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CCNA 1 v7.0 Final Exam Answers Full - Introduction to

Networks
Computer Networks & Internets (Emporia State University)

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Number of questions: 60; Passed score: 80-100%

1. Which two traffic types use the Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP)?
(Choose two.)

video
web
file transfer
voice
peer to peer
2. Which wireless technology has low-power and data rate requirements
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ZigBee
LoRaWAN
5G
Wi-Fi
3. Which layer of the TCP/IP model provides a route to forward messages
through an internetwork?

application
network access
internet
transport

Explain: CCNA v7.0 Exam Answers

The OSI model network layer corresponds directly to the internet layer of the
TCP/IP model and is used to describe protocols that address and route CCNA 1 - v7 CCNA 2 - v7 CCNA 3 - v7
messages through an internetwork.
System Test Exam
4. Which type of server relies on record types such as A, NS, AAAA, and MX
Modules 1 - 3: Basic Network
in order to provide services?
Connectivity and Communications
DNS Exam Answers
email
file Modules 4 - 7: Ethernet Concepts
web Exam Answers

Modules 8 - 10: Communicating

Explain: Between Networks Exam Answers
A DNS server stores records that are used to resolve IP addresses to host
Modules 11 - 13: IP Addressing Exam
names. Some DNS record types include the following:
Answers
A – an end device IPv4 address
NS – an authoritative name server Modules 14 - 15: Network Application
AAAA – an end device IPv6 address Communications Exam Answers
MX – a mail exchange record
Modules 16 - 17: Building and
Securing a Small Network Exam
5. What are proprietary protocols?
Answers
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protocols developed by private organizations to operate on any vendor
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protocols that can be freely used by any organization or vendor
CCNA 1 v7 FINAL Exam Answers

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point-to-point Google on CCNA 4 Chapter 6 Exam Answers

peer-to-peer (P2P) 2020 (v5.0.3 + v6.0) – Full 100%
King on CCNA 200-301 Dumps Full
Questions – Exam Study Guide & Free
Explanation: Peer-to-peer (P2P) networks have two or more network
devices that can share resources such as printers or files without having a
dedicated server. [Cert] CCNA 200-301 Exam

10. What characteristic describes a virus?

a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
the use of stolen credentials to access private data report this ad
an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service
malicious software or code running on an end device
11. Three bank employees are using the corporate network. The first
employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read
some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate
database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee
participates in an important live audio conference with other corporate
managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will
be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?

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financial transactions, web page, audio conference

audio conference, financial transactions, web page
financial transactions, audio conference, web page
audio conference, web page, financial transactions

Explanation: QoS mechanisms enable the establishment of queue

management strategies that enforce priorities for different categories of
application data. Thus, this queuing enables voice data to have priority over
transaction data, which has priority over web data.

12. Match the description to the IPv6 addressing component. (Not all options
are used.)

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13. Refer to the exhibit. If Host1 were to transfer a file to the server, what
layers of the TCP/IP model would be used?

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only application and Internet layers

only Internet and network access layers
only application, Internet, and network access layers
application, transport, Internet, and network access layers
only application, transport, network, data link, and physical layers
application, session, transport, network, data link, and physical layers

Explanation: The TCP/IP model contains the application, transport, internet,

and network access layers. A file transfer uses the FTP application layer
protocol. The data would move from the application layer through all of the
layers of the model and across the network to the file server.

14. Match the characteristic to the forwarding method. (Not all options are 
used.)

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Explanation: A store-and-forward switch always stores the entire frame

before forwarding, and checks its CRC and frame length. A cut-through
switch can forward frames before receiving the destination address field, thus
presenting less latency than a store-and-forward switch. Because the frame
can begin to be forwarded before it is completely received, the switch may
transmit a corrupt or runt frame. All forwarding methods require a Layer 2
switch to forward broadcast frames.

15. Refer to the exhibit. The IP address of which device interface should be
used as the default gateway setting of host H1?

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R1: S0/0/0
R2: S0/0/1
R1: G0/0
R2: S0/0/0

Explanation: The default gateway for host H1 is the router interface that is
attached to the LAN that H1 is a member of. In this case, that is the G0/0
interface of R1. H1 should be configured with the IP address of that interface
in its addressing settings. R1 will provide routing services to packets from H1
that need to be forwarded to remote networks.

16. What service is provided by Internet Messenger?

An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.

Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
Resolves domain names, such as cisco.com, into IP addresses.
Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and
servers.
17. Refer to the exhibit. Match the network with the correct IP address and
prefix that will satisfy the usable host addressing requirements for each
network.

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Explanation: Network A needs to use 192.168.0.128 /25, which yields 128

host addresses.
Network B needs to use 192.168.0.0 /26, which yields 64 host addresses.
Network C needs to use 192.168.0.96 /27, which yields 32 host addresses.
Network D needs to use 192.168.0.80/30, which yields 4 host addresses.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol was responsible for building the
table that is shown?

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DHCP 
ARP
DNS
ICMP
19. A network administrator notices that some newly installed Ethernet
cabling is carrying corrupt and distorted data signals. The new cabling was
installed in the ceiling close to fluorescent lights and electrical equipment.

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Which two factors may interfere with the copper cabling and result in signal
distortion and data corruption? (Choose two.)

crosstalk
extended length of cabling
RFI
EMI
signal attenuation
20. A host is trying to send a packet to a device on a remote LAN segment,
but there are currently no mappings in its ARP cache. How will the device
obtain a destination MAC address?
A host is trying to send a packet to a device on a remote LAN segment, but report this ad

there are currently no mappings in the ARP cache. How will the device
obtain a destination MAC address?

It will send the frame and use its own MAC address as the destination.
It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the destination device.
It will send the frame with a broadcast MAC address.
It will send a request to the DNS server for the destination MAC address.
It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the default gateway.
21. Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data
Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

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integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1

Gigabit Ethernet over copper
enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium
handles communication between upper layer networking software and
Ethernet NIC hardware
adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex media
22. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port
number of 53. What service is the client requesting?

DNS
NetBIOS (NetBT)
POP3
IMAP
23. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new
LAN must support 25 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask
that the network administrator can use for the new network?

255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
24. What characteristic describes a Trojan horse? 
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ITN (Version 7.00) – ITNv7 Final Exam

Explanation:
Network A needs to use 192.168.0.0 /25 which yields 128 host addresses.
Network B needs to use 192.168.0.128 /26 which yields 64 host addresses.
Network C needs to use 192.168.0.192 /27 which yields 32 host addresses. 
Network D needs to use 192.168.0.224 /30 which yields 4 host addresses.

29. What characteristic describes a DoS attack?

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the use of stolen credentials to access private data
a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the
user
an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service
30. Match the application protocols to the correct transport protocols

31. What service is provided by SMTP?

Allows clients to send email to a mail server and the servers to send
email to other servers.
Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and
servers.
An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
32. Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?

A student is using a classroom VoIP phone to call home. The unique

identifier burned into the phone is a transport layer address used to contact
another network device on the same network.
A student is playing a short web-based movie with sound. The movie and 
sound are encoded within the transport layer header.
A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two
web sites. The transport layer ensures the correct web page is delivered
to the correct browser window.
A corporate worker is accessing a web server located on a corporate
network. The transport layer formats the screen so the web page appears

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properly no matter what device is being used to view the web site.

Explain:
The source and destination port numbers are used to identify the correct
application and window within that application.

33.Refer to the exhibit. Host B on subnet Teachers transmits a packet to

host D on subnet Students. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 addresses are
contained in the PDUs that are transmitted from host B to the router?

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Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-ab

Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.200
Layer 3 source address = 172.16.10.200

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Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-dd

Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.200
Layer 3 source address = 172.16.10.200

Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-cd

Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.99
Layer 3 source address = 172.16.10.200

Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-ab

Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.200

Layer 3 source address = 172.16.100.200

34. What does the term “attenuation” mean in data communication?

strengthening of a signal by a networking device

leakage of signals from one cable pair to another

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time for a signal to reach its destination

loss of signal strength as distance increases
35. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch
but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the
problem?

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The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.

The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing
the command.
The administrator must connect via the console port to access global
configuration mode.
36. Which two protocols operate at the top layer of the TCP/IP protocol
suite? (Choose two.)

TCP
IP
UDP
POP
DNS
Ethernet
37. A company has a file server that shares a folder named Public. The
network security policy specifies that the Public folder is assigned Read-
Only rights to anyone who can log into the server while the Edit rights are
assigned only to the network admin group. Which component is addressed
in the AAA network service framework?

automation
accounting
authentication
authorization

After a user is successfully authenticated (logged into the server), the

authorization is the process of determining what network resources the user
can access and what operations (such as read or edit) the user can perform.

38. What three requirements are defined by the protocols used in network
communcations to allow message transmission across a network? (Choose
three.)

message size
message encoding

connector specifications
media selection
delivery options
end-device installation
39. What are two characteristics of IP? (Choose two.)

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does not require a dedicated end-to-end connection

operates independently of the network media
retransmits packets if errors occur
re-assembles out of order packets into the correct order at the receiver end
guarantees delivery of packets

Explain:
The Internet Protocol (IP) is a connectionless, best effort protocol. This
means that IP requires no end-to-end connection nor does it guarantee
delivery of packets. IP is also media independent, which means it operates
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40. An employee of a large corporation remotely logs into the company

using the appropriate username and password. The employee is attending
an important video conference with a customer concerning a large sale. It is
important for the video quality to be excellent during the meeting. The
employee is unaware that after a successful login, the connection to the
company ISP failed. The secondary connection, however, activated within
seconds. The disruption was not noticed by the employee or other
employees.
What three network characteristics are described in this scenario? (Choose
three.)

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security
quality of service
scalability
powerline networking
integrity
fault tolerance
41. What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP
cabling? (Choose two.)

improper termination
low-quality shielding in cable
installing cables in conduit
low-quality cable or connectors
loss of light over long distances

Explanation: When terminated improperly, each cable is a potential source
of physical layer performance degradation.

42. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host
address?

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192.168.1.64/26
192.168.1.32/27
192.168.1.32/28
192.168.1.64/29

Explanation: For the subnet of 192.168.1.64/26, there are 6 bits for host
addresses, yielding 64 possible addresses. However, the first and last
subnets are the network and broadcast addresses for this subnet. Therefore,
the range of host addresses for this subnet is 192.168.1.65 to 192.168.1.126.
The other subnets do not contain the address 192.168.1.96 as a valid host
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43. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements
about network connectivity are correct? (Choose two.)

This host does not have a default gateway configured.

There are 4 hops between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.
There is connectivity between this device and the device at
192.168.100.1.
The connectivity between these two hosts allows for videoconferencing calls.
The average transmission time between the two hosts is 2 milliseconds.

Explain:
The output displays a successful Layer 3 connection between a host
computer and a host at 19.168.100.1. It can be determined that 4 hops exist
between them and the average transmission time is 1 milliseconds. Layer 3
connectivity does not necessarily mean that an application can run between
the hosts.

44. Which two statements describe how to assess traffic flow patterns and
network traffic types using a protocol analyzer? (Choose two.)

Capture traffic on the weekends when most employees are off work.
Capture traffic during peak utilization times to get a good
representation of the different traffic types.
Only capture traffic in the areas of the network that receive most of the traffic
such as the data center.
Perform the capture on different network segments. 
Only capture WAN traffic because traffic to the web is responsible for the
largest amount of traffic on a network.

Explanation: Traffic flow patterns should be gathered during peak utilization

times to get a good representation of the different traffic types. The capture

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should also be performed on different network segments because some

traffic will be local to a particular segment.

45. What is the consequence of configuring a router with the ipv6 unicast-
routing global configuration command?

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The IPv6 enabled router interfaces begin sending ICMPv6 Router
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Each router interface will generate an IPv6 link-local address.
It statically creates a global unicast address on this router.
46. Which three layers of the OSI model map to the application layer of the
TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

application
network
data link
session
presentation
transport

Explanation: The TCP/IP model consists of four layers: application,

transport, internet, and network access. The OSI model consists of seven
layers: application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, and
physical. The top three layers of the OSI model: application, presentation,
and session map to the application layer of the TCP/IP model.

47. Refer to the exhibit. If PC1 is sending a packet to PC2 and routing has
been configured between the two routers, what will R1 do with the Ethernet
frame header attached by PC1?

nothing, because the router has a route to the destination network

open the header and use it to determine whether the data is to be sent out 
S0/0/0
open the header and replace the destination MAC address with a new one
remove the Ethernet header and configure a new Layer 2 header before
sending it out S0/0/0

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Explanation: When PC1 forms the various headers attached to the data one
of those headers is the Layer 2 header. Because PC1 connects to an
Ethernet network, an Ethernet header is used. The source MAC address will
be the MAC address of PC1 and the destination MAC address will be that of
G0/0 on R1. When R1 gets that information, the router removes the Layer 2
header and creates a new one for the type of network the data will be placed
onto (the serial link).

48. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured
on a host?
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The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.
A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.
The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default
gateway.
The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.
49. What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)

When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC

address table to determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.
An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the
IP address of the destination host and its multicast MAC address.
If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it
has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it
generates an ARP broadcast.
If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will
broadcast the data packet to all devices on the network segment.
If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address,
it responds with an ARP reply.
50. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new
LAN must support 90 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask
that the network administrator can use for the new network?

255.255.255.128
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.224 
51. What are two ICMPv6 messages that are not present in ICMP for IPv4?
(Choose two.)

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Neighbor Solicitation
Destination Unreachable
Host Confirmation
Time Exceeded
Router Advertisement
Route Redirection
52. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port
number of 80. What service is the client requesting?

DHCP
SMTP
DNS
HTTP
53. What is an advantage for small organizations of adopting IMAP instead
of POP?

POP only allows the client to store messages in a centralized way, while
IMAP allows distributed storage.
Messages are kept in the mail servers until they are manually deleted
from the email client.
When the user connects to a POP server, copies of the messages are kept in
the mail server for a short time, but IMAP keeps them for a long time.
IMAP sends and retrieves email, but POP only retrieves email.

Explanation: IMAP and POP are protocols that are used to retrieve email
messages. The advantage of using IMAP instead of POP is that when the
user connects to an IMAP-capable server, copies of the messages are
downloaded to the client application. IMAP then stores the email messages
on the server until the user manually deletes those messages.

54. A technician can ping the IP address of the web server of a remote
company but cannot successfully ping the URL address of the same web
server. Which software utility can the technician use to diagnose the
problem?

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tracert
ipconfig
netstat
nslookup

Explain:
Traceroute (tracert) is a utility that generates a list of hops that were
successfully reached along the path from source to destination.This list can
provide important verification and troubleshooting information. The ipconfig
utility is used to display the IP configuration settings on a Windows PC. The
Netstat utility is used to identify which active TCP connections are open and
running on a networked host. Nslookup is a utility that allows the user to
manually query the name servers to resolve a given host name. This utility
can also be used to troubleshoot name resolution issues and to verify the
current status of the name servers.

55. Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI Data
Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex media

enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium
integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1
Gigabit Ethernet over copper
implements a process to delimit fields within an Ethernet 2 frame
places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network
layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame
Other case:

responsible for internal structure of Ethernet frame

applies source and destination MAC addresses to Ethernet frame
handles communication between upper layer networking software and
Ethernet NIC hardware
adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
implements trailer with frame check sequence for error detection 
Other case:

integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1

Gigabit Ethernet over copper
places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network
layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame

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implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex media

adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
applies source and destination MAC addresses to Ethernet frame
Other case:

enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium

adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
applies source and destination MAC addresses to Ethernet frame
responsible for the internal structure of Ethernet frame
implements trailer with frame check sequence for error detection
Other case:
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enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium
applies source and destination MAC addresses to Ethernet frame
integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1
Gigabit Ethernet over copper
handles communication between upper layer networking software and
Ethernet NIC hardware
responsible for internal structure of Ethernet frame

Explanation: The data link layer is actually divided into two sublayers:
+ Logical Link Control (LLC): This upper sublayer defines the software
processes that provide services to the network layer protocols. It places
information in the frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being
used for the frame. This information allows multiple Layer 3 protocols, such
as IPv4 and IPv6, to utilize the same network interface and media.
+ Media Access Control (MAC): This lower sublayer defines the media
access processes performed by the hardware. It provides data link layer
addressing and delimiting of data according to the physical signaling
requirements of the medium and the type of data link layer protocol in use.

56. The global configuration command ip default-gateway 172.16.100.1 is

applied to a switch. What is the effect of this command?

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The switch can communicate with other hosts on the 172.16.100.0 network.
The switch can be remotely managed from a host on another network.
The switch is limited to sending and receiving frames to and from the
gateway 172.16.100.1.
The switch will have a management interface with the address 172.16.100.1.

Explanation: A default gateway address is typically configured on all devices

to allow them to communicate beyond just their local network.In a switch this
is achieved using the command ip default-gateway <ip address>.

57. What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the 
switch vty lines?

The SSH client on the switch is enabled.

The switch requires a username/password combination for remote access.
Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.
The switch requires remote connections via a proprietary client software.

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A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video,
and other multimedia files on the web.
61. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port
number of 67. What service is the client requesting?

FTP
DHCP
Telnet
SSH
62. What are two problems that can be caused by a large number of ARP
request and reply messages? (Choose two.)
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Switches become overloaded because they concentrate all the traffic from
the attached subnets.
The ARP request is sent as a broadcast, and will flood the entire
subnet.
The network may become overloaded because ARP reply messages have a
very large payload due to the 48-bit MAC address and 32-bit IP address that
they contain.
A large number of ARP request and reply messages may slow down the
switching process, leading the switch to make many changes in its MAC table.
All ARP request messages must be processed by all nodes on the local
network.

Explanation: ARP requests are sent as broadcasts:

(1) All nodes will receive them, and they will be processed by software,
interrupting the CPU.
(2) The switch forwards (floods) Layer 2 broadcasts to all ports.
A switch does not change its MAC table based on ARP request or reply
messages. The switch populates the MAC table using the source MAC
address of all frames. The ARP payload is very small and does not overload
the switch.

63. A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been added to an Ethernet
network. When testing the connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs
can access local network resources but not the Internet resources. To
troubleshoot the problem, the technician wants to initially confirm the IP
address and DNS configurations on the PCs, and also verify connectivity to
the local router. Which three Windows CLI commands and utilities will
provide the necessary information? (Choose three.)

netsh interface ipv6 show neighbor

arp -a
tracert
ping
ipconfig
nslookup
telnet
64. During the process of forwarding traffic, what will the router do
immediately after matching the destination IP address to a network on a 
directly connected routing table entry?

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analyze the destination IP address

switch the packet to the directly connected interface
look up the next-hop address for the packet
discard the traffic after consulting the route table
65. What characteristic describes antispyware?

applications that protect end devices from becoming infected with

malicious software
a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications
a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the
network of an organization report this ad

66. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and
session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a
switch to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?

Telnet
AUX
SSH
Console
67. What are the two most effective ways to defend against malware?
(Choose two.)

Implement a VPN.
Implement network firewalls.
Implement RAID.
Implement strong passwords.
Update the operating system and other application software.
Install and update antivirus software.

Explanation: A cybersecurity specialist must be aware of the technologies

and measures that are used as countermeasures to protect the organization
from threats and vulnerabilities.

68. Which type of security threat would be responsible if a spreadsheet add-

on disables the local software firewall?

brute-force attack
Trojan horse
DoS
buffer overflow

Explanation: A Trojan horse is software that does something harmful, but is

hidden in legitimate software code. A denial of service (DoS) attack results in
interruption of network services to users, network devices, or applications. A
brute-force attack commonly involves trying to access a network device. A
buffer overflow occurs when a program attempts to store more data in a
memory location than it can hold.


69. Which frame field is created by a source node and used by a destination
node to ensure that a transmitted data signal has not been altered by
interference, distortion, or signal loss?

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Pre-Employment
Screening Tests
TestGorilla

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User Datagram Protocol field
transport layer error check field
flow control field
frame check sequence field
error correction process field
70. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new
LAN must support 4 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask
that the network administrator can use for the new network?

255.255.255.248
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
71. What service is provided by POP3?

Retrieves email from the server by downloading the email to the local
mail application of the client.
An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and
servers.
72. What two security solutions are most likely to be used only in a
corporate environment? (Choose two.)

antispyware
virtual private networks
intrusion prevention systems
strong passwords
antivirus software
73. What characteristic describes antivirus software?

applications that protect end devices from becoming infected with

malicious software
a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the
network of an organization
software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications
74. What mechanism is used by a router to prevent a received IPv4 packet
from traveling endlessly on a network? 
It checks the value of the TTL field and if it is 0, it discards the packet and
sends a Destination Unreachable message to the source host.
It checks the value of the TTL field and if it is 100, it discards the packet and
sends a Destination Unreachable message to the source host.

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It decrements the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the result is 0, it

discards the packet and sends a Time Exceeded message to the source
host.
It increments the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the result is 100, it
discards the packet and sends a Parameter Problem message to the source
host.
75. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port
number of 69. What service is the client requesting?

DNS
DHCP
SMTP report this ad

TFTP
76. An administrator defined a local user account with a secret password on
router R1 for use with SSH. Which three additional steps are required to
configure R1 to accept only encrypted SSH connections? (Choose three.)

Configure DNS on the router.

Generate two-way pre-shared keys.
Configure the IP domain name on the router.
Generate the SSH keys.
Enable inbound vty SSH sessions.
Enable inbound vty Telnet sessions.
77. Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data
Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network

layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame
adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
responsible for internal structure of Ethernet frame
enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium
implements trailer with frame check sequence for error detection
Other case

integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1

Gigabit Ethernet over copper
handles communication between upper layer networking software and
Ethernet NIC hardware
implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex media
applies source and destination MAC addresses to Ethernet frame
applies delimiting of Ethernet frame fields to synchronize communication
between nodes
78. An IPv6 enabled device sends a data packet with the destination address
of FF02::2. What is the target of this packet?

all IPv6 enabled devices on the local link

all IPv6 DHCP servers
all IPv6 enabled devices across the network
all IPv6 configured routers on the local link
79. What are the three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose
three.)


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subnet ID
subnet mask
broadcast address
global routing prefix
interface ID
80. A network administrator is designing the layout of a new wireless
network. Which three areas of concern should be accounted for when
building a wireless network? (Choose three.)

extensive cabling
mobility options
packet collision report this ad

interference
security
coverage area

Explanation: The three areas of concern for wireless networks focus on the
size of the coverage area, any nearby interference, and providing network
security. Extensive cabling is not a concern for wireless networks, as a
wireless network will require minimal cabling for providing wireless access to
hosts. Mobility options are not a component of the areas of concern for
wireless networks.

81. A new network administrator has been asked to enter a banner message
on a Cisco device. What is the fastest way a network administrator could
test whether the banner is properly configured?

Enter CTRL-Z at the privileged mode prompt.

Exit global configuration mode.
Power cycle the device.
Reboot the device.
Exit privileged EXEC mode and press Enter .
82. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless
network?

token passing
CSMA/CA
priority ordering
CSMA/CD
83. What is a function of the data link layer?

provides the formatting of data

provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
provides delivery of data between two applications
provides for the exchange of frames over a common local media
84. What is the purpose of the TCP sliding window?

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to ensure that segments arrive in order at the destination
to end communication when data transmission is complete
to inform a source to retransmit data from a specific point forward
to request that a source decrease the rate at which it transmits data
85. What characteristic describes spyware?

a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
software that is installed on a user device and collects information
about the user
an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service
the use of stolen credentials to access private data
86. Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

store-and-forward switching
borderless switching
ingress port buffering
cut-through switching
87. Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled
interface?

FEC0::/10
FDEE::/7
FE80::/10
FF00::/8

Explain:
Link-local addresses are in the range of FE80::/10 to FEBF::/10. The original
IPv6 specification defined site-local addresses and used the prefix range
FEC0::/10, but these addresses were deprecated by the IETF in favor of
unique local addresses. FDEE::/7 is a unique local address because it is in
the range of FC00::/7 to FDFF::/7. IPv6 multicast addresses have the prefix
FF00::/8.

88. What service is provided by FTP?

A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and
other multimedia files on the web.
An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server. 
Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and
video on the web.
89. A user is attempting to access http://www.cisco.com/ without success.
Which two configuration values must be set on the host to allow this
access? (Choose two.)

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DNS server
source port number
HTTP server
source MAC address
default gateway
90. Which two statements accurately describe an advantage or a
disadvantage when deploying NAT for IPv4 in a network? (Choose two.)

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NAT adds authentication capability to IPv4.

NAT introduces problems for some applications that require end-to-end
connectivity.
NAT will impact negatively on switch performance.
NAT provides a solution to slow down the IPv4 address depletion.
NAT improves packet handling.
NAT causes routing tables to include more information.

Explanation: Network Address Translation (NAT) is a technology that is

implemented within IPv4 networks. One application of NAT is to use private
IP addresses inside a network and use NAT to share a few public IP
addresses for many internal hosts. In this way it provides a solution to slow
down the IPv4 address depletion. However, since NAT hides the actual IP
addresses that are used by end devices, it may cause problems for some
applications that require end-to-end connectivity.

91. What would be the interface ID of an IPv6 enabled interface with a MAC
address of 1C-6F-65-C2-BD-F8 when the interface ID is generated by using
the EUI-64 process?

0C6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
1E6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
C16F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
106F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8

Explanation: To derive the EUI-64 interface ID by using the MAC address

1C-6F-65-C2-BD-F8, three steps are taken.
Change the seventh bit of the MAC address from a binary 0 to a binary
1 which changes the hex C, into a hex E.
Insert hex digits FFFE into the middle of the address. 
Rewrite the address in IPv6 format.
The three steps, when complete, give the interface ID of
1E6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8.

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92. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to
send a packet to PC2. In this scenario, what will happen next?

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PC2 will send an ARP reply with its MAC address.

SW1 will send an ARP reply with the SW1 Fa0/1 MAC address.
SW1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.
PC2 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.
RT1 will send an ARP reply with the RT1 Fa0/0 MAC address.
RT1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.

Explain: When a network device wants to communicate with another device

on the same network, it sends a broadcast ARP request. In this case, the
request will contain the IP address of PC2. The destination device (PC2)
sends an ARP reply with its MAC address.

93. What service is provided by BOOTP?

Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and
video on the web.
Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.
Legacy application that enables a diskless workstation to discover its
own IP address and find a BOOTP server on the network.
A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and
other multimedia files on the web.
94. What characteristic describes adware?

a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
software that is installed on a user device and collects information
about the user
the use of stolen credentials to access private data
an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service
95. When a switch configuration includes a user-defined error threshold on
a per-port basis, to which switching method will the switch revert when the
error threshold is reached?

cut-through
store-and-forward 
fast-forward
fragment-free
96. Match a statement to the related network model. (Not all options are
used.)

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Place the options in the following order:peer-to-peer network

[+] no dedicated server is required
[+] client and server roles are set on a per request basis
peer-to-peer aplication
[#] requires a specific user interface
[#] a background service is required

Explain:
Peer-to-peer networks do not require the use of a dedicated server, and
devices can assume both client and server roles simultaneously on a per
request basis. Because they do not require formalized accounts or
permissions, they are best used in limited situations. Peer-to-peer
applications require a user interface and background service to be running,
and can be used in more diverse situations.

97. What are two primary responsibilities of the Ethernet MAC sublayer?
(Choose two.)

error detection
frame delimiting
accessing the media
data encapsulation
logical addressing
98. Refer to the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the
viewable output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose three.)

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Two physical interfaces have been configured.

The switch can be remotely managed.
One device is attached to a physical interface.
Passwords have been configured on the switch.
Two devices are attached to the switch.
The default SVI has been configured.

Explain:
Vlan1 is the default SVI. Because an SVI has been configured, the switch can
be configured and managed remotely. FastEthernet0/0 is showing up and up,
so a device is connected.

99. Match each type of frame field to its function. (Not all options are used.)

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100. What is the subnet ID associated with the IPv6 address

2001:DA48:FC5:A4:3D1B::1/64?

2001:DA48::/64
2001:DA48:FC5::A4:/64
2001:DA48:FC5:A4::/64
2001::/64
101. Match the firewall function to the type of threat protection it provides to
the network. (Not all options are used.)

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packet filtering – prevents access based on IP or MAC address

URL filtering – prevents access to websites
network address translator – (none)
stateful packet inspection – prevents unsolicited incoming sessions
application filtering – prevents access by port number

Explain:Firewall products come packaged in various forms. These products

use different techniques for determining what will be permitted or denied
access to a network. They include the following:
+ Packet filtering – Prevents or allows access based on IP or MAC addresses
+ Application filtering – Prevents or allows access by specific application report this ad
types based on port numbers
+ URL filtering – Prevents or allows access to websites based on specific
URLs or keywords
+ Stateful packet inspection (SPI) – Incoming packets must be legitimate
responses to requests from internal hosts. Unsolicited packets are blocked
unless permitted specifically. SPI can also include the capability to recognize
and filter out specific types of attacks, such as denial of service (DoS)

102. Users are reporting longer delays in authentication and in accessing

network resources during certain time periods of the week. What kind of
information should network engineers check to find out if this situation is
part of a normal network behavior?

syslog records and messages

the network performance baseline
debug output and packet captures
network configuration files
103. How does the service password-encryption command enhance
password security on Cisco routers and switches?

It requires encrypted passwords to be used when connecting remotely to a

router or switch with Telnet.
It encrypts passwords that are stored in router or switch configuration
files.
It requires that a user type encrypted passwords to gain console access to a
router or switch.
It encrypts passwords as they are sent across the network.

Explain: The service password-encryption command encrypts plaintext

passwords in the configuration file so that they cannot be viewed by
unauthorized users.

104. Which two statements are correct in a comparison of IPv4 and IPv6
packet headers? (Choose two.)

The Source Address field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.

The Version field from IPv4 is not kept in IPv6.
The Destination Address field is new in IPv6.
The Header Checksum field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6. 
The Time-to-Live field from IPv4 has been replaced by the Hop Limit
field in IPv6.
105. A network administrator wants to have the same network mask for all
networks at a particular small site. The site has the following networks and
number of devices:

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IP phones – 22 addresses
PCs – 20 addresses needed
Printers – 2 addresses needed
Scanners – 2 addresses needed

The network administrator has deemed that 192.168.10.0/24 is to be the network

used at this site. Which single subnet mask would make the most efficient use of
the available addresses to use for the four subnetworks?

255.255.255.192
255.255.255.252
255.255.255.240
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255.255.255.248
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.224
106. What characteristic describes identity theft?

the use of stolen credentials to access private data

software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications
software that identifies fast-spreading threats
a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the
network of an organization
107. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The
new LAN must support 200 connected devices. What is the smallest network
mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

255.255.255.240
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.224
108. What are three commonly followed standards for constructing and
installing cabling? (Choose three.)

cost per meter (foot)

cable lengths
connector color
pinouts
connector types
tensile strength of plastic insulator
109. Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the displayed termination?

The woven copper braid should not have been removed.

The wrong type of connector is being used. 
The untwisted length of each wire is too long.
The wires are too thick for the connector that is used.

Explanation: When a cable to an RJ-45 connector is terminated, it is

important to ensure that the untwisted wires are not too long and that the
flexible plastic sheath surrounding the wires is crimped down and not the

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bare wires. None of the colored wires should be visible from the bottom of the
jack.

110. Match the characteristic to the category. (Not all options are used.)

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111. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination

port number of 143. What service is the client requesting?

IMAP
FTP
SSH
Telnet
112. What are two characteristics shared by TCP and UDP? (Choose two.)

default window size

connectionless communication
port numbering
3-way handshake
ability to to carry digitized voice
use of checksum

Explain:
Both TCP and UDP use source and destination port numbers to distinguish
different data streams and to forward the right data segments to the right
applications. Error checking the header and data is done by both protocols by
using a checksum calculation to determine the integrity of the data that is
received. TCP is connection-oriented and uses a 3-way handshake to
establish an initial connection. TCP also uses window to regulate the amount
of traffic sent before receiving an acknowledgment. UDP is connectionless 
and is the best protocol for carry digitized VoIP signals.

113. Refer to the exhibit. Which two network addresses can be assigned to
the network containing 10 hosts? Your answers should waste the fewest

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addresses, not reuse addresses that are already assigned, and stay within
the 10.18.10.0/24 range of addresses. (Choose two.)

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10.18.10.200/28
10.18.10.208/28
10.18.10.240/27
10.18.10.200/27
10.18.10.224/27
10.18.10.224/28

Explanation: Addresses 10.18.10.0 through 10.18.10.63 are taken for the

leftmost network. Addresses 192 through 199 are used by the center
network. Because 4 host bits are needed to accommodate 10 hosts, a /28
mask is needed. 10.18.10.200/28 is not a valid network number. Two subnets
that can be used are 10.18.10.208/28 and 10.18.10.224/28.

114. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination

port number of 21. What service is the client requesting?

FTP
LDAP
SLP
SNMP
115. What attribute of a NIC would place it at the data link layer of the OSI
model?

attached Ethernet cable

IP address
MAC address
RJ-45 port
TCP/IP protocol stack
116. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The
new LAN must support 10 connected devices. What is the smallest network
mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

255.255.255.192
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240

117. What technique is used with UTP cable to help protect against signal
interference from crosstalk?

wrapping a foil shield around the wire pairs

twisting the wires together into pairs

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terminating the cable with special grounded connectors

encasing the cables within a flexible plastic sheath

Explanation: To help prevent the effects of crosstalk, UTP cable wires are
twisted together into pairs. Twisting the wires together causes the magnetic
fields of each wire to cancel each other out.

118. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the LAN of
LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been
subnetted using a /29 prefix. In order to accommodate a new building, the
technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new report this ad

network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router
interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the
workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration
should be entered into the properties of the workgroup server to allow
connectivity to the Internet?

IP address: 192.168.10.65 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway:

192.168.10.76
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway:
192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248, default
gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.41 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248, default gateway:
192.168.10.46
IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0, default gateway:
192.168.10.1

Explain:
Using a /29 prefix to subnet 192.168.10.0 results in subnets that increment by
8:
192.168.10.0 (1)
192.168.10.8 (2)
192.168.10.16 (3) 
192.168.10.24 (4)
192.168.10.32 (5)

119. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are in their default configuration. Host
A needs to communicate with host D, but host A does not have the MAC

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address for its default gateway. Which network hosts will receive the ARP
request sent by host A?

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only host D
only router R1
only hosts A, B, and C
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts B and C
only hosts B, C, and router R1

Explain:
Since host A does not have the MAC address of the default gateway in its
ARP table, host A sends an ARP broadcast. The ARP broadcast would be
sent to every device on the local network. Hosts B, C, and router R1 would
receive the broadcast. Router R1 would not forward the message.

120. Match a statement to the related network model. (Not all options are
used.)

Place the options in the following order:peer-to-peer network

[+] no dedicated server is required
[+] client and server roles are set on a per request basis

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peer-to-peer aplication
[#] requires a specific user interface
[#] a background service is required

Explain:
Peer-to-peer networks do not require the use of a dedicated server, and
devices can assume both client and server roles simultaneously on a per
request basis. Because they do not require formalized accounts or
permissions, they are best used in limited situations. Peer-to-peer
applications require a user interface and background service to be running,
and can be used in more diverse situations. report this ad

121. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has been given the network
address of 192.168.99.0 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192 to subnet
across the four networks shown. How many total host addresses are
unused across all four subnets?

88
200
72
224
158
122. Which connector is used with twisted-pair cabling in an Ethernet LAN?

LC conector

SC conector

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BNC

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RJ 11

True Answer:

RJ 45 (true answer)

123. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination

port number of 22. What service is the client requesting?

SSH
SMB/CIFS
HTTPS
SLP
124. What characteristic describes an IPS?

a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the
network of an organization
a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
software that identifies fast-spreading threats
software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications

Explanation: IPS – An intrusion prevention system (IPS) monitors incoming

and outgoing traffic looking for malware, network attack signatures, and
more. If it recognizes a threat, it can immediately stop it.

125. What service is provided by DHCP? 

An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
Dynamically assigns IP addresses to end and intermediary devices.
Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and
servers.

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126. Match the header field with the appropriate layer of the OSI model. (Not
all options are used.)

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127. Refer to the exhibit. The switches have a default configuration. Host A
needs to communicate with host D, but host A does not have the MAC
address for the default gateway. Which network devices will receive the ARP
request sent by host A?

i360201v3n1_275353.png

only host D 
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts B and C
only hosts B, C, and router R1
only hosts A, B, and C
only router R1

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128. Which wireless technology has low-power and low-data rate

requirements making it popular in IoT environments?

Bluetooth
Zigbee
WiMAX
Wi-Fi

Explanation: Zigbee is a specification used for low-data rate, low-power

communications. It is intended for applications that require short-range, low
data-rates and long battery life. Zigbee is typically used for industrial and
Internet of Things (IoT) environments such as wireless light switches and report this ad

medical device data collection.

129. What two ICMPv6 message types must be permitted through IPv6
access control lists to allow resolution of Layer 3 addresses to Layer 2 MAC
addresses? (Choose two.)

neighbor solicitations
echo requests
neighbor advertisements
echo replies
router solicitations
router advertisements
130. A client is using SLAAC to obtain an IPv6 address for its interface. After
an address has been generated and applied to the interface, what must the
client do before it can begin to use this IPv6 address?

It must send a DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST message to request the

address of the DNS server.
It must send a DHCPv6 REQUEST message to the DHCPv6 server to
request permission to use this address.
It must send an ICMPv6 Router Solicitation message to determine what
default gateway it should use.
It must send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message to ensure that
the address is not already in use on the network.
131. Two pings were issued from a host on a local network. The first ping
was issued to the IP address of the default gateway of the host and it failed.
The second ping was issued to the IP address of a host outside the local
network and it was successful. What is a possible cause for the failed ping?

The default gateway is not operational.

The default gateway device is configured with the wrong IP address.
Security rules are applied to the default gateway device, preventing it
from processing ping requests.
The TCP/IP stack on the default gateway is not working properly.
132. An organization is assigned an IPv6 address block of
2001:db8:0:ca00::/56. How many subnets can be created without using bits
in the interface ID space?

256 
512
1024
4096
133. What subnet mask is needed if an IPv4 network has 40 devices that
need IP addresses and address space is not to be wasted?

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255.255.255.0
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
134. Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the
destination address be in the frame when it leaves host A?

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DD:DD:DD:DD:DD:DD
172.168.10.99
CC:CC:CC:CC:CC:CC
172.168.10.65
BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB
AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA

Explain:
When a host sends information to a distant network, the Layer 2 frame
header will contain a source and destination MAC address. The source
address will be the originating host device. The destination address will be
the router interface that connects to the same network. In the case of host A
sending information to host B, the source address is AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA
and the destination address is the MAC address assigned to the R2 Ethernet
interface, BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB.

135. What is a benefit of using cloud computing in networking?

Technology is integrated into every-day appliances allowing them to

interconnect with other devices, making them more ‘smart’ or automated.
Network capabilities are extended without requiring investment in new
infrastructure, personnel, or software.
End users have the freedom to use personal tools to access information and
communicate across a business network.
Home networking uses existing electrical wiring to connect devices to the
network wherever there is an electrical outlet, saving the cost of installing data
cables.

Explanation: Cloud computing extends IT’s capabilities without requiring
investment in new infrastructure, training new personnel, or licensing new
software. These services are available on-demand and delivered
economically to any device anywhere in the world without compromising
security or function. BYOD is about end users having the freedom to use
personal tools to access information and communicate across a business or

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campus network. Smart home technology is integrated into every-day

appliances allowing them to interconnect with other devices, making them
more ‘smart’ or automated. Powerline networking is a trend for home
networking that uses existing electrical wiring to connect devices to the
network wherever there is an electrical outlet, saving the cost of installing
data cables.

136. Which two statements are correct about MAC and IP addresses during
data transmission if NAT is not involved? (Choose two.)

Destination IP addresses in a packet header remain constant along the

entire path to a target host. report this ad

Destination MAC addresses will never change in a frame that goes across
seven routers.
Every time a frame is encapsulated with a new destination MAC address, a
new destination IP address is needed.
Destination and source MAC addresses have local significance and
change every time a frame goes from one LAN to another.
A packet that has crossed four routers has changed the destination IP
address four times.
137. What is one main characteristic of the data link layer?

It generates the electrical or optical signals that represent the 1 and 0 on the
media.
It converts a stream of data bits into a predefined code.
It shields the upper layer protocol from being aware of the physical
medium to be used in the communication.
It accepts Layer 3 packets and decides the path by which to forward the
packet to a remote network.
138. What are three characteristics of the CSMA/CD process? (Choose
three.)

The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a
collision.
A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before
transmitting.
After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission
after a random time delay has expired.
All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network
medium.
A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not
busy.
Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.

Explanation: The Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection

(CSMA/CD) process is a contention-based media access control mechanism
used on shared media access networks, such as Ethernet. When a device
needs to transmit data, it listens and waits until the media is available (quiet),
then it will send data. If two devices transmit at the same time, a collision will
occur. Both devices will detect the collision on the network. When a device 
detects a collision, it will stop the data transmission process, wait for a
random amount of time, then try again.

139. Which information does the show startup-config command display?

the IOS image copied into RAM

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the bootstrap program in the ROM

the contents of the current running configuration file in the RAM
the contents of the saved configuration file in the NVRAM

Explain:
The show startup-config command displays the saved configuration located
in NVRAM. The show running-config command displays the contents of the
currently running configuration file located in RAM.

140. Which two commands can be used on a Windows host to display the
routing table? (Choose two.) report this ad

netstat -s
route print
show ip route
netstat -r
tracert

Explain:
On a Windows host, the route print or netstat -r commands can be used to
display the host routing table. Both commands generate the same output. On
a router, the show ip route command is used to display the routing table. The
netstat –s command is used to display per-protocol statistics. The tracert
command is used to display the path that a packet travels to its destination.

141. What are two functions that are provided by the network layer? (Choose
two.)

directing data packets to destination hosts on other networks

placing data on the network medium
carrying data between processes that are running on source and destination
hosts
providing dedicated end-to-end connections
providing end devices with a unique network identifier
142. Which two statements describe features of an IPv4 routing table on a
router? (Choose two.)

Directly connected interfaces will have two route source codes in the
routing table: C and S.
If there are two or more possible routes to the same destination, the route
associated with the higher metric value is included in the routing table.
The netstat -r command can be used to display the routing table of a router.
The routing table lists the MAC addresses of each active interface.
It stores information about routes derived from the active router interfaces.
If a default static route is configured in the router, an entry will be
included in the routing table with source code S.
143. What characteristic describes a VPN?

software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications

software that identifies fast-spreading threats 
a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access
into the network of an organization
a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
144. Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?

to enable the switch to send broadcast frames to attached PCs

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to enable the switch to function as a default gateway

to enable the switch to be managed remotely
to enable the switch to receive frames from attached PCs

Explanation: A switch, as a Layer 2 device, does not need an IP address to

transmit frames to attached devices. However, when a switch is accessed
remotely through the network, it must have a Layer 3 address. The IP
address must be applied to a virtual interface rather than to a physical
interface. Routers, not switches, function as default gateways.

145. Match each description to its corresponding term. (Not all options are report this ad

used.)

146. A user sends an HTTP request to a web server on a remote network.

During encapsulation for this request, what information is added to the
address field of a frame to indicate the destination?

the network domain of the destination host

the IP address of the default gateway
the MAC address of the destination host
the MAC address of the default gateway


Explanation: A frame is encapsulated with source and destination MAC
addresses. The source device will not know the MAC address of the remote
host. An ARP request will be sent by the source and will be responded to by
the router. The router will respond with the MAC address of its interface, the
one which is connected to the same network as the source.

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147. What is an advantage to using a protocol that is defined by an open

standard?

A company can monopolize the market.

The protocol can only be run on equipment from a specific vendor.
An open standard protocol is not controlled or regulated by standards
organizations.
It encourages competition and promotes choices.

Explain:
A monopoly by one company is not a good idea from a user point of view. If a
protocol can only be run on one brand, it makes it difficult to have mixed report this ad

equipment in a network. A proprietary protocol is not free to use. An open

standard protocol will in general be implemented by a wide range of vendors.

148. Data is being sent from a source PC to a destination server. Which

three statements correctly describe the function of TCP or UDP in this
situation? (Choose three.)

The source port field identifies the running application or service that
will handle data returning to the PC.
The TCP process running on the PC randomly selects the destination port
when establishing a session with the server.
UDP segments are encapsulated within IP packets for transport across
the network.
The UDP destination port number identifies the application or service
on the server which will handle the data.
TCP is the preferred protocol when a function requires lower network
overhead.
The TCP source port number identifies the sending host on the network.

Explanation: Layer 4 port numbers identify the application or service which

will handle the data. The source port number is added by the sending device
and will be the destination port number when the requested information is
returned. Layer 4 segments are encapsulated within IP packets. UDP, not
TCP, is used when low overhead is needed. A source IP address, not a TCP
source port number, identifies the sending host on the network. Destination
port numbers are specific ports that a server application or service monitors
for requests.

149. Match each description with the corresponding TCP mechanism. (Not
all options are used.)

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150. Refer to the exhibit. A company uses the address block of

128.107.0.0/16 for its network. What subnet mask would provide the
maximum number of equal size subnets while providing enough host
addresses for each subnet in the exhibit?

255.255.255.192
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.224 

Explanation: The largest subnet in the topology has 100 hosts in it so the
subnet mask must have at least 7 host bits in it (27-2=126). 255.255.255.0
has 8 hosts bits, but this does not meet the requirement of providing the
maximum number of subnets.

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151. A network administrator wants to have the same subnet mask for three
subnetworks at a small site. The site has the following networks and
numbers of devices:

Subnetwork A: IP phones – 10 addresses

Subnetwork B: PCs – 8 addresses
Subnetwork C: Printers – 2 addresses

What single subnet mask would be appropriate to use for the three
subnetworks?
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255.255.255.0
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.252

Explain:
If the same mask is to be used, then the network with the most hosts must be
examined for number of hosts. Because this is 10 hosts, 4 host bits are
needed. The /28 or 255.255.255.240 subnet mask would be appropriate to
use for these networks.

152. Match each item to the type of topology diagram on which it is typically
identified. (Not all options are used.)

153. What two pieces of information are displayed in the output of the show
ip interface brief command? (Choose two.)

IP addresses
interface descriptions
MAC addresses
next-hop addresses
Layer 1 statuses
speed and duplex settings

Explanation: The command show ip interface brief shows the IP address of

each interface, as well as the operational status of the interfaces at both 
Layer 1 and Layer 2. In order to see interface descriptions and speed and
duplex settings, use the command show running-config interface. Next-hop
addresses are displayed in the routing table with the command show ip route,
and the MAC address of an interface can be seen with the command show
interfaces.

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154. A user is complaining that an external web page is taking longer than
normal to load.The web page does eventually load on the user machine.
Which tool should the technician use with administrator privileges in order
to locate where the issue is in the network?

ping
nslookup
tracert
ipconfig /displaydns
155. Which value, that is contained in an IPv4 header field, is decremented
by each router that receives a packet?
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Header Length
Differentiated Services
Time-to-Live
Fragment Offset

Explanation: When a router receives a packet, the router will decrement the
Time-to-Live (TTL) field by one. When the field reaches zero, the receiving
router will discard the packet and will send an ICMP Time Exceeded
message to the sender.

156. A network technician is researching the use of fiber optic cabling in a

new technology center. Which two issues should be considered before
implementing fiber optic media? (Choose two.)

Fiber optic cabling requires different termination and splicing expertise

from what copper cabling requires.
Fiber optic cabling requires specific grounding to be immune to EMI.
Fiber optic cabling is susceptible to loss of signal due to RFI.
Fiber optic cable is able to withstand rough handling.
Fiber optic provides higher data capacity but is more expensive than
copper cabling.
157. Match each description with an appropriate IP address. (Not all options
are used.)

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ITN (Version 7.00) – ITNv7 Final Exam

158. A user is executing a tracert to a remote device. At what point would a

router, which is in the path to the destination device, stop forwarding the
packet?

when the router receives an ICMP Time Exceeded message

when the RTT value reaches zero
when the host responds with an ICMP Echo Reply message
when the value in the TTL field reaches zero
when the values of both the Echo Request and Echo Reply messages reach
zero

Explain:
When a router receives a traceroute packet, the value in the TTL field is
decremented by 1. When the value in the field reaches zero, the receiving
router will not forward the packet, and will send an ICMP Time Exceeded
message back to the source.

159. Users report that the network access is slow. After questioning the
employees, the network administrator learned that one employee
downloaded a third-party scanning program for the printer. What type of
malware might be introduced that causes slow performance of the network?

virus
worm
phishing 
spam

Explanation: A cybersecurity specialist needs to be familiar with the

characteristics of the different types of malware and attacks that threaten an
organization.

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