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CCNA v7.0 Exam Answers
CCNA 1 - v7 CCNA 2 - v7
CCNA 3 - v7
System Test Exam
Modules 1 - 3: Basic
Network Connectivity and
Communications Exam
Answers
Modules 4 - 7: Ethernet
Concepts Exam Answers
Modules 8 - 10:
Communicating Between
Networks Exam Answers
Modules 11 - 13: IP
Addressing Exam
Answers
Modules 14 - 15: Network

Application
CCNA 1 v7.0 Final Exam Answers Full – Communications Exam
Answers
Introduction to Networks
 Dec 20, 2019 |  Last Updated: Oct 3, 2023 |
Modules 16 - 17: Building
and Securing a Small
 CCNA v7 Course #1 |  496 Comments
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7.4.6 Check Your Understanding –
Switch Speeds and Forwarding
CCNA 1 – Introduction to Networks (Version Methods Answers
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Troubleshooting Methodologies
Number of questions: 60; Passed score: 80- Answers
100% CCNA 1 v7.0 Curriculum: Module 1

– Networking Today
1. Which two traffic types use the Real-Time Transport
Protocol (RTP)? (Choose two.) 5.2.5 Check Your Understanding –
Hexadecimal Number System
video Answers
web
17.3.4 Check Your Understanding –
file transfer
Scale to Larger Networks Answers
voice
peer to peer 12.9.4 Module Quiz – IPv6
Addressing (Answers)
2. Which wireless technology has low-power and data
10.3.4 Packet Tracer – Connect a
rate requirements making it popular in home automation
Router to a LAN (Answers)
applications?
ZigBee 17.7.6 Packet Tracer –
Troubleshoot Connectivity Issues
LoRaWAN
(Answers)
5G
Wi-Fi 16.2.6 Lab – Research Network
Security Threats (Answers)
Explanation: ZigBee is an IEEE 802.15.4 wireless CCNA 1 v7 Modules 8 – 10:

Communicating Between Networks
standard designed for creating personal-area networks. Exam Answers
Low energy, power, and data rate requirements make
Zigbee a popular protocol for connecting home
automation devices.
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4. Which type of server relies on record types such as A,

NS, AAAA, and MX in order to provide services?
DNS
email
file
web
Explain:
A DNS server stores records that are used to resolve IP
addresses to host names. Some DNS record types
include the following:
A – an end device IPv4 address
NS – an authoritative name server
AAAA – an end device IPv6 address
MX – a mail exchange record
5. What are proprietary protocols?
protocols developed by private organizations to operate

on any vendor hardware
protocols that can be freely used by any organization or
vendor
protocols developed by organizations who have
control over their definition and operation
a collection of protocols known as the TCP/IP protocol
suite
Explain:
Proprietary protocols have their definition and operation
controlled by one company or vendor. Some of them can
be used by different organizations with permission from
the owner. The TCP/IP protocol suite is an open
standard, not a proprietary protocol.
6. What service is provided by DNS?
Resolves domain names, such as cisco.com, into IP

addresses.
A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images,
sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.
Allows for data transfers between a client and a file
server.
Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic
images, sound, and video on the web.
7. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has

a destination port number of 110. What service is the
client requesting?
DNS
DHCP
SMTP
POP3
8. What command can be used on a Windows PC to see

the IP configuration of that computer?
show ip interface brief

ping
show interfaces
ipconfig
9. A wired laser printer is attached to a home computer.
That printer has been shared so that other computers on
the home network can also use the printer. What
networking model is in use?
client-based
master-slave
point-to-point
peer-to-peer (P2P)
Explanation: Peer-to-peer (P2P) networks have two or

more network devices that can share resources such as
printers or files without having a dedicated server.
10. What characteristic describes a virus?
a network device that filters access and traffic coming

into a network
the use of stolen credentials to access private data
an attack that slows or crashes a device or network
service
malicious software or code running on an end device
11. Three bank employees are using the corporate

network. The first employee uses a web browser to view
a company web page in order to read some
announcements. The second employee accesses the
corporate database to perform some financial
transactions. The third employee participates in an
important live audio conference with other corporate
managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on
this network, what will be the priorities from highest to
lowest of the different data types?
financial transactions, web page, audio conference

audio conference, financial transactions, web page
financial transactions, audio conference, web page
audio conference, web page, financial transactions
Explanation: QoS mechanisms enable the

establishment of queue management strategies that
enforce priorities for different categories of application
data. Thus, this queuing enables voice data to have
priority over transaction data, which has priority over web
data.
12. Match the description to the IPv6 addressing

component. (Not all options are used.)
13. Refer to the exhibit. If Host1 were to transfer a file to

the server, what layers of the TCP/IP model would be
used?
only application and Internet layers

only Internet and network access layers
only application, Internet, and network access layers
application, transport, Internet, and network access
layers
only application, transport, network, data link, and
physical layers
application, session, transport, network, data link, and
physical layers
Explanation: The TCP/IP model contains the

application, transport, internet, and network access
layers. A file transfer uses the FTP application layer
protocol. The data would move from the application layer
through all of the layers of the model and across the
network to the file server.
14. Match the characteristic to the forwarding method.

(Not all options are used.)
Explanation: A store-and-forward switch always stores
the entire frame before forwarding, and checks its CRC
and frame length. A cut-through switch can forward
frames before receiving the destination address field,
thus presenting less latency than a store-and-forward
switch. Because the frame can begin to be forwarded
before it is completely received, the switch may transmit
a corrupt or runt frame. All forwarding methods require a
Layer 2 switch to forward broadcast frames.
15. Refer to the exhibit. The IP address of which device

interface should be used as the default gateway setting
of host H1?
R1: S0/0/0
R2: S0/0/1
R1: G0/0
R2: S0/0/0
Explanation: The default gateway for host H1 is the

router interface that is attached to the LAN that H1 is a
member of. In this case, that is the G0/0 interface of R1.
H1 should be configured with the IP address of that
interface in its addressing settings. R1 will provide
routing services to packets from H1 that need to be
forwarded to remote networks.
16. What service is provided by Internet Messenger?
An application that allows real-time chatting among

remote users.
Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
addresses.
Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to
network devices and servers.
17. Refer to the exhibit. Match the network with the
correct IP address and prefix that will satisfy the usable
host addressing requirements for each network.
Explanation: Network A needs to use 192.168.0.128

/25, which yields 128 host addresses.
Network B needs to use 192.168.0.0 /26, which yields 64
host addresses.
Network C needs to use 192.168.0.96 /27, which yields
32 host addresses.
Network D needs to use 192.168.0.80/30, which yields 4
host addresses.
18. Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol was responsible
for building the table that is shown?
DHCP
ARP
DNS
ICMP
Explanation: The table that is shown corresponds to the

output of the arp -a command, a command that is used
on a Windows PC to display the ARP table.
19. A network administrator notices that some newly

installed Ethernet cabling is carrying corrupt and
distorted data signals. The new cabling was installed in
the ceiling close to fluorescent lights and electrical
equipment. Which two factors may interfere with the
copper cabling and result in signal distortion and data
corruption? (Choose two.)
crosstalk
extended length of cabling
RFI
EMI
signal attenuation
20. A host is trying to send a packet to a device on a
remote LAN segment, but there are currently no
mappings in its ARP cache. How will the device obtain a
destination MAC address?
(A host is trying to send a packet to a device on a remote LAN
segment, but there are currently no mappings in the ARP
cache. How will the device obtain a destination MAC
address?)
It will send the frame and use its own MAC address as
the destination.
It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the
destination device.
It will send the frame with a broadcast MAC address.
It will send a request to the DNS server for the
destination MAC address.
It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of
the default gateway.

a destination port number of 53. What service is the client
requesting?
DNS
NetBIOS (NetBT)
POP3
IMAP
23. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a
branch office. The new LAN must support 25 connected
devices. What is the smallest network mask that the
network administrator can use for the new network?
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
24. What characteristic describes a Trojan horse?
malicious software or code running on an end device

service
into a network
25. What service is provided by HTTPS?

addresses.
Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text,
graphic images, sound, and video on the web.
26. A technician with a PC is using multiple applications

while connected to the Internet. How is the PC able to
keep track of the data flow between multiple application
sessions and have each application receive the correct
packet flows?
The data flow is being tracked based on the destination

MAC address of the technician PC.
The data flow is being tracked based on the source
port number that is used by each application.
The data flow is being tracked based on the source IP
address that is used by the PC of the technician.
The data flow is being tracked based on the destination
IP address that is used by the PC of the technician.
Explanation:
The source port number of an application is randomly
generated and used to individually keep track of each
session connecting out to the Internet. Each application
will use a unique source port number to provide
simultaneous communication from multiple applications
through the Internet.

255.255.255.240
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.128
28. Refer to the exhibit. Match the network with the

correct IP address and prefix that will satisfy the usable
host addressing requirements for each network. (Not all
options are used.)
ITN (Version 7.00) – ITNv7 Final Exam
Explanation:
Network A needs to use 192.168.0.0 /25 which yields 128
host addresses.
Network B needs to use 192.168.0.128 /26 which yields
64 host addresses.
Network C needs to use 192.168.0.192 /27 which yields
32 host addresses.
Network D needs to use 192.168.0.224 /30 which yields
4 host addresses.
29. What characteristic describes a DoS attack?

into a network
software that is installed on a user device and collects
information about the user
service
30. Match the application protocols to the correct

transport protocols
31. What service is provided by SMTP?
Allows clients to send email to a mail server and the

servers to send email to other servers.
remote users.
32. Which scenario describes a function provided by the
transport layer?
A student is using a classroom VoIP phone to call home.

The unique identifier burned into the phone is a transport
layer address used to contact another network device on
the same network.
A student is playing a short web-based movie with sound.
The movie and sound are encoded within the transport
layer header.
A student has two web browser windows open in
order to access two web sites. The transport layer
ensures the correct web page is delivered to the
correct browser window.
A corporate worker is accessing a web server located on
a corporate network. The transport layer formats the
screen so the web page appears properly no matter what
device is being used to view the web site.
Explain:
The source and destination port numbers are used to
identify the correct application and window within that
application.
33.Refer to the exhibit. Host B on subnet Teachers

transmits a packet to host D on subnet Students. Which
Layer 2 and Layer 3 addresses are contained in the PDUs
that are transmitted from host B to the router?
Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-ab

Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.200
Layer 3 source address = 172.16.10.200
Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-dd

Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-cd
Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-ab

34. What does the term “attenuation” mean in data

communication?
strengthening of a signal by a networking device

leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
time for a signal to reach its destination
loss of signal strength as distance increases
Explanation: Data is transmitted on copper cables as

electrical pulses. A detector in the network interface of a
destination device must receive a signal that can be
successfully decoded to match the signal sent. However,
the farther the signal travels, the more it deteriorates.
This is referred to as signal attenuation.
35. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to

configure the switch but receives the error message that
is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?
The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.

The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC
mode before issuing the command.
The administrator must connect via the console port to
access global configuration mode.
36. Which two protocols operate at the top layer of the
TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose two.)
TCP
IP
UDP
POP
DNS
Ethernet
37. A company has a file server that shares a folder

named Public. The network security policy specifies that
the Public folder is assigned Read-Only rights to anyone
who can log into the server while the Edit rights are
assigned only to the network admin group. Which
component is addressed in the AAA network service
framework?
automation
accounting
authentication
authorization
After a user is successfully authenticated (logged into the

server), the authorization is the process of determining
what network resources the user can access and what
operations (such as read or edit) the user can perform.
38. What three requirements are defined by the protocols

used in network communcations to allow message
transmission across a network? (Choose three.)
message size
message encoding
connector specifications
media selection
delivery options
end-device installation
39. What are two characteristics of IP? (Choose two.)
does not require a dedicated end-to-end connection
operates independently of the network media
retransmits packets if errors occur
re-assembles out of order packets into the correct order
at the receiver end
guarantees delivery of packets
Explain:
The Internet Protocol (IP) is a connectionless, best effort
protocol. This means that IP requires no end-to-end
connection nor does it guarantee delivery of packets. IP
is also media independent, which means it operates
independently of the network media carrying the packets.
40. An employee of a large corporation remotely logs into

the company using the appropriate username and
password. The employee is attending an important video
conference with a customer concerning a large sale. It is
important for the video quality to be excellent during the
meeting. The employee is unaware that after a successful
login, the connection to the company ISP failed. The
secondary connection, however, activated within
seconds. The disruption was not noticed by the
employee or other employees.
What three network characteristics are described in this
scenario? (Choose three.)
security
quality of service
scalability
powerline networking
integrity
fault tolerance
41. What are two common causes of signal degradation

when using UTP cabling? (Choose two.)
improper termination
low-quality shielding in cable
installing cables in conduit
low-quality cable or connectors
loss of light over long distances
Explanation: When terminated improperly, each cable is

a potential source of physical layer performance
degradation.
42. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96

as a usable host address?
192.168.1.64/26
192.168.1.32/27
192.168.1.32/28
192.168.1.64/29
Explanation: For the subnet of 192.168.1.64/26, there

are 6 bits for host addresses, yielding 64 possible
addresses. However, the first and last subnets are the
network and broadcast addresses for this subnet.
Therefore, the range of host addresses for this subnet is
192.168.1.65 to 192.168.1.126. The other subnets do not
contain the address 192.168.1.96 as a valid host
address.
43. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which

two statements about network connectivity are correct?
(Choose two.)
This host does not have a default gateway configured.

There are 4 hops between this device and the device
at 192.168.100.1.
There is connectivity between this device and the
device at 192.168.100.1.
The connectivity between these two hosts allows for
videoconferencing calls.
The average transmission time between the two hosts is
2 milliseconds.
Explain:
The output displays a successful Layer 3 connection
between a host computer and a host at 19.168.100.1. It
can be determined that 4 hops exist between them and
the average transmission time is 1 milliseconds. Layer 3
connectivity does not necessarily mean that an
application can run between the hosts.
44. Which two statements describe how to assess traffic

flow patterns and network traffic types using a protocol
analyzer? (Choose two.)
Capture traffic on the weekends when most employees

are off work.
Capture traffic during peak utilization times to get a
good representation of the different traffic types.
Only capture traffic in the areas of the network that
receive most of the traffic such as the data center.
Perform the capture on different network segments.
Only capture WAN traffic because traffic to the web is
responsible for the largest amount of traffic on a network.
Explanation: Traffic flow patterns should be gathered

during peak utilization times to get a good representation
of the different traffic types. The capture should also be
performed on different network segments because some
traffic will be local to a particular segment.
45. What is the consequence of configuring a router with
the ipv6 unicast-routing global configuration command?
All router interfaces will be automatically activated.

The IPv6 enabled router interfaces begin sending
ICMPv6 Router Advertisement messages.
Each router interface will generate an IPv6 link-local
address.
It statically creates a global unicast address on this
router.
46. Which three layers of the OSI model map to the

application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
application
network
data link
session
presentation
transport
Explanation: The TCP/IP model consists of four layers:

application, transport, internet, and network access. The
OSI model consists of seven layers: application,
presentation, session, transport, network, data link, and
physical. The top three layers of the OSI model:
application, presentation, and session map to the
application layer of the TCP/IP model.
47. Refer to the exhibit. If PC1 is sending a packet to PC2

and routing has been configured between the two
routers, what will R1 do with the Ethernet frame header
attached by PC1?
nothing, because the router has a route to the destination
network
open the header and use it to determine whether the data
is to be sent out S0/0/0
open the header and replace the destination MAC
address with a new one
remove the Ethernet header and configure a new
Layer 2 header before sending it out S0/0/0
Explanation: When PC1 forms the various headers

attached to the data one of those headers is the Layer 2
header. Because PC1 connects to an Ethernet network,
an Ethernet header is used. The source MAC address
will be the MAC address of PC1 and the destination MAC
address will be that of G0/0 on R1. When R1 gets that
information, the router removes the Layer 2 header and
creates a new one for the type of network the data will be
placed onto (the serial link).
48. What will happen if the default gateway address is

incorrectly configured on a host?
The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the

local network.
The host cannot communicate with hosts in other
networks.
A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be
successful.
The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct
address of the default gateway.
The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.
49. What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)
When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it

refers to the MAC address table to determine the
mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.
An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet
LAN and contains the IP address of the destination host
and its multicast MAC address.
If a host is ready to send a packet to a local
destination device and it has the IP address but not
the MAC address of the destination, it generates an
ARP broadcast.
If no device responds to the ARP request, then the
originating node will broadcast the data packet to all
devices on the network segment.
If a device receiving an ARP request has the
destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP
reply.
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.224
51. What are two ICMPv6 messages that are not present
in ICMP for IPv4? (Choose two.)
Neighbor Solicitation
Destination Unreachable
Host Confirmation
Time Exceeded
Router Advertisement
Route Redirection

requesting?
DHCP
SMTP
DNS
HTTP
53. What is an advantage for small organizations of
adopting IMAP instead of POP?
POP only allows the client to store messages in a

centralized way, while IMAP allows distributed storage.
Messages are kept in the mail servers until they are
manually deleted from the email client.
When the user connects to a POP server, copies of the
messages are kept in the mail server for a short time, but
IMAP keeps them for a long time.
IMAP sends and retrieves email, but POP only retrieves
email.
Explanation: IMAP and POP are protocols that are used

to retrieve email messages. The advantage of using
IMAP instead of POP is that when the user connects to
an IMAP-capable server, copies of the messages are
downloaded to the client application. IMAP then stores
the email messages on the server until the user manually
deletes those messages.
54. A technician can ping the IP address of the web

server of a remote company but cannot successfully ping
the URL address of the same web server. Which software
utility can the technician use to diagnose the problem?
tracert
ipconfig
netstat
nslookup
Explain:
Traceroute (tracert) is a utility that generates a list of
hops that were successfully reached along the path from
source to destination.This list can provide important
verification and troubleshooting information. The ipconfig
utility is used to display the IP configuration settings on a
Windows PC. The Netstat utility is used to identify which
active TCP connections are open and running on a
networked host. Nslookup is a utility that allows the user
to manually query the name servers to resolve a given
host name. This utility can also be used to troubleshoot
name resolution issues and to verify the current status of
the name servers.
55. Which two functions are performed at the LLC

sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet
communication? (Choose two.)
implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex

media
enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical
medium
integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet
over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper
implements a process to delimit fields within an Ethernet
2 frame
places information in the Ethernet frame that
identifies which network layer protocol is being
encapsulated by the frame
Other case:
responsible for internal structure of Ethernet frame

applies source and destination MAC addresses to
Ethernet frame
handles communication between upper layer
networking software and Ethernet NIC hardware
adds Ethernet control information to network
protocol data
implements trailer with frame check sequence for error
detection
Other case:

places information in the Ethernet frame that
identifies which network layer protocol is being
encapsulated by the frame
media
protocol data
Ethernet frame
Other case:

medium
protocol data
Ethernet frame
responsible for the internal structure of Ethernet frame
implements trailer with frame check sequence for error
detection
Other case:

medium
Ethernet frame
Explanation: The data link layer is actually divided into

two sublayers:
+ Logical Link Control (LLC): This upper sublayer defines
the software processes that provide services to the
network layer protocols. It places information in the frame
that identifies which network layer protocol is being used
for the frame. This information allows multiple Layer 3
protocols, such as IPv4 and IPv6, to utilize the same
network interface and media.
+ Media Access Control (MAC): This lower sublayer
defines the media access processes performed by the
hardware. It provides data link layer addressing and
delimiting of data according to the physical signaling
requirements of the medium and the type of data link
layer protocol in use.
56. The global configuration command ip default-gateway

172.16.100.1 is applied to a switch. What is the effect of
this command?
The switch can communicate with other hosts on the

172.16.100.0 network.
The switch can be remotely managed from a host on
another network.
The switch is limited to sending and receiving frames to
and from the gateway 172.16.100.1.
The switch will have a management interface with the
address 172.16.100.1.
Explanation: A default gateway address is typically

configured on all devices to allow them to communicate
beyond just their local network.In a switch this is
achieved using the command ip default-gateway <ip
address>.
57. What happens when the transport input ssh

command is entered on the switch vty lines?
The SSH client on the switch is enabled.

The switch requires a username/password combination
for remote access.
Communication between the switch and remote
users is encrypted.
The switch requires remote connections via a proprietary
client software.
Explanation: The transport input ssh command when

entered on the switch vty (virtual terminal lines) will
encrypt all inbound controlled telnet connections.
58. Match the type of threat with the cause. (Not all
options are used.)
ITN (Versión 7.00) – ITNv7 Final Exam
59. A disgruntled employee is using some free wireless

networking tools to determine information about the
enterprise wireless networks. This person is planning on
using this information to hack the wireless network. What
type of attack is this?
DoS
access
reconnaissance
Trojan horse
Explanation: A reconnaissance attack is the

unauthorized discovery and documentation of various
computing networks, network systems, resources,
applications, services, or vulnerabilities.
60. What service is provided by HTTP?

server.
remote users.
A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic
images, sound, video, and other multimedia files on
the web.

requesting?
FTP
DHCP
Telnet
SSH
62. What are two problems that can be caused by a large
number of ARP request and reply messages? (Choose
two.)
Switches become overloaded because they concentrate

all the traffic from the attached subnets.
The ARP request is sent as a broadcast, and will
flood the entire subnet.
The network may become overloaded because ARP reply
messages have a very large payload due to the 48-bit
MAC address and 32-bit IP address that they contain.
A large number of ARP request and reply messages may
slow down the switching process, leading the switch to
make many changes in its MAC table.
All ARP request messages must be processed by all
nodes on the local network.
Explanation: ARP requests are sent as broadcasts:

(1) All nodes will receive them, and they will be
processed by software, interrupting the CPU.
(2) The switch forwards (floods) Layer 2 broadcasts to all
ports.
A switch does not change its MAC table based on ARP
request or reply messages. The switch populates the
MAC table using the source MAC address of all frames.
The ARP payload is very small and does not overload
the switch.
63. A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been

added to an Ethernet network. When testing the
connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs can
access local network resources but not the Internet
resources. To troubleshoot the problem, the technician
wants to initially confirm the IP address and DNS
configurations on the PCs, and also verify connectivity to
the local router. Which three Windows CLI commands
and utilities will provide the necessary information?
(Choose three.)
netsh interface ipv6 show neighbor

arp -a
tracert
ping
ipconfig
nslookup
telnet
64. During the process of forwarding traffic, what will the

router do immediately after matching the destination IP
address to a network on a directly connected routing
table entry?
analyze the destination IP address

switch the packet to the directly connected interface
look up the next-hop address for the packet
discard the traffic after consulting the route table
Explanation: A router receives a packet on an interface
and looks at the destination IP address. It consults its
routing table and matches the destination IP address to a
routing table entry. The router then discovers that it has
to send the packet to the next-hop address or out to a
directly connected interface. When the destination
address is on a directly connected interface, the packet
is switched over to that interface.
65. What characteristic describes antispyware?
applications that protect end devices from becoming

infected with malicious software
into a network
software on a router that filters traffic based on IP
addresses or applications
a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with
secure access into the network of an organization
66. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID,

password, and session contents private when
establishing remote CLI connectivity with a switch to
manage it. Which access method should be chosen?
Telnet
AUX
SSH
Console
67. What are the two most effective ways to defend
against malware? (Choose two.)
Implement a VPN.
Implement network firewalls.
Implement RAID.
Implement strong passwords.
Update the operating system and other application
software.
Install and update antivirus software.
Explanation: A cybersecurity specialist must be aware of

the technologies and measures that are used as
countermeasures to protect the organization from threats
and vulnerabilities.
68. Which type of security threat would be responsible if

a spreadsheet add-on disables the local software
firewall?
brute-force attack
Trojan horse
DoS
buffer overflow
Explanation: A Trojan horse is software that does

something harmful, but is hidden in legitimate software
code. A denial of service (DoS) attack results in
interruption of network services to users, network
devices, or applications. A brute-force attack commonly
involves trying to access a network device. A buffer
overflow occurs when a program attempts to store more
data in a memory location than it can hold.
69. Which frame field is created by a source node and

used by a destination node to ensure that a transmitted
data signal has not been altered by interference,
distortion, or signal loss?
User Datagram Protocol field

transport layer error check field
flow control field
frame check sequence field
error correction process field

255.255.255.248
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
71. What service is provided by POP3?
Retrieves email from the server by downloading the

email to the local mail application of the client.
remote users.
72. What two security solutions are most likely to be used
only in a corporate environment? (Choose two.)
antispyware
virtual private networks
intrusion prevention systems
strong passwords
antivirus software
73. What characteristic describes antivirus software?
applications that protect end devices from becoming

infected with malicious software
into a network
74. What mechanism is used by a router to prevent a
received IPv4 packet from traveling endlessly on a
network?
It checks the value of the TTL field and if it is 0, it
discards the packet and sends a Destination
Unreachable message to the source host.
It checks the value of the TTL field and if it is 100, it
discards the packet and sends a Destination
Unreachable message to the source host.
It decrements the value of the TTL field by 1 and if
the result is 0, it discards the packet and sends a
Time Exceeded message to the source host.
It increments the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the
result is 100, it discards the packet and sends a
Parameter Problem message to the source host.

requesting?
DNS
DHCP
SMTP
TFTP
76. An administrator defined a local user account with a

secret password on router R1 for use with SSH. Which
three additional steps are required to configure R1 to
accept only encrypted SSH connections? (Choose three.)
Configure DNS on the router.

Generate two-way pre-shared keys.
Configure the IP domain name on the router.
Generate the SSH keys.
Enable inbound vty SSH sessions.
Enable inbound vty Telnet sessions.
77. Which two functions are performed at the MAC

sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet
communication? (Choose two.)
handles communication between upper layer networking

software and Ethernet NIC hardware
implements trailer with frame check sequence for
error detection
places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies
which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by
the frame
implements a process to delimit fields within an
Ethernet 2 frame
adds Ethernet control information to network protocol
data
Case 2:

the frame
data
medium
error detection
Case 3:

medium
data
media
Case 4:
applies delimiting of Ethernet frame fields to

synchronize communication between nodes
the frame
data
error detection
78. An IPv6 enabled device sends a data packet with the

destination address of FF02::2. What is the target of this
packet?
all IPv6 enabled devices on the local link

all IPv6 DHCP servers
all IPv6 enabled devices across the network
all IPv6 configured routers on the local link
79. What are the three parts of an IPv6 global unicast

address? (Choose three.)
subnet ID
subnet mask
broadcast address
global routing prefix
interface ID
Explanation: The general format for IPv6 global unicast

addresses includes a global routing prefix, a subnet ID,
and an interface ID. The global routing prefix is the
network portion of the address. A typical global routing
prefix is /48 assigned by the Internet provider. The
subnet ID portion can be used by an organization to
create multiple subnetwork numbers. The interface ID is
similar to the host portion of an IPv4 address.
80. A network administrator is designing the layout of a

new wireless network. Which three areas of concern
should be accounted for when building a wireless
network? (Choose three.)
extensive cabling
mobility options
packet collision
interference
security
coverage area
Explanation: The three areas of concern for wireless

networks focus on the size of the coverage area, any
nearby interference, and providing network security.
Extensive cabling is not a concern for wireless networks,
as a wireless network will require minimal cabling for
providing wireless access to hosts. Mobility options are
not a component of the areas of concern for wireless
networks.
81. A new network administrator has been asked to enter

a banner message on a Cisco device. What is the fastest
way a network administrator could test whether the
banner is properly configured?
Enter CTRL-Z at the privileged mode prompt.

Exit global configuration mode.
Power cycle the device.
Reboot the device.
Exit privileged EXEC mode and press Enter .
82. What method is used to manage contention-based

access on a wireless network?
token passing
CSMA/CA
priority ordering
CSMA/CD
83. What is a function of the data link layer?

provides the formatting of data
provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
provides delivery of data between two applications
provides for the exchange of frames over a common
local media
84. What is the purpose of the TCP sliding window?
to ensure that segments arrive in order at the destination

to end communication when data transmission is
complete
to inform a source to retransmit data from a specific point
forward
to request that a source decrease the rate at which it
transmits data
Explanation: The TCP sliding window allows a

destination device to inform a source to slow down the
rate of transmission. To do this, the destination device
reduces the value contained in the window field of the
segment. It is acknowledgment numbers that are used to
specify retransmission from a specific point forward. It is
sequence numbers that are used to ensure segments
arrive in order. Finally, it is a FIN control bit that is used
to end a communication session.
85. What characteristic describes spyware?

into a network
software that is installed on a user device and
collects information about the user
service
86. Which switching method drops frames that fail the
FCS check?
store-and-forward switching
borderless switching
ingress port buffering
cut-through switching
87. Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned

to an IPv6-enabled interface?
FEC0::/10
FDEE::/7
FE80::/10
FF00::/8
Explain:
Link-local addresses are in the range of FE80::/10 to
FEBF::/10. The original IPv6 specification defined site-
local addresses and used the prefix range FEC0::/10, but
these addresses were deprecated by the IETF in favor of
unique local addresses. FDEE::/7 is a unique local
address because it is in the range of FC00::/7 to
FDFF::/7. IPv6 multicast addresses have the prefix
FF00::/8.
88. What service is provided by FTP?

remote users.
server.
89. A user is attempting to access http://www.cisco.com/

without success. Which two configuration values must
be set on the host to allow this access? (Choose two.)
DNS server
source port number
HTTP server
source MAC address
default gateway
90. Which two statements accurately describe an

advantage or a disadvantage when deploying NAT for
IPv4 in a network? (Choose two.)
NAT adds authentication capability to IPv4.

NAT introduces problems for some applications that
require end-to-end connectivity.
NAT will impact negatively on switch performance.
NAT provides a solution to slow down the IPv4
address depletion.
NAT improves packet handling.
NAT causes routing tables to include more information.
Explanation: Network Address Translation (NAT) is a

technology that is implemented within IPv4 networks.
One application of NAT is to use private IP addresses
inside a network and use NAT to share a few public IP
addresses for many internal hosts. In this way it provides
a solution to slow down the IPv4 address depletion.
However, since NAT hides the actual IP addresses that
are used by end devices, it may cause problems for
some applications that require end-to-end connectivity.
91. What would be the interface ID of an IPv6 enabled

interface with a MAC address of 1C-6F-65-C2-BD-F8 when
the interface ID is generated by using the EUI-64
process?
0C6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
1E6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
C16F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
106F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
Explanation: To derive the EUI-64 interface ID by using

the MAC address 1C-6F-65-C2-BD-F8, three steps are
taken.
Change the seventh bit of the MAC address from a
binary 0 to a binary 1 which changes the hex C, into
a hex E.
Insert hex digits FFFE into the middle of the
address.
Rewrite the address in IPv6 format.
The three steps, when complete, give the interface ID of

1E6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8.
92. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request

because it needs to send a packet to PC2. In this
scenario, what will happen next?
SW1 will send an ARP reply with the SW1 Fa0/1 MAC
address.
SW1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.
PC2 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC
address.
RT1 will send an ARP reply with the RT1 Fa0/0 MAC
address.
RT1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.
Explain: When a network device wants to communicate

with another device on the same network, it sends a
broadcast ARP request. In this case, the request will
contain the IP address of PC2. The destination device
(PC2) sends an ARP reply with its MAC address.
93. What service is provided by BOOTP?

server.
Legacy application that enables a diskless
workstation to discover its own IP address and find a
BOOTP server on the network.
94. What characteristic describes adware?

into a network
software that is installed on a user device and
collects information about the user
service
95. When a switch configuration includes a user-defined
error threshold on a per-port basis, to which switching
method will the switch revert when the error threshold is
reached?
cut-through
store-and-forward
fast-forward
fragment-free
96. Match a statement to the related network model. (Not

all options are used.)
Place the options in the following order:peer-to-peer

network
[+] no dedicated server is required
[+] client and server roles are set on a per request basis
peer-to-peer aplication
[#] requires a specific user interface
[#] a background service is required
Explain:
Peer-to-peer networks do not require the use of a
dedicated server, and devices can assume both client
and server roles simultaneously on a per request basis.
Because they do not require formalized accounts or
permissions, they are best used in limited situations.
Peer-to-peer applications require a user interface and
background service to be running, and can be used in
more diverse situations.
97. What are two primary responsibilities of the Ethernet

MAC sublayer? (Choose two.)
error detection
frame delimiting
accessing the media
data encapsulation
logical addressing
98. Refer to the exhibit. What three facts can be

determined from the viewable output of the show ip
interface brief command? (Choose three.)
Two physical interfaces have been configured.

The switch can be remotely managed.
One device is attached to a physical interface.
Passwords have been configured on the switch.
Two devices are attached to the switch.
The default SVI has been configured.
Explain:
Vlan1 is the default SVI. Because an SVI has been
configured, the switch can be configured and managed
remotely. FastEthernet0/0 is showing up and up, so a
device is connected.
99. Match each type of frame field to its function. (Not all
options are used.)
100. What is the subnet ID associated with the IPv6
address 2001:DA48:FC5:A4:3D1B::1/64?
2001:DA48::/64
2001:DA48:FC5::A4:/64
2001:DA48:FC5:A4::/64
2001::/64
101. Match the firewall function to the type of threat
protection it provides to the network. (Not all options are
used.)
packet filtering – prevents access based on IP or MAC
address
URL filtering – prevents access to websites
network address translator – (none)
stateful packet inspection – prevents unsolicited incoming
sessions
application filtering – prevents access by port number
Explain:Firewall products come packaged in various

forms. These products use different techniques for
determining what will be permitted or denied access to a
network. They include the following:
+ Packet filtering – Prevents or allows access based on
IP or MAC addresses
+ Application filtering – Prevents or allows access by
specific application types based on port numbers
+ URL filtering – Prevents or allows access to websites
based on specific URLs or keywords
+ Stateful packet inspection (SPI) – Incoming packets
must be legitimate responses to requests from internal
hosts. Unsolicited packets are blocked unless permitted
specifically. SPI can also include the capability to
recognize and filter out specific types of attacks, such as
denial of service (DoS)
102. Users are reporting longer delays in authentication

and in accessing network resources during certain time
periods of the week. What kind of information should
network engineers check to find out if this situation is
part of a normal network behavior?
syslog records and messages

the network performance baseline
debug output and packet captures
network configuration files
103. How does the service password-encryption

command enhance password security on Cisco routers
and switches?
It requires encrypted passwords to be used when

connecting remotely to a router or switch with Telnet.
It encrypts passwords that are stored in router or
switch configuration files.
It requires that a user type encrypted passwords to gain
console access to a router or switch.
It encrypts passwords as they are sent across the
network.
Explain: The service password-encryption command

encrypts plaintext passwords in the configuration file so
that they cannot be viewed by unauthorized users.
104. Which two statements are correct in a comparison of

IPv4 and IPv6 packet headers? (Choose two.)
The Source Address field name from IPv4 is kept in

IPv6.
The Version field from IPv4 is not kept in IPv6.
The Destination Address field is new in IPv6.
The Header Checksum field name from IPv4 is kept in
IPv6.
The Time-to-Live field from IPv4 has been replaced
by the Hop Limit field in IPv6.
Explanation: The IPv6 packet header fields are as

follows: Version, Traffic Class, Flow Label, Payload
Length, Next Header, Hop Limit, Source Address, and
Destination Address. The IPv4 packet header fields
include the following: Version, Differentiated Services,
Time-to-Live, Protocol, Source IP Address, and
Destination IP Address. Both versions have a 4-bit
Version field. Both versions have a Source (IP) Address
field. IPv4 addresses are 32 bits; IPv6 addresses are 128
bits. The Time-to-Live or TTL field in IPv4 is now called
Hop Limit in IPv6, but this field serves the same purpose
in both versions. The value in this 8-bit field decrements
each time a packet passes through any router. When this
value is 0, the packet is discarded and is not forwarded
to any other router.
105. A network administrator wants to have the same

network mask for all networks at a particular small site.
The site has the following networks and number of
devices:
IP phones – 22 addresses
PCs – 20 addresses needed
Printers – 2 addresses needed
Scanners – 2 addresses needed
The network administrator has deemed that 192.168.10.0/24

is to be the network used at this site. Which single subnet
mask would make the most efficient use of the available
addresses to use for the four subnetworks?
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.252
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.224
106. What characteristic describes identity theft?

software that identifies fast-spreading threats
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.224
108. What are three commonly followed standards for

constructing and installing cabling? (Choose three.)
cost per meter (foot)

cable lengths
connector color
pinouts
connector types
tensile strength of plastic insulator
109. Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the
displayed termination?
The woven copper braid should not have been removed.
The wrong type of connector is being used.
The untwisted length of each wire is too long.
The wires are too thick for the connector that is used.
Explanation: When a cable to an RJ-45 connector is

terminated, it is important to ensure that the untwisted
wires are not too long and that the flexible plastic sheath
surrounding the wires is crimped down and not the bare
wires. None of the colored wires should be visible from
the bottom of the jack.
110. Match the characteristic to the category. (Not all

options are used.)
111. A client packet is received by a server. The packet
has a destination port number of 143. What service is the
client requesting?
IMAP
FTP
SSH
Telnet
112. What are two characteristics shared by TCP and

UDP? (Choose two.)
default window size

connectionless communication
port numbering
3-way handshake
ability to to carry digitized voice
use of checksum
Explain:
Both TCP and UDP use source and destination port
numbers to distinguish different data streams and to
forward the right data segments to the right applications.
Error checking the header and data is done by both
protocols by using a checksum calculation to determine
the integrity of the data that is received. TCP is
connection-oriented and uses a 3-way handshake to
establish an initial connection. TCP also uses window to
regulate the amount of traffic sent before receiving an
acknowledgment. UDP is connectionless and is the best
protocol for carry digitized VoIP signals.
113. Refer to the exhibit. Which two network addresses

can be assigned to the network containing 10 hosts?
Your answers should waste the fewest addresses, not
reuse addresses that are already assigned, and stay
within the 10.18.10.0/24 range of addresses. (Choose
two.)
10.18.10.200/28
10.18.10.208/28
10.18.10.240/27
10.18.10.200/27
10.18.10.224/27
10.18.10.224/28
Explanation: Addresses 10.18.10.0 through 10.18.10.63

are taken for the leftmost network. Addresses 192
through 199 are used by the center network. Because 4
host bits are needed to accommodate 10 hosts, a /28
mask is needed. 10.18.10.200/28 is not a valid network
number. Two subnets that can be used are
10.18.10.208/28 and 10.18.10.224/28.

client requesting?
FTP
LDAP
SLP
SNMP
115. What attribute of a NIC would place it at the data link

layer of the OSI model?
attached Ethernet cable

IP address
MAC address
RJ-45 port
TCP/IP protocol stack

255.255.255.192
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
117. What technique is used with UTP cable to help

protect against signal interference from crosstalk?
wrapping a foil shield around the wire pairs

twisting the wires together into pairs
terminating the cable with special grounded connectors
encasing the cables within a flexible plastic sheath
Explanation: To help prevent the effects of crosstalk,

UTP cable wires are twisted together into pairs. Twisting
the wires together causes the magnetic fields of each
wire to cancel each other out.
118. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has

assigned the LAN of LBMISS an address range of
192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted
using a /29 prefix. In order to accommodate a new
building, the technician has decided to use the fifth
subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is
the first subnet). By company policies, the router
interface is always assigned the first usable host address
and the workgroup server is given the last usable host
address. Which configuration should be entered into the
properties of the workgroup server to allow connectivity
to the Internet?
IP address: 192.168.10.65 subnet mask:

255.255.255.240, default gateway: 192.168.10.76
255.255.255.240, default gateway: 192.168.10.33
255.255.255.248, default gateway: 192.168.10.33
255.255.255.248, default gateway: 192.168.10.46
IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0,
default gateway: 192.168.10.1
Explain:
Using a /29 prefix to subnet 192.168.10.0 results in
subnets that increment by 8:
192.168.10.0 (1)
192.168.10.8 (2)
192.168.10.16 (3)
192.168.10.24 (4)
192.168.10.32 (5)
119. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are in their default

configuration. Host A needs to communicate with host D,
but host A does not have the MAC address for its default
gateway. Which network hosts will receive the ARP
request sent by host A?
only host D
only router R1
only hosts A, B, and C
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts B and C
only hosts B, C, and router R1
Explain:
Since host A does not have the MAC address of the
default gateway in its ARP table, host A sends an ARP
broadcast. The ARP broadcast would be sent to every
device on the local network. Hosts B, C, and router R1
would receive the broadcast. Router R1 would not
forward the message.
120. Match a statement to the related network model. (Not

all options are used.)
Place the options in the following order:peer-to-peer

network
[+] no dedicated server is required
[+] client and server roles are set on a per request basis
peer-to-peer aplication
[#] requires a specific user interface
[#] a background service is required
Explain:
Peer-to-peer networks do not require the use of a
dedicated server, and devices can assume both client
and server roles simultaneously on a per request basis.
Because they do not require formalized accounts or
permissions, they are best used in limited situations.
Peer-to-peer applications require a user interface and
background service to be running, and can be used in
more diverse situations.
121. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has been

given the network address of 192.168.99.0 and a subnet
mask of 255.255.255.192 to subnet across the four
networks shown. How many total host addresses are
unused across all four subnets?
88
200
72
224
158
122. Which connector is used with twisted-pair cabling in
an Ethernet LAN?
LC conector
SC conector
BNC
RJ 11
True Answer:
RJ 45 (true answer)

client requesting?
SSH
SMB/CIFS
HTTPS
SLP
124. What characteristic describes an IPS?

a network device that filters access and traffic
coming into a network
Explanation: IPS – An intrusion prevention system (IPS)

monitors incoming and outgoing traffic looking for
malware, network attack signatures, and more. If it
recognizes a threat, it can immediately stop it.
125. What service is provided by DHCP?

remote users.
Dynamically assigns IP addresses to end and
intermediary devices.
126. Match the header field with the appropriate layer of

the OSI model. (Not all options are used.)
127. Refer to the exhibit. The switches have a default
configuration. Host A needs to communicate with host D,
but host A does not have the MAC address for the default
gateway. Which network devices will receive the ARP
request sent by host A?
i360201v3n1_275353.png
only host D
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts B and C
only hosts B, C, and router R1
only hosts A, B, and C
only router R1
Explanation: Because host A does not have the MAC

address of the default gateway in the ARP table, host A
sends an ARP broadcast. The ARP broadcast would be
sent to every device on the local network. Hosts B, C,
and router R1 would receive the broadcast. Router R1
would not forward the message.
128. Which wireless technology has low-power and low-

data rate requirements making it popular in IoT
environments?
Bluetooth
Zigbee
WiMAX
Wi-Fi
Explanation: Zigbee is a specification used for low-data

rate, low-power communications. It is intended for
applications that require short-range, low data-rates and
long battery life. Zigbee is typically used for industrial and
Internet of Things (IoT) environments such as wireless
light switches and medical device data collection.
129. What two ICMPv6 message types must be permitted

through IPv6 access control lists to allow resolution of
Layer 3 addresses to Layer 2 MAC addresses? (Choose
two.)
neighbor solicitations
echo requests
neighbor advertisements
echo replies
router solicitations
router advertisements
130. A client is using SLAAC to obtain an IPv6 address

for its interface. After an address has been generated and
applied to the interface, what must the client do before it
can begin to use this IPv6 address?
It must send a DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST

message to request the address of the DNS server.
It must send a DHCPv6 REQUEST message to the
DHCPv6 server to request permission to use this
address.
It must send an ICMPv6 Router Solicitation message to
determine what default gateway it should use.
It must send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation
message to ensure that the address is not already in
use on the network.
131. Two pings were issued from a host on a local
network. The first ping was issued to the IP address of
the default gateway of the host and it failed. The second
ping was issued to the IP address of a host outside the
local network and it was successful. What is a possible
cause for the failed ping?
The default gateway is not operational.

The default gateway device is configured with the wrong
IP address.
Security rules are applied to the default gateway
device, preventing it from processing ping requests.
The TCP/IP stack on the default gateway is not working
properly.
132. An organization is assigned an IPv6 address block of

2001:db8:0:ca00::/56. How many subnets can be created
without using bits in the interface ID space?
256
512
1024
4096
133. What subnet mask is needed if an IPv4 network has

40 devices that need IP addresses and address space is
not to be wasted?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
Explanation: In order to accommodate 40 devices, 6

host bits are needed. With 6 bits, 64 addresses are
possible, but one address is for the subnet number and
one address is for a broadcast. This leaves 62 addresses
that can be assigned to network devices. The mask
associated with leaving 6 host bits for addressing is
255.255.255.192.
134. Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to

host B, what will the destination address be in the frame
when it leaves host A?
DD:DD:DD:DD:DD:DD
172.168.10.99
CC:CC:CC:CC:CC:CC
172.168.10.65
BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB
AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA
Explain:
When a host sends information to a distant network, the
Layer 2 frame header will contain a source and
destination MAC address. The source address will be the
originating host device. The destination address will be
the router interface that connects to the same network. In
the case of host A sending information to host B, the
source address is AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA and the
destination address is the MAC address assigned to the
R2 Ethernet interface, BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB.
135. What is a benefit of using cloud computing in

networking?
Technology is integrated into every-day appliances

allowing them to interconnect with other devices, making
them more ‘smart’ or automated.
Network capabilities are extended without requiring
investment in new infrastructure, personnel, or
software.
End users have the freedom to use personal tools to
access information and communicate across a business
network.
Home networking uses existing electrical wiring to
connect devices to the network wherever there is an
electrical outlet, saving the cost of installing data cables.
Explanation: Cloud computing extends IT’s capabilities

without requiring investment in new infrastructure,
training new personnel, or licensing new software. These
services are available on-demand and delivered
economically to any device anywhere in the world
without compromising security or function. BYOD is
about end users having the freedom to use personal
tools to access information and communicate across a
business or campus network. Smart home technology is
integrated into every-day appliances allowing them to
interconnect with other devices, making them more
‘smart’ or automated. Powerline networking is a trend for
home networking that uses existing electrical wiring to
connect devices to the network wherever there is an
electrical outlet, saving the cost of installing data cables.
136. Which two statements are correct about MAC and IP

addresses during data transmission if NAT is not
involved? (Choose two.)
Destination IP addresses in a packet header remain

constant along the entire path to a target host.
Destination MAC addresses will never change in a frame
that goes across seven routers.
Every time a frame is encapsulated with a new
destination MAC address, a new destination IP address
is needed.
Destination and source MAC addresses have local
significance and change every time a frame goes
from one LAN to another.
A packet that has crossed four routers has changed the
destination IP address four times.
137. What is one main characteristic of the data link

layer?
It generates the electrical or optical signals that represent

the 1 and 0 on the media.
It converts a stream of data bits into a predefined code.
It shields the upper layer protocol from being aware
of the physical medium to be used in the
communication.
It accepts Layer 3 packets and decides the path by which
to forward the packet to a remote network.
138. What are three characteristics of the CSMA/CD
process? (Choose three.)
The device with the electronic token is the only one that
can transmit after a collision.
A device listens and waits until the media is not busy
before transmitting.
After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to
resume transmission after a random time delay has
expired.
All of the devices on a segment see data that passes
on the network medium.
A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and
the media is not busy.
Devices can be configured with a higher transmission
priority.
Explanation: The Carrier Sense Multiple

Access/Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) process is a
contention-based media access control mechanism used
on shared media access networks, such as Ethernet.
When a device needs to transmit data, it listens and
waits until the media is available (quiet), then it will send
data. If two devices transmit at the same time, a collision
will occur. Both devices will detect the collision on the
network. When a device detects a collision, it will stop
the data transmission process, wait for a random amount
of time, then try again.
139. Which information does the show startup-config

command display?
the IOS image copied into RAM

the bootstrap program in the ROM
the contents of the current running configuration file in
the RAM
the contents of the saved configuration file in the
NVRAM
Explain:
The show startup-config command displays the saved
configuration located in NVRAM. The show running-
config command displays the contents of the currently
running configuration file located in RAM.
140. Which two commands can be used on a Windows

host to display the routing table? (Choose two.)
netstat -s
route print
show ip route
netstat -r
tracert
Explain:
On a Windows host, the route print or netstat -r
commands can be used to display the host routing table.
Both commands generate the same output. On a router,
the show ip route command is used to display the routing
table. The netstat –s command is used to display per-
protocol statistics. The tracert command is used to
display the path that a packet travels to its destination.
141. What are two functions that are provided by the

network layer? (Choose two.)
directing data packets to destination hosts on other

networks
placing data on the network medium
carrying data between processes that are running on
source and destination hosts
providing dedicated end-to-end connections
providing end devices with a unique network
identifier
Explanation: The network layer is primarily concerned
with passing data from a source to a destination on
another network. IP addresses supply unique identifiers
for the source and destination. The network layer
provides connectionless, best-effort delivery. Devices rely
on higher layers to supply services to processes.
142. Which two statements describe features of an IPv4

routing table on a router? (Choose two.)
Directly connected interfaces will have two route source

codes in the routing table: C and S .
If there are two or more possible routes to the same
destination, the route associated with the higher metric
value is included in the routing table.
The netstat -r command can be used to display the
routing table of a router.
The routing table lists the MAC addresses of each active
interface.
It stores information about routes derived from the
active router interfaces.
If a default static route is configured in the router, an
entry will be included in the routing table with source
code S .
Explanation: The show ip route command is used to

display the routing table of the router. In IPv4, directly
connected interfaces will have one source code:C. The
routing table stores information about directly connected
routes and remote routes. An entry in the routing table
with a source code of S is included if a default static
route is configured on the router.
143. What characteristic describes a VPN?

into a network
144. Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?
to enable the switch to send broadcast frames to

attached PCs
to enable the switch to function as a default gateway
to enable the switch to be managed remotely
to enable the switch to receive frames from attached PCs
Explanation: A switch, as a Layer 2 device, does not

need an IP address to transmit frames to attached
devices. However, when a switch is accessed remotely
through the network, it must have a Layer 3 address. The
IP address must be applied to a virtual interface rather
than to a physical interface. Routers, not switches,
function as default gateways.
145. Match each description to its corresponding term.

(Not all options are used.)
146. A user sends an HTTP request to a web server on a
remote network. During encapsulation for this request,
what information is added to the address field of a frame
to indicate the destination?
the network domain of the destination host

the IP address of the default gateway
the MAC address of the destination host
the MAC address of the default gateway
Explanation: A frame is encapsulated with source and

destination MAC addresses. The source device will not
know the MAC address of the remote host. An ARP
request will be sent by the source and will be responded
to by the router. The router will respond with the MAC
address of its interface, the one which is connected to
the same network as the source.
147. What is an advantage to using a protocol that is
defined by an open standard?
A company can monopolize the market.

The protocol can only be run on equipment from a
specific vendor.
An open standard protocol is not controlled or regulated
by standards organizations.
It encourages competition and promotes choices.
Explain:
A monopoly by one company is not a good idea from a
user point of view. If a protocol can only be run on one
brand, it makes it difficult to have mixed equipment in a
network. A proprietary protocol is not free to use. An
open standard protocol will in general be implemented by
a wide range of vendors.
148. Data is being sent from a source PC to a destination

server. Which three statements correctly describe the
function of TCP or UDP in this situation? (Choose three.)
The source port field identifies the running

application or service that will handle data returning
to the PC.
The TCP process running on the PC randomly selects
the destination port when establishing a session with the
server.
UDP segments are encapsulated within IP packets for
transport across the network.
The UDP destination port number identifies the
application or service on the server which will handle
the data.
TCP is the preferred protocol when a function requires
lower network overhead.
The TCP source port number identifies the sending host
on the network.
Explanation: Layer 4 port numbers identify the
application or service which will handle the data. The
source port number is added by the sending device and
will be the destination port number when the requested
information is returned. Layer 4 segments are
encapsulated within IP packets. UDP, not TCP, is used
when low overhead is needed. A source IP address, not
a TCP source port number, identifies the sending host on
the network. Destination port numbers are specific ports
that a server application or service monitors for requests.
149. Match each description with the corresponding TCP

mechanism. (Not all options are used.)
150. Refer to the exhibit. A company uses the address

block of 128.107.0.0/16 for its network. What subnet mask
would provide the maximum number of equal size
subnets while providing enough host addresses for each
subnet in the exhibit?
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.224
Explanation: The largest subnet in the topology has 100

hosts in it so the subnet mask must have at least 7 host
bits in it (27-2=126). 255.255.255.0 has 8 hosts bits, but
this does not meet the requirement of providing the
maximum number of subnets.
151. A network administrator wants to have the same

subnet mask for three subnetworks at a small site. The
site has the following networks and numbers of devices:
Subnetwork A: IP phones – 10 addresses

Subnetwork B: PCs – 8 addresses
Subnetwork C: Printers – 2 addresses
What single subnet mask would be appropriate to use for

the three subnetworks?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.252
Explain:
If the same mask is to be used, then the network with the
most hosts must be examined for number of hosts.
Because this is 10 hosts, 4 host bits are needed. The /28
or 255.255.255.240 subnet mask would be appropriate to
use for these networks.
152. Match each item to the type of topology diagram on

which it is typically identified. (Not all options are used.)
153. What two pieces of information are displayed in the

output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose
two.)
IP addresses
interface descriptions
MAC addresses
next-hop addresses
Layer 1 statuses
speed and duplex settings
Explanation: The command show ip interface brief

shows the IP address of each interface, as well as the
operational status of the interfaces at both Layer 1 and
Layer 2. In order to see interface descriptions and speed
and duplex settings, use the command show running-
config interface. Next-hop addresses are displayed in the
routing table with the command show ip route, and the
MAC address of an interface can be seen with the
command show interfaces.
154. A user is complaining that an external web page is

taking longer than normal to load.The web page does
eventually load on the user machine. Which tool should
the technician use with administrator privileges in order
to locate where the issue is in the network?
ping
nslookup
tracert
ipconfig /displaydns
Explanation: The Command Prompt command tracert

will map the path from the PC to the web server and
measure transit delays of packets across the network.
155. Which value, that is contained in an IPv4 header

field, is decremented by each router that receives a
packet?
Header Length
Differentiated Services
Time-to-Live
Fragment Offset
Explanation: When a router receives a packet, the

router will decrement the Time-to-Live (TTL) field by one.
When the field reaches zero, the receiving router will
discard the packet and will send an ICMP Time
Exceeded message to the sender.
156. A network technician is researching the use of fiber
optic cabling in a new technology center. Which two
issues should be considered before implementing fiber
optic media? (Choose two.)
Fiber optic cabling requires different termination and

splicing expertise from what copper cabling requires.
Fiber optic cabling requires specific grounding to be
immune to EMI.
Fiber optic cabling is susceptible to loss of signal due to
RFI.
Fiber optic cable is able to withstand rough handling.
Fiber optic provides higher data capacity but is more
expensive than copper cabling.
157. Match each description with an appropriate IP

address. (Not all options are used.)
158. A user is executing a tracert to a remote device. At

what point would a router, which is in the path to the
destination device, stop forwarding the packet?
when the router receives an ICMP Time Exceeded
message
when the RTT value reaches zero
when the host responds with an ICMP Echo Reply
message
when the value in the TTL field reaches zero
when the values of both the Echo Request and Echo
Reply messages reach zero
Explain:
When a router receives a traceroute packet, the value in
the TTL field is decremented by 1. When the value in the
field reaches zero, the receiving router will not forward
the packet, and will send an ICMP Time Exceeded
message back to the source.
159. Users report that the network access is slow. After

questioning the employees, the network administrator
learned that one employee downloaded a third-party
scanning program for the printer. What type of malware
might be introduced that causes slow performance of the
network?
virus
worm
phishing
spam
Explanation: A cybersecurity specialist needs to be

familiar with the characteristics of the different types of
malware and attacks that threaten an organization.
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Hands On Skills Exam – 2.9.1 Packet Tracer – Basic
CCNAv7 ITN Skills Switch and End Device
Assessment (Answers)
Configuration –
Instructions Answer
 Subscribe 
Join the discussion
496 COMMENTS
RNZO  13 days ago
What are the two most effective ways to defend

against malware? (Choose two.)
Implement strong passwords.Implement a

VPN.Implement network firewalls.Install and update
antivirus software.Implement RAID.Update the
operating system and other application software.
 Last edited 13 days ago by RNZO
Reply
Load More Comments

broo  13 days ago
hi admin, everyone! thank you for your contribution. I’ll

take the exam friday, just wanna know if these
questions are valid or not thanks again😀
#PraiceTheAdmin
Reply
DNA506  14 days ago
Have Exam tm, is it still valid?
Reply
M-DX  15 days ago
still valid!!!
Reply
Hakim  16 days ago
still valid?
Reply
Yessirrrrr  1 month ago
Still valid!
Reply
daniel  1 month ago
Are these still valid pls i have ccna1 exams tomorrow

Reply View Replies (1) 
Jay  1 month ago
47
A host is trying to send a packet to a device on a
remote LAN segment, but there are currently no
mappings in the ARP cache. How will the device
obtain a destination MAC address?
It will send an ARP request to the DNS server for

the destination MAC address.
the default gateway.
It will send the frame with a broadcast MAC
address.
It will send the frame and use the device MAC
address as the destination.
the destination device.
hala  2 months ago
Are they still valid ?
 Last edited 2 months ago by hala
Reply
simon  2 months ago
Hello, why is in exam answer 159 questions and on

exam is 161 ?
Reply
Nomvelo  2 months ago
Can you please create the pdf for this question and
answers
Reply
shex  3 months ago
Hello admin i have a test tomorrow are these

questions still valid
Mohamed  3 months ago
Still valid?
Reply
65msec  3 months ago
Does have simulate or lab ?

Reply
President of my life  3 months ago
Is it still valid??? Please reply ASAP I am going to

take the exam today
Reply
Tom  3 months ago
hi admin, everyone! thank you for your contribution. I’ll

take the exam soon, just wanna know if these
questions are valid or not thanks again😀
Shiik  4 months ago

Can someone pls tell me if these are currently valid ?
Pls
Reply
Drixber  4 months ago
Hello, short question is this the ansers for the cours

Introduction to Networks 22-23?
Reply
Hakim  4 months ago
Hi is it still valid?
Reply
John  5 months ago
Hi, is it still valid?
Reply
Arash  5 months ago
Number 105 answer is wrong the correct answer is

.255.255.255.192
Hello, is still valid? Please answer me.

ANDREW NEMA  5 months ago
are these questions extracted from final summary

notes from modules 1 to 17 for Cisco networking
academy?
Reply
Laki  5 months ago
Is this still valid because i have a teat tomorow

Laki  5 months ago
Is this still valid because i have a test tomorow

Reply
tilemar  5 months ago
still valid;
Reply
Anawin  6 months ago
Hello, is still valid? Please answer me.

What is the difference between CCNA v1, v2, v3 and

do they build on to each other or is studying the all
three?
Akad  6 months ago
Hello, I’m taking my test in 2 weeks. Is this still valid?

Also, where do i find the lab questions?
Thank you,
Reply
Hello, who done taken the CCNA exam?

is this accurate?
Reply
yasvan  6 months ago
A network administrator wants to have the same

network mask for all networks at a particular small
site. The site has the following networks and number
of devices:
IP phones – 22 addresses
PCs – 20 addresses needed
Printers – 2 addresses needed
Scanners – 2 addresses needed
The network administrator has deemed that

192.168.10.0/24 is to be the network used at this site.
Which single subnet mask would make the most
efficient use of the available addresses to use for the
four subnetworks?

Reply
Hachem  6 months ago
you are not going to update the ccnp encore exams?

Reply
Atrim Bendali  6 months ago
Which two statements describe how to assess traffic

flow patterns and network traffic types using a
protocol analyzer

medium
implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-
duplex media
integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit
Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet over
copper
protocol data
Reply
Tareq  7 months ago
is still valid? Please answer me.

Josef  7 months ago
Hey I have the exam in 2 days. On Cisco the final

exam. Are those here the right answers?
grey  7 months ago
good day, who done taken the CCNA exam?

is this accurate?
Geo  7 months ago
Wrong “right answers” in question 142. Right ones are

first and last, not 5th and last.
Reply
aaaa  7 months ago
are they valide or not
Reply
teee  7 months ago
Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request

because it needs to send a packet to PC2. In this
scenario, what will happen next?
SW1 will send an ARP reply with the SW1 Fa0/1 MAC
address.PC2 will send an ARP reply with the PC2
MAC address.RT1 will send an ARP reply with the
RT1 Fa0/0 MAC address.SW1 will send an ARP reply
with the PC2 MAC address.RT1 will send an ARP
reply with the PC2 MAC address.
 Last edited 7 months ago by teee
Reply
Hassan Hosny  7 months ago
59 – Match the application protocols to the correct

transport protocols.
MULUSHYA LAMECK  8 months ago
HOW MANY Q I AM EXPECTED TO WRITE AND

ANSWER ON THE FINAL EXAM, AND IF POSSIBLE
PROVIDE ME THE RIGHT STUFF?
Reply
Fabien  8 months ago
hello ! I don’t understand where to pass the test ? I

find only question with answer.. I want to find without
the answers. Someone can help me ? :)
Mohamed Refat  8 months ago
please add this question

Purple Strike  8 months ago
Any update for practical questions? 2-3 lab questions

are coming in to the exam.
Reply
Dimas  8 months ago
Which two statements describe features of an IPv4

routing table on a router? (Choose two.)
Directly connected interfaces will have two route

source codes in the routing table: C and S .
If a default static route is configured in the router,
an entry will be included in the routing table with
source code S .
The routing table stores information about routes
derived from the active router interfaces.
The routing table lists the MAC addresses of each
active interface.
The netstat -r command can be used to display the
routing table of a router.
Monsoon  8 months ago

Hi! I have a stupid question. Are questions from
CCNA1, CCNA2 and CCNA3 on the actual final
CCNA exam or just for the modules?
Reply
7alopo  8 months ago
took mine on march 10th, still valid af <3

Reply
Joe  8 months ago
Are they valid for 7.02? Please respond imidiately.
BBQ Joe  8 months ago
So these 159 questions are all I need to pass the

test? I going to take my test very soon also and just
want to make sure Im using the right stuff.
Snoop Teniten  9 months ago
Answers still valid (February 20th, 2023) I got a 95%

with these exam answers
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CCNA v7.0 Exam Answers

System Test Exam

Modules 14 - 15: Network

CCNA 1 v7 FINAL Exam

please comment Question and Multiple-Choice list in

100% CCNA 1 v7.0 Curriculum: Module 1

Explanation: ZigBee is an IEEE 802.15.4 wireless CCNA 1 v7 Modules 8 – 10:

askjd;las on 13.4.5 Packet Tracer –

4. Which type of server relies on record types such as A,

5. What are proprietary protocols?

protocols developed by private organizations to operate

6. What service is provided by DNS?

Resolves domain names, such as cisco.com, into IP

7. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has

8. What command can be used on a Windows PC to see

show ip interface brief

Explanation: Peer-to-peer (P2P) networks have two or

10. What characteristic describes a virus?

a network device that filters access and traffic coming

11. Three bank employees are using the corporate

financial transactions, web page, audio conference

Explanation: QoS mechanisms enable the

12. Match the description to the IPv6 addressing

13. Refer to the exhibit. If Host1 were to transfer a file to

only application and Internet layers

Explanation: The TCP/IP model contains the

14. Match the characteristic to the forwarding method.

15. Refer to the exhibit. The IP address of which device

Explanation: The default gateway for host H1 is the

16. What service is provided by Internet Messenger?

An application that allows real-time chatting among

Explanation: Network A needs to use 192.168.0.128

Explanation: The table that is shown corresponds to the

19. A network administrator notices that some newly

22. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has

24. What characteristic describes a Trojan horse?

malicious software or code running on an end device

25. What service is provided by HTTPS?

Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to

26. A technician with a PC is using multiple applications

The data flow is being tracked based on the destination

27. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a

28. Refer to the exhibit. Match the network with the

29. What characteristic describes a DoS attack?

the use of stolen credentials to access private data

30. Match the application protocols to the correct

31. What service is provided by SMTP?

Allows clients to send email to a mail server and the

A student is using a classroom VoIP phone to call home.

33.Refer to the exhibit. Host B on subnet Teachers

Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-ab

Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-dd

Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-ab