12 ĐỀ TIẾNG ANH
12 ĐỀ TIẾNG ANH
12 ĐỀ TIẾNG ANH
com
ĐỀ 1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. breath B. thread C. without D. theme
Question 2: A. extinct B. positive C. thrilling D. impressive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. parent B. paper C. disease D. weather
Question 4: A. disaster B. countryman C. stadium D. habitat
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: Many of the items such as rings, key chains, or souvenirs are made of unusual shell or unique
stones illegally _______ from the protected areas.
A. which is removed B. removing C. which is removing D. removed
Question 6: He arrived _______ than anyone else, so he had to wait more than an hour.
A. earlier B. more early C. early D. earliest
Question 7: As soon as the taxi _______, we will be able to leave for the airport.
A. arrives B. arrive C. will arrive D. arrived
Question 8: Educated women are becoming less dependent _______ their husbands’ decisions.
A. about B. of C. on D. for
Question 9: A strong wind spread the flames very quickly, _______?
A. doesn’t it B. does it C. did it D. didn’t it
Question 10: Regular radio broadcasting to inform and entertain the general public started in _______
1920s.
A. the B. a C. Ø (no article) D. an
Question 11: Mr. Nixon refused to answer the questions on the _______ that the matter was confidential.
A. reasons B. excuses C. grounds D. foundation
Question 12: Let's take _______ the situation before we make a final decision.
A. up with B. up on C. stock of D. out of
Question 13: Every man in this country who reaches the age of 18 is required _______ in the army for two
years.
A. to serve B. serving C. served D. serve
Question 14: I am afraid that if this solution isn't accepted, we'll be back to _______ one.
A. circle B. rectangle C. triangle D. square
Question 15: The teacher and her students _______ a discussion about job orientation when the light went
out.
A. were having B. are having C. have had D. have
Question 16: I _______ my breath waiting for my exam’s result and fortunately I passed it.
A. held B. have C. gave D. save
Question 17: He _______ the job as an administrative assistant if he meets the requirements of the
company.
A. offers B. will be offered C. offered D. is offering
Question 18: Every morning, my mother usually drinks several cups of tea, has a _______ breakfast and
then leads the buffalo to the field.
A. quick B. quickly C. quickness D. quicker
Question 19: When there is a surplus electricity on the grid, these facilities use that power to pump water
from the lower _______ to the higher one.
A. reservoir B. lake C. puddle D. pond
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 20: Tom and Susan are talking about their plan to help disadvantaged children.
- Tom: “Why don't we send them some textbooks and warm clothes?”
- Susan: “_______”
A. Great idea! What meaningful gifts! B. No, they are not available.
C. You should agree with us. D. I'm sorry to hear that.
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Question 21: Mrs. Kate is talking to her students at the end of the lecture.
- Mrs. Kate: "I wish you a merry Christmas and a happy new year!"
- Students: "_______ "
A. You're welcome. B. So so.
C. Just for fun! D. The same to you!
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 22: In some countries, guests tend to feel they are not highly regarded if the invitation to a
dinner party is extended only three or four days before the party date.
A. admired B. disrespected C. worshipped D. expected
Question 23: Once you choose to be in showbiz, you must learn to shut your ears to all rumours.
A. pay attention B. be indifferent C. refuse to listen D. be in reaction
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 24: People in the mountainous areas are still in the habit of destroying forests for cultivation.
A. planting B. farming C. industry D. wood
Question 25: A.I. algorithms can also help to detect faces and other features in photo sent to social
networking sites and automatically organize them.
A. categorize B. connect C. recognize D. remind
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 26: It’s possible that it will rain heavily this evening.
A. It must rain heavily this evening. B. It can’t rain heavily this evening.
C. It needn’t rain heavily this evening. D. It may rain heavily this evening.
Question 27: The last time she went out with him was two years ago.
A. She hadn’t gone out with him for two years. B. She has gone out with him two years ago.
B. She hasn't gone out with him for two years. D. She have gone out with him since two years.
Question 28: He said to them: “Who will you see before you leave here?”
A. He asked them who they would see before they left there.
B. He asked them who would they see before they left there.
C. He asked them who they would see before you left there.
D. He asked them who you would see before they left there.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 29: The therapy aims to make thyroid cancers more responsible to treatment with radioactive
iodine.
A. therapy B. thyroid C. responsible D. radioactive
Question 30: The final football match is postponed last Sunday due to the heavy snowstorm.
A. final B. is C. Sunday D. heavy
Question 31: The FBI is seeking a 49-year-old man for their alleged involvement in a US$3 billion money
laundering scheme.
A. The FBI B. their C. involvement D. laundering
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32: Her English is not good. She can’t apply for the job as a interpretter.
A. If her English were good, she could apply for the job as a interpretter.
B. If her English had been good, she couldn’t have applied for the job as a interpretter.
C. She wishes her English weren’t good so that she could apply for the job as a interpretter.
D. Provided that her English is good, she can’t apply for the job as a interpretter.
Question 33: He got down to writing the letter as soon as he returned from his walk.
A. No sooner had he returned from his walk when he got down to writing the letter.
B. Not until he returned from his walk did he get down to writing the letter.
C. Only after he had returned from his walk did he get down to writing the letter.
D. Hardly had he returned from his walk when he got down to writing the letter.
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each the numbered blanks.
This article discusses the Roles of ICT, Information communication technologies, in education. ICTs are
making dynamic changes in society as well as influencing (34) _______ aspects of life. Even though ICTs
play significant roles in representing equalization strategy for developing countries, the reality of the digital
divide, which is the gap between those people having access to, and control technology and those people
(35) _______ do not make a huge difference in the use of ICTs. This means that the introduction and
integration of ICTs at different levels and various types of education is the most challenging undertaking.
Failure to (36) _______ the challenges would mean a further widening of the knowledge gap and
deepening of existing economic and social inequalities among the developed and the developing countries.
(37) _______, the purpose of this review article is to discuss the benefits of ICT use in education, in the
enhancement of student learning and experiences of some countries in order to encourage policy makers,
school administrators, and teachers to pay (38) _______ so as to integrate this technology in their education
systems.
(Adapted from ‘The Role of Information communication’ by FissehaMikre.)
Question 34: A. every B. all C. each D. much
Question 35: A. whose B. which C. who D. when
Question 36: A. handle B. control C. take D. make
Question 37: A. On the contrary B. Therefore C. However D. Yet
Question 38: A. role B. effort C. ability D. attention
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
Is synchronized swimming really a sport? Despite the doubt of many people, synchronized swimming is
one of the most underrated but most difficult sports, and it certainly deserves to be in the Olympic Games.
Olympic synchronized swimmers train for as long as eight hours a day, for six days a week− much longer
than most other Olympic sports. The athletes are not just in the water the whole time, they spend hours
stretching, doing Pilates, strength conditioning, diligently training, lifting weights, performing ballet, and
even dancing and doing gymnastics. Because of this, synchronized swimmers are some of the strongest and
skillful athletes to compete in the modern Olympic Games.
Synchronized swimmers must perform many movements and positions called figures while managing
their breathing and coordination with the swimmers around them. To increase their lung capacity, often
times synchronized swimmers will do exercises called “unders” during practices. They will swim a 25-
meter lap underwater, repeating this exercise over and over until they’re beyond exhausted. This exercise is
completely necessary for synchronized swimmers to master, because more than half of a routine is
performed underwater.
Although synchronized swimming is a very graceful and beautiful sport, there can be some dangers. The
synchronized swimmers can’t touch the bottom of the pool in a routine, or they’ll be disqualified. They
must continuously move their legs in circular movements, like an egg-beater. Because synchronized
swimming is a contact sport and the swimmer’s kicks are so powerful, swimmers may get hit by other
competitors’ legs, causing concussions or knocking off nose clips, which is an essential piece of
equipment. Since it’s fairly common for a nose clip to get knocked off, many times swimmers will swim
with a couple extras.
(Adapted from https://swimswam.com/)
Question 39: What is the best tittle of the passage?
A. History of synchronized swimming B. Synchronized swimming competition
C. The requirement of synchronized swimming D. Synchronized swimming
Question 40: The word “skillful” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. experienced B. healthy C. clever D. accomplished
Question 41: As mentioned in the passage, what do swimmers have to pay attention in order to have a
successful performance?
A. They have to remember every movement to complete them at the same time with others.
B. They have to practice “unders” exercises whenever they perform this sport.
C. They have to control their breath while harmoniously performing with other swimmers.
D. They have to swim a 25-meter lap underwater to manage their breathing.
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Question 42: According to the passage, the followings are true about what synchronized swimmers have to
do EXCEPT _______.
A. swim a 25-meter lap underwater
B. run around the fool before swimming
C. perform ballet and do gymnastics
D. keep their legs moving in their performance.
Question 43: What does the word “their” in the third paragraph refer to?
A. synchronized swimmers B. figures
C. positions D. movements
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
Members of the royal family have led an outpouring of tributes from around the world at the death of
Prince Philip, the husband of Queen Elizabeth. Buckingham Palace has spoken of the Queen’s “deep
sorrow” after her husband of 73 years, who had been by her side throughout her reign, died peacefully at
Windsor Castle aged 99 on Friday night (Australian time).
Flags at Buckingham Palace and government buildings across the United Kingdom were lowered to half-
mast, and within an hour of the announcement the public began to lay flowers outside Windsor Castle and
Buckingham Palace. However, mourners have been urged not to gather and leave tributes at royal
residences, and the public has been asked to stay away from funeral events because of the coronavirus
pandemic. An online book of condolence has been launched on the Royal Family’s official website for
people to leave messages of sympathy.
The prince died two months short of his 100th birthday. He had recently spent four weeks in hospital
with an infection where he was treated for a heart condition before being discharged and returned to
Windsor early in March. The Duke of Edinburgh had been by his wife’s side throughout her 69-year reign,
the longest in British history, and during that time earned a reputation for a tough, no-nonsense attitude,
and a propensity for occasional gaffes. A Greek prince, Philip married Elizabeth in 1947, and together they
had four children, eight grandchildren, and nine great grandchildren. He played a key role helping the
monarchy adapt to a changing world in the post-World War II period, and behind the walls of Buckingham
Palace was the one key figure the Queen could trust and turn to, knowing he could tell her exactly what he
thought.
The death of the Duke comes in the midst of the worst public health crisis for generations as Britain and
countries around the globe reel from the devastating impact of the coronavirus pandemic. Philip will not
have a state funeral nor lie in state for the public to pay their respects ahead of the funeral, the College of
Arms said, with arrangements revised to meet coronavirus restrictions.
(Adapted: https://thenewdaily.com.au/entertainment)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Prince Philip’s death B. The public’s tribute to Prince Philip
C. A bibliography of Prince Philip D. Life and contributions of Prince Philip
Question 45: The word “mourners” in paragraph 2 is CLOSEST in meaning to _______.
A. bearers B. visitors C. participants D. grievers
Question 46: Which of the following statements is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Prince Philip was 25 years old when he got married to Queen Elizabeth.
B. Flowers were laid outside some royal residences after the death announcement.
C. Prince Philip was admitted to hospital for 28 days.
D. Prince Philip was born into a Greek royal family.
Question 47: How should the public express their condolence?
A. They can gather at royal residences.
B. They can attend funeral events.
C. They can leave messages of sympathy in an online book.
D. They can leave tributes at Windsor Castle.
Question 48: The word “discharged” in paragraph 3 is CLOSEST in meaning to _______.
A. admitted to hospital B. allowed to leave hospital
C. given priority to meet doctors D. asked to stay
Question 49: The word “their” in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
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A. countries B. the public C. generations D. arrangements
Question 50: Which statement can be inferred from the passage?
A. Prince Philip will not have a state funeral as he comes from Greece.
B. Prince Philip’s funeral will be conducted online to avoid coronavirus spread.
C. Prince Philip will be buried behind the walls of Buckingham Palace.
D. Prince Philip’s funeral will be conducted differently from other royal funerals.
ĐỀ 2
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. teach B. break C. deal D. clean
Question 2: A. century B. capital C. capable D. captain
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. manage B. protect C. reform D. regard
Question 4: A. interact B. entertain C. compassion D. understand
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: The Bhaktapur Durbar square, also__________as Bhadgaon, consists of at least four distinct
squares.
A. known B. knew C. to know D. knowing
Question 6: Goods sold in the open markets are often __________than those in the supermarket.
A. resonable B. most reasonable
C. the most reasonable D. more reasonable
Question 7: She says she won’t phone us _______
A. until she has the information B. when she had the information
C. after she had had the information D. by the time she got the information
Question 8: Jane: "Shall we turn back?" - Tom: "Well, I'm______turning back. It’s too dangerous to go
mountain climbing against this weather.
A. for B. agaisnt C. off D. over
Question 9: The mail scarcely ever arrives before noon , ________?
A. is it B. doesn’t it C. does it D. don’t they
Question 10:Global warming, the rise in temperature around the earth’s atmosphere, is one of _______
biggest issues facing humans nowadays.
A. a B. an C. the D. x
Question 11: Road atlas programs will map out your route between two cities or set up a
whole__________of stops.
A. excavation B. dome C. cruise D. itinerary
Question 12: Being self-reliant is what many young people__________.
A. take care of B. strive for C. cope with D. figure out
Question 13: Mark remembered__________many wild animals in Cuc Phuong national park.
A. to see B. to be seen C. seeing D. being seen
Question 14:You’re falling short on class attendance and you failed to submit the last assignment. You’re
__________in this semester.
A.walking on thin ice B. walking on thin eggshells
C.walking on thin air D.walking on thin sky
Question 15: When Carol called last night, I ________ my favorite show on television.
A. watched B. am watching C. was watching D. have watched
Question 16:The minister refused to______ the figures to the press.
A. leak B. release C. show D. add
Question 17: The next meeting ________ in May.
A. will hold B. will be held C.are dicuss D. discuss
Question 18: Don't worry! He'll do the job as ________ as possible.
A. economical B. economically C. uneconomically D.economizing
Question 19: Dawson, I hear that the new regulation will take ________from October 1st, won’t it?
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A.effect B. force C. power D. use
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 20: Two students are talking about Pho, a Vietnamese dish.
- Ted: "I think one of the most popular food for Vietnamese people is Pho."
- Kate: " . Everyone likes it because it is delicious. "
A. Oh! That’s a problem B. Not at all C. I totally disagree D. I couldn’t agree more
Question 21: Tony is in a café.
- Tony: “Can I have a cup of coffee with ice?” - Waiter: "_________.”
A. Sure. Wait a minute, please B. Don't mention it, please
C. It's too hard D. Sorry for saying that
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 22:Are you certain that you are cut out for that kind of job?
A. are determined to B. don’t have the necessary skills for
C. are offered D. don’t want to take
Question 23:Most universities have trained counselors who can reassure and console students who have
academic or personal problems.
A. satisfy B. sympathize C. please D. discourage
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 24: Polar bears and marine mammals in the Arctic are already threatened by dwindling sea ice
but have nowhere farther north to go.
A.shrinking B. getting bigger C. melting D. getting warmer
Question 25: Portable digital projectors allow teachers to give interactive presentations without the use of
the cumbrous equipment as before.
A.weighty B. manageable C. light D. portable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 26:You are obliged to show your ID card when you enter this place.
A. You may show your ID card when you enter this place.
B. You must show your ID card when you enter this place.
C. You had better show your ID card when you enter this place.
D. You can show your ID card when you enter this place.
Question 27:The last time I saw her was three years ago.
A. I have not seen her for three years. B. About three years ago, I used to meet her.
C. I have often seen her for the last three years. D. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her
Question 28: '' How long have you lived in Ha Noi''? said my friend.
A. My friend asked me how long have I lived in HaNoi.
B. My friend asked me how long had I lived in HaNoi.
C. My friend asked me how long I had lived in HaNoi.
D. My friend asked me how long I have lived in HaNoi.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 29: It was suggested that Pedro studies the material more thoroughly before attempting to pass
the exam
A. studies B. more C. attempting D. to pass
Question 30:The earth is the only planet with a large amount of oxygen in their atmosphere.
A. the B.amount C.oxygen D. their
Question 31: After the social science lecture all students are invited to take part in a discussion
of the issues which were risen in the talk.
A. social science lecture B. are invited
C. of the issues D.risen in
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32:He didn’t study hard,so he gets bad marks now.
A. If only he had studied hard,he wouldn’t have got bad marks now.
B. If he didn’t study hard,he wouldn’t get bad marks now.
C. He wouldn’t get bad marks now if he had studied hard.
D. If he didn’t study hard,he wouldn’t have got bad marks now.
Question 33: I got myself comfortable and closed my eyes. Shortly after that, I heard the sound of the
alarm.
A. Scarcely had I got myself comfortable and closed my eyes, I heard the sound of the alarm.
B. Not until I hardly heard the sound of the alarm did I get myself comfortable and close my eyes.
C. Hardly had I got myself comfortable and closed my eyes when I heard the sound of the alarm.
D. Only when I heard the sound of the alarm did I get myself comfortable and closed my eyes.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
Pollutants are clogging up the atmosphere above our planet and trapping the sun's heat. That makes our
planet warmer, which causes glaciers to melt, crazy weather patterns to develop, and natural disasters
spread like wildfires.
But there are other consequences that people don't always associate with climate change. One surprising
fact about global warming is that it makes people more aggressive.
As the world gets hotter, tempers also get fierier. A new study found that violent crimes and even war
become more likely as temperatures rise. Heart rates tend to be elevated in warm weather, so people are
prepped for a physical response to a situation. That’s not to say we're headed for a violent end as Earth
warms up, though. Advances in everything from technology to health have sparked a decline in conflict. It's
just that global warming might be slowing that decline. Climate change increases the amount of smog in the
air and causes plants to produce more pollen, according to the Natural Resources Defense Council. Those
combine to make breathing harder for people, which can be especially tricky for people with asthma and
other respiratory illnesses.
Question 34: What is trapping the sun’s heat?
A. The atmosphere B. Pollutant
C. Glaciers D. The atmosphere above our planet
Question 35: According to the paragraph 1, all of the following are results of our planet getting warmer
EXCEPT
A. Melting glaciers B. Increasing greenhouse gas
C. Natural disasters like wildfires D. Crazy weather patterns to develop
Question 36: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. other consequences B. global warming C. surprising fact D. climate change
Question 37: The word “elevated” is closest in meaning to
A. dropped B. grew C. enlarged D. raised
Question 38: What is the topic of the passage?
A. A global warming surprising fact B. Aggressive modem people
C. The bad effects of global warming D. A study on global warming
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each the numbered blanks.
“One month on since the devastating earthquake hit Türkiye and Syria, the scale of the humanitarian
response has yet to meet the enormous needs of displaced Syrian families and children (39)_____have
suffered from compounded crises for almost 12 years now,” said Johan Mooij, director of World Vision’s
Syria crisis response. “It is crucial that (40)_____ access channels to northwest Syria remain open, and that
aid deliveries are scaled up through earmarked funding for the emergency response. Only this will ensure
that children’s mental health needs are covered, and their trauma addressed.”
Snow and bitter winter weather have placed children at great risk of hypothermia(41)_____ they struggle
to survive in sub-zero temperatures. Many survivors have had to sleep in cars, outside, or in makeshift
shelters. Doctors (42)_____ that children are also at risk of exposure to waterborne diseases such
as cholera or Hepatitis A due to the damage to shelters and water infrastructure.
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These children are now even more vulnerable to family separation, exploitation, and abuse. As buildings
are deemed unsafe, they also are unable to return to school.
“In northern Syria, in particular, the threats to children from abuse were already extreme. The soaring
poverty, within a warzone, now devastated by earthquakes, has created an unimaginable number of
challenges, and suffering for children,” says Johan, director of the Syria crisis response in Amman, Jordan.
“This earthquake has created the perfect environment for a health crisis -fueled by reduced healthcare
capacity and disease (43)_____.”
39. A. where B. whom C. which D. who
40. A. much B. few C. all D. little
41. A. moreover B. but C. so D. as
42. A. warned B. warns C. have warned D. is warning
43. A. acceleration B. outbreaks C.development D. promotion
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions
A rather surprising geographical feature of Antarctica is that a huge freshwater lake, one of the world's
largest and deepest, lies hidden there under four kilometers of ice. Now known as Lake Vostok, this huge
body of water is located under the ice block that comprises Antarctica. The lake is able to exist in its
unfrozen state beneath this block of ice because its waters are warmed by geothermal heat from the earth's
core. The thick glacier above Lake Vostok actually insulates it from the frigid temperatures on the surface.
The lake was first discovered in the 1970s while a research team was conducting an aerial survey of the
area. Radio waves from the survey equipment penetrated the ice and revealed a body of water of
indeterminate size. It was not until much more recently that data collected by satellite made scientists aware
of the tremendous size of the lake; the satellite-borne radar detected an extremely flat region where the ice
remains level because it is floating on the water of the lake.
The discovery of such a huge freshwater lake trapped under Antarctica is of interest to the scientific
community because of the potential that the lake contains ancient microbes that have survived for thousands
upon thousands of years, unaffected by factors such as nuclear fallout and elevated ultraviolet light that
have affected organisms in more exposed areas. The downside of the discovery, however, lies in the
difficulty of conducting research on the lake in such a harsh climate and in the problems associated with
obtaining uncontaminated samples from the lake without actually exposing the lake to contamination.
Scientists are looking for possible ways to accomplish this.
Question 44: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. level B. ice C. region D. radar
Question 45: All of the following are true about the 1970 survey of Antarctica EXCEPT that it .
A. was conducted by air B. made use of radio waves
C. could not determine the lake's exact size D. was controlled by a satellite
Question 46: It can be inferred from the passage that the ice would not be flat if .
A. there were no lake underneath B. the lake were not so big
C. Antarctica were not so cold D. radio waves were not used
Question 47: The word "microbes" in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. Pieces of dust B. Tiny bubbles C. Tiny organisms D. Rays of light
Question 48: Lake Vostok is potentially important to scientists because it
A. can be studied using radio waves B. may contain uncontaminated microbes
C. may have elevated levels of ultraviolet light D. has already been contaminated
Question 49: The last paragraph suggests that scientists should be aware of
A. further discoveries on the surface of Antarctica
B. problems with satellite-borne radar equipment
C. ways to study Lake Vostok without contaminating it
D. the harsh climate of Antarctica
Question 50: The purpose of the passage is to .
A. explain how Lake Vostok was discovered
B. provide satellite data concerning Antarctica
C. discuss future plans for Lake Vostok
D. present an unexpected aspect of Antarctica's geography
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ĐỀ 3
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. regional B. gender C. surgeon D. singular
Question 2: A. shame B. care C. make D. skate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. devastate B. conclusion C. optimist D. interest
Question 4: A. worker B. borrow C. cartoon D. happen
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions
Question 5: The report shows that poor families spend a larger proportion of their _____ on food
A. wage B. debt C. tip D. income
Question 6: I was in the hospital for a week after I contracted malaria, but now I'm back home, and I'm on
the _____ .
A. repair B. mend C. recover D. fix
Question 7: His boss asked him to take _____ of the office for a few days while she was away
A. responsibility B. advantage C. duty D. charge
Question 8: They firmly _____ the view that it was wrong to use violence in educating children
A. brought B. held C.made D. drew
Question 9: Sarah is _____ at playing the guitar than her brother.
A. good B. better C. best D. well
Question 10: On March 23rd, 2021, the Sputnik V vaccine _____ in Vietnam "for emergency use" to help
achieve the total target of 150 million doses
A. approved B. was approved C. has been approved D. is approved
Question 11: Don’t forget _______ the door before going to bed.
A. lock B. to lock C. locking D. locks
Question 12: Many students in the class were addicted _____ their smartphones.
A. with B. to C. for D. about
Question 13: ________________, he will tell us about the results of the match.
A. When he arrives B. After he had arrived C. Before he arrived D. Until he arrived
Question 14: The book _________ by Stephen King is very popular.
A. to write B. written C. wrote D. writing
Question 15: Your brother has been shortlisted for the interview, _____ ?
A. did he B. didn't he C. hasn't he D. has he
Question 16: Endangered species may be at risk due to factors such as habitat loss, poaching and _____
species
A. invasive B. invade C. invasion D. invasively
Question 17: Her explanation of the phenomenon was so confusing that I couldn't _____ anything.
A. take in B. put back C. call for D. go over
Question 18: He entered the room quietly while she _____ a romantic piece of music on her piano.
A. was playing B. is playing C. has played D. plays
Question 19: ________ United States is a country in North America.
A. The B. A C. An D. No article
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: There's a feeling of accomplishment from having a job and all that goes with it.
A. involvement B. prosperity C. achievement D. contribution
Question 21: I found the movie completely engrossing from beginning to end. It's such a pity that you
haven't seen it.
A. daunting B. interesting C. embarrassing D. shocking
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the words) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
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Question 22: When you're new in a school, it's easiest to just go with the flow for a while, and see what
people are like.
A. follow the common rules B. do what other people are doing
C. follow the current trends D. do something different from other people
Question 23: Doing voluntary work is a rewarding experience.
A. beneficial B. worthwhile C. worthless D. satisfying
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges
Question 24: Charles: "Thanks so much for looking after the children!"
– Lisa: “_____.”
A. Of course, not B. That sounds nice
C. I'm fine, thanks D. That's all right. Anytime
Question 25: Laura: "I think swimming helps us exercise all our muscles" - David: “_____.”
A. There is no doubt about it B. You can do it. Thanks anyway
C. Not at all. You can make it D. Yes, swimming does, too
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
Ever since humans (26) _____ the earth, they have made use of various forms of communication
Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of oral speech. When there is a
language barrier, communication is accomplished through sign language in (27) _____ motions stand for
letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have had to resort to this form of expression. (28)
_____ of these symbols of whole words are very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally,
spelling, however, cannot.
Body language (29) _____ ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or unintentionally. A
wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod signifies approval, while
sharking the head indicates a negative reaction. Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in
Braille, signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. (30) _____ verbalization is the most common form of
language, other systems and techniques also express human thoughts and feelings.
Question 26: A. settled B. inhabited C. resided D. lived
Question 27: A. where B. which C. that D. whose
Question 28: A. Many B. Every C. Each D. Much
Question 29: A. transmits B. translates C. transforms D. transacts
Question 30: A. Despite B. However C. While D. As
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
For recent graduates, internships may become a stepping stone to full-time, paid employment. Before
accepting an offer to work as an intern you should get some information about the company's reputation of
procuring their interns and decide accordingly. If they usually hire one intern but have tens of employees
working day and night, it is better to look for other companies. The best place to have an internship position
is an organization that gives you an opportunity to gain real work experience and develop your skills instead
of using you as a cheap worker.
Another thing that should be considered is the size of the company. Sometimes bigger and more
established organizations are better as they have a clear hierarchy and therefore it gives you a clear idea of
your position and the job description and most importantly, it will be easier to get a mentor. Startups with
only five employees are usually more flexible in terms of job responsibilities and therefore it makes it harder
to define your position and get mentors.
After you choose a company, do a little research on the company including the people who work there.
You can do a Google search and comb social media such as LinkedIn, Facebook and Twitter to dig deep
about the company's hiring managers and what they expect from a new employee.
Social media is also very useful to keep in touch with as many people as you can and build your
network. Do not hesitate to maintain any personal connection you have because those connections could be
the first ones who inform you about a new job opening or any vacant positions you can apply for.
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If you aim for a dream job, do not overlook an entry-level position just because it offers a mediocre
salary. Entry-level employees are more likely to be given room to grow and learn from their mistakes. They
will also be able to figure out the job routines and get used to them when they actually get the position they
have been dreaming about.
Question 31: The word "procuring” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. dismissing B. training C. hiring D. interviewing
Question 32: What is the advantage of taking an entry-level position?
A. Getting mediocre salary B. Understanding job routines.
C. Understanding company's policy D. Getting promotion
Question 33: The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to _____ .
A. employees B. job routines C. positions D. mistakes
Question 34: Why is a more established organization a better place to work as an intern?
A. It has flexible work hours B. It has clear job descriptions.
C. It offers higher salary. D. It offers full-time position
Question 35: Why is networking important for recent graduates?
A. To get information about job openings.
B. To maintain good relationship with fellow interns.
C. To keep in touch with an ex-employer.
D. To get information about job security.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
While watching sports on TV, the chances are children will see professional players cheating, having
tantrums, fighting, or abusing officials. In addition, it's highly likely that children will be aware of well-
known cases of sportspeople being caught using drugs to improve their performance. The danger of all this
is that it could give children the idea that winning is all that counts and you should win at all costs. Good
behavior and fair play aren't the message that comes across. Instead, it looks as if cheating and bad behavior
are reasonable ways of getting what you want. This message is further bolstered by the fact that some of
these sportspeople acquire enormous fame and wealth, making it seem they are being handsomely rewarded
either despite or because of their bad behavior.
What can parents do about this? They can regard sport on television as an opportunity to discuss
attitudes and behavior with their children. When watching sports together, if parents see a player swearing at
the referee, they can get the child's opinion on that behavior and discuss whether a player's skill is more
important than their behavior. Ask what the child thinks the player's contribution to the team is. Point out
that no player can win a team game on their own, so it's important for members to work well together.
Another thing to focus on is what the commentators say. Do they frown on bad behavior from players,
think it's amusing or even consider it's a good thing? What about the officials? If they let players get away
with a clear foul, parents can discuss with children whether this is right and what effect it has on the game.
Look too at the reactions of coaches and managers. Do they accept losing with good grace or scowl and
show a bad attitude? Parents can use this to talk about attitudes to winning and losing and to remind children
that both are part of sport.
However, what children learn from watching sports is by no means all negative and parents should
make sure they accentuate the positives too. They should emphasize to children the high reputation that
well-behaved players have, not just with their teammates but also with spectators and the media. They can
focus on the contribution made by such players during a game, discussing how valuable they are in the team.
In the interviews after a game, point out to a child that the well-behaved sportspeople don't gloat when they
win or sulk when they lose. And parents can stress how well these people conduct themselves in their
personal lives and the good work they do for others when not playing. In other words, parents should get
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their children to focus on the positive role models, rather than the antics of the badly behaved but often more
publicized players.
Question 36: The word "accentuate" in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by _____ .
A. consolidate B. embolden C. actualize D. highlight
Question 37: According to paragraph 2 what should parents teach their children through watching sports?
A. A player's performance is of greater value than his behavior.
B. Cheating is frowned upon by the majority of players.
C. A team with badly-behaved players will not win a game.
D. Collaboration is fundamental to any team's success
Question 38: Which of the following about sport is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Misconduct from sportspeople may go unpunished despite the presence of officials.
B. Reactions of coaches and managers when their teams lose a game may be of educational value.
C. Many sports people help others so as to project good images of themselves
D. A well-behaved player enjoys a good reputation among his teammates, spectators and the media.
Question 39: The word "bolstered” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. energized B. reinforced C. inspired D. represented
Question 40: The word "They" in paragraph 4 refers to _____.
A. parents B. teammates C. children D. spectators
Question 41: Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The influence of model sportspeople on children
B. Moral lessons for children from watching sports
C. Different attitudes toward bad behavior in sport
D. The importance of team spirit in sport
Question 42: According to paragraph 1. misconduct exhibited by players may lead children to think that
_____.
A. it is necessary in almost any game
B. it is disadvantageous to all concerned
C. it is an acceptable way to win the game
D. it brings about undesirable results
Mark the letter A.B.C. or D on your answer seer to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
following questions.
Question 43: The Simpsons have a barbecue in the garden when it suddenly started to rain
A. suddenly B. have C. The Simpsons D.it
Question 44: Discovering that he had an attitude for finance, he got a job as a commercial-credit analyst
A. commercial B. attitude C. Discovering D. analyst
Question 45: There were only a few classrooms and its walls were made of mud and straw
A. few B. its C. of D. were
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46: My cousin started investing in stocks in 2018
A. My cousin has been investing in stocks since 2018
B. My cousin hasn't invested in stocks since 2018
C. The last time my cousin invested in stocks was in 2018
D. It is the first time my cousin invested in stocks
Question 47: "You got an A in Chemistry Congratulations!" Peter said to his classmate
A. Peter persuaded his classmate to get an A in Chemistry
B. Peter insisted on getting an A in Chemistry for his classmate
C. Peter congratulated his classmate on getting an A in Chemistry
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D. Peter encouraged his classmate to get an A in Chemistry
Question 48: Sally paid for her travel in advance, but it wasn't necessary.
A. Sally couldn't have paid for her travel in advance.
B. Sally might not have paid for her travel in advance
C. Sally needn't have paid for her travel in advance
D. Sally may not have paid for her travel in advance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: She didn't take her father's advice. That's why she is bored with her work
A. If she took her father's advice, she wouldn't have been bored with her work.
B. If she takes her father's advice, she won't be bored with her work
C. If she had taken her father's advice, she wouldn't have been bored with her work.
D. If she had taken her father's advice, she wouldn't be bored with her work.
Question 50: I arrived at work. The assistant knocked at the door
A. No sooner had I arrived at work than the assistant knocked at the door
B. I hardly knew the assistant knocked at the door as I just arrived at work
C. I was arriving at work as the assistant knocked at the door.
D. Hardly had I arrived at work then the assistant knocked at the door
ĐỀ 4
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. mother B. southern C. wealthy D. further
Question 2: A. sheep B. see C. beer D. green
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. open B. begin C. happen D. answer
Question 4: A. tolerant B. considerate C. enormous D. disastrous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: John is the first person _________ documents from the others in our group.
A. who stole B. steals C. to steal D. stealing
Question 6: Creating something new for ourselves is ________ than duplicating it from someone else.
A. hard B. hardly C. harder D. more hardly
Question 7: _______, I will buy for my mother a penthouse in Da Lat.
A. While I am having money B. Once I had money
C. When I had had money D. As soon as I have money
Question 8: They are crazy _______ fictional movies, so they watch “The Last of Us” every week.
A. on B. in C. of D. about
Question 9: Betty plagiarized our document because of her arrogance, _______?
A. doesn’t she B. won’t she C. hadn’t she D. didn’t she
Question 10: ______ moon is the most beautiful object in the sky at night.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 11: I _______ a phone call because I felt worried about Nhung Glenda’s surgeon.
A. did B. made C. took D. had
Question 12: My grandfather died because of the war. However, his great spirit was _________ for all
generations.
A. given down B. handed down C. hold down D. went down
Question 13: She had better ______ at home, she has been sick for a week.
A. stay B. to stay C. staying D. stayed
Question 14: You shouldn’t be too interested in foreign jobs, __________ home is best!
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A. north or south B. east or west C. west or south D. south or east
Question 15: He ___________ his guitar when his friend arrived.
A. played B. plays C. was playing D. has played
Question 16: Lying to gain personal benefits can be considered as _________ a crime.
A. happening B. committing C. attending D. supporting
Question 17:The report ____ by the research team tomorrow.
A. will be completed B. will complete C. completed D. is completing
Question 18: He both looks like Korean and Chinese, so everyone still confuses about his ________.
A. nationality B. national C. nation D. nationally
Question 19: The bank will insist you produce a driving ________ or passport as a form of ID.
A. certificate B. degree C. license D. diploma
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20: “Maybe you go on a holiday next month.” – “__________”
A. Nothing special. B. You’re welcome.
C. It’s very expensive. D. I don’t think so. I will be busy all summer.
Question 21: “___________” “Yes. Do you have any trousers?”
A. Could you do me a favour? B. Oh, dear. What nice trousers!
C. May I help you? D. Black, please.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: We’re not taking on any new staff at the moment so that we can cut down the cost.
A. employing B. hiring C. offering D. laying off
Question 23: The story was that of a little girl who was born in a well-to-do family and was a top performer
in her studies.
A. rolling in money B. made of money C. well-heeled D. destitute
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: His mother has no alternative but stitches his clothes as ready-made clothes are not available.
A. bespoke B. off the shelf C. out of fashion D. second hand
Question 25: The company claims it has received a lucrative offer from the South Australian government.
A. impoverished B. expensive C. profitable D. unfavorable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26: He started learning Japanese to watch anime three years ago.
A. He has learnt Japanese to watch anime for three years.
B. It was three years before he started learning Japanese to watch anime.
C. He has learnt Japanese to watch anime since three years.
D. It is three years when he started learning Japanese to watch anime.
Question 27: It’s crucial for you to save money for the future.
A. You must save money for the future.
B. You shouldn’t save money for the future.
C. You can save money for the future.
D. You needn’t save money for the future.
Question 28: “I have stolen documents to sell online since last year” Lien said.
A. Lien said that she had stolen documents to sell online since last year.
B. Lien said that she stolen documents to sell online since last year.
C. Lien said that she had stolen documents to sell online since the previous year.
D. Lien said that she stole documents to sell online since the previous year.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 29: Every evening I help my son with his homework alike a teacher.
A B C D
Question 30: It is high time we have to do something about our house plan.
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A B C D
Question 31: Unlike the old one, this new car can perform their functions in half the time
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: No sooner had Phat put the mobile phone down than his teacher rang back.
A. As soon as his teacher rang back, Phat put down the mobile phone.
B. Scarcely had Phat put the mobile phone down when his teacher rang back.
C. Hardly Phat had hung up, he rang his teacher immediately.
D. Phat had hardly put the telephone down without his teacher rang back.
Question 33: He couldn’t retake the exam because he missed too many lessons.
A. He would retake the exam if he didn’t miss too many lessons.
B. He could have retaken the exam if he hadn’t missed too many lessons.
C. If he missed too many lessons, he wouldn’t retake the exam.
D. If he had missed too many lessons, he wouldn’t have retaken the exam.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
WAYS TO IMPROVE YOUR MEMORY
A good memory is often seen as something that comes naturally, and a bad memory as something (34)
_______ cannot be changed, but actually there is a lot that you can do to improve your memory.
We all remember the things we are interested in and forget the ones that bore the US. This no doubt
explains the reason why schoolboys remember football results effortlessly but struggle (35) _____ dates.
from their history lessons! Take an active interest in what you want to remember and (36) ______ on it
consciously. One way to make yourself more interested is to ask questions — the more the better!
Physical exercise is also important for your memory because it increases your heart rate and sends (37)
________ oxygen to your brain, and that makes your memory work better. Exercise also reduces stress,
which is very bad for the memory.
The old saying that - eating fish makes your brain may be true after all. Scientists have discovered that
the fats found in fish like tuna, sardines, and salmon – (38) __________ in olive oil - help to improve the
memory. Vitamin-rich fruits such as oranges, strawberries and red grapes are all good - brain food, too.
(Source: —New Cutting Edge, Cunningham, S. & Moor. 2010. Harlow: Longman)
Question 34: A. those B. what C. who D. that
Question 35: A. about B. for C. over D. towards
Question 36: A. focus B. pay C. keep D. go
Question 37: A. many B. little C. few D. more
Question 38: A. as long as B. as much as C. as well as D. as far as
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43
The Singapore Science Centre is located on a six-hectare site in Jurong. At the centre, we can discover
the wonders of science and technology in a fun way. Clap your hands and colorful bulbs will light up. Start a
wheel spinning and it will set off a fan churning. It is a place to answer our curiosity and capture our
imagination.
The centre features over four hundred exhibits covering topics like solar radiation, communication,
electronics, mathematics, nuclear energy, and evolution. It aims to arouse interest in science and technology
among us and the general public. The centre is the first science one to be established in Southeast Asia. It was
opened in 1977 and it now receives an average of one thousand two hundred visitors a day. The exhibits can be
found in four exhibition galleries. They are the Lobby, Physical Sciences, Life Sciences and Aviation. These
exhibits are renovated annually so as to encourage visitors to make return visits to the centre.
Instead of the usual “Hands off’ notices found in exhibition halls, visitors are invited to touch and feel the
exhibits, push the buttons, turn the cranks or pedals. This is an interesting way to learn science even if you
hate the subject. A Discovery Centre was built for children between the ages of three and twelve. This new
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exhibition gallery was completed in 1985. Lately this year a stone-age exhibit was built. It shows us about
the animals and people which were extinct.
Question 39: What can be the best title of the passage?
A. Singapore Science Centre B. Physical Sciences
C. Science Centre D. Discovery Centre
Question 40: The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to.
A. solar radiation B. the general public C. the centre D. evolution
Question 41: According to the paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT true about the Singapore
Science Centre?
A. The centre was not opened until 1977.
B. Visitors are encouraged to return to the centre.
C. The centre is the first one established in the world.
D. The exhibits in the centre cover a wide range of topics.
Question 42: What does “renovated” in paragraph 2 means?
A. upgraded B. changed C. painted D. shown
Question 43: The author mentions all of the following in the passage EXCEPT.
A. The centre is located in Jurong
B. There are four exhibition galleries in the centre.
C. The centre is the biggest in Asia.
D. The exhibits are renewed every year.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Today we take electricity for granted and perhaps we do not realize just how useful this discovery has
been. Steam was the first invention that replaced wind power. It was used to drive engines and was passed
through pipes and radiators to warm rooms. Petrol mixed with air was the next invention that provided
power. Exploded in a cylinder, it drove a motor engine. Beyond these simple and direct uses, those forms
have not much adaptability.
On the other hand, we make use of electricity in thousands of ways. From the powerful voltages that
drive our electric trains to the tiny current needed to work a simple calculator, and from the huge electric
magnet in steel works that can lift 10 tons to the tiny electric magnet in a doorbell, all are powered by
electricity. An electric current can be made with equal ease to heat a huge mass of molten metal in a furnace,
or to boil a jug for a cup of coffee.
Other than atomic energy, which has not as yet been harnessed to the full, electricity is the greatest power
in the world. It is flexible, and so adaptable for any task for which it is wanted. It travels so easily and with
incredible speed along wires or conductors that it can be supplied instantly over vast distances.
To generate electricity, huge turbines or generators must be turned. In Australia they use coal or water to
drive this machinery. When dams are built, falling water is used to drive the turbines without polluting the
atmosphere with smoke from coal.
Atomic power is used in several countries but there is always the fear of an accident. A tragedy once
occurred at Chernobyl, in Ukraine, at an atomic power plant used to make electricity. The reactor leaked,
which caused many deaths through radiation.
Now scientists are examining new ways of creating electricity without harmful effects to the
environment. They may harness the tides as they flow in and out of bays. Most importantly, they hope to
trap sunlight more efficiently. We do use solar heaters for swimming pools but as yet improvement in the
capacity of the solar cells to create more current is necessary. When this happens, electric cars will be viable
and the world will rid itself of the toxic gases given off by trucks and cars that burn fossil fuels.
Question 44: The author mentions the sources of energy such as wind, steam, petrol in the first paragraph to
_ .
A. suggest that electricity should be alternated with safer sources of energy
B. emphasize the usefulness and adaptability of electricity
C. imply that electricity is not the only useful source of energy
D. discuss which source of energy can be a suitable alternative to electricity
Question 45: Before electricity, what was sometimes passed through pipes to heat rooms?
A. Gas B. Petrol C. Steam D. Hot wind
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Question 46: What does the author mean by saying that electricity is flexible?
A. It is cheap and easy to use. B. It is used to drive motor engines.
C. It can be adapted to various uses. D. It can be made with ease.
Question 47: What do we call machines that make electricity?
A. Voltages B. Electric magnets C. Generators or turbines D. Pipes and radiators
Question 48: The word "they" in the last paragraph refers to .
A. harmful effects B. the tides C. scientists D. new ways
Question 49: The advantage of harnessing the power of the tides and of sunlight to generate electricity is
that they .
A. do not pollute the environment B. are more reliable
C. are more adaptable D. do not require attention
Question 50: The best title for this passage could be .
A. “Types of Power Plants” B. “Electricity: Harmful Effects on Our Life”
C. “How to Produce Electricity” D. “Why Electricity Is So Remarkable”
ĐỀ 5
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. find B. bite C. since D. drive
Question 2: A. contain B. feature C. picture D. culture
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. blackboard B. listen C. between D. student
Question 4: A. company B. atmosphere C. customer D. employment
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: Halong Bay, __________ with 1,600 limestone islands and islets, is a beautiful natural wonder
in northern Vietnam near the Chinese border.
A. dotted B. dotting C. which dots D. to dot
Question 6: I lost the match because I was playing very badly. It was even________ than the last game.
A. more badly B. badly C. worst D. worse
Question 7: _________, we will be able to leave for the airport.
A. Before the taxi arrived B. After the taxi had arrived
C. While the taxi was arriving D. As soon as the taxi arrives
Question 8: I could not _______ the lecture at all. It was too difficult for me.
A. hold on B. make off C. get along D. take in
Question 9: Don’t let anyone know our secret, ___________?
A. can’t you B. can you C. won’t you D. will you
Question 10:At first she was trained to be ________ scriptwriter, but later she worked as ________
secretary.
A. the / a B. a/a C. the / the D. a / the
Question 11:Many students will not have to pay__________fees if their financial situation is below a
certain level.
A. collaboration B. institution C. tuition D. transcript
Question 12: We have been talking__________a good half hour.
A.to B. for C. about D. at
Question 13: My parents were realy disappointed__________out the truth.
A. finding B. to find C. for finding D. find
Question 14:When hearing the news, Tom tried his best to keep a _______ on his surprise.
A. hat B. roof C. hood D. lid
Question 15: Ngoc _______ in the kitchen when she saw a mouse.
A. is cooking B. has cooked C. was cooking D. cooks
Question 16: Unfortunately, the company closed down because it couldn't ________ pace with rapidly
changing technology
A. look B. come C. catch D. keep
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Question 17: Mary________a pink dress by her mum yesterday.
A. is given B. was given C. will be given D. has been given
Question 18: You get to apply your newly acquired knowledge in ________
A. practically B. practical C.practicing D. practice
Question 19: We had a dreadful________ in the restaurant, but he phoned me the next day to apologise.
A. discussion B. presentation C. debate D. argument
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 20: Fiona and Lan are talking about hunting wild animals.
- Fiona: “I think hunting wild animals should be banned.”
- Lan: “________. Many wild animals are in danger of extinction."
A. I couldn’t agree more B. You're wrong C. No problem D. I disagree completely
Question 21:Tim is talking to Peter in their classroom.
- Tim: “How often do you go shopping?” - Peter: “____________________?”
A. “Once a week.” B. “I go with my mother”
C. I often buy fruits” D. “When I have free time”
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 22:James could not tell his parents about his many animal friends in the forest and the exciting
things that he saw, but he found another way to express himself.
A. speak with voice B. communicate
C. keep silent D. write his thoughts
Question 23:This new magazine is known for its comprehensive coverage of news
A. casual B. indifferent C. inadequate D. superficial
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 24: People should learn more about children with cognitive impairments.
A. emotional B. recognisable C. physical D. mental
Question 25: He hurled the statue to the floor with such force that it shattered.
A. dropped B. pushed C. pulled D. threw
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 26:Perhaps the thief will be arrested today.
A. The thief should be arrested today. B. The thief can’t be arrested today.
C. The thief may be arrested today. D. The thief mustn’t be arrested today.
Question 27:The last time I visited Paris was 10 years ago.
A. I have not visited Paris for 10 years.
B. About 10 years ago, I used to visited Paris.
C. I have often visit Paris for the last ten years.
D. I visited Paris ten years ago and will never visit Paris
Question 28: “Kate, what will you do next Saturday?” Nam asked.
A. Nam asked Kate what she would do the next Saturday.
B. Nam asked Kate what would she do the next Saturday.
C. Nam asked Kate what will she do next Saturday.
D. Nam asked Kate what she will do the next Saturday.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 29: She has disappeared three days ago, and they are still looking for her now.
A. has disappeared B. and C.are still D. for her
Question 30: Electric bikes are becoming increasingly popular nowadays thanks to its convenience.
A. are becoming B.popular C.thanks D.its
Question 31: Some people were made redundant or even lost their relatives during the unprecedented
pandemic, and they just found that life was no longer enduring.
A. redundant B.relatives C.unprecedented D.enduring
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32: Jane really wants to buy a new computer. She doesn't have enough money.
A. Provided that Jane has enough money, she can't buy a new computer.
B. If only Jane had had enough money, she couldn't have bought a new computer.
C. If Jane had enough money, she could buy a new computer.
D. Jane wishes she had enough money so that she could have bought a new computer.
Question 33:Jack did poorly on his final test. He was aware of the importance of hard work.
A. Not until Jack did poorly on his final test he was aware of the importance of hard work.
B. Only after Jack did poorly on his final test was he aware of the importance of hard work.
C. Poorly though Jack did on his final test, he was aware of the importance of hard work.
D. Hardly had Jack done poorly on his final test when he was aware of the importance of hard work.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
CDC strives to safeguard the health and improve the quality of life of all people with diabetes. Central to
that effort is helping them prevent or reduce the severity of diabetes complications, including heart disease
(the leading cause of early death among people with diabetes), kidney disease, blindness, and nerve damage
that can lead to lower-limb amputations.
Diabetes self-management education and support (DSMES) programs help people meet the challenges of
self-care by providing them with the knowledge and skills to deal with daily diabetes management: eating
healthy food, being active, checking their blood sugar, and managing stress. These programs have been
shown to reduce A1C levels (average blood sugar over the last 2 to 3 months), reduce the onset and severity
of diabetes complications, improve quality of life, and lower health care costs.
Diabetes is about 17% more prevalent in rural areas than urban ones, but 62% of rural counties do not
have a DSMES program. The use of telehealth (delivery of the program by phone, Internet, or
videoconference) may allow more patients in rural areas to benefit from DSMES and the National DPP
lifestyle change program. CDC funds state and local health departments to improve access to, participation
in, and health benefit coverage for DSMES, with emphasis on programs that achieve American Association
of Diabetes Educators accreditation or American Diabetes Association recognition. These programs meet
national quality standards and may be more sustainable because of reimbursement eligibility.
Question 34: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Diabetes Complications and CDC’s Response
B. Diabetes self-management education and support programs
C. Knowledge of A1C levels
D. American Association of Diabetes Educators
Question 35: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. programs B. people C. challenges D. skills
Question 36: Which is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 as a skill to deal with daily diabetes management?
A. eating healthy food B. checking blood sugar C. working effectively D. managing stress
Question 37: The word “lower” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. borrow B. prepare C. approach D. reduce
Question 38: According to paragraph 3, money that state and local health departments use to improve the
effectiveness of DSMES is funded by _______.
A. A1C B. DSMES C. National DPP D. CDC
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each the numbered blanks.
Park Hang-seo
Head coach Park Hang-seo, (39)_____brought significant success to Vietnamese football in recent years,
has decided to leave after his contract expires on Jan. 31 next year.
This means the 2022 AFF Cup in December will be Park's last tournament (40)_____ head coach of the
Vietnam national football team.
Park became the head coach of Vietnam in late 2017. Since then, he has achieved continuous success
with the second place at the 2018 AFC U23 Championship, 2018 AFF Cup title, a place in the quarter-final
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of 2019 Asian Cup, two SEA Games gold medals in 2019 and 2021, and helped the team advance to the
final (41)_____ of World Cup for the first time in history.
Under Park’s management, Vietnam also became the top football nation in Southeast Asia and
maintained a place in the top 100 FIFA world ranking.
Park has extended his (42)_____ with VFF twice. The first time was in 2019 when he decided to sign for
two more years and the second time in 2021 for another year. In September and October this year, VFF and
Park’s agent worked together to reach the final decision.
The 2022 AFF Cup is set to take place from Dec. 23, 2022 to Jan. 15, 2023. Vietnam are in group B with
Malaysia, Singapore, Myanmar and Laos. (43)_____ team will play four group-stage games, including two
home and two away. Vietnam will play at home against Malaysia and Myanmar and away against Laos and
Singapore.
https://e.vnexpress.net/news/football/
Question 39: A. where B. Whom C. which D. who
Question 40: A. and B. as C. but D. so
Question 41: A. qualities B. people C. qualifiers D. footballers
Question 42: A. contract B. combination C. cooperation D. contact
Question 43: A. few B. each C.another D. other
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions
There are many mistakes that people make when writing their resume (CV) or completing a job
application. Here are some of the most common and most serious.
The biggest problem is perhaps listing the duties for which you were responsible in a past position: all
this tells your potential employers is what you were supposed to do. They do not necessarily know the
specific skills you used in executing them, nor do they know what results you achieved - both of which are
essential. In short, they won’t know if you were the best, the worst or just average in your position.
The more concrete information you can include, the better. As far as possible, provide measurements of
what you accomplished. If any innovations you introduced saved the organization money, how much did
they save? If you found a way of increasing productivity, by what percentage did you increase it?
Writing what you are trying to achieve in life - your objective - is a waste of space. It tells the employer
what you are interested in. Do you really think that employers care what you want? No, they are interested
in what they want! Instead, use that space for a career summary. A good one is brief - three to four
sentences long. A good one will make the person reviewing your application want to read further.
Many resumes list ‘hard’ job-specific skills, almost to the exclusion of transferable, or ‘soft’, skills.
However, your ability to negotiate effectively, for example, can be just as important as your technical skills.
All information you give should be relevant, so carefully consider the job for which you are applying. If
you are applying for a job that is somewhat different than your current job, it is up to you to draw a
connection for the resume reviewer, so that they will understand how your skills will fit in their
organization. The person who reviews your paperwork will not be a mind reader.
If you are modest about the skills you can offer, or the results you have achieved, a resume reader may
take what you write literally, and be left with a low opinion of your ability: you need to say exactly how
good you are. On the other hand, of course, never stretch the truth or lie.
(Source: www.ielts-mentor.com)
Question 44: What topic does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The way how to write the resume for job application.
B. The mistakes people make when applying for a job.
C. The common way to make impression in a job interview.
D. The necessary skills for job application.
Question 45: The word “executing” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. enumerating B. determining C. completing D. implementing
Question 46: The word “concrete” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by _______.
A. indeterminate B. specific C. substantial D. important
Question 47: What does the word “it” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. organization money B. information C. productivity D. percentage
Question 48: According to the passage, what information should candidates include in their resume?
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A. specific skills for previous jobs B. the past achievements
C. previous positions D. future objective
Question 49: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. The ability to negotiate effectively is as significant as technical skills.
B. Candidates must study the job they are applying carefully before writing the CV.
C. Applicants should not apply for a distinct job from what they are doing.
D. The information interviewees present should be related to the job they are applying.
Question 50: It can be inferred from the last paragraph that ______.
A. you should write accurately about your ability for the vacant position.
B. you should be modest about what you can do.
C. a resume reader is good enough to understand what you imply about your ability in the CV.
D. you are allowed to exaggerate the truth of your competence if possible.
ĐỀ 6
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. southern B. feather C. threaten D. leather
Question 2: A. instrument B. flight C. similar D. which
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. pollute B. appear C. answer D. become
Question 4: A. fantastic B. perfection C. computer D. fascinate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: One masterpiece of literature _______ for the first time in 1975 has been nominated the best
short story ever.
A. was published B. published C. which published D. has published
Question 6: Learning a new language is _______ than learning a new skill on the computer.
A. the most difficult B. most difficult C. more difficult D. the least difficult
Question 7: That rising star won’t appear in the commercial _______.
A. once the contract will be signed B. when the contract had been signed
C. until the contract has been signed D. after the contract was signed
Question 8: Doctors advise people who are deficient _______ Vitamin C to eat more fruit and vegetables.
A. in B. of C. from D. for
Question 9: Bob told you something about my story, _______?
A. didn’t he B. doesn’t he C. did he D. hadn’t he
Question 10: Half of the children were away from school last week because of an outbreak of _______
influenza.
A. a B. Ø C. an D. the
Question 11: Monica, his mother agrees to _______ David, a robotic boy capable of human emotions.
A. interfere B. resurrect C. reunite D. activate
Question 12: They _______ an old cottage in the Scottish Highlands because it was in bad condition.
A. did up B. filled up C. set up D. turn up
Question 13: The researchers advise people _______ car windows when in traffic because the car fumes.
A. to close B. close C. closing D. to closing
Question 14: The student had to keep his _______ to the grindstone all year and passed the entrance exam
into the university he wanted.
A. nose B. mind C. heart D. face
Question 15: When he came, his girlfriend _______ in the living room.
A. has studied B. is studying C. studied D. was studying
Question 16: Many A.I. experts believe that A.I. technology will soon _______ even greater
advances in many other areas
A. say B. make C. take D. do
Question 17: The new shopping mall _______ next month and a grand opening ceremony is being planned.
A. will be opened B. opens C. opened D. will open
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Question 18: Darwin's theory of _______ explains that the strongest species can survive because they have
the ability to adapt to the new environment better than others.
A. evolution B. evolute C. evolutional D. evolutionally
Question 19: It was the case of any port in a _______ when the supermodel went to work in my centre after
she had been unemployed for 10 months due to corona pandemic.
A. storm B. typhoon C. tornado D. hurricane
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 20: Peter and Dane are talking about environmental protection.
- Peter: “We should limit the use of plastic bags.”
- Dane: “_______. We can use paper bags instead.”
A. It's not true B. I completely agree C. I don't quite agree D. You're wrong
Question 21: A student is talking to his teacher about his IELTS result.
- Student: “Teacher, I’ve got 8.5 on the IELTS test.”
- Teacher: “_______. Congratulations!”
A. Oh, hard luck B. Good job C. Big deal D. Good way
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 22: Do you really think humans will be exterminated when more and more intelligent machines
are invented in the future?
A. wiped out B. stored C. resurrected D. killed
Question 23: Instead of getting all riled up about the boy’s uncooperative behaviours, the teacher should
try to figure out how to get him involved in the class activities.
A. getting highly excited B. becoming really annoyed
C. being extremely satisfied D. appearing quite unconcerned
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 24: Understanding why women have to apply for social assistance at the different life stages
requires knowledge about their support situation during their entire life course.
A. help B. benefit C. need D. acceptance
Question 25: The minister’s confession implicated numerous officials in the bribery scandal.
A. encouraged B. instructed C. indicated D. developed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 26: Drivers are required to wear their seat belts while driving.
A. Drivers may wear their seat belts while driving.
B. Drivers needn’t wear their seat belts while driving.
C. Drivers shouldn’t wear their seat belts while driving
D. Drivers must wear their seat belts while driving.
Question 27: Lucas and Oliver last got together more than a year ago.
A. The first time that Lucas and Oliver got together was more than a year ago.
B. Lucas and Oliver didn’t get together last year.
C. Lucas didn’t get together with Oliver for more than a year.
D. Lucas and Oliver haven’t got together for more than a year.
Question 28: “What have you done to your hair?” she said to her son.
A. She wanted to know what did her son do to his hair.
B. She wanted her son to know what he had done to his hair.
C. She asked her son what to do to his hair.
D. She asked her son what he had done to his hair.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 29: Many students at the institution worshipped her father because he was a distinguishable
professor and achieved many prestigious awards.
A. prestigious B. achieved C. distinguishable D. worshipped
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Question 30: My close friends spend most of their free time helping the homeless people in the community
last year.
A. spend B. of C. close D. helping
Question 31: Bottlenose dolphins are usually slow swimmers, but it can reach speeds of over 30 mph for
short periods .
A. usually B. of C. it D. periods
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32: My brother is not old enough. He can’t take the driving test.
A. If my brother were old enough, he could take the driving test.
B. Provided that my brother is old enough, he can’t take the driving test.
C. If only my brother were young enough to take the driving test.
D. If my brother had been old enough, he could have taken the driving test.
Question 33: Emily had just finished saving all the documents. The computer crashed then.
A. Hardly had Emily finished saving all the documents when the computer crashed.
B. The moment Emily started to save all the documents, the computer crashed.
C. Had it not been for the computer crash, Emily could have saved all the documents.
D. No sooner had the computer crashed than Emily finished saving all the documents.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each the numbered blanks.
Wave power
Engineers are building machinery to harness the power of ocean waves. As an abundant source of clean
energy, wave power can be categorised along with (34) _______ sustainable energy sources, such as wind
and solar power.
Wave power is extracted by wave energy converters, or WECs, which are placed along ocean (35) _______
that produce strong waves. The first wave farm, (36) _______ comprises three WECs, was built off the
coast of Portugal in 2008. It was set to produce over two megawatts of energy – enough to power 2,000
homes. Sadly, the project hit a (37) _______ block two months into operation and has remained offline ever
since, demonstrating the high probability of technical difficulties that can still arise.
Engineers are continuing to build wave farms worldwide, (38) _______ it is worth cultivating the extraction
of wave power. The amount of power that could potentially be extracted is three terawatts – enough for
billions of homes and businesses.
(Adapted from “Use of English for advanced”)
Question 34: A. other B. another C. every D. one
Question 35: A. floods B. streams C. currents D. brooks
Question 36: A. whom B. which C. why D. who
Question 37: A. stumbling B. stepping C. tripping D. rolling
Question 38: A. despite B. so C. as D. but
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
Millions of people in the UK are putting their sight at risk by continuing to smoke, warned specialists.
Despite the clear connection, only one in five people recognise that smoking can lead to blindness, a poll
for the Association of Optometrists (AOP) finds. Smokers are twice as likely to lose their sight compared
with non-smokers, as tobacco smoke can cause and worsen a number of eye conditions.
Cigarette smoke contains toxic chemicals that can irritate and harm the eyes. Additionally, Smoking can
make diabetes-related sight problems worse by damaging blood vessels at the back of the eye. Smokers are
also around three times more likely to get age-related macular degeneration - a condition affecting a
person's central vision, meaning that they lose their ability to see fine details. Moreover, they are 16 times
more likely than non-smokers to develop sudden loss of vision caused by optic neuropathy, where the blood
supply to the eye becomes blocked.
The AOP says stopping or avoiding smoking is one of the best steps you can take to protect your vision,
along with having regular sight checks. Aishah Fazlanie, Optometrist and Clinical and Regulatory Adviser
for the AOP, said: "People tend to know about the link between smoking and cancer, but many people are
not aware of the impact that smoking can have upon the eyes.”
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In the UK, 17% of men and 13% of women - around 7.4 million people - are smokers. More than half
(61%) of them say they want to quit. In 2017, around 2.8 million people - 5.5% of the UK - were using e-
cigarettes, and the most common reason given for this was to help quit smoking.
(Adapted from bbc.com)
Question 39: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The connection between smoking and cancer
B. Smoking’s negative effects on the human eye
C. People in UK switching to e-cigarette to quit smoking
D. How we can protect our vision from cigarette smoke
Question 40: According to the passage, smokers can unexpectedly lose vision when _______.
A. they suffer from macular degeneration.
B. blood vessels at the back of the eye are damaged.
C. blood is prevented from reaching the eye.
D. toxic chemicals in cigarette smoke harm the eye.
Question 41: The word “fine” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. relevant B. exact C. excellent D. lively
Question 42: The AOP suggest doing all of the following to protect our sight EXCEPT _______.
A. Checking our sight frequently. B. Switching to e-cigarettes.
C. Avoid smoking. D. Quit smoking completely.
Question 43: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. non-smokers B. details C. problems D. smokers
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
It is estimated that by 2050 more than two thirds of the world's population will live in cities, up from about
54 percent today. While the many benefits of organized and efficient cities are well understood, we need to
recognize that this rapid, often unplanned urbanization brings risks of profound social instability, risks to
critical infrastructure, potential water crises and the potential for devastating spread of disease. These risks
can only be further exacerbated as this unprecedented transition from rural to urban areas continues.
How effectively these risks can be addressed will increasingly be determined by how well cities are
governed. The increased concentration of people, physical assets, infrastructure and economic activities
mean that the risks materializing at the city level will have far greater potential to disrupt society than ever
before.
Urbanization is by no means bad by itself. It brings important benefits for economic, cultural and societal
development. Well-managed cities are both efficient and effective, enabling economies of scale and
network effects while reducing the impact on climate of transportation. As such, an urban model can make
economic activity more environmentally-friendly. Further, the proximity and diversity of people can spark
innovation and create employment as exchanging ideas breeds new ideas.
But these utopian concepts are threatened by some of the factors driving rapid urbanization. For example,
one of the main factors is rural-urban migration, driven by the prospect of greater employment opportunities
and the hope of a better life in cities. But rapidly increasing population density can create severe problems,
especially if planning efforts are not sufficient to cope with the influx of new inhabitants. The result may, in
extreme cases, be widespread poverty. Estimates suggest that 40% of the world's urban expansion is taking
place in slums, exacerbating socio-economic disparities and creating unsanitary conditions that facilitate
the spread of disease.
The Global Risks 2015 Report looks at four areas that face particularly daunting challenges in the face of
rapid and unplanned urbanization: infrastructure, health, climate change, and social instability. In each of
these areas, we find new risks that can best be managed or, in some cases, transferred through the
mechanism of insurance.
(Adapted from https://www.zurich.com)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. What Has Driven Rapid Urbanization?
B. The Risks of Rapid Urbanization in Developing Countries
C. The Global Risks 2015 Report on Developing Countries
D. Infrastructure and Economic Activities in Cities
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Question 45: The word “profound” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. right B. meaningful C. deep D. severe
Question 46: The word “It” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. Population B. Urbanization C. Development D. Unsanitary condition
Question 47: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 3?
A. Weather and climate in the city will not be improved.
B. Urbanization makes water supply system both efficient and effective.
C. People may come up with new ideas for innovation.
D. Urbanization minimizes risks for economic, cultural and societal development.
Question 48: The word “disparities” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. advantages B. outcomes C. inequalities D. developments
Question 49: According to the passage, urban expansion facilitates the spread of disease because _______.
A. poverty cannot be eliminated thoroughly
B. most of the world's urban expansion is taking place in slums
C. too many people hope for a better life in cities
D. employment opportunities in cities are greater than those in rural areas.
Question 50: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. About 54% of the world's population will live in cities by 2050.
B. Urbanization brings important benefits for development as well.
C. Rapidly increasing population density can help solve poverty.
D. Risks cannot be addressed effectively no matter how well cities are governed.
ĐỀ 7
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. lunch B. kitchen C. technology D. purchase
Question 2: A. tangle B. dangerous C. battle D. calculate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. second B. travel C. balance D. decide
Question 4: A. activation B. population C. diversity D. engineering
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: Women no longer have to do hard work nowadays as they used to, _________?
A. are they B. aren’t they C. do they D. don’t they
Question 6: We decided ____________ at home this afternoon.
A. staying B. stayed C. stay D. to stay
Question 7: The charity fundraiser, _____ by a local non-profit, raised thousands of dollars for a good
cause.
A. held B. were held C. holding D. were holding
Question 8:The snow ___________ heavily when we woke up this morning.
A. was falling B. fell C. has fallen D. had been falling
Question 9:The message ____ to her before she leaves.
A. will convey B. conveyed C. will be conveyed D. is conveying
Question 10: ________, there will be great joy throughout the land.
A. After the war had been over. B. When the war was over
C. As soon as the war is over D. Once the war will be over
Question 11: John would like to specialize ___________ computer science.
A. of B. to C. in D. at
Question 12: He was the last man _________ the ship.
A. who leave B. to leave C. leaving D. left
Question 13: We haven’t reached the final _______ on the funding for scientific research yet.
A. decides B. decision C. deciding D. decisive
Question 14: Please help me with this math problem. I can’t___________the answer.
A. end up B. face up to C. come up with D. run into
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Question 15: If we lose the case we may be _______________ for the costs of the whole trial.
A. compatible B. liable C. available D. accessible
Question 16: The committee is _______ of well-known mountaineers.
A. contained B. comprised C. included D. consisted
Question 17: This ticket ____ you to a free meal in our new restaurant.
A. allows B. grants C. entitles D. credits
Question 18: We were all in___________of the fact that the new manager was our oldfriend Duncan.
A. surprise B. shock C. awe D. amazement
Question 1 9 : It is estimated that about 640 women remain illiterate in the world, mostly in
________developing countries.
A. the B. no article C. a D. an
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Computers are becoming much more sophisticated machines.
A. expensive B. complicated C. convenient D. difficult to operate
Question 21: The student was asked to account for her absence from her last lesson.
A. arrange B. complain C. exchange D. explain
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: I was going to have a go at parachuting but lost my nerve at the last minute.
A. was determined to go ahead B. lost my temper
C. was discouraged from trying D. grew out of it
Question 23: Overpopulation in big cities has severely affected the air and water quality.
A. seriously B. insignificantly C. largely D. commonly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges
Question 24: Hana and Jenifer are talking about a book they have just read.
- Hana: “The book is really interesting and educational.” - Jenifer: “___________.”
A. Don’t mention it B. That’s nice of you to say so.
C. I’d love it. D. I couldn’t agree more.
Question 25: James: "Do you know that many inventions were inspired by the natural world?"
Anna: “____________________.”
A. Of course. You're right. B. There is no hope about it.
C. Well, that sounds interesting. D. Yes, I couldn't agree more.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Amparo Lasén, the Spanish sociologist who conducted the study found that
Londoners use their cell phones the least in public. If they are with others, they prefer to let calls be
answered by voice mail (a recorded message) and then they check for messages later. If the English do
answer a call on the street, they seem to dislike talking with others around. They tend to move away from a
crowded sidewalk and seek out a place (26) ________ they cannot be heard, such as the far side of a
subway entrance or even the edge of a street. They seem to feel that the danger of the traffic is (27)
___________ to the risk of having their conversation be overheard. This has led to a behavior that Laser
has called "clustering." At a busy time of day on the streets of London, you may find small crowds of cell
phone users grouped together, each one talking into a cell phone. Even when it is raining—as it is often in
London—people still prefer not to hold their conversations where others could hear. They talk (28)
_____________ their umbrellas or in a doorway.
In Paris, however, there are stricter rules about how and when to use cell phones. It is not considered
polite to use a phone in a restaurant, (29) ______________, though it might be acceptable in the more
informal setting of a café. One special custom that has developed in cafés seems unique to Paris. Young
women often place their cell phones on the table beside them to signal that they are expecting someone.
When the friend arrives, the phone is (30) _____________. In fact, the French are generally very
disapproving of phone use in public and are quick to express that disapproval, even to strangers.
(Adapted from “Advanced Reading Power” by Beatrice S. Mikulecky and Linda Jeffries)
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Question 26: A. which B. when C. where D. what
Question 27: A. preferable B. prefer C. preference D. preferential
Question 28: A. on B. under C. in D. after
Question 29: A. for examples B. moreover C. nevertheless D. for instance
Question 30: A. put away B. put back C. put down D. put aside
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
There was a man who had four sons. He wanted his sons to learn not to judge things too quickly. So he
sent them each on a quest, in turn, to go and look at a pear tree that was a great distance away. The first son
went in the winter, the second in the spring, the third in summer, and the youngest son in the fall. When
they had all gone and come back, he called them together to describe what they had seen.
The first son said that the tree was ugly, bent, and twisted. The second son said no – it was covered with
green buds and full of promise. The third son disagreed, he said it was laden with blossoms that smelled so
sweet and looked so beautiful, it was the most graceful thing he had ever seen. The last son disagreed with
all of them; he said it was ripe and drooping with fruit, full of life and fulfilment.
The man then explained to his sons that they were all right, because they had each seen but one season in
the tree’s life. He told them that you cannot judge a tree, or a person, by only one season, and that the
essence of who they are – and the pleasure, joy, and love that come from that life – can only be measured
at the end, when all the seasons are up. If you give up when it’s winter, you will miss the promise of your
spring, the beauty of your summer, fulfilment of your fall.
Don’t judge a life by one difficult season. Don’t let the pain of one season destroy the joy of all the rest.
(source: https://www.beliefnet.com)
Question 31: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The Seasons of Life B. The Observation of a Tree
C. Father and Four Sons D. Love all the Seasons in a Year
Question 32: According to the paragraph 2, what did the second son see in his turn?
A. The tree was gloomy, withered and crooked.
B. The tree was in buds and teeming with vigor.
C. The tree was blossoming and gave off a sweet scent.
D. The tree was bountifully fruitful, brimming with life force.
Question 33: The word “laden” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. loaded B. decorated C. enhanced D. given
Question 34: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. the four sons B. green buds C. trees, people D. the pleasure, joy and love
Question 35: According to the paragraph 4, what is the lesson the father wanted to impart to his children?
A. Moral lessons can come from the most unexpected and ordinary things.
B. No matter what season it is outside, you always have to cherish it.
C. The old age of humans is similar to the winter of nature.
D. Persevere through the difficulties and better times are sure to come sometime sooner or later.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
More than 200 reindeer have died of starvation on the Norwegian archipelago of Svalbard, with
scientists blaming their deaths on climate change. The wild deer carcasses were found on the Arctic islands
this summer by researchers from the Norwegian Polar Institute (NPI), which said it had never logged so
many deaths at once in 40 years of monitoring the animals’ population level. “It’s scary to find so many
dead animals,” project leader Ashild Onvik Pedersen told state broadcaster NRK. “This is an example of
how climate change affects nature. It is just sad.”
Svalbard’s capital Longyearbyen, the northernmost town on earth, is thought to be warming quicker than
any other settlement on the planet, climate scientists warned earlier this year. The milder temperatures in
the region led to unusually heavy rainfall in December, leaving a thick layer of ice when the precipitation
froze. This meant the reindeer could not dig through the hardened tundra to reach the vegetation they graze
on in their usual pastures, the NPI said. Svalbard’s reindeer have been observed eating seaweed and kelp
when food is scarce, but these are less nutritious and cause them stomach problems.
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A relatively high number of calves born last year increased the death toll, as the youngest and weakest
are often the first to die in harsh conditions. “Some of the mortality is natural because there were so many
calves last year. But the large number we see now is due to heavy rain, which is due to global warming,”
said Ms Onvik Pedersen.
A team of three scientists spent 10 weeks investigating population of the Svalbard reindeer earlier this
year. Researchers warned the decline of reindeer would cause unwanted plant species, currently kept in
check by the animals’ grazing, to spread across Arctic ecosystems in Europe, Asia and North America.
Arctic reindeer and caribou populations have declined 56 per cent in the last two decades, a report by the
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration said last year. The report said food security was partly
to blame for falling herd numbers, while warmer summers could also put the animals at greater risk of
diseases spread by flies and parasites. The average temperature in Longyearbyen has risen by 3.7C since
1900, more than three times the global average increase of about 1C. In 2016, the entrance to the town’s
“Doomsday” seed vault – which stores specimens of almost all the world’s seeds – was flooded following
heavy rainfall.
(Adapted from https://www.independent.co.uk/)
Question 36: Which could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Climate change – The main cause for the death of hundreds of reindeer.
B. Global warming – What are the effects on nature?
C. Reindeer – The most vulnerable animals on the Arctic islands.
D. Climate change – What are the reasons?
Question 37: The word “logged” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. cut down B. damaged C. recorded D. discovered
Question 38: The following are true about capital Longyearbyen, EXCEPT ___________.
A. It is believed to be the most quickly warming settlement on earth.
B. People in Longyearbyen suffered unusually heavy rain at the end of the year.
C. It is the northernmost town on our planet.
D. The reindeer here couldn’t stand the low temperature when the precipitation froze.
Question 39: The word “scarce” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by __________.
A. inappropriate B. insufficient C. abundant D. unlimited
Question 40: What does the word “these” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. seaweed and kelp B. Svalbard’s reindeer C. their usual pastures D. milder temperatures
Question 41: According to Ms. Onvik Pedersen, why is the death rate of reindeer so high this year?
A. Because of the high number of calves born. B. Because of heavy rain.
C. Because of natural selection. D. Because of the shortage of vegetation.
Question 42: Which statement is TRUE according to the last paragraphs?
A. After over 2 months investigated, reindeer populations were reported to decrease because of the
increase of unwanted plant species.
B. Nearly a half of reindeer populations have reduced in the last two decades.
C. Beside the scarcity of food, diseases are also the cause of reindeer’s mortality.
D. The average temperature of the Earth has increased by 3.7C since 1990.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: The number of students attending English courses at our university was increasing every
year
A. students B. attending C. at D. was
Question 44: Unlike the old one, this new car can perform their functions in half the time
A B C D
Question 45: It is said that these good life skills will make young people become more confidential.
A. is said B. these C. become D. confidential
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions
Question 46:The last time I went to the museum was a year ago.
A. I have not been to the museum for a year. B. A year ago, I often went to the museum.
C My going to the museum lasted a year. D At last I went to the museum after a year.
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Question 47: The teacher said to us: “Don’t make so much noise”.
A. The teacher asked us not to make so much noise.
B. The teacher told us that we didn’t make so much noise.
C. The teacher said we didn’t make so much noise.
D. The teacher ordered us if we didn’t make so much noise.
Question 48: It’s possible that we won’t go camping this weekend.
A. We will probably go camping this weekend.
B. We will not go camping this weekend.
C. We may not go camping this weekend.
D. We must not go camping this weekend.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: The car driver in front stopped so suddenly. Therefore, the accident happened.
A. If the car driver in front didn’t stop so suddenly, the accident wouldn’t happen.
B. If the car driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident wouldn’t have happened.
C. If the car driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident would have happened.
D. If the car driver in front had stopped suddenly, the accident would have happened.
Question 50: As soon as he arrived at the airport, he called home.
A. He arrived at the airport sooner than he had expected
B. No sooner had he arrived at the airport than he called home.
C. Calling home, he said that he had arrived at the airport.
D. He arrived at the airport and called me to take him home.
ĐỀ 8
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. substantial B. initiate C. particular D. attention
Question 2:A. spear B. gear C. fear D. pear
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. express B. effort C. employ D. reduce
Question 4: A. preference B. attraction C. advantage D. community
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: Taj Mahal is the second World Heritage site__________under the campaign which will be
carried out by ONGC at this monument.
A. covered B. covering C. to cover D. to be covered
Question 6: Universities in Vietnam have become ____________ to foreign students than ever before.
A. the most attractive B. most attractive C. more attractive D. attractive
Question 7: I will call and tell you something interesting _______.
A. when I come home after work B. after I had come home after work
C. before I came home after work D. while I was coming home after work
Question 8: Such approaches should be supported and mainstreamed in health interventions in order
to________ positive behavior change.
A. put off B. set off C. bring about D. hold up
Question 9: Her parents rarely let her stay out late, _______?
A. do they B. don’t they C. does she D. doesn’t she
Question 10:It is _______ funniest book that I have ever read.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 11:The discovery was a major ________ for research workers.
A. breakthrough B. breakdown C. break-in D. breakout
Question 12: I think there's a picture of the hotel ________ the first page.
A. on B. at C. in D. to
Question 13: To save energy, we should remember ________off the lights before going out.
A. being turned B. turning C.to turn D. turn
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Question 14:I tried to talk to her, but she was __________
A. as high as a kite B. as high as a house C. as high as a sky D. as high as a wall
Question 15: I _______ along the street when I suddenly heard footsteps behind me.
A. was walking B. walk C. am walking D. walked
Question 16:The young girl ______ down completely on hearing of her father’s death.
A. broke B. fell C. turned D. went
Question 17: This old wooden chest _______ by my grandfather over 40 years ago.
A. built B. had built C. was built D. was building
Question 18: Delegates will meet with from industry and the government.
A. Represented B. representative C. representatives D. representers
Question 19:We usually do go by train, even though the car……………….is a lot quicker.
A. travel B. journey C. trip D. voyage
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Tom and Linda are talking about jobs they would like to choose.
- Tom: “I think working as a doctor is a challenging job.”
- Linda: “______”
A. It’s a good idea. B. Not at all.
C. I’m sorry, but I agree with you. D. That’s exactly what I think.
Question 21: Two friends are talking about the coming Christmas holiday.
-Tony :“Are you going to your family reunion this Christmas holiday?”
- Mark: “_______”
A. As a matter of fact, I don't mind it at all.
B. I do. I've been excited about it now.
C. However, My parents and I are going to take a trip abroad
D. You bet. All my uncles and aunts will take their children along, too.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 22:I should be grateful if you would let me keep myself to myself.
A. be lonely B. be public C. be quiet D. be private
Question 23:Whatever the activity level, all types of hobbies can require high levels of expertise.
A.capability B. incompetence C. expertness D. skillfulness
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 24: During the recession, many small companies were eradicated.
A. taken over B. wiped out C. run on D. set up
Question 25: With the dawn of space exploration, the notion that atmospheric conditions on Earth may be
unique in the solar system was strengthened.
A. outcome B. beginning C. expansion D. continuation
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 26: It’s mandatory for people to check their temperature before entering the bank.
A. People should check their temperature before entering the bank.
B. People must check their temperature before entering the bank.
C. People can’t check their temperature before entering the bank.
D. People wouldn’t check their temperature before entering the bank.
Question 27:The last time I ate spaghetti was five months ago.
A. I didn’t eat spaghetti five months ago. B. I would eat spaghetti in five months.
C. I have eaten spaghetti for five months. D. I haven’t eaten spaghetti for five months.
Question 28:Our teacher asked us, ‘What are you most worried about?”
A. Our teacher asked us what I was most worried about
B. Our teacher asked us what were we most worried about
C. Our teacher asked us what we are most worried about
D. Our teacher asked us what we were most worried about
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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 29: She has disappeared three days ago, and they are still looking for her now.
A. has disappeared B. and C. are still D. for her
Question 30: Ozone has his origin in a number of sources, a prime one being the automobile engine.
A. his B. prime C. being D. the
Question 31: After going through a protection period that may last from several months to a year, new
recruits will be offered a long-term contract.
A. going through. B. protection. C. last. D. new recruits
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32:I'd prefer to be out with my friends. I have too much homework now.
A. I wish I had no homework now and can be out with my friends.
B. If only I didn't have too much homework now and could be out with my friends.
C. If I don't have much homework now, I will be out with my friends.
D. Provided I have no homework now, I will be out with my friends.
Question 33: I didn’t recognize my uncle. I did after he raised his voice only.
A.Not until I recognized my uncle did he raise his voice.
B. My uncle raised his voice as soon as I recognized him.
C. Only after my uncle raised his voice did I recognize him.
D.No sooner had I recognized my uncle than he raised his voice.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
Bali, the fabled "Island of the Gods", has been enchanting visitors for centuries with its rich cultural
traditions and spectacular panoramas. From lofty, mist enshrouded volcanoes and cool mountain lakes down
through terraced rice fields to a golden strand lapped by azure waters, every square inch of Bali offers a
fresh and unforgettable image.
No less enchanting are its people, some 2.7 million souls whose artistry and piety are recognized
throughout the world Balinese Hinduism, a complex fusion of Indian cosmology. Tantric Buddhism and
homegrown mythology, is the primary faith of Bali's inhabitants, and so deeply woven into the fabric of
their daily lives that the line between the spiritual and the material is blurry at best.
Those of you keen on delving into the island's fascinating culture will have plenty of opportunities, as
colorful ceremonies and traditional performances occur with regularity of sunrise. Most hotels offer nightly
dance shows of one form or another, tailored to tourist audiences but none the less exquisite. The hill town
of Ubud, the island's premier arts center, also has a full schedule of performance, and the nearby stone-
cutter's village of Batubulan is famed for its Barong lion dances. The shoppers among you will find Bali a
treasure house of handicrafts and fine works of art. The Balinese are incredibly gifted artists and craftsmen,
and their material creations are imbued with the same sense of wonderment with which they regard their
universe. Stone and wood carvings, traditional and modern paintings and intricately designed jewelry in gold
and silver are readily in shops and galleries throughout the island.
As for recreation, there is no shortage of option. Nature walks, horseback riding, diving, surfing, even
bungy jumping, and white water rafting await the adventurous here.
(Source: https://books.google.com.vn/books)
Question 34: The topic of the given passage is _______.
A. Balinese life B. Scenery in Bali C. Tourism in Bali D. Bali for recreation
Question 35: The second paragraph of the passage mainly discusses _______.
A. Population of Bali B. artistry and piety of Bali
C. Balinese religion D. daily lives of Balinese
Question 36: The word "their" in the second paragraph refers to _______.
A. 2.7 million souls B. Bali's inhabitants
C. daily lives D. the spiritual and the material
Question 37: Which of the following might be a synonym of the word "exquisite" in the third paragraph?
A. skillful B. clever C. spiritual D. material
Question 38: You can find all these recreational activities in Bali EXCEPT _______.
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A. horseback riding B. nature walks C. water rafting D. parachute jumping
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each the numbered blanks.
ChatGPT: New AI chatbot has everyone talking to it
A new chatbot has passed one million users in less than a week, the project behind it says.ChatGPT was
publicly released on Wednesday by OpenAI, an artificial intelligence research firm (39)_____ founders
included Elon Musk.ChatGPT is the latest in a series of AIs which the firm refers to as GPTs, an acronym
which (40)_____ for Generative Pre-Trained Transformer.To develop the system, an early version was fine-
tuned through conversations with human trainers.The system also learned from access to Twitter
data according to a tweet from Elon Musk who is no longer part of OpenAI's board. The Twitter boss wrote
that he had paused access "for now".The results have impressed (41)_____ who've tried out the chatbot.
OpenAI chief executive Sam Altman revealed the level of interest in the artificial conversationalist in a
tweet.The project says the chat format allows the AI to answer "follow-up questions, admit its mistakes,
challenge incorrect premises and reject inappropriate requests"A journalist for technology news site
Mashable who tried out ChatGPT reported it is hard to provoke the model into saying offensive things.
(42)_____, OpenAI warns that "ChatGPT sometimes writes plausible-sounding but incorrect or nonsensical
answers".Training the model to be more cautious, says the firm, causes it to decline to answer questions that
it can answer correctly.Briefly questioned by the BBC for this article, ChatGPT revealed itself to be a
cautious interviewee (43)_____ of expressing itself clearly and accurately in English.
https://www.bbc.com/news/technology
Question 39: A. where B. which C. who D. whose
Question 40: A. care B. take C. stand D. look
Question 41: A. little B. few C. much D. many
Question 42: A.As a result B. Therefore C. However D.So
Question 43: A. afraid B. fond C. able D. capable
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions
Advocates of the laws and journalists who cover the issue often neglect to ask what will replace plastic
bags and what the environmental impact of that replacement will be. People still need bags to bring home
their groceries. And the most common substitute, paper bags, may be just as bad or worse, depending on the
environmental problem you are most concerned about.
That is leading to a split in the anti-bag movement. Some bills, like in Massachusetts, try to reduce the
use of paper bags as well as plastic, but still favour paper. Others, like in New York City, treat all single-use
bags equally. Even then, the question remains as to whether single-use bags are necessarily always worse
than reusable ones.
Studies of bags’ environmental impacts over their life cycle have reached widely varying conclusions.
Some are funded by plastic industry groups, like the ironically named American Progressive Bag Alliance.
Even studies conducted with the puret of intentions depend on any number of assumptions. How many
plastic bags are replaced by one cotton tote bag? If a plastic bag is reused in the home as the garbage bag in
a bathroom waste bin, does that reduce its footprint by eliminating the need for another small plastic garbage
bag?
If your chief concern is climate change, things get even muddier. One of the most comprehensive
research papers on the environmental impact of bags, published in 2007 by an Australian state government
agency, found that paper bags have a higher carbon footprint than plastic. That is primarily because more
energy is required to produce and transport paper bags.
“People look at paper and say it’s degradable, therefore it’s much better for the environment, but it’s not
in terms of climate change impact,” says David Tyler, a professor of chemistry at the University of Oregon
who has examined the research on the environmental impact of bag use. The reasons for paper’s higher
carbon footprint are complex but can mostly be understood as stemming from the fact that paper bags are
much thicker than plastic bags. “Very broadly, carbon footprints are proportional to mass of an object,” says
Tyler. For example, because paper bags take up so much more space, more trucks are needed to ship paper
bags to a store than to ship plastic bags.
(Adapted from https://www.wired.com/)
Question 44: Which of the following best serves as the title for the article?
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A. Paper bags are a good substitute for plastic ones. B. Is plastic really worse than paper?
C. Activities of American Progressive Bag Alliance D. What people think about paper bags
Question 45: The word “their” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. people B. groceries C. paper bags D. plastic bags
Question 46: American Progressive Bag Alliance is the name of a _______.
A. plastic bag seller B. paper bag company C. law company D. plastic industry group
Question 47: The word “muddier” in paragraph 4 most probably means _______.
A. uglier B. luckier C. rarer D. vaguer
Question 48: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the article?
A. Paper bags can be the substitute for plastic bags.
B. New York City prefers single-use bags.
C. Studies reach the same conclusion on bags’ environmental impacts.
D. Plastic bags have a higher carbon footprint than paper according to research in 2007.
Question 49: The word “stemming” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. looking for B. asking for C. deriving from D. keeping from
Question 50: What can be inferred the reason for paper’s higher carbon footprint?
A. Paper bags are difficult to ship. B. Paper bags are much thicker than plastic bags.
C. Paper bags take less space. D. Paper bags are easily torn.
ĐỀ 9
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. health B. smooth C. bath D. depth
Question 2: A. climate B. livable C. city D. discuss
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. express B. depend C. discuss D. struggle
Question 4: A. solution B. principal C. passenger D. continent
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: We can also see the stone dragons of Kinh Thien Palace and relics associated with many
Vietnamese royal families, ____ during archaeological excavations.
A. discovered B. being discovered C. to discover D. discovering
Question 6: Going by air is sometimes __________ than going by train.
A. dangerous B. most dangerous C. the most dangerous D. more dangerous
Question 7: I will send you some postcards, ______.
A. until I will arrive at the destination B. as soon as I arrive at the destination
C. when I arrived at the destination D. after I had arrived at the destination
Question 8: The Iphone 14 Pro Max is very popular _______ young adults because of its notable features.
A. with B. on C. for D. about
Question 9: The flowers in our school garden are very beautiful, _______?
A. aren't we B. is it C. isn't he D. aren’t they
Question 10: The concert is expected to attract a lot of audience, so you should book _______ tickets in
advance.
A. a B. an C. the D. x
Question 11: Oprah Winfrey has been an important role model for black American women, breaking down
many invisible _______.
A. barriers B. trends C. gaps D. races
Question 12: I am thinking of changing my current job because I can’t _______ my low salary.
A. live on B. pay out C. save up D. set out
Question 13: The acupoints are stimulated _______ the healing capability of the body itself.
A. enhance B. to enhance C. enhancing D. enhanced
Question 14: After congratulating his team, the coach left, allowing the players to let their______ down
for a while.
A. hearts B. hair C. souls D. heads
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Question 15: When she came home from school yesterday, her mother _______in the kitchen.
A. cooked B. was cooking C. is cooking D. cooks
Question 16: At the beach, seagulls _______ a bad reputation for swooping down on unsuspecting people
to steal their food.
A. pay B. take C. have D. get
Question 17: The contract ________ when we reach an agreement on the price .
A. will have signed B. signs C. is signing D. will be signed
Question 18: For a public campaign to_______, it is important to make use of existing social organizations
as well as other relations.
A. successful B. success C. succeed D. successfully
Question 19: The________lay with the organizers, who failed to make the necessary arrangements for
dealing with so many people.
A. mistake B. foul C. fault D. error
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 20: John was in Hanoi and wanted to send a parcel to his parents. He asked a local passer-by the
way to the post-office.
- John: "Can you show me the way to the nearest post office, please?"
- Passer-by: "______"
A. Look it up in a dictionary! B. Just round the corner over there.
C. There's no traffic near here. D. No way! I hate him.
Question 21: Mrs Brown and Mr Smith are talking about teaching soft skills at school.
- Mrs Brown: “Some soft skills should be taught to children.”
- Mr Smith: “______. They are necessary for them.”
A. I don’t either B. I agree with you C. You’re quite wrong D. You’re welcome
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 22: In this writing test, candidates will not be penalized for minor mechanical mistakes.
A. punished B. rewarded C. motivated D. discouraged
Question 23: John has been unemployed for the past three years – he’s really in dire straits.
A. in a serious situation B. in a bad situation
C. in a difficult situation D. in a pleasant situation
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 24: My neighbor is a reckless driver. He has been fined for speeding this month.
A. enormous B. cautious C. careless D. famous
Question 25: Young couple got divorced after they realized that they were not compatible.
A. able to share an apartment or house B. able to budget their money
C. capable of living harmoniously D. capable of having children
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 26: Every student is required to write an essay on the topic of lifelong learning.
A. Every student might write an essay on the topic of lifelong learning.
B. Every student must write an essay on the topic of lifelong learning.
C. Every student can’t write an essay on the topic of lifelong learning.
D. Every student needn’t write an essay on the topic of lifelong learning.
Question 27: He last cooked for the whole family five months ago.
A. He didn’t cook for the whole family five months ago.
B. He has cooked for the whole family for five months.
C. He hasn’t cooked for the whole family for five months.
D. He would cook for the whole family in five months.
Question 28: “How long have you been working as a journalist?” She asked him.
A. She asked him how long he has been working as a journalist.
B. She asked him how long has he been working as a journalist.
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C. She asked him how long he had been working as a journalist.
D. She asked him how long had he been working as a journalist.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 29: The company had better develop more rapid and reliant systems for handling customers’
complaints.
A. company B. rapid C. reliant D. complaints
Question 30: My brother leaves his job last week because he did not have any chance to travel.
A. leaves B. because C. did not have D. to travel
Question 31: Commercial airliners do not fly in the vicinity of volcanic eruptions because even a small
amount of volcanic ash can damage its engines.
A. do not fly B. vicinity C. because D. its
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32: She is snowed under with work. She cannot go out with her friends at weekend.
A. If she weren't snowed under with work, she could go out with her friends at weekend.
B. Provided that she is snowed under with work, she cannot go out with her friends at weekend.
C. She wishes she were snowed under with work, she could go out with her friends at weekend.
D. If she were snowed under with work, she couldn’t go out with her friends at weekend.
Question 33: Ngoc’s personal information was leaked. She was aware of the danger of the Internet.
A. No sooner had Ngoc realised that the Internet was dangerous than her personal information was leaked.
B. Only after Ngoc’s personal information had been leaked did she realise how dangerous the Internet was.
C. Not until Ngoc’s personal information had been leaked was she aware of the benefit of the Internet.
D. Hardly had Ngoc’s personal information been leaked when she realised how beneficial the Internet was.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each the numbered blanks.
Teen spending
A large-scale study has been done by advertisers on the spending habits of today’s teenagers. It has come up
with some fascinating results. Girls across Europe ranging in age from 15 to 18 were interviewed. The
researchers discovered that these girls want to be successful and sophisticated and are willing to spend to
(34) ______ the look they want — when they have the money, that is!
Feeling confident is the most important factor when it comes to buying clothes. (35) ______ interesting
piece of information coming out of the study is that German teenagers go for clothes that are practical and
comfortable, while British and French teenagers are more concerned about appearance, (36) ______ they
all agreed that the clothes should fit them properly. All the girls (37) _______ were interviewed shop for
clothes regularly, half of them buying something from a department store or a large clothes shop at least
once a month. They also see it as a social (38) ______ and going round the shops with their friends is the
main way they learn what the latest trends are.
(Adapted from “Laser B2” by Malcomn Mann and Steve Taylor-Knowles)
Question 34: A. reach B. manage C. succeed D. achieve
Question 35: A. Many B. Another C. Few D. Other
Question 36: A. although B. so C. but D. for
Question 37: A. who B. whom C. which D. whose
Question 38: A. circumstance B. aspiration C. activity D. commitment
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
Scientists have dreamed for a long time about building a 'flying train' which can float through the air above
the tracks. With Maglev technology, their dreams are now a reality. Maglev trains have no wheels.
Instead, powerful magnets lift them into the air and push them forward, at speeds of up to 500 km per hour.
As well as speed, Maglev has a number of advantages over other transport systems. The trains are quieter
and the journey is smoother because they don't have wheels. They are also greener because they don't use
fuel and so create less pollution. Right now there is only one high-speed Maglev train system in the world.
It carries passengers from Shanghai city centre to the airport. However, work has started on a new, longer
Maglev track in Japan. Trains will go from Tokyo to Nagoya in 40 minutes. But don't expect to ride on it on
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your next trip to Japan. It won't open until 2027! Then, in 2045, the line will extend to Osaka.
There is one major problem with Maglev technology: it is incredibly expensive to build the tracks.
Transport planners predict that the Tokyo to Osaka line will cost 91 billion dollars. The high cost means
that Maglev technology probably won't replace other forms of transport in the near future. However, the
technology is still in development and somebody might find a cheaper and simpler way to build the tracks.
And then, who knows? In the future, some of us might fly to work by train.
(Adapted from Navigate by Caroline Krantz and Julie Norton)
Question 39: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. The End of Trains? B. Flying by Train
C. Train System in Shanghai D. The Next Generation of Technology
Question40. The word “powerful” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. heavy B. simple C. standard D. strong
Question 41: According to paragraph 2, Maglev trains ________.
A. don’t do much harm to the environment B. require a special type of fuel
C. travel faster than other vehicles D. don’t make any noise
Question 42: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. wheels B. transport systems C. Maglev trains D. advantages
43. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. A high-speed Maglev train system was first developed in Shanghai.
B. The cost of building Maglev train tracks can be enormous.
C. Maglev train system in Japan will come into operation in 2045.
D. Maglev trains can travel at an incredibly fast speed.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
The world's population reached five billion on the day I was born. That was in Indonesia back in 1987, and
my parents were amazed that there were so many people on the planet. However, since then the population
has continued to increase.
The growth of our human population is extraordinary. For more than two million years, humans lived with
no permanent home, finding plants to eat and hunting animals for meat. Then, just 10,000 years ago, we
invented agriculture. At that time, there were only about five million humans, but this fgure quickly
doubled. The population reached a billion in 1805, and since then it has multiplied seven times.
The human population has never been bigger, but in some ways the planet seems to be getting smaller. In
the past, travellers from Europe to Indonesia spent months at sea. Now you just have to sit on a plane for a
few hours. When you arrived in another country a hundred years ago, you saw unfamiliar styles of clothing
and architecture and discovered a completely different culture. In many places today, clothing and new
buildings are very similar, and people enjoy the same sports, music, flms and TV shows. We also buy the
same products from huge, global companies. In our different continents, we are starting to live the same
lives. Even the languages that we use are becoming more global. There are around seven thousand
languages in use today, but the number is decreasing fast.
The same thing is happening around the world. Experts think that the number of different languages will
halve to just 3,500 by the end of this century. Where will it stop? Will there be a time in the future when
Earth's billions all speak just one language, and there are no cultural differences to divide us? Perhaps the
planet would be more peaceful if this happened, but I must admit that the idea is quite depressing. I prefer
to think that, as our population grows, we can celebrate not the similarity but the fascinating diversity of the
human race.
(Adapted from Insight by Roberts and Sayer)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Languages: Why Saving Endangered Tongues Matters?
B. More People, Fewer Problems?
C. Going Global
D. Impressive Progress Across the Globe
Question 45: According to paragraph 1, the world’s population _______.
A. is set to stop at a certain time B. follows an upward trend
C. reached more than 5 billion in 1987 D. decreased quite a long time ago
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Question 46: The word “extraordinary” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. unusual B. disappointing C. expected D. positive
Question 47: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. agriculture B. meat C. home D. population
Question 48: The word “discovered” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. quit B. found C. sought D. brought
Question 49: Which of the following is true, according to the passage?
A. In the past, humans only consumed plant-based products.
B. The global population rose considerably after the appearance of agriculture.
C. Taking a flight to travel from Europe to Indonesia is quite common nowadays.
D. Global products can only be bought at big companies.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The writer is in favour of a world with cultural differences.
B. People living in this world will ultimately speak the same language.
C. There certainly won’t be any cultural conflicts if a global language is in use.
D. Earth citizens should embrace the idea of cultural assimilation.
ĐỀ 10
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. solution B. spatial C. contractual D. patience
Question 2: A. arrange B. engagement C. orientation D. stomach
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. mutual B. sleepy C. Chinese D. crucial
Question 4: A. emphasis B. tragedy C. counselor D. guarantee
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: The little girl __________ in mud is now receiving a beating.
A. covered B. covering C. is covered D. is covering
Question 6: Our new products are __________ in the USA than in Europe.
A. more popular B. most popular C. popular D. the most popular
Question 7: _______________, I will discuss them with you.
A. As soon as I finish all required readings in our class.
B. When I will finish all required readings in our class.
C. After I had finished all required readings in our class.
D. By the time I finished all required readings in our class.
Question 8: Nam Dong Market is famous ________ delicious che (sweet soup), such as Thai sweet soup,
grapefruit sweet soup, taro sweet soup, etc.
A. by B. at C. on D. for
Question 9: Your brother is reading books in the library, ________?
A. doesn’t he B. is he C. isn’t he D. isn’t she
Question 10: Our teacher often gives us videos to watch at _______home.
A. the B. Ø C. a D. an
Question 11: Cosmetic or plastic surgery often __________ images of famous personalities wanting
to alter their appearances through elective surgical procedures.
A. prohibits B. evokes C. exterminates D. publicizes
Question 12: We must continually learn and acquire new knowledge if we are to adapt and ___________
changing events.
A. lose contact with B. catch sight of C. do away with D. keep up with
Question 13: Before Tom decides __________ a gap year, he must make sure that the university will hold
his place for him till the following year.
A. taking B. take C. to take D. taken
Question 14: We were ready to pack our bags and go on vacation _____________
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A. at the drop of a hat B. few and far between C. in vain D. when pigs fly
Question 15: The bus driver __________ into town when the brakes broke down.
A. drove B. was driving C. drives D. will drive
Question 16: She has had three heart attacks, so now she has to ___________ an operation.
A. make B. have C. try D. come
Question 17: The 33rd SEA Games __________ in Thailand from December 9th to 20th, 2025
A. hold B. will be held C. takes place D. be held
Question 18: For sedentary workers, a __________ lifestyle helps them limit obesity and prevent diseases
(cancer, disc herniation, etc.)
A. health B. healthily C. healthiness D. healthy
Question 19: Fog smothered districts 1, 4 and 7, where many drivers complained of poor ________ until
noon.
A. tension B. view C. visibility D. vision
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Jack: “You have a sweet voice! You sang the Italian song "Santa Lucia” so beautifuly!”
Mary: “______________”
A. Your compliment is encouraging. B. Better than you are thinking.
C. Don’t joke me. D. Your compliment isn’t correct.
Question 21: John and Martha are discussing women and men in society.
John: " In my opinion, women usually drive more carefully than men."
Martha: "_________”
A. Yes, please. B. Absolutely. C. What nonsense. D. Never mind.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: “Study abroad” is a thorny but extremely attractive path because it can bring about a big change in
thinking, awareness, and upgrading of self-worth.
A. provoke B. downtown C. downsize D. downgrade
Question 23: She was extremely pleased that her new books were selling like hot cakes.
A. money burns a hole in one’s pocket B. like a streak of lightning
C. go out of business D. go into business
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: When young people tend to disconnect from society from 6 months or more, it can be
considered a psychological problem.
A. mental B. physical C. behavioural D. facial
Question 25: The psychology of girls at puberty will have many changes leading to different personalities,
thoughts and habits.
A. in infancy B. in adolescence C. in youth D. in the lees of life
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in the meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 26: I'm sure his mother was very disappointed because he got his hands on e-cigarettes at school.
A. His mother may be very disappointed when he got his hands on e-cigarettes at school.
B. His mother should have been very disappointed when he got his hands on e-cigarettes at school.
C. His mother must have been very disappointed when he got his hands on e-cigarettes at school.
D. His mother must be very disappointed when he got his hands on e-cigarettes at school.
Question 27: I last visited Truc Lam monastery in Da Lat last week.
A. I haven’t visited Truc Lam monastery in Da Lat since last week.
B. I visited Truc Lam monastery in Da Lat since last week.
C. I didn’t visit Truc Lam monastery in Da Lat for last week.
D. I have visited Truc Lam monastery in Da Lat since last week.
Question 28: “When will Pixar release its next animated project?”, asked my brother.
A. My brother asked me when will Pixar release its next animated project.
B. My brother asked me when Pixar will release its next animated project.
C. My brother asked me when Pixar would release its next animated project.
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D. My brother asked me when Pixar released its next animated project.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29: Australians tend to drink water while on the road, so they often buy at convention stores
A. often buy B. tend to drink C. on D. convention
Question 30: Currently, Singapore provides an anti-fraud hotline and a website warning about online scams.
A. provides B. hotline C. online D. a
Question 31: These students are visual learners because he prefer to see models of the patterns they are
expected to learn
A. he B. models C. to learn D. visual learners
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32: Minh doesn’t pass the Competency Assessment Exam 2023 this month, his mother won’t buy
him a new latop.
A. If Minh didn’t pass the Competency Assessment Exam 2023 this month, his mother won’t buy him a
new latop.
B. If Minh passed the Competency Assessment Exam 2023 this month, his mother wouldn’t buy him a
new latop.
C. If Minh passed the Competency Assessment Exam 2023 this month, his mother will buy him a new
latop.
D. If Minh passed the Competency Assessment Exam 2023 this month, his mother would buy him a new
latop.
Question 33: Mr. Manh finished doing his projects at work. He wanted to spend more time with his little
daughter then.
A. Only after Mr. Manh wanted to spend more time with his little daughter did he finish doing his
projects at work.
B. No sooner had Mr. Manh finished doing his projects at work when he wanted to spend more time with
his little daughter.
C. No sooner had Mr. Manh finished doing his projects at work than he wanted to spend more time with
his little daughter.
D. Hardly had Mr. Manh finished doing his projects at work when he didn’t want to spend more time
with his little daughter.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38
Superstitions still play an important part of life for many people in Viet Nam. For example, a lot of
people choose a favourable date for occasions such as weddings, funerals, or house moving days. Some
people may argue that being superstitious has no place in today’s society. (34) _____, superstitions have
existed in all human societies throughout history. As a country (35) _____ in Asia, where many mysteries,
and legends originate, Viet Nam has also kept various superstitious beliefs about daily activities. There are
numerous rituals (36) _____ to daily activities. During the Vietnamese New Year, for example, many people
believe that the first person (37) _____ visits their home on the first day of the new year will affect their life.
Thus, they try to choose this person very carefully. If this person is rich, prestigious or happy, then the
family will have good fortune that year. People also believe that if you sweep the floor during the first three
days of the festival, you might sweep out any wealth. For (38) _____ things, such as setting out for an
examination or starting up a business venture, people will try to avoid crossing the path of a woman as this
may not bring good luck to them.
(Adapted from Tiếng Anh 10 thí điểm – Unit 7 - page 19)
Question 34: A. However B. Because C. Therefore D. Despite
Question 35: A. connected B. situated C. united D. assimilated
Question 36: A. depended B. related C. suitable D. consisted
Question 37: A. which B. who C. whom D. whose
Question 38: A. each B. others C. other D. every
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 39 to 43
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There have been a lot of scientific studies into what makes a friendship. It seems today that ideas of
what friendship is are also changing. A study in 1993 at the University of Oxford showed that people could
only maintain 150 relationships. However, with the explosion of social media since then, many people now
have over 300 people who they think of as friends. Some people think that these friends are not real friends,
but others believe that social media has helped us to expand and keep our friendships because we have more
time and opportunities.
Another change from the past is that people don't stay in the place where they were born. They go to
different cities and countries for education and jobs. People are in general more geographically mobile
nowadays. This means that we have more chances to meet and make friends with people from different
cultures and different backgrounds. People still often make friends at college who remain friends for life, but
making new friends at work is more difficult. People now have less security at work and this also means that
they find
it harder to build new relationships.
As people get older, they sometimes also have less free time. They become busier with their jobs and
families and have less time to spend with friends. Friendships can be very
different when we are at different ages. Young children often choose their friends because of convenience,
for example, they go to the same school, they live near each other or their
parents are friends. As we get older, friendships are more connected with having similar interests and
opinions.
One thing is definitely true though, it doesn't matter how old we are or how many friends we have on
social media, friendship is good for our health. People who spend time
with friends have fewer mental health problems and are generally happier and in a better physical state of
health than people who spend their free time alone.
(Adapted from Mindset for IELTS - Student’s book 1 - page 11)
Question 39. What is the author’s main idea in the passage?
A. The older they get, the happier they become
B. The ways to make friends at college and at work
C. Social media and friendship are good for our health
D. Social media and the meaning of friendship
Question 40: The word “their” in paragraph 3 refers to _______
A. friends B. ages C. young children D. schools
Question 41: The word “connected” in the paragraph 3 is closet in meaning to _______
A. devoted B. motivative C. joined together D. frank
Question 42. According to paragraph 2, making friends at work is more difficult than at college because
_________.
A. they don’t have so much safety at work
B. they have more time and opportunities at work
C. they meet many people from different countries at work
D. they have less free time at work
Question 43. Which of the following is NOT MENTIONED according to the passage?
A. As people get older, they find it unnecessary to get married.
B. People who only stay alone in their free time are generally not as happy as people who spend more
time with their friends.
C. When going to different cities and countries for education and jobs, they also have more chances to
make friends
D. More and more people have new friends on social media.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 44 to 50
Social and emotional changes are part of your child’s journey to adulthood. You have a big role to play
in helping your child develop adult emotions and social skills. Strong relationships with family and friends
are vital for your child’s healthy social and emotional development. Here are some ideas to help you support
your child’s social and emotional development.
You can be a role model for positive relationships with your friends, children, partner and colleagues.
Your child will learn from seeing relationships that have respect, empathy and positive ways of resolving
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conflict. You can also role-model positive ways of dealing with difficult emotions, moods and conflict. For
example, there’ll be times when you’re feeling cranky, tired and unsociable. Instead of withdrawing from
your child or getting into an argument, you could say, “I’m tired and cross. I feel I can’t talk now without
getting upset. Can we have this conversation after dinner?”
Getting to know your child’s friends and making them welcome in your home will help you keep up
with your child’s social relationships. It also shows that you recognise how important your child’s friends
are to your child’s sense of self. If you’re concerned about your child’s friends, you might be able to guide
your child towards other social groups. But banning a friendship or criticising your child’s friends could
have the opposite effect. That is, your child might want to spend even more time with the group of friends
you’ve banned.
Active listening can be a powerful way of strengthening your relationship with your child in these years.
To listen actively, you need to stop what you’re doing when your child wants to talk. If you’re in the middle
of something, make a time when you can listen. Respect your child’s feelings and opinions and try to
understand their perspective, even if it’s not the same as yours. For example, “It sounds like you’re feeling
left out because you’re not going to the party on Thursday night”.
Telling your child how you feel when they behave in particular ways helps your child learn to read and
respond to emotions. It also models positive and constructive ways of relating to other people. It can be as
simple as saying something like “I felt really happy when you invited me to your school performance”.
(Adapted from https://raisingchildren.net.au)
Question 44: Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. Be a role model with your children in adolescence
B. Share your feelings with your children in adolescence
C. The benefits of social and emotional development in adolescence
D. Supporting social and emotional development in adolescence
Question 45: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to _______
A. your child’s relationships B. role models
C. your child D. your child’s friends
Question 46: The word “vital” in the paragraph 1 is closet in meaning to _______
A. simple B. positive C. essential D. sociable
Question 47: According to paragraph 3, why shouldn’t you criticize your child’s friends?
A. It has negatively affected your child B. It makes them satisfied
C. It makes them welcome in your home D. It has positive effects on your child
Question 48: The word “deal with” in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to _______
A. reject B. handle C. imitate D. cherish
Question 49: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT TRUE about the ideas to support
your child’s healthy social and emotional development in adolescence?
A. Be a role model
B. Learn to connect with others by keeping his real feelings back
C. Listen to your child’s feelings
D. Get to know your child’s friends
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the saying like “I felt really happy when you
invited me to your school performance” in paragraph 5?
A. It means that your child should learn to socialize with others in more positive ways
B. It means that your child may behave impolitely.
C. It means that your child needn’t learn to read your emotions
D. It means that your child doesn’t know how to response his emotions.
ĐỀ 11
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. cast B. cite C. cold D. cup
Question 2. A. bite B. sign C. hide D. fill
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
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Question 3. A. carry B. admit C. decline D. protect
Question 4. A. courteous B. natural C. effective D. powerful
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. Hana rarely goes to the theatre, ______ ?
A. didn’t she B. has she C. doesn’t she D. does she
Question 6. I find that ______ Japanese are very friendly.
A. a B. the C. Ø (no article) D. an
Question 7. Because of working hard, Jimmy finally achieved ______.
A. successful B. success C. succeed D. successfully
Question 8. He has the habit of ______ notes in English lessons.
A. doing B. staying C. holding D. taking
Question 9. Yesterday I _______ in the park when I saw Hung playing football.
A. was walking B. is walking C. has walked D. has been walking
Question 10. During the first 10 minutes of the presentation, her lack of confidence ______ out a mile.
A. lay B. stuck C. kept D. met
Question 11. Do you think that teachers ______ by robots in the future?
A. replace B. were replaced C. have replaced D. will be replaced
Question 12. A member of a political ______ is expected to deliver a speech at the national park this
evening.
A. staff B. crew C. party D. band
Question 13. She expressed her gratitude to everyone ______ behalf of the president.
A. in B. at C. with D. on
Question 14. Laura decided to ______ the job offer as she didn’t want to move to a new city.
A. turn down B. take over C. go after D. make for
Question 15. They will give a performance ______ .
A. when their school organised the prom B. once their school organises the prom
C. before their school organised the prom D. after their school had organised the prom
Question 16. I deeply regret ________ to her so severely yesterday. She was badly hurt.
A. to be speaking B. to speak C. having spoken D. being spoken
Question 17. I thought that my favourite volleyball team would make it to the final, and it turned out that
was a(n) ______ guess.
A. influenced B. motivated C. inspired D. aroused
Question 18. “Why did you buy these oranges? ” “They were ____________ I could find.”
A. cheapest B. cheapest ones C. the cheapest ones D. the most cheapest
Question 19. The new policy will be helpful for people ______ calls from unverified mobile phone
numbers.
A. received B. to receive C. receive D. receiving
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined bold word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. Jane was the centre of attention when she wore an elegant dress at the party.
A. stylish B. difficult C. unattractive D. tiring
Question 21. The university has just implemented a policy that prohibits smoking on campus.
A. permits B. accepts C. forbids D. refuses
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. A final agreement hasn’t been reached yet because they are at loggerheads over the cost.
A. think in a creative way B. are in disagreement
C. share the viewpoint D. become totally exhausted
Question 23. She has neglected her studies for months, so it’s not surprising that she got bad marks at the
mid-term exam.
A. glanced at B. concentrated on C. searched for D. been inattentive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.
Question 24. David and Martin are talking about urbanisation.
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- David: “I think urbanisation brings about many advantages to city life.”
- Martin: “ ______ . It can lead to some issues such as pollution or traffic congestion.”
A. That’s for sure B. I go along with you
C. I don’t quite agree D. It’s great to hear that
Question 25. Sam and Linh are at a coffee shop.
- Sam: “Would you like to have some coffee or a glass of lemonade?” - Linh: “ ______ “
A. No, I like both. B. Either is fine. C. Yes, I’d love to. D. You’re welcome.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
STAYING IN TOUCH
People have been recording information in the form of writing since ancient times. Latin, the language
of religion, and French, the language of the rich and powerful, were the (26) ______ languages in the
Middle Ages in Europe. Subjects were usually connected to religion, trade and government, although
historians have also come across love letters (27) ______ people wrote to stay in touch in those times.
After the invention of the printing press in the mid-fifteenth century, books and documents in people’s
native languages became readily available. This, together with improvements in education and the spread of
postal services in the nineteenth century, permitted families and friends to (28) ______ messages to each
other by letter. Maintaining contact was much easier than it had ever been. In recent years, (29) ______ ,
everything has changed. Mobile phones, emails and text messages are replacing letters. Why bother writing
a letter when you can make small talk on the phone for very little cost? (30) ______ people would agree,
however, that there is something very special about receiving a personal, handwritten letter.
(Adapted from High Note by Rachael Roberts and Caroline Krantz)
Question 26. A. realised B. preferred C. expected D. compared
Question 27. A. what B. whose C. when D. that
Question 28. A. receive B. contribute C. transfer D. convey
Question 29. A. moreover B. because C. though D. in contrast
Question 30. A. Another B. Every C. Few D. Most
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
You know what they say; find a job you love and you will never work a day in your life. So, if you are
thinking about what to do with your life, this may be something to consider. Choosing a career can be
difficult. Especially because there are so many jobs to choose from and many things to think about, such as
qualifications and financial rewards. So how do you pick a career? The only answer seems to be “choose
one that makes you feel that you are getting paid for doing something you truly love”.
Unless you have grown up with a talent or are keen on something that you can make a career out of, you
need to consider certain things about yourself. What suits your personality? We are all different and just
because your best friend wants to be a doctor, this does not mean that you should follow. You need to make
an informed decision. This means thinking carefully about the path you need to follow to get that job. Are
you willing to get the training or education needed? You must also consider why you really want to do it. If
it’s just because it’s well paid, then sometime in the future you are going to feel ‘empty’, even with a healthy
bank account.
Nowadays, there are plenty of online career sites, but the main part has to come from you. You need to
be honest and measure your skills and talents realistically. Also, you may need to talk to your parents who
have their own ideas, based on their own experiences, about what you should do. They have your best
interests at heart. They don’t want to see you having financial problems or being unemployed. But at the end
of the day, it is your life. There is no point in being miserable for the next forty years just to please someone
else.
(Adapted from Succeed in B1 Preliminary by Andrew Betsis and Lawrence Mamas)
Question 31. Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. Finding a Job Online B. Tips to Have a Well-Paid Job
C. The New Era of Job Finding? D. Choosing a Career
Question 32. According to paragraph 1, what is the advice given for choosing a job?
A. You should choose a job that can be very demanding.
B. It’s a good idea to find a paid job that you really like.
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C. It’s advisable to choose a highly-paid job.
D. It’s recommended that you should avoid a boring job.
Question 33. The word informed in paragraph 2 mostly means ______ .
A. unexpected B. quick C. wise D. hard
Question 34. The word They in paragraph 3 refers to ______ .
A. Interests B. Parents C. Ideas D. Experiences
Question 35. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. You have to be responsible for your job choices.
B. A well-paid job may not satisfy you down the road.
C. Honesty is an important trait that ensures you a steady job.
D. You need to find a job that suits your personality.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Think of an endangered species. What comes to mind? The giant panda and the blue whale? And what
do these creatures all have in common? They’re known as ‘charismatic megafauna’, in other words, large
species of animals which appeals to a lot of people. However, less well-known or ‘exciting’ creatures are
far more likely to actually become extinct because they don’t get enough attention from researchers.
The Ugly Animal Preservation Society’s mascot is the blob fish, voted the world’s ugliest animal. With
its tiny eyes, big mouth and slimy pink body it’s far from attractive. This marine creature lives deep in the
ocean, where the pressure is very high. As a result, it has tiny fins and no skeleton, which keeps it from
being crushed by the water pressure. Unfortunately, when fishing boats sweep the ocean floor, looking for
other fish and crustaceans, these fish can get swept into the nets accidentally, which is causing their numbers
to drop.
The California condor is another accidental victim of human activity. These huge birds with bald heads
and big beaks weigh up to fourteen kilos, have a wingspan of up to two metres and can live as long as sixty
years. They play an important role in the ecosystem by feeding on dead animals, thus preventing the spread
of disease. Reintroduced into the wild after becoming extinct, other than in captivity, they are now under
threat once more because of chemical pesticides introduced into the food chain and lead poisoning from the
ammunition used to kill the animals they feed on.
Other creatures become endangered precisely because people find them ugly. Take the aye aye for
example. Found only on the island of Madagascar, the aye aye is the world’s largest nocturnal primate.
During the day they sleep in nests in the trees, coming out to hunt at night. They are solitary creatures, furry,
but strange looking, with big eyes, large ears and long, thin, pointed fingers. The middle finger is
particularly thin and they use it to gently knock on trees. Then they reach into the tree and pull out any
insects that respond to the knocking. Unfortunately, the way they look means that they are traditionally
considered an omen of bad luck. Some people even believe that if they point that thin middle finger at
someone, they will die. As a result, they are often killed, even though, like many endangered species, they
are now protected by law.
(Adapted from High Note by Rachael Roberts and Caroline Krantz)
Question 36. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Are Endangered Species Getting Enough Attention?
B. They Need Saving Too!
C. ‘Ugly Animals’: Why Do They Become Extinct?
D. Conservation Programmes for Unattractive Species
Question 37. The phrase appeals to in paragraph 1 mostly means ______ .
A. requests B. interests C. damages D. replaces
Question 38. According to paragraph 1, what features do the giant panda and the blue whale share?
A. They aren’t being saved from extinction. B. They aren’t popular in the animal world.
C. They don’t get attention from researchers. D. They have attractive appearances.
Question 39. The word they in paragraph 3 refers to ______ .
A. chemical pesticides B. the California condors
C. dead animals D. kilos
Question 40. The word omen in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______ .
A. behaviour B. speed C. origin D. sign
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Question 41. Which of the following is true, according to the passage?
A. The life expectancy of the California condor is rather low.
B. The water pressure poses a threat to the survival of the blob fish.
C. The aye aye has the habit of hunting just after the sunrise.
D. The California condor is under threat due to chemical pollution.
Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The complete disappearance of the California condor can affect the food chain.
B. The number of the aye aye is dropping significantly because of their middle finger.
C. The spread of disease could be encouraged by the extinction of the California condor.
D. The blob fish is vulnerable to humans due to their natural defence mechanism.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43. Air pollution became very serious in recent years due to human activity.
A B C D
Question 44. The president did not sound unduly concerned that the new policy would be
A B
disadvantaged to the future development of the company.
C D
Question 45. If the essay were written in a simpler way, they would be rated as good.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46. I’m sure that he didn’t commit the crime as he was with me at that time.
A. He can’t have committed the crime as he was with me at that time.
B. He needn’t have committed the crime as he was with me at that time.
C. He should have committed the crime as he was with me at that time.
D. He must have committed the crime as he was with me at that time.
Question 47. “Did you go to the beach yesterday?” asked my friend.
A. My friend asked me if I went to the beach yesterday.
B. My friend asked me if I had gone to the beach the day before.
C. My friend asked me if I have gone to the beach yesterday.
D. My friend asked me if I would go to the beach the previous day.
Question 48. She began to work for this charitable organisation 5 years ago.
A. She hasn’t worked for this charitable organisation for 5 years.
B. She didn’t work for this charitable organisation 5 years ago.
C. She last worked for this charitable organisation 5 years ago.
D. She has worked for this charitable organisation for 5 years.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. They couldn’t afford a meal at a restaurant. They were very poor.
A. If it hadn’t been for their poverty, they could afford a meal at a restaurant.
B. Unless they were very poor, she could afford a meal at a restaurant.
C. But for their poverty, they could have afforded a meal at a restaurant.
D. If they had been poor, they couldn’t have afforded a meal at a restaurant.
Question 50. He will develop serious diseases if he continues living a sedentary lifestyle. He isn’t aware of
that much.
A. No matter how much he is aware of, he will develop serious diseases if he continues living a sedentary
lifestyle.
B. Not until he stopped living a sedentary lifestyle did he understand how he developed serious diseases.
C. So serious are his diseases that he isn’t aware of the danger of living a sedentary lifestyle.
D. So little does he realise that he will develop serious diseases if he continues living a sedentary
lifestyle.
ĐỀ 12
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. knowledge B. agree C. generous D. surgeon
Question 2. A. equal B. female C. enroll D. being
Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. purpose B. compose C. propose D. suppose
Question 4: A. entertain B. engineer C. committee D. referee
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: The woman English at his school is Ms. Smith.
A. who teach B. teaching C. taught D. was being taught
Question 6: Lan is student in her class.
A. the most tall B. the tallest C. the more tall D. the taller
Question 7: The passengers to board the game when it started to rain.
A. were waiting B. was waiting C. waited D. would waiting
Question 8: Durian is now ____ harvest season in Mekong Delta provinces.
A. in B. at C. under D. on
Question 9: Director Pham Thien An felt confused when he first studied films, ______?
A. did he B. didn’t he C. had he D. hadn’t he
Question 10: Nobody died in the terrorism, but 20 people were ____________
A. damaged B. injured C. spoiled D. wounded
Question 11: My parents hope to travel around______world next summer.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
Question 12: The online game “Dumb ways to die” quickly_____________with young people after being
released in 2013.
A. took on B. caught up C. caught on D. took up
Question 13: It was his own fault, but I couldn’t help ________ sorry for him.
A. feeling B. to feel C. felt D. to have felt
Question 14: He saw them watching him and bared his ___________ in the manner of an angry dog.
A. mouth B. tooth C. teeth D. nose
Question 15: Marry will join us .
A. as soon as she had finished her homework B. as soon as she will finish her homework
C. as soon as she finished her homework D. as soon as she finishes her homework
Question 16: Amazon acquired Ring in 2018, ______ the way for the e-commerce giant to get into the
home security business.
A. getting B. putting C. paving D. showing
Question 17: Over 700 durian trucks __________ at the Vietnam-China border last year.
A. are sticking B. were being stuck C. were stuck D. are being stuck
Question 18: What __________ views do Americans and Asians have about love and marriage?
A. tradition B. traditionally C. traditionalism D. traditional
Question 19: His poor standard of play fully justifies his __________from the team for the next match.
A. expulsion B. dismissal C. rejection D. exclusion
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 20: Jane: “Could you show me the way to the station?” - Jack: “___________”
A. About ten minutes. B. The show is not interesting.
C. The station is far from here. D. Go ahead, then turn left.
Question 21: Peter: “The air quality in Hanoi is getting worse and worse”.
Jenny:” ____________. I can’t see anything in the morning because of too much smoke.”
A. I don’t really think so. B. I don’t quite agree.
C. You can say that again. D. That’s not a matter.
Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word ( s ) in each of the following questions.
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Question 22: Authorities in Bali will distribute a list of “dos and don’ts” for visitors arriving at the tourist
island.
A. collect B. assign C. circulate D. delete
Question 23: I’m sure it won’t rain, but I’ll take an umbrella just to be on the safe side.
A. careful B. easy C. careless D. difficult
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The charming old buildings and cottages are a throwback to the colonial past.
A. cunning B. exciting C. interesting D. fascinating
Question 25: Greater gender equality brings freedom, boosts prosperity and strengthens global security.
A. wealth B. disadvantage C. stagnation D. safety
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26. I haven’t heard from him for ages.
A. I didn’t write to him for ages. B. I last wrote to him long time ago.
C. I wrote to him for ages. D. I haven’t written to him long time ago.
Question 27: ‘‘ Where did you go last night?” she said to her boyfriend.
A. She asked her boyfriend where did he go last night.
B. She asked her boyfriend where he went the night before.
C. She asked her boyfriend where had he gone the night before.
D. She asked her boyfriend where he had gone the night before.
Question 28: Jane still wants to go to the supermarket although the fridge is full of fruits.
A. There is no need for Jane to go to the supermarket.
B. Jane should go to the supermarket.
C. Jane hadn’t better go to the supermarket.
D. Jane mustn’t go to the supermarket.
Mark the letter A , B , C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: We couldn’t see the mountains because of the rain.
A. If only it didn’t rain so we could see the mountains.
B. If it hadn’t rained, we could see the mountains.
C. I wish I had been able to see the mountains without rain.
D. But for the rain, I could see the mountains.
Question 30: When we crossed the fields, we saw a tiny house at the foot of the mountain.
A. No sooner had we crossed the fields when we saw a tiny house at the foot of the mountain.
B. Not until we crossed the fields did we see a tiny house at the foot of the mountain.
C. Scarcely had we crossed the fields than we saw a tiny house at the foot of the mountain.
D. It was not until we crossed the fields did we see a tiny house at the foot of the mountain.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 31: He was arrested at the airport with a kilo of heroine secreted in his clothing.
A. arrested B. with C. heroine D. clothing
Question 32: The national soccer team make every effort to win the match yesterday.
A. make B. effort C. to win D. yesterday
Question 33: Animals like frogs have waterproof skin that prevents it from drying out quickly in air, sun,
or wind.
A. have B. that C. it D. wind
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
There are many types of English around the world. Some well-known varieties in Asia include
Chinglish in China, Singlish in Singapore and Japanese English. A group of language experts in Japan is
troubled by how the government uses English. ___(34)_____, it says the government uses computer or
online translation too much. Researchers say many translations create strange and confusing words and
expressions _(35)_______are confusing to English speakers. The researchers worry this could have a
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negative impact on Japan’s tourist industry. They even say the increasing number of unsuitable words is
becoming a “national embarrassment” in Japan.
The research team says computer software gives ____(36)_______ or incorrect translations for
individual kanji - the Chinese characters used in Japanese writing. There are____(37)________ examples
of this, including “Hello Work” - the name for job centers, and “Go To Travel” a plan to help tourism in
Japan during the COVID-19 pandemic. The team says software creates, “unintentionally funny translations
that could easily be corrected if they were just checked by an English speaker”. Businesses also create this
English. The Christmas message being used by the Seibu Sogo department store has raised ____(38)____.
It says “Stay Positive.” Many people believe this is the wrong thing to say during coronavirus and “Stay
Happy” would be better.
Question 34: A. Consequently B. While C. In particular D. Generally
Question 35: A. whose B. who C. which D. whom
Question 36: A. foul B. odd C. flashy D. precise
Question 37: A. much B. many C. a lot D. plenty
Question 38: A. hands B. fingers C. voices D. eyebrows
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
The Chinese government has removed pangolin scales from its 2020 list of approved ingredients used
in traditional Chinese medicine, a move campaigners describe as a “critical step” towards saving the
world’s most trafficked mammal.
Pangolins are highly valued in Asia for scales, which many people believe can improve blood
circulation and reduce inflammation. Last year alone, authorities confiscated more than 130 tons of illegal
pangolin related products. There are eight species of pangolin found in Asia and Africa. To date, three
species are listed as critically endangered by the International Union for Conservation of Nature, while the
remaining five are listed as either vulnerable or endangered.
According to Chinese media, the latest edition of Chinese Pharmacopoeia - an official government list
of drugs covering approved traditional Chinese and Western medicines - no longer includes pangolin
scales. The decision to remove the pangolin from the official list comes just days after China’s State
Forestry and Grassland Bureau announced that the Chinese pangolin would be upgraded to a “first-level
protected wild animal,” the highest possible protection status alongside pandas and tigers.
While conservationists from China and other countries have praised the actions of Chinese authorities,
some still felt that they came a bit too late. “Many years have passed. How many pangolins have already
been hunted and killed?” said Sophia Zhang, director of the Pangolin Working Group at the China
Biodiversity Conservation and Green Development Foundation.
(Adapted from edition.cnn.com)
Question 39: What is the best title for this passage?
A. What We Can All Do To Protect Pangolins
B. Why Are Chinese Pangolins Under Threat?
C. Pangolin Scales: How Valuable Are They?
D. A Big Step In The Protection Of Pangolins
Question 40: The word “confiscated” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. robbed B. detained C. arrested D. seized
Question 40: How have conservationists in China and in other countries react to the Chinese government’s
actions?
A. They are pleased but some felt that actions should have been taken sooner.
B. They believe these actions are useless, given the number of pangolins killed.
C. They doubt whether these actions will prevent people from hunting pangolins.
D. They are all glad that Chinese authorities have taken measures at the right time.
Question 42: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. It is widely believed that pangolin scales have medicinal powers.
B. The Chinese government has a list of approved medicines.
C. There are five species of pangolins that are not endangered.
D. Pandas and tigers are first-level protected wild animals in China.
Question 43: The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
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A. conservationists B. countries C. actions D. authorities
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Despite the easing of lockdowns across the world, many businesses continue to operate largely online.
However, this new business model has exposed a problem: cyber attackers are disproportionately targeting
people of colour and ethnic minorities during this pandemic.
Rashad Robinson, the executive director of Color of Change, the United States’ largest online racial
justice organisation, which has lobbied social media companies to address civil rights violations on their
platforms through many public campaigns, says the Black, Asian and minority ethnic (BAME) community
faces “immediate danger” when working on the video call platform Zoom, where hackers are still actively
searching for loopholes to specifically target BAME communities online.
Robinson explained that these are not random pranks by individuals, but a coordinated effort. “Color
of Change have been contacted by at least 15 groups who have had their gatherings hijacked,” he added.
For instance, a virtual casting call for black actors, a meeting between minority students and lecturers to
discuss racism in universities, and a series of online talks about the aftermath of George Floyd’s death were
targeted on Zoom. Another Zoom event with speakers from White Coats for Black Lives, an organisation
of BAME medical students tackling racism within the US’s healthcare system, was hijacked.
Lydia Amoah, a diversity specialist, was a target of a racially-motivated cyber-attack during a webinar
with 100 of her colleagues, clients and industry experts in April. “I felt sick for five days after the hackers
attacked. I felt so unsafe online, where I have no choice but to work [...] Even now I feel hot [and]
defenseless, they could see me but I couldn’t see them.” Amoah is now advising businesses and other
companies on how to deal with racism in the virtual workspace. Her new policy, the STOPIT Protocol,
offers businesses a step-by-step guide on how to protect workers online, and has already been implemented
by some UK charities and organisations.
Color of Change has been in contact with Zoom and has asked the company to release a specific plan to
combat racial harassment on the platform and apologise to targets of Zoom bombings, but Lydia believes
responsibility also lies with employers who have not taken measures to protect minorities in the virtual
workspace. “The first step is sharing our stories, the next is for companies to start implementing real and
lasting policies that will protect all of their users.”
(Adapted from aljazeera.com)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. New Measures That Can Be Taken To Deal With Online Racism
B. Racism In The Virtual World: A Growing Problem
C. Why Do Hackers Always Target Zoom For Security Loopholes?
D. How Online Racism Affects People’s Mental State
Question 45: The word “lobbied” in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. threatened B. forced C. urged D. deceived
Question 46: Why does Rashad Robinson say in paragraph 2 that the BAME community face “immediate
danger” when using Zoom?
A. Because Zoom has not tried to tackle civil rights violations.
B. Because this community is not being protected by Zoom.
C. Because hackers are planning to attack all Zoom users.
D. Because Zoom still has too many security loopholes.
Question 47: According to paragraph 3, which of the following is NOT an example of gatherings that have
been hijacked by hackers?
A. A virtual casting call on Zoom for actors who are black.
B. A Zoom meeting between minority students to discuss racism.
C. A series of talks about the aftermath of George Floyd’s death.
D. An event with speakers who are BAME medical students.
Question 48: The word “coordinated” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. scheduled B. engineered C. programmed D. organised
Question 49: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. No social media company has addressed civil rights violations.
B. White Coats for Black Lives is very popular with medical students.
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C. Lydia Amoah was deeply affected emotionally after a cyber-attack.
D. Zoom will soon release its plan to deal with racial harassment.
Question 50: The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to ___________.
A. colleagues B. clients C. experts D. hackers
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