. Influenza viruses C. Steam sterilization
1675. How many pairs of flagella are present in the D. UV rays
trophozoite of Giardia lamblia? 1684. Which of the following methods of infection
A. Three pairs control requires the use of an autoclave?
B. One pair A. Irradiation
C. Four pairs B. Disinfection
D. Two pairs C. Sanitization
1676. Which of the following statements reflects the D. Sterilization
pathogenesis of influenza virus? 1685. All of the following disinfectant contains heavy
A. The virus enters the host in airborne droplets metal EXCEPT:
B. Viremia is common A. Mercurochrome
C. Pneumonia is not associated with secondary B. Chlorine
bacterial infections C. Copper sulfate
D. Viral infection does not kill cells in the respiratory D. Silver nitrate
tract 1686. The efficiency of moist-heat sterilization is tested
1677. What virus commonly undergoes both antigenic with:
shifts and antigenic drifts? A. Spores of Bacillus stearothermophilus
A. Rabies B. Vegetative cells of Bacillus stearothermophilus
B. Influenza C. Clostridium botulinum
C. HIV D. Spores of aerobic fungi
D. Rotavirus 1687. Which of the following process does not kill
1678. All of the following statements correctly describes bacterial endospores?
the properties of Influenza A virus EXCEPT: A. Pasteurization

Page 84 of 100
 B. Autoclave 1697. Which virulence factor of the UTI causing agent is
C. Incineration MOST important to pathogenesis?
D. Hot air sterilization A. Exotoxin
1688. Which of the following substances can sterilize? B. Coagulase
A. Alcohol C. Urease
B. Ethylene oxide D. Capsule
C. Silver nitrate 1698. Each of the following organisms is an important
D. Chlorine cause of urinary tract infections EXCEPT:
1689. Which of the following methods is useful for A. Proteus mirabilis
sterilization of antisera? B. Bacteroides fragilis
A. Tyndallization C. Escherichia coli
B. Hot air oven D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Filtration 1699. Acute glomerulonephritis is a non-suppurative
D. Autoclaving complication that follows infection by which one of
1690. The cleaning process that is required for all the following organisms?
instruments that penetrate the skin or that come in A. Enterococcus faecalis
contact with normally sterile areas of the tissue and B. Streptococcus pyogenes
internal organs is: C. Streptococcus agalactiae
A. Ultrasonic cleaning D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Sterilization 1700. A 9-year-old child develops glomerulonephritis a
C. Disinfection week after she was treated for a sore throat. The
D. Sanitization causal agent is identified by serotyping of the:
1691. Which of the following is most resistant to A. Teichoic acids
antiseptics/sterilization? B. M proteins
A. Prion C. Capsule
B. Fungus D. Pili
C. Bacterial Spore 1701. For which one of the following bacterial vaccines
D. Cyst are toxic side effects an important concern?
1692. The most suitable way of sterilization of oils and A. The vaccine containing killed Bordetella pertussis
fats is: B. The vaccine containing pneumococcal
A. Tyndallization polysaccharide
B. Autoclaving C. The vaccine containing tetanus toxoid
C. Hot air oven D. The vaccine containing diphtheria toxoid
D. Pasteurization 1702. Regarding vaccines, which one of the following
1693. A(n) ____ is used to prevent infection by killing or statements is the MOST accurate?
inhibiting pathogen growth on animal tissues. A. Killed vaccines induce a longer-lasting response
A. Antiseptic than do live, attenuated vaccines.
B. Sanitizer B. Killed vaccines are safer to give to
C. Disinfectant immunocompromised patients than are live,
D. Sterilant attenuated vaccines.
1694. Who is credited with developing a procedure to C. Killed vaccines are no longer used in this country
heat wine at temperatures well below boiling to because they do not induce secretory IgA.
prevent spoilage of the wine? D. Killed vaccines induce a broader range of immune
A. Pasteur responses than do live, attenuated vaccines.
B. Koch 1703. The MOST important protective function of the
C. Lister antibody stimulated by tetanus immunization is:
D. Gram A. To opsonize the pathogen (Clostridium tetani)
1695. Which of the following is bactericidal? B. To neutralize the toxin of the pathogen
A. Freeze-drying C. To prevent adherence of the pathogen
B. Membrane filtration D. To prevent growth of the pathogen
C. Ionizing radiation 1704. Each of the following statements about human
D. Deep freezing immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is correct EXCEPT:
1696. Any process that destroys the non-spore-forming A. HIV is an enveloped RNA virus.
contaminants on inanimate objects is: B. A DNA copy of the HIV genome integrates into
A. Disinfection host cell DNA.
B. Antisepsis C. Acyclovir inhibits HIV replication.
C. Tyndallization D. The virion contains an RNA-dependent DNA
D. Sterilization polymerase

Page 85 of 100
1705. The main advantage of passive immunization over 1714. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the
active immunization is that: following immunoglobulins?
A. It contains primarily IgM A. IgE
B. Antibody persists for a longer period B. IgG
C. It provides antibody more rapidly C. IgA
D. It can be administered orally D. IgM
1706. Which one of the following is NOT an important 1715. Each of the following statements concerning
characteristic of Streptococcus pyogenes? lysogeny is correct EXCEPT:
A. Beta-hemolysin A. Some lysogenic bacteriophages encode toxins that
B. M protein cause human disease.
C. Protein A B. Viral genes replicate independently of bacterial
D. Polysaccharide group-specific substance genes.
1707. The MOST important way the host counteracts the C. Viral DNA is integrated into bacterial DNA.
function of the pneumococcal polysaccharide D. Viral genes responsible for lysis are repressed
capsule is via: 1716. A sputum sample exhibited Gram-positive cocci
A. Anti-capsular antibody that are alpha hemolytic on blood agar. Which
B. Polysaccharide-degrading enzymes structure of the causal agent provides protection
C. Activated T lymphocytes against phagocytosis?
D. Activated macrophages A. Coagulase
1708. Which one of the following is a virulence factor for B. Capsule
Staphylococcus aureus? C. Teichoic acid
A. Protein A that binds to the Fc portion of IgG D. Catalase
B. An oxygen-labile hemolysin 1717. The principal reservoir for the antigenic shift
C. A heat-labile toxin that inhibits glycine release at variants of influenza virus appears to be:
the internuncial neuron A. Animals, specifically pigs, horses, and fowl
D. Resistance to novobiocin B. Sewage
1709. Each of the following statements concerning C. Soil, especially in the tropics
Clostridium perfringens is correct EXCEPT: D. People in isolated communities such as the Arctic
A. It produces an exotoxin that degrades lecithin and 1718. The use of antibiotics that inhibit or inactivate
causes necrosis and hemolysis. cellular ribosomes will result directly in the loss of
B. It causes gas gangrene. which of the following functions:
C. It is a Gram-negative rod that does not ferment A. Cell division
lactose. B. Protein synthesis
D. It causes food poisoning. C. ATP production
1710. ________ agent is used to prevent Malaria. D. DNA replication
A. Chloroquine 1719. Regarding the effect of benzylpenicillin (penicillin
B. Zinc tablet G) on bacteria, which one of the following organisms
C. Inactivated vaccine is LEAST likely to be resistant?
D. Mebendazole A. Staphylococcus aureus
1711. Which one of the following protozoa primarily B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
infects macrophages? C. Streptococcus pyogenes
A. Leishmania donovani D. Bacillus anthracis
B. Plasmodium vivax 1720. B cells mature in the ____________ while T cells
C. Entamoeba histolytica mature in the__________.
D. Trichomonas vaginalis A. Liver/Kidneys
1712. Which one of the following forms of immunity to B. Bone marrow / Thymus
viruses would be LEAST likely to be lifelong? C. Child / adult
A. Active immunity D. Thymus/ bone marrow
B. Passive immunity 1721. Perforins are produced by:
C. Cell-mediated immunity A. Suppressor T cells
D. Passive and active immunity B. Cytotoxic T cells
1713. A child stung by a bee experiences respiratory C. Plasma cells
distress within mins. & lapses into unconsciousness. D. Memory helper T cells
This reaction is probably mediated by: 1722. Graft rejection are mediated primarily by:
A. IgM antibody A. Non–complement-fixing antibodies
B. IgE antibody B. Cytotoxic T cells
C. Sensitized T cells C. Phagocytic cells
D. Complement D. Helper T cells

Page 86 of 100
1723. A delayed hypersensitivity reaction is 1731. During the maturation of a B lymphocyte, the first
characterized by: immunoglobulin heavy chain synthesized is the:
A. An infiltrate composed of neutrophils A. Gamma chain
B. Edema without a cellular infiltrate B. Alpha chain
C. An infiltrate composed of helper T cells and C. Mu chain
macrophages D. Epsilon chain
D. An infiltrate composed of eosinophils 1732. Regarding bacterial spores, which one of the
1724. Each of the following statements concerning following is the MOST accurate?
bacterial spores is correct EXCEPT: A. They are produced by anaerobes only in the
A. They are formed by gram-positive rods presence of oxygen.
B. They contain much less water than bacterial cells B. They are produced primarily within human red
C. Their survival ability is based on their enhanced blood cells.
metabolic activity C. One spore germinates to form one bacterium.
D. They can be killed by being heated to 121oC for 15 D. They contain endotoxin, which accounts for their
minutes ability to cause disease.
1725. This structure is found in Gram negative bacteria 1733. Bacterial surface structures that show antigenic
but not in Gram positive is ________. diversity include each of the following EXCEPT:
A. Outer membrane A. Pili
B. Endospore B. Peptidoglycan
C. Capsule C. Flagella
D. Cytoplasmic Membrane D. Capsules
1726. Each of the following statements concerning 1734. Which of the following BEST describes the mode
endotoxins is correct EXCEPT: of action of endotoxin?
A. Endotoxins are found in most Gram-positive A. Blocks release of acetylcholine
bacteria B. Degrades lecithin in cell membranes
B. The antigenicity of somatic (O) antigen is due to C. Inactivates elongation factor 2
repeating oligosaccharides D. Causes the release of tumor necrosis factor
C. The toxicity of endotoxins is due to the lipid 1735. Exotoxins are typically:
portion of the molecule A. Carbohydrates
D. Endotoxins are located in the cell wall B. Lipids
1727. The association of endotoxin in Gram-negative C. Proteins
bacteria is a result of the presence of: D. Lipopolysaccharides
A. Steroids 1736. Usually, bacteria form more endospores in
B. Polypeptide response to:
C. Peptidoglycan A. Adverse environmental stress
D. Lipopolysaccharide B. Need for reproduction
1728. An antigen is: C. Nutrient surplus
A. A highly specific protein produced by the body in D. Colony formation
response to a foreign body 1737. MAIN host defense against bacterial exotoxins is:
B. A chemical that inhibits the growth of micro A. Altration of host cell receptors in response to toxin
organisms B. Activated macrophages secreting proteases
C. An antibody produced by the body that stimulates C. IgG and IgM antibodies
the production of antibodies by immune system D. Helper T cells
D. A chemical substance that stimulates the 1738. The identification of bacteria by serologic tests is
production of antibodies by immune system based on the presence of specific antigens. Which
1729. Bacterial fimbriae present on the outer cell surface one of the following bacterial components is LEAST
are used for: likely to contain useful antigens?
A. Cellular motility A. Cell wall
B. Adherence to surfaces B. Capsule
C. Sexual reproduction C. Flagella
D. Adherence and exchange of genetic information D. Ribosomes
1730. Which of the following substances will not 1739. Which of the following is NOT true about
stimulate an immune response unless they are bound phagocytosis?
to a larger molecule? A. It requires fusion of internal lysosomes to engulfed
A. Antibody vacuole for contents to be digested.
B. Antigen B. It only occurs in eukaryotes.
C. Hapten C. It is a form of exocytosis.
D. Virus D. It is energy dependent.

Page 87 of 100
1740. The antibody-binding site is formed primarily by: 1750. The primary goal of public health is to:
A. The variable regions of H chains A. Protect the uninfected
B. The hypervariable regions of H and L chains B. Protect the infected
C. The variable regions of L chains C. Protect the identity of those who have died from an
D. The constant regions of H and L chains infectious disease
1741. Inactivation of a toxin by an antibody is termed: D. None of the above
A. Lyophilization 1751. Which of the following are goals of vaccination?
B. Neutralization A. Prevent infection
C. Opsonization B. Prevent disease
D. Attenuation C. Prevent transmission
1742. In terms of agglutination, what is the difference D. All of the above
between IgG and IgM? 1752. The group that permits analysis of the entire
A. There is no difference natural history of HIV/AIDS is:
B. IgG and IgM cannot perform agglutination. A. Persistent seronegatives
C. IgM is more efficient B. Long-term survivors
D. IgG is more efficient. C. Seroconverts
1743. DNA vaccine contain _________ DNA that D. Long-term survivors with low levels of CD4+ cells
stimulates cells to make ________ antigens. 1753. Globally, the most deaths are caused by:
A. Human / Lipid A. HIV
B. Microbial / Carbohydrate B. Respiratory infections
C. Microbial / Protein C. Malaria
D. Human / RNA D. Tuberculosis
1744. Individual hybridoma cells produce only one type, 1754. Results of surveillance should be distributed to:
or _____________ antibodies. A. Decision makers
A. Polyclonal B. The public
B. Monoclonal C. The data collectors
C. IgA D. All of the above
D. Wild Type 1755. PreP is an effective strategy for reducing the
1745. Which immunoglobulin is the least prevalent? incidence of HIV in:
A. IgM A. Women
B. IgE B. Men
C. IgD C. Drug users
D. IgG D. Pregnant women
1746. A vaccine that activates both cell- mediated and 1756. The biggest single determinant of HIV
humoral immunity would most likely be: transmission to the infant is:
A. Heat Killed A. Mother’s age
B. A toxoid B. Mother’s viral load
C. A virion C. Father’s viral load
D. Short-lived immunity D. Infant’s CD4+ level
1747. Which antibody is the first to be released into the 1757. The first acquired immune cell to respond
blood following an infection? defensively to HIV infection is:
A. IgE A. CD4+
B. IgG B. CD8+
C. IgD C. NK cells
D. IgM D. Macrophages
1748. Public health ethics is: 1758. Diseases that are always present in a community,
A. Patient-centered usually at a low, more or less constant, frequency
B. Population-centered are classified as having an _____ pattern.
C. Subject-centered A. Epidemic
D. Must respect the rights of individuals B. Endemic
1749. Epidemiologists are interested in learning about C. Sporadic
____________________. D. Pandemic
A. The causes of diseases and how to cure or control 1759. An epidemic that becomes unusually widespread
them and even global in its reach is referred to as a ____.
B. The frequency and geographic distribution of A. Pandemic
diseases B. Hyperendemic
C. The causal relationships between diseases C. Sporadic
D. All of the above D. Spanish flu

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1760. Which of the following statements is true 1770. Foot and mouth in cattle is due to infection by:
concerning epidemic diseases? A. Bacteria
A. They are present throughout the year. B. Virus
B. They usually appear and disappear seasonally. C. Parasite
C. They are usually not very contagious. D. Fungus
D. At the end of an epidemic, a disease spreads at an 1771. Most of the major health problems in the poorer
increasing rate and then abruptly disappears. nations are due to ____________________.
1761. A disease vector is a(n) _______________. A. Parasitic worms and microorganisms
A. Organism that transmits a disease B. Psychological tension resulting from work
B. Symptom of a disease C. Air pollution
C. Environmental condition associated with a disease D. None of the above
D. All of the above 1772. The duration of passive acquired immunity is:
1762. Which of the following things cause malaria? A. 10-20 days
A. Mosquitoes B. 20-30 days
B. Plasmodium C. 30-40 days
C. Ixodes D. 40-50 days
D. Red blood cells 1773. Equine glanders is caused by:
1763. The prime cause of illness resulting in death in the A. Burkholderia mallei
poor countries of the tropical and subtropical B. Burkholderia psudomallei
regions today is _______________. C. Burkoldera capaciae
A. Lyme disease D. Burkholderia tialendesis
B. Plague 1774. A tumor is caused by:
C. Malaria A. Purposeless multiplication of living cells
D. Diabetes B. Purposeful multiplication of living cells
1764. The study of cell is called __________. C. Purposeful restriction of living cells
A. Cytology D. All above
B. Pathology 1775. Brucellosis in cattle is caused primarily by:
C. Parasitology A. Brucella ovis
D. Embryology B. Brucella melitensis
1765. The epithelium consists of a single layer of cells is C. Brucella abortus
called ______________. D. Brucella suis
A. Simple 1776. Clinical signs of Tetanus developed by
B. Stratified A. Tetanospasmin
C. Basement membrane B. Interaction between tetanospasmin and nervous
D. None of above tissue
1766. Which of the following cells is an agranulocyte that C. Damage to nervous tissue
becomes phagocytic after it enters the connective D. Tetanolysin
tissues? 1777. Culture medium for Mycobacterium tuberculosis:
A. Basophil A. L J medium
B. Erythrocyte B. MacConkey agar
C. Lymphocyte C. Wilson Blair medium
D. Monocyte D. Robert’s cooked meat medium
1767. Which of the following cell types is more abundant 1778. Colonies of E. coli on MacConkey appear as:
in quantity? A. Colorless colonies
A. Basophils B. Greenish pigmentation
B. Eosinophils C. Pink colored colonies
C. Monocytes D. Medusa head appearance
D. Neutrophils 1779. Which of following medium is used to differentiate
1768. Collection of cells is called as __________. between lactose fermenter and non-fermenter?
A. Organs A. Mannitol salt agar
B. Tissue B. Selenite F broth
C. System C. Blood agar
D. None of the above D. MacConkey agar
1769. Pneumonia is the inflammation of ________. 1780. Which of the following is obligate anaerobes?
A. Lungs A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Liver B. Clostridium tetani
C. Chest wall C. E. coli
D. Pancreas D. Staphylococcus aureus

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1781. AIDS virus is: 1791. The ___ of influenza-enveloped virus appear to be
A. RNA virus involved in attachment to the host cell receptor site.
B. DNA virus A. Pili
C. Retro virus B. Fimbriae
D. Entero virus C. Hemagglutinin
1782. Bacterial cells are at their metabolic peak during: D. Hooks
A. Lag phase 1792. A bacterial defense mechanism against
B. Log phase bacteriophage is called:
C. Stationary phase A. Concatamerization
D. Decline phase B. Restriction
1783. Which of the following is not dimorphic and is the C. Polymerization
only medically important encapsulated yeast? D. Lysis
A. Histoplasma capsulatum 1793. A/an ______ protein keeps the prophage dormant
B. Cryptococcus neoformans and prevents virus reproduction.
C. Coccidioides immitis A. Promotor
D. Aspergillus flavus B. Repressor
1784. Fungi that infect outside layers of skin or hair only C. Inducer
are classified as? D. Enhancer
A. Superficial 1794. A/an _______ is specifically able to have a long-
B. Cutaneous term relationship with the host known as lysogeny.
C. Subcutaneous A. Temperate virus
D. Systemic B. Adsorbed virus
1785. Fungi reproduce by which of the following? C. RNA phage
A. Budding – mostly in yeasts D. DNA phage
B. Fragmentation of hyphae 1795. Which of the following viruses cannot be
C. Spore formation by mold forms transmitted sexually?
D. All of above A. HIV
1786. Infections from fungi occur mostly due to: B. HBV
A. Prolong antibiotic therapy C. HSV-2
B. Immunosuppression D. Rubella
C. Persistent moisture on skin 1796. All of the following viruses are transmitted by the
D. All of the above fecal-oral route EXCEPT:
1787. Which of the following is the agent associated with A. HAV
development of neurodegenrative disease in B. HEV
livestock and humans? C. HIV
A. Bacteria D. Entero virus
B. Virions 1797. All of the following statements regarding HIV are
C. Fungi true EXCEPT ONE:
D. Prions A. It is an oncovirus.
1788. Which of the following has been linked to cervical B. It has enzyme i.e. reverse transcriptase
cancer? C. The virus is present in all body fluids
A. Epstein-Barr virus D. The sexual route is the main mode of transmission
B. Rota virus 1798. The idea of selective toxicity was first proposed by:
C. Human immunodeficiency virus A. Antony van Leeuwenhoek
D. Human papilloma virus B. Paul Ehrlich
1789. In cancer, the reversion of cells to a more primitive C. Louis Pasteur
or less differentiated state is called: D. Alexander Fleming
A. Neoplasia 1799. Which of the following statement is NOT related to
B. Anaplasia poliovirus?
C. Metastasis A. Two vaccine are available
D. Oncogenic B. There is no effective vaccine for polio
1790. Hepatitis B virus is quite different from other DNA C. Can be isolated from throat swab or stool
viruses with respect to genome replication. They D. Three serotypes exist
replicate their DNA using: 1800. ________ is a segmented ds-RNA virus?
A. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase A. HAV
B. Reverse transcriptase B. Arenavirus
C. Rnase H C. Rotavirus
D. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase D. Parvovirus

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1801. Which one of the following statements is WRONG 1811. All of the following are true for agar EXCEPT it:
regarding properties of viruses? A. liquefies at 100°C.
A. Viruses can replicate in non-living media B. is a polysaccharide derived from a red alga
B. Viruses need live cells to grow C. Solidifies at approximately 40°C.
C. Viruses have no ribosome D. is metabolized by many bacteria.
D. Contain either RNA or DNA 1812. The coagulase test is used to differentiate
1802. Which of the following virus is not belongs to the A. S. epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis
Picornaviridae? B. S. aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis
A. Coxsackievirus group A C. S. aureus from Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Rhinoviruses D. Streptococcus pyogenes from S. pneumoniae
C. Poliovirus 1813. All of the following are features of prokaryotes
D. Rabies virus EXCEPT:
1803. The most pathogenic Brucella species for man is. A. Nitrogen fixation
A. B. melitensis B. Photosynthesis
B. B. abortus C. Sexual reproduction
C. B. suis D. Locomotion
D. B. canis 1814. Venereal transmission of disease in a population
1804. Which of the following bacteria lack a cell wall and occurs through:
are therefore resistant to penicillin? A. Injection
A. Cyanobacteria B. Ingestion
B. Mycoplasmas C. Sexual interaction
C. Bacillus D. Doctors
D. Spirochetes 1815. The hemagglutinin is an antigenic determinant
1805. Which of the following gram-positive bacteria present on:
causes pharyngitis (sore throat)? A. Human Papilloma virus
A. Neisseria B. IBD virus
B. Streptococcus C. Influenza virus
C. Staphylococcus D. Adeno virus
D. Mycobacterium 1816. Which of the following is a viral zoonotic disease of
1806. The organisms that can be acid-fast stained is: poultry?
A. Nocardia A. IBD
B. Tubercle bacilli B. HPS
C. Lepra bacilli C. Bird Flu
D. All of these D. Chicken Infectious Anemia
1807. Catalase production is negative in which of the 1817. The occasional occurrence of a disease in a
following? population is called as:
A. Streptococcus A. Epidemic
B. Salmonella B. Outbreak
C. Proteus C. Pandemic
D. Staphylococcus D. Sporadic
1808. Addition of salt to a culture medium only allows 1818. In cohort epidemiological studies, the word
salt-tolerant bacteria to grow, is an example of a: “cohort” means:
A. Complex media A. Population
B. Enriched media. B. Group
C. Differential media C. Risk
D. Selective media D. Variable
1809. Which of the following is a macronutrient? 1819. Which of the following is an arthropod vector
A. Manganese. borne disease of chicken?
B. Magnesium A. Avian Influenza
C. Molybdenum B. Coccidiosis
D. Zinc C. Spirochetosis
1810. The addition of which of the following would D. CRD
change a chemically defined medium into a complex 1820. For disease forecasting, which of the following
medium? system is currently used in epidemiology:
A. Biotin (a vitamin) A. Topography
B. K2HPO4 B. GIS
C. NH4NO3 C. Computer & IT
D. Yeast extract D. Mobile & cable

Page 91 of 100
1821. Dengue fever is a: 1831. The oldest and traditionally used adjuvant in
A. Arbo-viral disease vaccines is:
B. Protozoan disease A. BCG
C. Oncoviral disease B. ISCOMS
D. Water-borne disease C. Alum
1822. In an epidemiological study the incidence of D. Montanide
disease in females is more than that of males but the 1832. ________ is resistant to heat due to the presence of
prevalence is equal in both. It indicates: Mycolic acid.
A. Case fatality is more in female A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Mortality in male is higher B. Clostridium tetani
C. Disease is of less duration in males C. Bacillus cereus
D. Females harbor disease for longer duration D. E. coli
1823. The incidence of gonorrhea is continuously 1833. __________ are live microbial feed supplements
increasing in a particular locality. An investigator that have beneficial effects on the host by improving
reveals that mostly sex workers are living there. This its intestinal microbial balance.
epidemic may be classified as: A. Probiotics
A. Common source single exposure B. Prebiotics
B. Common source continuous exposure C. Bacteriophages
C. Propagated epidemic D. Starter culture
D. Modern epidemic 1834. ____________ strain of E. coli has been associated
1824. Plasmids are put into bacterial cells by: with a number of food-borne outbreaks and is the
A. Restriction enzymes cause of Bloody Diarrhea
B. DNA ligase A. O157:H7
C. Binding of cohesive sticky ends B. O151:H8
D. Transformation C. O111:H8
1825. Sugar found in RNA is: D. All of these
A. Galactose 1835. Sugar found in DNA is:
B. Fructose A. Galactose
C. Ribose B. Fructose
D. Deoxyribose C. Ribose
1826. In an outbreak of cholera in a village of 2,000 D. Deoxyribose
populations, 20 cases have occurred and 5 died. Case 1836. Contain an anti-codon:
fatality rate is: A. tRNA
A. 1% B. mRNA
B. 25% C. rRNA
C. 5% D. cDNA
D. 0.25% 1837. Enzyme required for transcription is:
1827. Antibodies in our body are produced by: A. Restriction enzymes
A. Plasma cells B. DNA polymerase
B. T-lymphocytes C. RNA polymerase
C. Monocytes D. RNAse
D. RBC’s 1838. The process of binding of primer to denatured
1828. Reaction of soluble antigen with antibody is: DNA strand is called:
A. Precipitation A. Denaturation
B. Flocculation B. Annealing
C. Agglutination C. Renaturation
D. Complement fixation D. Primer extension
1829. To prepare vaccine for small pox, the material 1839. Which of the following is a non-pathogen?
used by Edward Jenner is: A. Yersinia Pestis
A. Small pox material B. Cryptococcus neoformans
B. Chicken pox material C. Bacillus subtilis
C. Cow-pox material D. Salmonella typhi
D. Measles material 1840. Which of the following is not found in the bacterial
1830. Antibody present in colostrum is: growth curve?
A. IgG A. Lag phase
B. IgA B. Log phase
C. IgM C. Stationary phase
D. IgE D. Chemostat

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1841. Organisms that thrives in elevated carbon dioxide 1851. Agar agar in the medium is used to provide:
are called: A. Proteins
A. Microaerophiles B. Minerals
B. Anaerobes C. Vitamins
C. Aerotolerant D. Consistency
D. Capnophiles 1852. Live bacterial cells can be examined:
1842. What organism is considered an index of fecal A. After Gram staining
pollution of drinking water supplies? B. In dark field microscope
A. Rota Virus C. In bright field microscope
B. E. coli D. After special staining
C. Salmonella species 1853. ZN staining is done for:
D. Hepatitis E virus A. Salmonella
1843. The correct sequence for the viral life cycle is: B. Mycobacterium
A. Attachment, biosynthesis, penetration, maturation, C. Mycoplasma
release D. All of the above
B. Penetration, biosynthesis, attachment, maturation, 1854. Anaerobic jar is used for the cultivation of:
release A. Bacillus anthracis
C. Attachment, penetration, biosynthesis, maturation, B. Mycoplasma bovis
release C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Biosynthesis, attachment, penetration, maturation, D. Clostridium tetani
release 1855. Cavity slide is used to study bacterial:
1844. Lyophilizer is used for: A. Motility
A. Preserving cultures B. Shape
B. Maintaining temperature C. Staining reaction
C. Sterilization D. All of the above
D. All of the above 1856. Oil immersion lens has magnification power:
1845. The principal dye in Gram Staining is: A. 4 X
A. Methylene blue B. 10 X
B. Safranin C. 40 X
C. Carbol fuchsin D. 100 X
D. Crystal violet 1857. Principal dye in Ziehl-Neelsen staining is:
1846. Iodine is used in Gram staining as: A. Crystal violet
A. Mordant B. Safranin
B. Principal dye C. Methylene blue
C. Decolorizer D. Carbol fuchsin
D. Counter stain 1858. A patient’s spleen is enlarged. What is the correct
1847. Quelling reaction is a rapid technique for the term for this condition?
identification of: A. Splenomegaly
A. E. coli B. Hypoplasia
B. Streptococcus species C. Analgesia
C. Staphylococcus species D. Splenoplasia
D. Mycoplasma species 1859. All is true about broth EXCEPT:
1848. All of the followings are produced by A. Liquid medium
Staphylococcus aureus EXCEPT: B. Solidify below 40oC
A. Protein A C. Enrichment
B. Hemolysin D. Source of nutrients
C. Leucocidins 1860. During Gram staining, Gram negative bacteria
D. Tetanospasmin will appear ______ after decolorization step.
1849. ______ is spore forming genus of bacteria. A. Red
A. Pasteurella B. Colorless
B. Salmonella C. Blue
C. Clostridium D. Pink
D. Mycobacterium 1861. All of the followings are Acid Fast negative
1850. Botulism is caused by: bacteria EXCEPT:
A. Proteus A. Staphylococcus
B. Clostridium B. Streptococcus
C. Bacillus C. Mycobacterium
D. Klebsiella D. Mycoplasma

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1862. All is true about agar slant EXCEPT: 1873. What is the function of interferon?
A. Slope form A. Destroys toxins
B. Preservation of cultures B. Inhibits viruses
C. For anaerobic bacteria C. Kills bacteria
D. Solid medium D. Inactivates protozoa
1863. ______ is an example of Gram-negative bacteria. 1874. The first phagocytes to respond to an infection are:
A. E. coli A. Lymphocytes
B. Salmonella B. Neutrophils
C. Shigella C. Basophils
D. Bacillus D. Eosinophils
1864. The function of the red blood cell is to: 1875. The third line of defense against foreign invaders
A. Produce antibodies against bacteria and viruses in the body is:
B. Act as a phagocyte A. Agglutination
C. Carry oxygen to the tissues B. Inflammation
D. Help increase osmotic pressure within the vessels C. Specific immunity
1865. In which group of animals would you normally D. Interferon production
expect to find nucleated RBCs? 1876. What cells are phagocytic?
A. Goat A. Granulocytes
B. Parrot B. Lymphocytes
C. Snake C. Neutrophils and macrophages
D. Horse D. Macrophages and lymphocytes
1866. Inflammation of the mammary glands is termed: 1877. ___ is used for antimicrobial susceptibility testing.
A. Hepatitis A. Sabouraud agar
B. Meningitis B. Mueller-Hinton agar
C. Mastitis C. MacConkey agar
D. Enteritis D. Blood agar
1867. Lyophilization is: 1878. If a test result is a false positive, it means that:
A. Holding at 72° C for 15 seconds A. Test is negative and the disease is absent
B. Competitive inhibition B. Test is negative and the disease is present
C. Freeze-drying C. Test is positive and the disease is absent
D. Sterility testing D. Test is positive and the disease is present
1868. Pasteurization is: 1879. What mineral is found in hemoglobin?
A. Holding at 72° C for 15 seconds A. Iodine
B. Competitive inhibition B. Calcium
C. Freeze-drying C. Magnesium
D. Sterility testing D. Iron
1869. Bacterial endospores are ______. 1880. What is an intracellular parasite of erythrocytes?
A. Resistant to heat and desiccation A. Plasmodium
B. A form of reproduction B. Entamoeba
C. A consequence of mating C. Trypanosoma
D. Highly susceptible to antiseptics D. Toxoplasma
1870. Vaccines may be given by any of the following 1881. The first line of defense that the body has against
routes, EXCEPT: foreign invaders is the:
A. Subcutaneous A. Antibodies
B. Intramuscular B. Neutrophils
C. Intranasal C. Primary lymphoid tissue
D. Intraperitoneal D. Skin
1871. What method is best used to sterilize heat-sensitive 1882. ELISA is an acronym for:
medical equipment? A. Electro-linked immunosorbent assay
A. Dry heat B. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
B. Autoclaving C. Enzyme-linked immunoassay
C. Gas sterilization D. Electrolytic isoantibody assay
D. Pasteurization 1883. Which of the following cell types mediates adaptive
1872. Phagocytosis DOES NOT involve: immune responses?
A. Chemotaxis A. Dendritic cell
B. Adherence B. Lymphocyte
C. Ingestion C. Macrophage
D. Diapedesis D. Natural Killer cell

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1884. Which of the following does not kill endospores? 1894. What type of vaccine is used to protect vulnerable
A. Autoclaving individuals from influenza?
B. Incineration A. It is an example of a subunit vaccine
C. Hot-air sterilization B. It is an example of a live attenuated vaccine
D. Pasteurization C. It is an example of passive immunization
1885. Generally, endotoxins are products of: D. It is an example of a recombinant vaccine
A. Viruses 1895. Which of the following is a secondary lymphoid
B. Gram-negative bacteria organ?
C. Gram-positive bacteria A. Bone marrow
D. Fungi B. Hypothalamus
1886. What organism causes strangles in horses? C. Spleen
A. Staphylococcus aureus D. Thymus
B. Streptococcus equi 1896. Which mediator can lead to systemic
C. Corynebacterium equi inflammation?
D. Strongylus vulgaris A. Interferon alpha
1887. Causative agent of Fowl cholera is: B. Interferon gamma
A. Pasteurella multocida C. Interleukin 10
B. Salmonella typhi D. Tumor Necrosis factor alpha
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa 1897. The type I interferon response is:
D. All above A. Important in the defense against bacteria
1888. Penicillin gives their bactericidal action due to: B. Important in the defense against helminths
A. Inhibition of protein synthesis C. Important in the defense against protozoa
B. Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis D. Important in the defense against viruses
C. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis 1898. What do helper (CD4) T cells bind to?
D. Inhibition of cell membrane synthesis A. Class I MHC / peptide complexes found on all
1889. Which of the following statements is true body cells
concerning illness? B. Class II MHC / peptide complexes found mainly on
A. Illness is a feeling of not being normal and healthy. antigen presenting cells
B. Illness and disease are the same thing. C. The three dimensional (or tertiary) structure of a
C. Illness is an objectively measurable pathological pathogen
condition of the body. D. Pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)
D. Both “A” and “B” 1899. Which of these cell types is an important antigen
1890. Public health surveillance includes many activities. presenting cell?
Which one is not part of public health surveillance? A. Helper T cells
A. Data collection B. Natural Killer cells
B. Data dissemination C. Dendritic cells
C. Disease control D. Epithelial cells
D. Data analysis 1900. Which of the following explains clonal selection?
1891. Epidemic refers to: A. Memory cells are present at birth
A. A disease that has a low rate of occurrence but that B. Antigens activate specific lymphocytes
is constantly present in a community or region C. The body selects which antigens to respond to
B. An attack rate in excess of 10 per 1,000 population D. People with similar genes respond in a similar way
C. The occurrence of finesses of similar nature clearly 1901. The mononuclear phagocyte system includes:
in excess of the normal expectation for that A. Granulocytes
population at that time B. Neutrophils
D. The annual case rate per 100,000 population C. Kupffer cells
1892. Which of the following is responsible for secondary D. Eosinophils
immune responses? 1902. An activated Natural killer (NK) cell can kill a cell
A. Mediated by naïve lymphocytes expressing:
B. Mediated by memory lymphocytes A. MHC class I and an NK cell ligand
C. Mediated by effector lymphocytes B. MHC class II and an NK cell ligand
D. Mediated by antibodies C. Absent MHC class I and an NK cell ligand
1893. Which of the following best describes a primary D. An NK cell ligand
immune response? 1903. Which effectors can eradicate parasites?
A. 50-100-fold increase in specific IgG after 2-3 days A. Interferons
B. Small increase in specific IgG after 7-10 days B. Neutrophils
C. 50-100-fold increase in specific IgM after 2-3 days C. Complement
D. Small increase in specific IgM after 7-10 days D. Eosinophils

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1904. The antigen-binding region of an antibody 1914. Which type of cell specifically destroys virally
molecule is found in the: infected body cells?
A. Variable heavy chain A. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
B. Variable light chain B. Activated B lymphocytes
C. Variable heavy and light chain C. Phagocytic macrophages
D. Hinge region D. Plasma cells
1905. Another name for 'hepatocellular carcinoma' is: 1915. Integration of viral 'DNA' into cell 'DNA' results
A. Hepatocytes in a structure named as:
B. Lymphocytes A. Viral genome
C. Hepatoma B. Prophage
D. Leukocytes C. Virion
1906. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is the D. Prion
major cause of secondary immunodeficiency. Which 1916. A protein containing partial with no detectable
immune effector does it target? 'nucleic acid' are known as:
A. B cells and plasma cells A. Virion
B. Stem cells B. Prions
C. CD4 expressing T cells C. Viroid
D. CD8 expressing T cells D. Proteins
1907. The transplantation of tissue from one part of the 1917. 'Shigella' and 'Campylobacter' are isolated by:
body to another is called an: A. Urine culture
A. autograft B. Stool Culture
B. isograft C. Spinal fluid culture
C. allograft D. Blood culture
D. xenograft 1918. Transmission of 'pathogens' during pregnancy
1908. Are/were viruses: from mother to child is called as:
A. The most abundant form of life on earth? A. Direct transmission
B. Discovered before bacteria? B. Horizontal transmission
C. Only grown in animals in the laboratory? C. Vertical transmission
D. The cause of all human disease? D. Indirect transmission
1909. What is the most important factor for virus 1919. 'Lactobacillus' is a human pathogen that is also
classification? part of normal flora and found in:
A. The geometry of the virus A. Colon
B. How many proteins the virus has B. Mouth
C. The disease a virus causes C. Genital Tract of female
D. Chemistry of the DNA and RNA D. All of above
1910. A gene, that may cause of initiation of cancer 1920. A 'polysaccharide' that helps bacteria in adherence
growth, is known as: to surface is named as:
A. Hepatitis causing gene A. Granule
B. Mutated gene B. Glycocalyx
C. Oncogene C. Mesosome
D. Carcinogen D. Nucleoid
1911. Human pathogen, of a family 'Togaviruses' is: 1921. Only ciliated 'protozoan' that causes diarrhea in
A. Rotavirus human is:
B. Rubella virus A. Babesia
C. Poliovirus B. Cyclospora
D. Papilloma virus C. Balantidium
1912. Phase of bacterial growth in which bacterial D. Isospora
parent cell does not divide but metabolic activity is 1922. In Rhabdoviruses, term 'rhabdo' refers to as:
vigorous, named as: A. Bread shaped
A. Log phase B. Bullet shaped
B. Lag phase C. Brick shaped
C. Stationary phase D. Beads shaped
D. Death phase 1923. Gap between outer membrane and plasma
1913. Study of 'cancer' is known as: membrane is named as:
A. Cancer study A. Mesoderm
B. Oncology B. Metaderm
C. Phycology C. Plasma
D. Cytology D. Periplasm

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1924. 'Bacterial flagellum' is made up of: 1934. A duration of time, a specific antibody develops,
A. Sugars becoming detachable in blood, known as:
B. Lipids A. Serology
C. Polysaccharides B. Blood culture
D. Proteins C. Seroconversion
1925. Circular, double-stranded and extrachromosomal D. Antibody production
DNA, can replicate independently of bacterial 1935. 'Penicillin' is a drug, destroying cells, if they are in
chromosome, called as: a growing stage, so penicillin is known to be a:
A. Plasmid A. Bacteriocins
B. Cosmic B. Bactericidal
C. Vector C. Bacteriostatic
D. Template D. Bacteria inhibiting
1926. Gram negative rods that do not ferment 'lactose' 1936. 'BSE' is also known as:
is: A. Mad dog disease
A. Clostridium tetani B. Sheep's disease
B. Bacillus subtilis C. Mad Cow disease
C. Salmonella Typhi D. Kuru disease
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae 1937. ‘Pleomorphic' is term used particularly for
1927. All 'RNA' viruses contain single-stranded 'RNA' bacteria, having:
EXCEPT: A. One shape
A. Reovirus B. Rods
B. Retrovirus C. Spirals
C. HIV D. Variable shape
D. HBV 1938. A sudden change in sequence of DNA or RNA, is
1928. In Q fever word 'Q' is used to denote: called:
A. Quest A. Change
B. Query B. Alteration
C. Quotation C. Mutation
D. Quality D. Transduction
1929. Common name for 'tetanus' is: 1939. 'PPD' stands for:
A. Malta fever A. Purified peptides derivatives
B. Fever B. Purified proteins
C. Locked jaw C. Purified protein derivatives
D. Whooping cough D. Purified lipid derivatives
1930. Passage of 'antibodies' from one person to another 1940. Portal of entry for 'H. influenzae' is
is called: A. Genital tract
A. Passive immunity B. Upper respiratory tract
B. Active immunity C. Skin
C. Innate immunity D. Intestine
D. Non-specific immunity 1941. In many clinical laboratories, swelling phenomena,
1931. Process of mating through which two bacterial helps in identification of certain organism, named
cells transfer their DNA, a cell acts as a host while as:
other as recipient, process is known as: A. Quelling reaction
A. Transduction B. Swelling
B. Transformation C. Identification
C. Conjugation D. Pathology
D. Mating 1942. M. bovis is also causative agent for 'Tuberculosis'
1932. Entry portal for 'influenza' virus is: in human and is transmitted by:
A. Skin A. Cow's milk
B. Respiratory tract B. Goat's milk
C. Gastrointestinal tract C. Camel's milk
D. Mouth D. Poultry
1933. 'Actinomycetes' are long chain forming bacteria 1943. Transfer of 'DNA' from one bacterial cell to
that resembles in structure with: another is carried out by:
A. Hyphae of fungi A. Conjugation
B. Algae B. Transduction
C. Protozoa C. Transformation
D. Endospores D. All of above

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1944. Klebsiella, E. coli, Enterobacter and Proteus are 1954. A pore forming 'toxin' that especially damage
causative agent for: white blood cells are known as:
A. Cancer A. P-V leukocidin
B. Urinary tract infections B. Exfoliatin
C. Anthrax C. Enterotoxins
D. Peritonitis D. Exotoxin
1945. Protein coat capsid of viruses, made up of repeated 1955. 'Measles; and 'mumps' virus belongs to a family,
subunits, named as: called:
A. Proteins A. Orthomyxoviruses
B. Amino acids B. Paramyxovirus
C. Capsomere C. Filovirus
D. Nucleotides D. Retrovirus
1946. Portal of entry for 'clostridium tetani' is: 1956. After a viral infection, humans and other animals
A. Nose produces a heterogeneous group of 'glycoproteins'
B. Wound named as:
C. Lesions A. Killer cells
D. Mouth B. Interferons
1947. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Treponema pallidum and C. Alpha and beta cells
Chlamydia trachomatis are isolated from the: D. Lymphocytes
A. Blood culture 1957. Transcription of 'RNA' to double-stranded 'DNA'
B. Genital tract culture is catalyzed by enzyme:
C. Sputum culture A. Polymerase
D. Stool culture B. Transcriptase
1948. A type of phagocytes that are responsible for C. Reverse Transcriptase
detection, destroying and engulfing pathogens: D. Ligase
A. Prophages 1958. A class of protein, functions as antibodies, present
B. Bacteriophages in cells and serum of immune system, called:
C. Micophages A. Myoglobin
D. Macrophages B. Immunoglobulin
1949. Bacterial toxins that are 'lipopolysaccharides' in C. Hemoglobin
nature and are integral part of bacterial cell wall are D. Globular proteins
called: 1959. Majority of upper and lower respiratory tract
A. Exotoxins infection is caused by the:
B. Toxins A. Hantavirus
C. Endotoxins B. Adenovirus
D. Capsular toxins C. Herpes simplex virus type 1
1950. 'Meningitis' is a disease of brain which is caused by D. Poliovirus
A. Hemophilus influenzae 1960. Golden color of 'S. aureus' is due to pigment
B. Neisseria meningitidis named as:
C. Meningococcus A. Chloroplast
D. All of above B. Carotenoids
1951. Substitutions that prematurely stops synthesis of C. Chromoplast
protein, by generating stop codon, called as: D. Xanthophyll
A. Missense mutation 1961. Site of attachment of 'rabies' virus is:
B. Nonsense mutation A. Acetylcholine receptor
C. Frameshift mutation B. CD4 proteins on T lymphocytes
D. Alternation C. Fibroblast receptor
1952. Pathogens that can cause serious infections in D. Wall receptor
'immunocompromised' patients are called: 1962. In viral 'gene' expression first step is synthesis of:
A. Infectious pathogens A. Messenger RNA
B. Opportunistic pathogens B. Transfer RNA
C. Virulent pathogens C. Ribosomal RNA
D. Lethal pathogens D. Proteins
1953. Causative agent for 'scrapie' in sheep is: 1963. Virus size is determined by protein coat named as:
A. Virion A. Cell wall
B. Prion B. Capsid
C. Viroid C. Capsomere
D. Bacteria D. Cell membrane

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1964. Method which is used primarily for purification of 1974. Polypeptides that are secreted by bacterial cell and
milk is called: released outside, called:
A. Sterilization A. Endotoxins
B. Autoclaving B. Exotoxins
C. Pasteurization C. Toxins
D. Ethanol D. Virulent factors
1965. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes, as name indicates, 1975. 'Retroviruses' are also called as:
show variable shape of: A. DNA Tumor virus
A. Cytoplasm B. RNA Tumor virus
B. Nucleus C. Naked Viruses
C. Mitochondria D. Enveloped viruses
D. Ribosomes 1976. 'Toxoplasmosis' is caused by:
1966. A chemical, used for removal of microorganisms A. T. tropic
from mucous membrane and skin, called as: B. T. cruzi
A. Detergents C. T. gondii
B. Alcohol D. L. tropica
C. Pesticides 1977. Recipient bacteria in conjugation are usually:
D. Antiseptics A. Female bacterium
1967. When 'phagocytes' coats infectious particles for B. Male bacterium
destruction, process is called as C. Bacterium
A. Opsonization D. E. coli
B. Defense 1978. Prions are normal human proteins and they do no
C. Destruction caused any:
D. Pathogenesis A. Inflammatory response
1968. Site of attachment for 'HIV' virus is: B. Scratches
A. Acetylcholine receptor C. Harmful response
B. CD4 proteins on T lymphocytes D. Neutral
C. Fibroblast receptor 1979. What is most unique feature of mycoplasma?
D. Wall receptor A. Wall less
1969. 'Syphilis' is caused by: B. Saprophyte
A. Borrelia C. Marine
B. Treponema D. Ozone layer habitat
C. Leptosira 1980. 'Interferons' stops growth of viruses by blocking
D. Mycolasma translation of viral:
1970. For purification of swimming pools and water A. Proteins
supplies of chemical used is: B. Capsids
A. Alcohol C. Capsomere
B. Chlorine D. Glycoproteins
C. Iodine 1981. Before ' immunization' skin is cleaned with:
D. Heavy metals A. Detergents
1971. 'Fungal' cell membrane in contrast to human cell B. Insecticides
membrane is composed of: C. Alcohol
A. Sterol D. Ethanol
B. Cholesterol 1982. 'Peptidoglycan' is vital sugar present in bacterial:
C. Egrosterol A. Cytoplasm
D. Lipids B. Cell wall
1972. Alternative name for 'polymorphonuclear C. Ribosome
leukocytes' is: D. Nucleus
A. Leukocytes 1983. Which is not included in portal of entry of skin?
B. Erthyrocytes A. Plasmodium vivax
C. Granulocytes B. Rabies virus
D. Phages C. Clostridium tetani
1973. When exchange of segment between viruses having D. Poliovirus
segmented genome, process is known as: 1984. 'Leprosy' is caused by a member of genus:
A. Recombination A. Mycobacterium
B. Transfer B. Treponema
C. Translation C. Borrelia
D. Reassortment D. Yersinia pestis

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1985. In therapeutic process, nucleic acid is delivered in 1996. Attachment of receptors and virus, known to be:
patient's cell as a drug to recover a disease, process A. Random
is known as B. Specific
A. Drug therapy C. Irregular
B. Physiotherapy D. Regular
C. Gene therapy 1997. “Amoebic dysentery” is caused by:
D. Chemotherapy A. Entamoeba histolytica
1986. Warts in human are caused by virus: B. Giardia lamblia
A. Adenovirus C. B. coli
B. Arenavirus D. Shigella dysenteriae
C. Papillomavirus 1998. To prevent from 'pathogens' first line defense
D. Rubella virus mechanism is called as:
1987. Poliovirus have single-stranded 'RNA' of: A. Adaptive immunity
A. Negative polarity B. Innate immunity
B. Positive polarity C. Cell-mediated immune response
C. Neutral D. Humoral immune response
D. Bipolar 1999. “Genital tract” is portal of entry for:
1988. Only humans are infected by H. influenzae and A. Human papilloma virus
they have no: B. Candida albicans
A. Animal reservoir C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Capsule D. All of above
C. Antigen 2000. Vaccine used for treatment of “tuberculosis” is:
D. Serotype A. MMR Vaccine
1989. 'N. gonorrhea' enters body through: B. Bacilli Chalmette Guerin
A. Respiratory tract C. Trojan horse vaccine
B. Genital tract D. Bacteriocins
C. Nose of humans 2001. In sheep, “prions” are causative agent for:
D. Eyes of humans A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
1990. 'Rhabdoviruses' is also named as: B. Scrapie
A. Rotavirus C. Cancer
B. Measles virus D. Ulcer
C. Mumps virus 2002. M. tuberculosis multiplies and survive within a
D. Rabies virus cellular 'vacuole' named as:
1991. A polyene, named as nystatin has: A. Food vacuole
A. Antiviral activity B. Phagosome
B. Antibacterial activity C. Phagocyte
C. Antifungal activity D. Osteocyte
D. Neutral 2003. ______ is catalase NEGATIVE bacterial genus.
1992. A disease ‘brucellosis’ is also named as: A. Streptococcus
A. Fever B. Salmonella
B. Undulant Fever C. Proteus
C. Hemorrhagic fever D. Staphylococcus
D. Cold fever 2004. ________ bacteria can grow in acidic pH?
1993. All “herpesviruses” have: A. Vibrio cholera
A. Helical structure B. Lactobacilli
B. Icosahedral core C. Shigella
C. Spiral shape D. Salmonella
D. Linear Shape 2005. A disease producing species occurring in a mixed
1994. Gram positive rod that causes food poisoning is: culture can often be selected on the basis of its
A. Bacillus cereus A. Pathogenic properties
B. Bacillus anthracis B. Special carbon source
C. Bacillus subtilis C. Special nitrogen source
D. Staphylococcus aureus D. None of these
1995. Reproduction of bacteria, usually undergoes: 2006. Plate counts are often reported as:
A. a sexual reproduction A. CFU
B. a binary fission B. CFU/ml
C. a budding C. Both “A” and “B”
D. a spore reproduction D. Thousands/ml

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