Easa (Jaa) Atpl

7/1/24, 19:55 EASA (JAA) ATPL
Air Law Test
Correct: 25
Wrong: 75
You Scored: 25%
1.
A PAPI must consist of:
A
two rows of 4 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone. at equal distance
from each other.
B
A row of 2 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance from each
other.
C
A row of 4 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance from
each other.
D
Two rows of 6 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance from
each other.
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2.
Repetitive flight plans (RPLs) cannot be used for flights other than those executed frequently on
the same days of following weeks and:
AFor at least 10 occasions or every day over a period of at Least IO consecutive days.
BFor at least 20 consecutive days.
CFor at least 20 occasions.
DFor at least 20 occasions or every day over a period of at least 20 consecutive days.
3.
The operator is responsible for the custody and care of the passengers. This responsibility shall
terminate:
AFrom the moment they step from the aircraft onto the passenger exit stairs
BFrom the moment they have been cleared through customs of the destination State
CFrom the moment they step from the aircraft onto the ground of the destination State
DFrom the moment they have been admitted into the destination State
4.
https://www.latestpilotjobs.com/AtplQuestionBank/ts.php?sb=1 1/23
7/1/24, 19:55 EASA (JAA) ATPL
An aircraft flies over mountainous terrain at which a search and rescue operation is conducted
to find survivors after a plane crash. The pilot sees a ground sign in the form of an "V". This
indicates:
AWe have found all personnel.
BLanding impossible.
CEngineering assistance required.
DRequire assistance.
5.
A Type Rating is applicable to:
AAn aircraft requiring a Certificate of Airworthiness.

BAn aircraft that requires additional skills training.
CAn aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation.
DAn aircraft with a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by the State.
6.
What is the width of a code letter D taxiway used by aircraft with an outer gear wheel span of
more than 9 m ?
A015 m.
B23 m.
C10.5 m.
D18 m.
7.
It says in the annex of the ICAO convention that the sizes of airfields are specified by codes for
different runways. What is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4?
A35 m.
B45 m.
C40 m.
D50 m.
8.
Temporary changes of long duration (3 months or more) and information of short duration
which contains extensive graphics and/or text are published as AIP Supplements. Check lists of
these Supplements which are in force are sent to recipients at intervals of not more than:
A2 weeks
BOne week
COne month
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DOne year
9.
ATIS broadcasts contain cloud details whenever the:
ACloud base is below 1500 ft or the highest MSA (whichever is the higher)
BCloud base is below 5000 ft or the highest MSA (whichever is the higher)
CCloud ceiling is below 5000 ft or the highest MSA (whichever is the higher)
DCloud ceiling is below 1500 ft or the highest MSA (whichever is the higher)
10.
Who has the final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft?
AThe Commander.
BThe Operator.
CThe State.
DThe owner.
11.
When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall:
ARead back mode and code.

BOnly read back the code.
COnly use the word "wilco".
DOnly use the word "roger".
12.
An aircraft, on a radar approach, should be told to consider making a missed approach when
the aircraft is not visible on the radar screen for a significant period of time and when it is
within:
AThe last 4 NM of the approach.

BThe last 3 NM of the approach.
CThe last 2 NM of the approach.
DThe last 5 NM of the approach.
13.
Transition Level:
AIs published on every approach and landing chart for every airfield.
BWill be calculated by the ATC service of an ATS unit.
CWill be calculated by the pilot-in-command.
DWill be given by NOTAM.
7/1/24, 19:55 EASA (JAA) ATPL

14.
If the track on an instrument departure is published, the pilot is expected to:
ACorrect for the known wind so as to maintain the published track.

BAsk ATC for another heading to steer correcting for wind.
CAsk ATC for permission to correct heading for wind.
DIgnore the wind and proceed with a heading equal to the track.
15.
Where in the AIP would you find details on instrument holding procedures?
AGEN
BENR
CAD
DAGA
16.
A check list of AIP Supplements is published:
AEvery six months.

BMonthly.
CWeekly.
DAnnually.
17.
What is the rule concerning level or height the aircraft should maintain when flying IFR outside
controlled airspace unless otherwise directed?
A1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 NM of the planned track.

B2000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 NM of the planned track.
C2000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 km of the heading.
D1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft.
18.
What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach?
A
Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed
approach.
BTo Initiate a missed approach.
CReturn to the FAF.
DLand on the instrument runway.
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19.
Contracting states shall carry out the handling, forwarding and clearance of airmail and shall
comply with the documentary procedures as prescribed by:
AThe Acts in force of the Warsaw Convention.

BThe Acts in force Of the General Postal Union.
CThe Acts in force Of the International Postal Union.
DThe Acts in force Of the Universal Postal Union.
20.
What is required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace?
AA flight plan is only required if advisory service is required.

BFlight plan required but PIC need not notify of any changes.
CNO flight plan required.
D
Flight plan required, and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory
service or not.
21.
A TODA consists of:
AThe take-off run available including the clearway.

BThe take-off run available excluding the stopway.
CThe take-off run available only.
DThe take-off run available excluding the clearway.
22.
A manoeuvre where a turn is made from a "designated track" followed by a turn in the opposite
direction to enable the aircraft to fly the prescribed track is called a:
ARace track.
BBase turn.
CProcedure turn.
DReverse track.
23.
How many red lights have to be seen by the pilot, whose aircraft on final approach follows a
normal PAPI defined glide-path?
A1
B3
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C2
Dnone
24.
For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least:
A50 minutes before off-block time.

B30 minutes before off-block time.
C60 minutes before departure.
D10 minutes before departure.
25.
Who is responsible for the safety of an ATC clearance concerning terrain clearance?
AThe Operator of the aircraft.

BATC.
CThe Captain.
DThe ATS reporting point when accepting the flight plan.
26.
Concerning the three entries to the hold, the entry has to be flown on:
ACourse
BTrack
CHeading
DBearing
27.
What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure?
AContinue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible.

BContinue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA.
C
Maintain your assigned altitude and land at the nearest aerodrome at which there are VMC
conditions.
DReturn to the aerodrome from which you departed.
28.
An area symmetrical about the extended runway centre line and adjacent to the end of the
strip. primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aircraft undershooting or
overrunning the runway is defined as a:
ARunway strip extension.

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BRunway end safety area.

CAltimeter operating area extension.
DClearway.
29.
If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an aerodrome, what should be entered in Box 16 Of
the Flight Plan?
ANNNN
BA/N XXX
CZZZZ
DA/N
30.
A fixed obstacle that extends above a take-off climb surface within _ _ _ _ _ shall be marked and,
if the runway is to be used at night, must be lit.
A2 NM
B5000 m
C3000ft
D3000 m
31.
The speed limit (IAS) in airspace E is:
A250 kt for IFR only, below FL100.

B250 kt for IFR and VFR, below FL100.
C250 kt for IFR and VFR, at all altitudes.
D250 kt for IFR only, below FL195.
32.
The State of registration is:
AThe State where the aircraft is finally assembled

BThe State of the owner of the aircraft PS Flag this question 0 View explanation
CThe State where the aircraft is currently registered
DThe State where the aircraft is first registered
33.
In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the flight plan shall be amended or cancelled and a
new flight plan submitted should that delay be in excess of:
A30 mins of estimated off-blocks time (EOBT)

7/1/24, 19:55 EASA (JAA) ATPL
B60 mins of estimated time of ETD

C60 mins of estimated off-blocks time (EOBT)
D30 mins of estimated time of ETD PIP Flag this question 0 View explanation
34.
When requesting to engage the parking brake, a marshaller will give the following signal:
A
Raise arm and hand with fingers extended horizontally in front of the body. Then clench
fist.
BArms placed down and crossed in front of the body moving horizontally.
CArms repeatedly crossed over the head.
DArms placed horizontally sideways with palms towards the ground beckoning downwards.
35.
The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) establishes:
AStandards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.

BProposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.
C
Standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the
Chicago convention.
DAeronautical standards adopted by all states.
36.
On the localizer course or the MLS final approach track in level flight over at least:
A2.0 NM before the ILS glide slope or the specified MLS elevation angle is intercepted.
B1.5 NM before the ILS glide slope or the specified MLS elevation angle is intercepted.
C0 3.0 NM before the ILS glide stope or the specified MLS elevation angle is intercepted.
D2.5 NM before the ILS glide stope or the specified MLS elevation angle is intercepted.
37.
Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the
cloud base is lower than:
A1000 ft and less than 8 km visibility.

B2000 ft and less than 5 km visibility.
C1000 ft and less than 5 km visibility.
D1500 ft or less than 5 km visibility.
38.
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A clearway is a squared area that is established to:

ADecrease the risk of damage to aircraft which run off the end of the runway.
BProtect aircraft during take-off and landing.
CEnable the aircraft to stop in the case of an aborted take-off.
DEnable the aircraft to make a part of the initial climb to a specified altitude.
39.
When doing a procedure turn (45°/180°) going outbound turned 45° off track, the time taken
from the beginning of the turn for Cat A and Cat B aircraft is:
A1 minute 30 seconds.
B1 minute.
C2 minutes.
D1 minute 15 seconds.
40.
According to international agreements the wind direction must be given in degrees magnetic
converted with local magnetic variation from the true wind direction:
AWhen the local variation is greater than 10° East or West.

BIn anticipation of the upper wind for areas North of 60° N and South of 60° S.
C
When an aircraft is requested by the meteorological office or on specified points to give a PIREP.
DBefore Landing and taxi for take-off.
41.
An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if:
A
The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to
maintain visual contact.
BThe pilot follows the published approach procedures.
CAll the above.
DThe aircraft receives radar vectors.
42.
A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at
cruising level deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan by
at least plus or minus:
A5%
B10%
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C2%
D3%
43.
Air Traffic Service unit consists of:
AFlight Information Centres and Air Services Reporting offices.

BAir Services Reporting offices and Air Traffic Control Units.
C
Air Traffic Control Units, Flight Information Centres and Air Traffic Services Reporting
offices.
DAir Traffic Control Units and Flight Information Centres.
44.
Clocks and other timing equipment used by air traffic services must be checked in order to be
able to give the time within plus or minus:
A1 minute of UTC.
B10 seconds of UTC.
C15 seconds of UTC.
D30 seconds of UTC.
45.
When the captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance:
AHe/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC.

B
He/she may ask for a new clearance and the appropriate ATC must grant him/ her that
clearance.
CThe Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan.
D
He/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she Will accept that
clearance.
46.
Which of the following is not a valid SSR mode A squawk?
AA2347
BA3733
CA4444
DA5678
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47.
According to EASA Part-FCL, recognized instructor categories are:
AFI(A), TRI(A), CRI(A), IRI(A) only.

BFl(A) and CRI(A) only.
CFI(A), TRI(A), CRI(A), IRI(A), MCCI(A) and SFI(A) only.
DFI(A) and IRI(A) only.
48.
Aircraft A flies in VMC with an ATC clearance within a control area. Aircraft B without ATC
clearance approaches at roughly the same height on a converging heading. Who has right of
way?
AAircraft A, regardless of the direction from which B approaches.

BAircraft A, if B is to the right of him.
CAircraft B, regardless of the direction from which A approaches.
DAircraft B, if A is to the left of him.
49.
Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that an NTZ
(non transgression zone) of at least:
A760 m is established between extended centre lines.

B610 m wide is established between extended centre lines.
C915 m is established between extended centre lines.
D1035 m is established between extended centre lines.
50.
The transition from altitude to flight level and vice versa is made:
AAt the transition altitude only.

BAt the transition altitude in the climb and transition level in the descent.
COn the transition level in the climb and transition altitude in the descent.
DAt the transition level only.
51.
An aircraft which is not concerned with regular international flights and which makes a flight to
or via a dedicated aerodrome of a member State and is temporarily free of taxes is admitted
and will stay within that State without paying customs:
ADuring a period of 24 hours.

BDuring a period of 12 hours.
CDuring a period which is determined by the State.
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DDuring a period of 48 hours.

52.
Voice ATIS:
1. Cannot be broadcast on a voice ILS
2. Cannot be broadcast on voice VOR
3. Is broadcast only on a discreet VHF frequency
4. Is broadcast on either a discreet VFH, VOR or an ILS frequency
A2 only is correct.
B1 only is correct.
C1, 2 and 3 are correct.
D4 only is correct.
53.
According to EASA Part-FCL, the privileges of the holder of an unrestricted FI(A) rating are to
conduct flight instruction for the issue of a CPL(A):
A
Provided that the Fl(A) has completed at least 500 hours of flight time as a pilot of
aeroplane including at least 200 hours of flight instruction.
BProvided that the FI(A) has completed 200 hours of flight instruction.
Cwithout restriction.
D
Provided that the Fl(A) has completed not less than 15 hours on the relevant type in the
preceding 12 months.
54.
For an instrument runway, how far from the centre line of the runway is a "runway vacated" sign
positioned?
AAt the end of the ILS/MLS Sensitive Area.

B85 m.
CIt depends on the Aerodrome Category.
DTo a distance of the nearest Pattern "A" holding position.
55.
An RNPI route designated as A342Z, indicates that the route is at or below FL190 and all turns
shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg
segments with a radius of:
A22.5 NM for turns between 30° and 90°
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B30 NM for turns between 30° and 90°

C10 NM for turns between 30° and 90°
D15 NM for turns between 30° and 90°
56.
What is the length of Cat II & III FALS (full approach light system)?
A900 m.
B600 m.
C300 m.
D150 m.
57.
In order to satisfy lateral track separation between aircraft using the same fix and Dead
Reckoning, the aircraft:
AHave to fly 30°C separated at a distance of 15 miles or more from the fix.
BHave to fly 45°C separated at a distance of 15 miles or more from the fix.
CHave to fly 45°C separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the fix.
DHave to fly 30°C separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the fix.
58.
When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall
notify by the most expeditious means the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the
landing and, in addition, shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to:
A
Each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were
detained as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO.
BICAO only.
CEach State whose citizens were known to be on board only.
DICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only.
59.
What is the minimum width of a code 4 runway?
A30 m.
B23 m.
C45 m.
D18 m.
60.
7/1/24, 19:55 EASA (JAA) ATPL
An aircraft is maintaining FL150 in Class C Airspace. Another aircraft below at FL140 receives a
clearance to descend to FL70. There is severe turbulence and icing in the area.
When at earliest can a clearance be expected to descend to FL140 or lower?
AWhen the other aircraft has reported to have left FL140.
BWhen the other aircraft has reached FI-70.
CWhen the other aircraft has reported to be descending through FL130.
DWhen the other aircraft has reported to have left PLI 20.
61.
The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the:
AOperator.
BATC Controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace.
COwner of the aircraft.
DPilot-in-command.
62.
When someone's admittance to a country is refused and he/she is brought back to the operator
for transportation away from the territory of the state:
A
The operator is not responsible for that person, to whom the admittance to the host
country is refused.
B
The operator will not take any transportation costs from the passenger which arise from his/her
inadmissibility.
C
The operator will not be prevented from taking any transport costs from a person which
arises out of his/her inadmissibility.
DThe operator and state of the operator are both responsible for the refused person.
63.
ATS airspace, in which IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights receive air traffic control
service, IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information
concerning VFR flights and VFR flights receive traffic information concerning all other flights, is
classified as:
AAirspace E
BAirspace A
CAirspace D
DAirspace B
7/1/24, 19:55 EASA (JAA) ATPL
64.
An aircraft is expected to overtake another aircraft if it is closing from behind in a sector of:
A70° both sides of the longitudinal axis.

B50° both sides of the longitudinal axis.
C80° both sides of the longitudinal axis.
D60° both sides of the longitudinal axis.
65.
An RNP1 route designated as A342Y, indicates that the route is at or above FL200 and all turns
shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg
segments with a radius of:
A15 NM for turns between 30° and 90°

B10 NM for turns between 30° and 90°
C22.5 NM for turns between 30° and 90°
D30 NM for turns between 30° and 90°
66.
What does DER mean?
Adistance end of route.

BDeparture end of runway.
CDistance end of runway.
DDeparture end of route.
67.
In an instrument approach procedure, the segment where the aircraft is lined up with the
runway centre line and when the decent is commenced is called:
AInitial approach segment.

BIntermediate approach segment.
CFinal approach segment.
DArrival segment.
68.
Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under a procedure applicable to:
Adangerous goods.
Baccompanied baggage or under a simplified customs procedure similar to other cargo.
Cmail.
Dcargo.
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69.
The minimum response time for the aerodrome rescue and firefighting services to the end of
each runway as well as to any other part of the movement area is:
A3 minutes and not exceeding 4 minutes.

B2 minutes and not exceeding 3 minutes.
C2 minutes and not exceeding 4 minutes.
D3 minutes and not exceeding 5 minutes.
70.
A separation minima shalt be applied between a light or medium aircraft and a heavy and
between a light and a medium aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed
approach and the lighter aircraft is utilizing an opposite direction runway on a parallel runway
separated by:
AMore than 915 m.

BLess than 915 m.
CLess than 760 m.
DMore than 760 m.
71.
A contracting state which continues to require the presentation of a cargo manifest shall, apart
from the information indicated in the heading of the format of the cargo manifest, not require
more than the following items:
ATotal weight and the nature of the goods only.

BAirway bill number, and the number of packages only.
CTotal weight and the number of packages only.
DAirway bill number. the number of packages and the nature of goods.
72.
It is permitted in a particular sector, if there is a conspicuous obstacle in the visual manoeuvring
area outside the final and missed approach areas, to disregard that obstacle. When using this
option, the published procedure shall be:
ACircling is only permitted in VMC.

BForbid a circling approach in the entire sector in which the obstacle is located.
CProhibit a circling approach for the concerned runway.
D
Recommended not to execute a circling approach in the entire sector in which the obstacle is
situated.
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73.
A marshaller crosses his/her hands in front of the face, palms outwards and then moves the
arms outwards. What does this signal indicate?
ABrakes off.
BRemove chocks.
CClear to close all engines.
DClear to move forward.
74.
A heavy aircraft makes a missed approach on a parallel runway in the opposite direction. A light
aircraft has a wake turbulence separation of 2 minutes. This wake turbulence separation Will
apply when the parallel runways are:
Amore than 915 m apart.

Bless than 760 m apart.
Cmore than 760 m apart.
Dless than 915 m apart.
75.
According to EASA Part-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed and
completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes
having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by an EASA Member State at least
A150 hours of flight time.

B200 hours of flight time.
C150 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time.
D200 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time.
76.
According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters. numbers or a combination of letters
and numbers and shall be that assigned by:
AThe State of Registry or Common Mark Registering Authority.

BThe International Telecommunication Union.
CThe State of Registry only.
DThe International Civil Aviation Organization.
77.
The VMC minima for a VFR flight within ATS airspace class B are:
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A
5 NM visibility at or above 3050 m AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical clear of
cloud.
B8 km visibility at or above 3050 m AMSL and clear of cloud.
C
8 km visibility at or above 3050 m AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical clear of
cloud.
D5 NM visibility at or above 3050 m AMSL and clear of cloud.
78.
The longitudinal separation minimum based on time between aircraft atthe same FL where
there is enough coverage for navigation aids and the preceding aircraft has a higher true
airspeed of 20 kt minimum is:
A15 minutes.
B10 minutes.
C3 minutes.
D5 minutes.
79.
Lights on an airfield or in the vicinity can be extinguished if they can be re-lit:
AAt least 60 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft.

BAt least 15 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft.
CAt least 30 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft.
DAt least 5 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft.
80.
Concerning aircraft registration markings, no combinations can be used if they can be mistaken
for:
A5 letter combinations which are used by international code of signals.

BLetter combinations beginning with XXX.
CCodes which are used for identification of ICAO documents.
D3 letter combinations which are used by international code of signals.
81.
If an aircraft is radar vectored to intercept an ILS localizer, what is the maximum intercept
angle?
A30°
B20°
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C15°
D45°
82.
An aircraft making an approach must be told to make a missed approach, when no landing
clearance has been received from the non-radar traffic controller, when the aircraft is at a
distance of:
A4 NM from the touchdown.

B1.5 NM from the touchdown.
C5 NM from the touchdown.
D2 NM from the touchdown.
83.
The transition from IFR to VFR is done:
AAt the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation.

BOn the Captain's initiative.
CIf told by ATC.
DWhenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace.
84.
What is required if a stop bar is not provided at a runway entrance and the runway is to be used
with RVR of less than 550 m?
AHigh intensity taxiway centreline lights only.

BBoth high intensity taxiway centre line lights and high intensity taxiway edge lights.
CRunway guard lights.
DBoth a Pattern "A" and "B" holding position.
85.
ATIS Will only broadcast cloud base information when the cloud base is:
Awhen Cb are present.

B5000 ft.
Cwhen the cloud base is below MSA.
D3000 ft
86.
Pilots are not allowed to use the ident function on their SSR, unless:
AThey are within controlled airspace.

BThey operate a transponder with mode C.
7/1/24, 19:55 EASA (JAA) ATPL
CIf asked by ATC.

DThey operate outside controlled airspace.
87.
In Mode 2 Parallel Runway operations, a minimum radar separation can be provided of:
A2 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.

B3 NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer courses.
C5 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
D3 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
88.
ICAO Annex 17 lays down the rules to establish security measures for passengers with regard
to:
A
Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods. access control and airport
design.
BCabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods and access control.
CPassenger baggage.
DCabin baggage and checked baggage.
89.
What are the objectives of ATC Services?
A
To prevent collisions between controlled aircraft and to expedite and maintain an orderly
flow of air traffc.
B
To prevent collisions between aircraft, to prevent collisions between aircraft on the
manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area and to expedite and maintain an orderly
flow of air traffic.
C
To provide separation of controlled aircraft and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air
traffc.
DTo provide separation of aircraft and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic.
90.
Which International Agreement relates to Penal Law?
AHague.
BRome.
7/1/24, 19:55 EASA (JAA) ATPL
CTokyo.
DMontreal.
91.
What is the meaning of the signal LL from search parties?
AWe have found all personnel.

BNothing found.
COperation completed.
DWe have only found Some personnel.
92.
Lights at the end of the runway shall be:
ASteady unidirectional lights radiating red light in the direction of the runway.
BSteady unidirectional lights radiating white light in the direction of the runway_
CSteady omni-directional red lights with controllable intensity.
DSteady white lights with controllable intensity.
93.
The minimum number of rescue and fire fighting vehicles required for a Cat 8 Aerodrome is:
ANone Of the above is correct.

B4
C3
D5
94.
When a state renders valid a licence issued by another Contracting State. as an alternative to
issuance of its own licence, the validity shall:
ABe at the discretion of ICAO.

BNot extend beyond 15 days after the validity of the licence.
CBe at the discretion of the Contracting State rendering it valid.
DNot extend beyond the period of validity of the licence.
95.
The continued validity of a C of A (certificate of airworthiness) of an aircraft is subject to the laws
of:
AThe State of the Operator.

Bthe State of Registration.
CThe State of Registry and the State of Design.
7/1/24, 19:55 EASA (JAA) ATPL
Dthe State of Registration and the State of the Operator.

96.
Close to an aerodrome that will be used for landing by aircraft, the vertical position shall be
expressed as:
AFlight level on or under the transition altitude.

BAltitude above sea level on or above transition altitude.
CFlight level on or under the transition level.
DAltitude above sea level at or below transition altitude.
97.
Fixed distance markers, when provided, shall commence:
A300 m from the far end threshold

B150 m from the threshold
C150 m from the far end threshold
D300 m from the threshold
98.
What is the separation that must be maintained before intercepting the ILS on an independent
parallel approach?
A1000 ft.
B660 ft.
C500 ft.
D330 ft.
99.
Except in special cases, the establishment of change-over points shall be limited to route
segments of:
A100 NM or more.
B50 NM or more.
C60 NM or more.
D75 NM or more.
100.
Temporary changes of long duration in specifications for AIP supplements and information of
short duration, which contains extensive text and / or graphical representation, has to be
published as AIP supplements. Long duration is considered to be:
A2 months or longer.
7/1/24, 19:55 EASA (JAA) ATPL
B3 months or longer.
C1 year or longer.
D6 months or longer.

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7/1/24, 19:55 EASA (JAA) ATPL

Air Law Test

AAn aircraft requiring a Certificate of Airworthiness.

ARead back mode and code.

AThe last 4 NM of the approach.

Flag this questionView explanation

ACorrect for the known wind so as to maintain the published track.

AEvery six months.

A1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 NM of the planned track.

Flag this questionView explanation

AThe Acts in force of the Warsaw Convention.

AA flight plan is only required if advisory service is required.

AThe take-off run available including the clearway.

A50 minutes before off-block time.

AThe Operator of the aircraft.

AContinue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible.

ARunway strip extension.

BRunway end safety area.

A250 kt for IFR only, below FL100.

AThe State where the aircraft is finally assembled

A30 mins of estimated off-blocks time (EOBT)

B60 mins of estimated time of ETD

AStandards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.

A1000 ft and less than 8 km visibility.

A clearway is a squared area that is established to:

AWhen the local variation is greater than 10° East or West.

AFlight Information Centres and Air Services Reporting offices.

AHe/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC.

AFI(A), TRI(A), CRI(A), IRI(A) only.

AAircraft A, regardless of the direction from which B approaches.

A760 m is established between extended centre lines.

AAt the transition altitude only.

ADuring a period of 24 hours.

DDuring a period of 48 hours.

AAt the end of the ILS/MLS Sensitive Area.

A22.5 NM for turns between 30° and 90°

B30 NM for turns between 30° and 90°

A70° both sides of the longitudinal axis.

A15 NM for turns between 30° and 90°

Adistance end of route.

AInitial approach segment.

A3 minutes and not exceeding 4 minutes.

AMore than 915 m.

ATotal weight and the nature of the goods only.

ACircling is only permitted in VMC.

Amore than 915 m apart.

A150 hours of flight time.

AThe State of Registry or Common Mark Registering Authority.

AAt least 60 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft.

A5 letter combinations which are used by international code of signals.

A4 NM from the touchdown.

AAt the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation.

AHigh intensity taxiway centreline lights only.

Awhen Cb are present.

AThey are within controlled airspace.

CIf asked by ATC.

A2 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.

AWe have found all personnel.

ANone Of the above is correct.