Practice Test 9

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. breath B. thread C. without D. theme
Question 2. A. extinct B. positive C. thrilling D. impressive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. parent B. paper C. disease D. weather
Question 4. A. disaster B. countryman C. stadium D. habitat
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. Many of the items such as rings, key chains, or souvenirs are made of unusual shell or unique
stones illegally _______ from the protected areas.
A. which is removed B. removing C. which is removing D. removed
Question 6. He arrived _______ than anyone else, so he had to wait more than an hour.
A. earlier B. more early C. early D. earliest
Question 7. As soon as the taxi _______, we will be able to leave for the airport.
A. arrives B. arrive C. will arrive D. arrived
Question 8. Educated women are becoming less dependent _______ their husbands’ decisions.
A. about B. of C. on D. for
Question 9. A strong wind spread the flames very quickly, _______?
A. doesn’t it B. does it C. did it D. didn’t it
Question 10. Regular radio broadcasting to inform and entertain the general public started in _______ 1920s.
A. the B. a C. Ø (no article) D. an
Question 11. Mr. Nixon refused to answer the questions on the _______ that the matter was confidential.
A. reasons B. excuses C. grounds D. foundation
Question 12. Let's take _______ the situation before we make a final decision.
A. up with B. up on C. stock of D. out of
Question 13. Every man in this country who reaches the age of 18 is required _______ in the army for two
years.
A. to serve B. serving C. served D. serve
Question 14. I am afraid that if this solution isn't accepted, we'll be back to _______ one.
A. circle B. rectangle C. triangle D. square
Question 15. The teacher and her students _______ a discussion about job orientation when the light went
out.
A. were having B. are having C. have had D. have
Question 16. I _______ my breath waiting for my exam’s result and fortunately I passed it.
A. held B. have C. gave D. save
Question 17. He _______ the job as an administrative assistant if he meets the requirements of the company.
A. offers B. will be offered C. offered D. is offering
Question 18. Every morning, my mother usually drinks several cups of tea, has a _______ breakfast and then
leads the buffalo to the field.
A. quick B. quickly C. quickness D. quicker
Question 19. When there is a surplus electricity on the grid, these facilities use that power to pump water
from the lower _______ to the higher one.
A. reservoir B. lake C. puddle D. pond
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 20. Tom and Susan are talking about their plan to help disadvantaged children.
- Tom: “Why don't we send them some textbooks and warm clothes?” - Susan: “_______”
A. Great idea! What meaningful gifts! B. No, they are not available.
C. You should agree with us. D. I'm sorry to hear that.
Question 21. Mrs. Kate is talking to her students at the end of the lecture.
- Mrs. Kate: "I wish you a merry Christmas and a happy new year!" - Students: "_______ "
A. You're welcome. B. So so.
 C. Just for fun! D. The same to you!
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 22. In some countries, guests tend to feel they are not highly regarded if the invitation to a dinner
party is extended only three or four days before the party date.
A. admired B. disrespected C. worshipped D. expected
Question 23. Once you choose to be in showbiz, you must learn to shut your ears to all rumours.
A. pay attention B. be indifferent C. refuse to listen D. be in reaction
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 24. People in the mountainous areas are still in the habit of destroying forests for cultivation.
A. planting B. farming C. industry D. wood
Question 25. A.I. algorithms can also help to detect faces and other features in photo sent to social
networking sites and automatically organize them.
A. categorize B. connect C. recognize D. remind
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 26. They are not allowed to use our personal information for their own purposes.
A. They don’t have to use our personal information for their own purposes.
B. They can use our personal information for their own purposes.
C. They mustn’t use our personal information for their own purposes.
D. They may use our personal information for their own purposes.
Question 27. Mrs. Brown last went on a trip to Hanoi two years ago.
A. Mrs. Brown has gone on a trip to Hanoi for two years.
B. Mrs. Brown didn't go on a trip to Hanoi two years ago.
C. Mrs. Brown has two years to go on a trip to Hanoi.
D. Mrs. Brown hasn't gone on a trip to Hanoi for two years.
Question 28. "What is the name of your latest album?", Tom asked Helen.
A. Tom asked Helen what the name of her latest album is.
B. Tom asked Helen what was the name of her latest album.
C. Tom asked Helen what the name of her latest album would be.
D. Tom asked Helen what the name of her latest album was.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 29. Every employee is expected to be competent and industrial because wage rates depend on levels
of productivity.
A. employee B. competent C. industrial D. productivity
Question 30. My former friend, together with his wife, pays a visit to my family last Sunday.
A. former B. with C. pays D. Sunday
Question 31. When children experience too much frustration, its behavior ceases to be integrated.
A. too much B. experience C. its D. ceases
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32. He isn't qualified. He is not given important tasks.
A. If only he were qualified and wouldn't be given important tasks.
B. If he were qualified, he would be given important tasks.
C. If he were qualified, he would not be given important tasks.
D. Provided he is qualified, he will be given important tasks.
Question 33. The train arrived at the station. Shortly after that the passengers rushed towards it.
A. No sooner has the train arrived at the station than the passengers rushed towards it.
B. Hardly had the passengers rushed towards it when the train arrived at the station.
C. Scarcely had the train arrived at the station when the passengers rushed towards it.
D. Not until the train arrived at the station did the passengers rush towards it.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each the numbered blanks.
Berrak: A Pianist
A typical day now involves a couple of hours practice in the morning before going into college and
attending classes. I spend a lot of time in the library, listening to music, trying to learn and become (34)
______ with new pieces of music. One downside to choosing to study and pursue a career in music is that you
end up spending hours and hours by yourself. (35) ______, I also try to spend time at college, meeting other
people and networking. The more musicians I know, the more likely I am to be asked to play for (36) ______.
The more I play, the better known I become and in the music business it's all about recognition and getting
your name out there. Ultimately, if I am asked to play and get given a job it means that someone else loses
work and sometimes it feels like a constant battle. You can't help being drawn into an artificial world (37)
______ you are constantly comparing yourself to others and are always worried about what others think of
your performances. In the real world outside of college, your (38) ______ is much wider.
(Adapted from “FCE Practice Test” by Karen Dyer and Dave Harwood)
Question 34. A. familiar B. similar C. alike D. related
Question 35. A. Moreover B. However C. Therefore D. Otherwise
Question 36. A. other B. each C. another D. others
Question 37. A. where B. which C. that D. whom
Question 38. A. witness B. spectator C. audience D. visitor
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.
When he was nine years old, Felix Finkbeiner gave a class presentation on climate change. The young
German spoke about deforestation and its effect on the planet. At the end of his talk, he challenged the people
of his country to help by planting one million trees. Nobody thought much would come of a nine-year-old’s
school project. Before he was 20, however, Finkbeiner’s efforts had resulted in the planting of more than 14
billion trees around the world.
Finkbeiner and his classmates began the project - named “Plant-for-the-Planet” - by planting the first tree
outside their school. Other schools followed the example, and news of the one-million challenge spread. As a
result, Finkbeiner was asked to speak at the European Parliament. Other invitations soon followed, and when
he was just 13, he spoke at a United Nations conference in New York. “We cannot trust that adults alone will
save our future,” he said in the speech. “We have to take our future in our hands.”
Finkbeiner is now in his twenties, and Plant-for-the-Planet is an organization with around 70,000
members. It works to teach people about climate change and to encourage the planting of more trees.
Germany’s one millionth tree was planted long ago. The goal now is one trillion - 150 for every person on
Earth.
(Adapted from Reading Explorer by Becky Tarver Chase and David Bohlke)
Question 39. What is the reading mainly about?
A. the problems deforestation can cause for our planet
B. the reasons of climate change
C. how planting trees can help the environment
D. how a young person has made a big difference to the environment
Question 40. The word “deforestation” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. afforestation B. defecation
C. the cutting down of trees D. devastation
Question 41. According to paragraph 2, what first happened to Finkbeiner after the widespread impact of the
“Plant-for-the -Planet” project?
A. He discussed the problem of climate change with world leaders.
B. He made a presentation at a United Nations conference in New York.
C. He received an offer to make a speech at the European Parliament.
D. He had to confront many challenges.
Question 42. In the third paragraph, what does the word “It” refer to?
A. Plant-for-the-Planet B. Germany's one millionth tree
C. Climate change D. Planting trees
Question 43. What is NOT true about Plant-for-the Planet today?
A. It teaches people about climate change. B. It has many thousands of members.
 C. Its aim is to plant one billion trees. D. It encourages people to afforest.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.
The Globe
Shakespeare's Globe Theatre is a popular topic for people interested in theater and history. However, the
Globe Theatre as we know it today is not the same building that was used originally. In fact, the Globe was
situated in many different places during its long history.
When the rental agreement on the original location ended, one of the actors bought a theater called the
Blackfriars, which was located in another part of town. However, many complaints from neighbors and the
town council led to the creation of a petition that requested that the acting group move their company out of
town. Upset with this news, the actors returned to the original theater, took most of it apart, and then moved
the materials across the Thames River to Bankside, where they proceeded to construct the next version of the
Globe.
This endeavor, though, did not go so smoothly. The owner of the original Globe Theatre, who had rented
it to the actors, took the acting group to court. He wanted the actors to pay for the damage they had done to his
building. In the end, however, the actors won the case and continued to construct their “newly-acquired”
theater. Later, the actors split their plays between the original theater and the new Globe.
In 1643, the original Globe Theatre burned to the ground. How did this happen? Historians believe that a
cannon that was shot during a performance of the play Henry Vill started a large fire. Yet, the Globe Theatre
still survived. A new Globe was later completed on the same site before Shakespeare's death. However, it was
shut down by the Puritans in 1642 and later destroyed during the English Civil War of 1643.
In May of 1997, Queen Elizabeth II officially opened a newly constructed version of the Globe with a
production of Henry V. This is the Globe Theatre that people visit today. The queen wanted the new theater to
be much like the old one. The new model is very similar to the original theater. For instance, it is also a three-
story building. Also, it has seating for 1,500 people. It also has an area called the “yard” on the lower level. In
its first season, the theater attracted 210,000 people.
(Adapted from “Developing Skills for the TOEFL iBT intermediate”)
Question 44. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The history of the Globe Theatre B. The renovation of the Globe Theare
C. The construction of the Globe Theare D. Acting at the Globe Theare
Question 45. The word “proceeded” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. continued B. began C. marched D. hurried
Question 46. The word “acquired” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced with which of the following?
A. stolen B. bought C. discovered D. obtained
Question 47. According to the passage, what is TRUE of the original Globe Theatre?
A. It was not popular at first. B. It had three levels.
C. It was in downtown London. D. The tickets were not very expensive.
Question 48. What is NOT mentioned in the passage about the Globe Theatre?
A. There was controversy surrounding the Globe when it was first in operation.
B. The new version of the Globe is much like the Globe as it was hundreds of years ago.
C. All visitors to the new Globe will find the theater accommodating and pleasurable.
D. Theater-goers should understand that the Globe is not like other modern theaters.
Question 49. Based on the information in paragraph 4, what can be inferred about the Puritans?
A. They loved Shakespeare. B. They lived in America.
C. They did not like plays. D. They wore black clothes.
Question 50. The word “its” in paragraph 5 refers to _______.
A. the season B. the program C. the theater D. the play
 Practice Test 10
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. theory B. therefore C. neither D. weather
Question 2. A. hide B. pick C. shine D. like
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. inform B. maintain C. include D. bother
Question 4. A. initial B. impressive C. different D. exciting
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. Many of the pictures _______ from outer space are presently on display in the public library.
A. that sent B. sent C. sending D. were sent
Question 6. The hotel they lived during the holiday was _______ than any others in that city.
A. expensive B. more expensive C. the most expensive D. as expensive
Question 7. She will apply for a scholarship to study overseas, _______ this English course.
A. as soon as she has completed B. when she completed
C. by the time she will have completed D. after she had completed
Question 8. As I have a well-paid job, I am independent _______ my parents financially.
A. in B. of C. at D. on
Question 9. People in big cities are always spending so much time in traffic, _______?
A. aren’t they B. don’t they C. weren’t they D. didn’t they
Question 10. The idea that _______ good night sleep will cure everything is a complete misleading notion.
A. the B. a C. an D. Ø (no article)
Question 11. The website is managed by volunteers who put in _______ hours of work helping students deal
with situations of bullying.
A. generous B. countless C. overwhelming D. widespread
Question 12. A love marriage, however, does not necessarily _______ much sharing of interests and
responsibilities
A. take over B. result in C. hold on D. keep to
Question 13. The students will volunteer _______ trees in the park as part of their community service project.
A. to plant B. plant C. to planting D. planting
Question 14. Most young leaders find running a big business a lot like herding _______.
A. dogs B. mice C. cats D. horses
Question 15. I _______ for my final exam when my mother suddenly came to give me a cup of coffee.
A. was studying B. studied C. have studied D. had studied
Question 16. At the press conference, the Minister clearly stated that medical research would _______
precedence over space projects.
A. make B. take C. give D. do
Question 17. The documents _______ to the government agency when the secretary finishes copying them.
A. will have submitted B. will be submitted C. have submitted D. will submit
Question 18. Some teachers still opt for _______ methods of teaching, which causes valid concern among
parents.
A. tradition B. traditionally C. traditional D. traditionalism
Question 19. Investigators usually assess the crime _______, collect evidence, prepare reports and testify in
court.
A. vision B. sight C. view D. scene
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 20. Peter and his mother are talking about his job in the future.
- Mother: “I think you should work as a teacher of English in the future.”
- Peter: “_______. I want to go to medical school and become a surgeon.”
A. I couldn’t agree more B. I didn’t say anything
C. I’m afraid I disagree D. Yes. It’s very exciting
Question 21. Mike and Laura are talking about their plan for the weekend.
 - Mike: “Why don’t we go out for a change at the weekend?”
- Laura: “_______”
A. Come off it! B. That’s great! C. How come? D. I hate to differ.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 22. The police didn’t have enough evidence to detain their suspect, so they had to let him go free.
A. arrest B. contact C. release D. capture
Question 23. Although emails have been all the rage over the past years, sending cards by post is still a
tradition among many people.
A. popular B. uncommon C. formal D. active
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 24. The company executives forestalled criticism by keeping people fully informed of what they
are doing.
A. gained B. refused C. worsened D. prevented
Question 25. She is well aware of social issues, and gender inequality is a recurrent theme in her books.
A. repeated B. casual C. negative D. simple
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in the meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 26. It is possible that she wasn’t in a confused state of mind.
A. She may not be in a confused state of mind.
B. She must not have been in a confused state of mind.
C. She should have been in a confused state of mind.
D. She may not have been in a confused state of mind.
Question 27. I last bought one thing with bitcoin two years ago, which looks like a USB to secure my funds.
A. I have two years to buy one thing with bitcoin, which look like a USB to secure my funds.
B. I didn’t buy one thing with bitcoin two years ago, which looks like a USB to secure my funds.
C. I have bought one thing with bitcoin for two years, which looks like a USB to secure my funds.
D. I haven’t bought one thing with bitcoin for two years, which looks like a USB to secure my funds.
Question 28. “What are you going to give the name to this cat?”, asked my wife.
A. My wife asked me what was I going to give the name to that cat.
B. My wife asked me what you are going to give the name to this cat.
C. My wife asked me what I was going to give the name to that cat.
D. My wife asked me what you were going to give the name to that cat.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Management has promised to facsimile an easy transition to the new ownership structure.
A. facsimile B. ownership C. to D. has
Question 30. I thought we would talk about how life is so much different for teens today than it is for our
generation in the old days.
A. generation B. it is C. talk about D. different
Question 31. It was Charles Goodyear who began the modern-day plastic revolution when they vulcanized
rubber in 1839, paving the way for the tire.
A. wass B. they C. the way D. who
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32. Hoa doesn’t come to class today. She contracts a serious illness
A. If Hoa didn’t contract a serious illness, she would come to class today.
B. In case Hoa didn’t contract a serious illness, she wouldn’t come to class today.
C. If Hoa contracted a serious illness, she won’t come to class today.
D. If Hoa contracted a serious illness, she would come to class today.
Question 33 I noticed that I’d seen her before only after she turned up at the meeting.
A. Only after she turned up at the meeting did I notice that I’d seen her before.
B. No sooner had I noticed that I’d seen her before than she turned up at the meeting.
C. Only after did I notice that I’d seen her before she turned up at the meeting.
D. Only after I noticed that I’d seen her before did she turn up at the meeting.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38
WHAT IS AI?
Artificial intelligence is the technology that allows machines to possess human-like intelligence. It means
creating intelligence (34) __________. The machines or robots are programmed (35) __________ they think
like humans and act like them. It is believed that machines can be programmed to possess cognitive abilities.
AI robots can think, make the most appropriate decisions and learn from past experiences without any human
intervention. This concept is called machine learning (36) ________ is a sub-branch of artificial intelligence.
Artificial intelligence can be (37) __________ into two different types, namely - weak AI and strong AI.
Weak AI involves performing some tasks like answering questions and performing basic tasks like setting the
alarm, playing music, or making a call. Strong AI refers to performing (38) __________ that involve problem-
solving and decision-making without human intervention. This type of AI is found in smart robots, self-
driving cars.
(Adapted from universal-robots.com)
Question 34. A. articulately B. arduously C. artificially D. immediately
Question 35. A. until B. because C. although D. so that
Question 36. A. which B. who C. where D. what
Question 37. A. controlled B. classified C. generated D. analyzed
Question 38. A. others B. the others C. other D. the other
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 39 to 43
In the early days of sea travel, seamen on long voyages lived exclusively on salted meat and biscuits.
Many of them died of scurvy, a disease of the blood which causes swollen gums, livid white spots on the flesh
and general exhaustion.
On one occasion, in 1535, an English ship arrived in Newfoundland with its crew desperately ill. The
men's lives were saved by Iroquois Indians who gave them vegetable leaves to eat. Gradually it came to be
realized that scurvy was caused by some lack in the sailors' diet and Captain Cook, on his long voyages of
discovery to Australia and New Zealand, established the fact that scurvy could be warded off by the
provision of fresh fruit for the sailors.
Nowadays it is understood that a diet which contains nothing harmful may yet result in serious disease if
certain important elements are missing. These elements are called 'vitamins '. Quite a number of such
substances are known and they are given letters to identify them, A, B, C, D, and so on. Different diseases are
associated with deficiencies of particular vitamins.
Even a slight lack of Vitamin C, for example, the vitamin most plentiful in fresh fruit and vegetables, is
thought to increase significantly our susceptibility to colds and influenza.
The vitamins necessary for a healthy body are normally supplied by a good mixed diet, including a
variety of fruit and green vegetables. It is only when people try to live on a very restricted diet, say during
extended periods of religious fasting, or when trying to lose weight, that it is necessary to make special
provision to supply the missing vitamins.
(Adaped from the book Practical Faster Reading – A course in reading and vocabulary for upper-
intermediate and more advanced students – by Gerald & Vivienne Mosback - page 93)
Question 39. What is the passage mainly about?
A. Oxygen is important to the body.
B. An English ship’s crew were saved in 1535.
C. Supplementing with the necessary vitamins makes sense.
D. Vitamin C is necessary for a healthy body because it is the vitamin most plentiful in fresh fruit and
vegetables.
Question 40. According to paragraph 4, fresh fruit and vegetables ______________
A. increase our susceptibility to influenza. B. contain every kind of vitamin.
C. contain more vitamin C than any other food. D. decrease our resistance to colds.
Question 41. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. Even a good mixed diet, with a variety of fruit and green vegetables, requires to be supplemented with the
necessary vitamins.
B. Iroquois Indians saved the men's lives by giving them vegetable leaves to eat.
C. Dietary deficiencies were discovered to result in scurvy, which was further established by Captain Cook's
successful attempt to counter the disease with supplies of fresh fruit.
D. Even an apparently harmless diet may be very unhealthy if it is not comprehensive enough.
Question 42. The word “its” in paragraph 2 refers to _______
A. Newfoundland B. an English ship C. a disease D. exhaustion
Question 43. The word “warded off” in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to _______
A. kept from hospital wards B. washed off C. encouraged D. avoided
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 44 to 50
Due to the nature of our business, it's sometimes necessary that our staff work at night. Night shifts can be
particularly demanding on employee wellbeing and health. This can include disruption to the body clock,
fatigue, sleeping difficulties, disturbed appetite and digestion, reliance on sedatives or stimulants, social and
domestic problems and other symptoms of ill health. To combat this, we do not have employees on night
shifts for extended periods. This is because workers’ bodies will just have started to adapt to the new pattern.
We find rotation shifts every two to three days are best for workers and weekly or fortnightly rotations are
the least comfortable for workers. Forward-rotating programs (moving from morning to afternoon to night
shifts) are better than backward-rotating ones in terms of sleep loss and tiredness.
If someone works at night, there are rules covering the hours they work. Night time working hours are
usually between 11 p.m. and 6 a.m. – but this can be flexible and should be discussed between you and us. To
qualify as night working, the night time period must be no more than 8 hours long and include the period
between midnight and 5 a.m. Any of our staff under 18 years are not allowed to be night workers.
We must make sure that you don't work more than an average of 8 hours in a 24-hour period. By law, you
can't opt out of this working limit. We must also keep records of any night workers’ working hours to prove
they aren't exceeding night working limits, and we must keep the records for at least 2 years. These records
can be inspected by you at any time on request.
Our usual limits and regulations for night workers do not apply to self-employed workers. This does not
include agency workers, who are treated as normal workers with us.
If you agree to working at night for us, the agreement will be put in writing. If you are to begin working
at night, we must perform a health assessment before you become a night worker and on a regular basis after
that. Usually, this is just done with a questionnaire, which was created in collaboration with qualified health
professionals. If there are any health questions regarding your health and night work, we will offer you a
follow-up examination by a health professional if you still wish to work nights.
Adapted from IELTS 5 practice Tests – General Set 3
- Tests No. 11-15 (High Scorer’s Choise) – page 109)
Question 44. Which of the following could best serve as the topic of the passage?
A. Night shifts have great impacts on workers’ wellbeing and health
B. Notes for Employees Considering Night Time Working
C. What should we do when going on business?
D. Rules for Considering Time Working.
Question 45. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to _______
A. the hours B. someone works at night C. rules D. Night time working hours
Question 46. The word “sedatives” in the paragraph 1 is closet in meaning to _______
A. tranquillisers B. drug addictions C. tiredness D. weariness
Question 47. In paragraph 6, who were consulted when creating the health assessment questionnaire?
A. night workers B. a health assessment
C. lead assessors D. qualified health professionals
Question 48. The word “opt out of” in paragraph 4 is closet in meaning to _______
A. reject B. pay a visit C. choose not to join D. work overtime
Question 49. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. The company must retain records relating to night workers’ hours for leastwise 2 years.
B. Under existing regulations, night time working hours are required to be from 11 p.m. to 6 a.m.
C. The maximum length of a night shift at the company is 24 hours.
D. Backward-rotating shift schedules are best for minimising employees’ fatigue.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Night working can be available at any time on workers’ request.
B. It is reasonable for us to work on a night shift in order that we can get extra income.
C. We should take part in many programs in which we can work on night shifts for a long time.
D. We should look into specific regulations relating to night workers if we want to work on a night shift.

Practcice Test 11
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. health B. smooth C. bath D. depth
Question 2. A. climate B. livable C. city D. discuss
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. express B. depend C. discuss D. struggle
Question 4. A. solution B. principal C. passenger D. continent
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. We can also see the stone dragons of Kinh Thien Palace and relics associated with many
Vietnamese royal families, ____ during archaeological excavations.
A. discovered B. being discovered C. to discover D. discovering
Question 6. Going by air is sometimes __________ than going by train.
A. dangerous B. most dangerous C. the most dangerous D. more dangerous
Question 7. I will send you some postcards, ______.
A. until I will arrive at the destination B. as soon as I arrive at the destination
C. when I arrived at the destination D. after I had arrived at the destination
Question 8. The Iphone 14 Pro Max is very popular _______ young adults because of its notable features.
A. with B. on C. for D. about
Question 9. The flowers in our school garden are very beautiful, _______?
A. aren't we B. is it C. isn't he D. aren’t they
Question 10. The concert is expected to attract a lot of audience, so you should book _______ tickets in
advance.
A. a B. an C. the D. x
Question 11. Oprah Winfrey has been an important role model for black American women, breaking down
many invisible _______.
A. barriers B. trends C. gaps D. races
Question 12. I am thinking of changing my current job because I can’t _______ my low salary.
A. live on B. pay out C. save up D. set out
Question 13. The acupoints are stimulated _______ the healing capability of the body itself.
A. enhance B. to enhance C. enhancing D. enhanced
Question 14. After congratulating his team, the coach left, allowing the players to let their______ down for a
while.
A. hearts B. hair C. souls D. heads
Question 15. When she came home from school yesterday, her mother _______in the kitchen.
A. cooked B. was cooking C. is cooking D. cooks
Question 16. At the beach, seagulls _______ a bad reputation for swooping down on unsuspecting people to
steal their food.
A. pay B. take C. have D. get
Question 17. The contract ________ when we reach an agreement on the price .
A. will have signed B. signs C. is signing D. will be signed
Question 18. For a public campaign to_______, it is important to make use of existing social organizations as
well as other relations.
 A. successful B. success C. succeed D. successfully
Question 19. The________lay with the organizers, who failed to make the necessary arrangements for
dealing with so many people.
A. mistake B. foul C. fault D. error
Choose the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 20. John was in Hanoi and wanted to send a parcel to his parents. He asked a local passer-by the
way to the post-office.
- John: "Can you show me the way to the nearest post office, please?"
- Passer-by: "______"
A. Look it up in a dictionary! B. Just round the corner over there.
C. There's no traffic near here. D. No way! I hate him.
Question 21. Mrs Brown and Mr Smith are talking about teaching soft skills at school.
- Mrs Brown: “Some soft skills should be taught to children.”
- Mr Smith: “______. They are necessary for them.”
A. I don’t either B. I agree with you C. You’re quite wrong D. You’re welcome
Choose the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. In this writing test, candidates will not be penalized for minor mechanical mistakes.
A. punished B. rewarded C. motivated D. discouraged
Question 23. John has been unemployed for the past three years – he’s really in dire straits.
A. in a serious situation B. in a bad situation
C. in a difficult situation D. in a pleasant situation
Choose the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. My neighbor is a reckless driver. He has been fined for speeding this month.
A. enormous B. cautious C. careless D. famous
Question 25. Young couple got divorced after they realized that they were not compatible.
A. able to share an apartment or house B. able to budget their money
C. capable of living harmoniously D. capable of having children
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26:This project is optional for you to do.
A. You mustn’t do this project. B. You shouldn’t do this project.
C. You needn’t do this project. D. You mightn’t do this project.
Question 27: I last saw him when I was a student.
A. I haven’t seen him since I was a student. B. I haven’t seen him when I was a student.
C. I last saw him since I was a student. D. I have seen him since I was a student.
Question 28: “Where did you go last night?” Minh asked me.
A. Minh asked me where I had gone the night before.
B. Minh asked me where had I gone the night before.
C. Minh asked me where I have gone the night before.
D. Minh asked me where have I gone the night before.
Choose the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29 : At school, he is always helping other students in his class.
A. is always helping B. other C. in D. at
Question 30. Every family has their own rules, and so does mine.
A.Every family B. their C. and D. does
Question 31: The phrase “cultural diversity" is also sometimes used to mean the variety of human societies or
cultures in a special region.
A.cultural diversity B. variety C. societies D.special
Choose the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32. I'd prefer to be out with my friends. I have too much homework now.
A. I wish I had no homework now and can be out with my friends.
B. If only I didn't have too much homework now and could be out with my friends.
C. If I don't have much homework now, I will be out with my friends.
D. Provided I have no homework now, I will be out with my friends.
Question 33:I had an early night in my comfortable bedroom. I didn’t feel tired only then.
 A. Hardly had I had an early night in my comfortable bedroom when I felt tired again.
B. Only after I had an early night in my comfortable bedroom did I feel healthy again.
C. No sooner had I had an early night in my comfortable bedroom when I felt healthy again.
D. Had I had an early night in my comfortable bedroom, I wouldn’t have felt tired again.
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions
TRAFFIC IN OUR CITIES
The volume of traffic in many cities in the world today continues to expand. This causes many
problems, including serious air pollution, lengthy delays, and the greater risk of accidents. Clearly, something
must be done, but it is often difficult to persuade people to change their habits and leave their cars at home.
One possible approach is to make it more expensive for people to use their cars by increasing charges
for parking and bringing in tougher fines for anyone who breaks the law. In addition, drivers could be required
to pay for using particular routes at different times of the day. This system, known as ‘road pricing’, is already
being introduced in a number of cities, using a special electronic card fixed to the windscreen of the car.
Another way of dealing with the problem is to provide cheap parking on the outskirts of the city, and
strictly control the number of vehicles allowed into the centre. Drivers and their passengers then use special
bus services for the final stage of their journey.
Of course, the most important thing is to provide good public transport. However, to get people to give
up the comfort of their cars, public transport must be felt to be reliable, convenient and comfortable, with
fares kept at an acceptable level.
Adapted from Tiếng Anh Lớp 12 Thí Điểm
Question 34.The most suitable title for the passage could be ______.
A. The problems and some measures of the trafic in the cities .
B. The causes and some measures of the trafic in the cities .
C. making it more expensive to park cars.
D. providing reliable, convenient and comfortable public transport.
Question 35. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a problem of the increasing traffic in cities?
A. serious air pollution. B. traffic jams.
C. difficulty changing people’s habits. D. greater risk of accidents.
Question 36. According to the passage, driving can be made more expensive by ________.
A. increasing cost of every car.
B. applying fines for any car users.
C. requiring pay for using certain roads at different times of the day.
D. using special bus services.
Question 37. The word "their" in the third paragraph refers to___________.
A. outskirts' B. vehicles' C. drivers' and passengers' D. bus services'
Question 38. The word “reliable” is closest in meaning to________.
A. dependable B. true C. careful D. expensive
Read the following passage and choose the correct word or phrase that best fits each blanks.
While it has long been assumed that giving also leads to greater happiness this has only recently started to
be scientifically proven. ___(39) ___ , when participants in a study did five new acts of kindness on one day
per week over a six-week period (even if each act was small) they experienced an increase in well-being,
compared to control groups.
In ___(40) ___ study, participants who were given $5 or $20 to spend on others or donate to charity
experienced greater happiness than people given the same amount to spend on themselves. Interestingly the
amount of money did not affect the level of happiness generated.
And there is now evidence that this leads to a ___(41) ___ circle - happiness makes US give more, and giving
makes US happier,which leads to a greater tendency to give and so on. This effect is consistent across
different cultures.
If people are altruistic, they are more likely to be liked and so build social connections and stronger and
more supportive social networks, ___(42) ___ leads to increased feelings of happiness and wellbeing. Indeed
participating in shared tasks like community service, and other social activities, predicts how satisfied people
are even after other factors are taken into___(43) ___
https://www.linkedin.com/pulse/do-things-others
Question 39: A. For example B. However C. Therefore D. Besides
Question 40: A.little B. another C. few D.some
Question 41: A. faulty B. defective C. flawed D. virtuous
Question 42: A .that B. where C. which D. whom
Question 43: A. relation B. account. C. explaination D. arrangement

Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions.
Though Edmund Halley was most famous because of his achievements as an astronomer, he was a
scientist of diverse interests and great skill. In addition to studying the skies, Halley was also deeply interested
in exploring the unknown depths of the oceans. One of his lesser-known accomplishments that were quite
remarkable was his design for a diving bell that facilitated exploration of the watery depths.
The diving bell that Halley designed had a major advantage over the diving bells that were in use prior to
his. Earlier diving bells could only make use of the air contained within the bell itself, so divers had to surface
when the air inside the bell ran low. Halley’s bell was an improvement in that its design allowed for an
additional supply of fresh air that enabled a crew of divers to remain underwater for several hours.
The diving contraption that Halley designed was in the shape of a bell that measured three feet across the
top and five feet across the bottom and could hold several divers comfortably; it was open at the bottom so
that divers could swim in and out at will. The bell was built of wood, which was first heavily tarred to make it
water repellent and was then covered with a half-ton sheet of lead to make the bell heavy enough to sink in
water. The bell shape held air inside for the divers to breathe as the bell sank to the bottom.
The air inside the bell was not the only source of air for the divers to breathe, and it was this improvement
that made Halley's bells superior to its predecessors. In addition to the air already in the bell, air was also
supplied to the divers from a lead barrel that was lowered to the ocean floor close to the bell itself. Air flowed
through a leather pipe from the lead barrel on the ocean floor to the bell. The diver could breathe the air from
a position inside the bell, or he could move around outside the bell wearing a diving suit that consisted ofa
lead bell-shaped helmet with a glass viewing window and a leather body suit, with a leather pipe carrying
fresh air from the diving bell to the helmet.
https://www.britannica.com/biography/Edmond-Halley
Question 44. Which of the following best expresses the subject of this passage?
A. Halley’s work as an astronomer
B. Halley’s many different interests
C. Halley’s invention of a contraption for diving
D. Halley's experiences as a diver
Question 45. The word "it" in the third paragraph refers to___________.
A. top B. bell C. feet D. bottom
Question 46. The expression ‘ran low’ in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. moved slowly B. had been replenished
C. sank to the bottom D. was almost exhausted
Question 47. How long could divers stay underwater in Halley’s bell?
A. Just a few seconds B. Only a few minutes
C. For hours at a time D. For days on end
Question 48. It is NOT stated in the passage that Halley's bell _______.
A. was wider at the top than at the bottom B. was made of tarred wood
C. was completely enclosed D. could hold more than one diver
Question 49. The expression "at will" in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by _______.
A. in the future B. as they wanted C. with great speed D. upside down
Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage that, were Halley’s bell not covered with lead it would ____.
A. float B. get wet C. trap the divers D. suffocate the divers