National Standard Exam in Biology (NSEB) – 2013 QP

1. Though the cud chewing animals mostly feed on fibrous foods which are low on fats, sufficient fatty
acids are produced and absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract. This is due to the

a) interconversion of food in the liver

b) fermentation by bacteria in pre-gastric region
c) enzyme catalysed processes in the duodenum
d) processes mediated by commensal bacteria in the rectum

2. Ram was studying anatomy of young roots of maize, magnolia, pine and money plant. He forgot to
label the slides. If he finds only sieve cells without sieve tubes and companion cells, this slide has to
be of

a) Pine b) Money plant c) Magnolia d) Maize

3. The function of transport of nutrients and respiratory gases within the body is carried out by water in
all the following, except

a) sponges b) jelly fishes c) holothurians d) cuttle fishes

4. In an experiment, substrate was incubated with an enzyme to

obtain a coloured product. When colour intensity was measure
every 5 minutes using a colorimeter, the following graph was
obtained

a) b)

c) d)
National Standard Exam in Biology (NSEB) – 2013 QP

5. The type of inheritance represented in the pedigree given

below is

a) autosomal dominant
b) mitochondrial inheritance
c) X linked recessive
d) X linked dominant

6. A researcher clips pinnae of 20 rabbits trapped in a section of forest and releases them. After a
fortnight, he traps 28 rabbits in the same section of forest and notices 4 of them with clipped pinnae.
His estimate of rabbit population in the sector of the forest should be

a) 2240 b) 560 c) 140 d) 112

7. In the accompanying diagrammatic representation of blood vascular

system, organs represented by I, II, III and IV respectively are

a) heart, gills, trunk, liver b) trunk, liver, gills, heart

c) heart, liver, gills, trunk d) gills, heart, liver, trunk

8. Water potential Ψ plays important role in water absorption and conduction from soil to leaf. Under
which condition, the process will go on smoothly?

a) 𝛹𝑎𝑡𝑚𝑜𝑠𝑝ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 < 𝛹𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑓 < 𝛹𝑟𝑜𝑜𝑡 < 𝛹𝑠𝑜𝑖𝑙 b) 𝛹𝑎𝑡𝑚𝑜𝑠𝑝ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 > 𝛹𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑓 > 𝛹𝑟𝑜𝑜𝑡 > 𝛹𝑠𝑜𝑖𝑙
c) 𝛹𝑎𝑡𝑚𝑜𝑠𝑝ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 = 𝛹𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑓 = 𝛹𝑟𝑜𝑜𝑡 = 𝛹𝑠𝑜𝑖𝑙 d) 𝛹𝑎𝑡𝑚𝑜𝑠𝑝ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 < 𝛹𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑓 = 𝛹𝑟𝑜𝑜𝑡 > 𝛹𝑠𝑜𝑖𝑙

9. The graph below represents the counter

current exchange mechanism that take place in
fish gills to maximize gas exchange. What
would happen if concurrent mechanism
counter current exchange mechanism?
National Standard Exam in Biology (NSEB) – 2013 QP

a) b)

c) d)

10. Which of these intercellular junction in mucosal cells of internal lining of intestine also direct
passage of solute from one cell to another?

a) gap junctions b) plasmodesmata c) desmosomes d) tight junctions

11. The cross section of pinna of leaf in the

accompanying diagram indicates that the plant
must be growing in a habitat with

a) abundant light and moisture

b) abundant light but less moisture
c) less light and abundant moisture
d) less light and less moisture

12. In an experiment, one population of copepod females was

fed with diatoms while another one was fed with
dinoflagellates and number of eggs hatched was monitored
for 10 days. The graph indicates that

a) diatoms are killing female copepods

b) diatoms are useful for sustaining copepod populations
c) older female copepods produce less viable eggs
d) the diatoms are toxic for eggs
National Standard Exam in Biology (NSEB) – 2013 QP

13. Which of the following tissue can be observed after boiling a piece of pinewood in nitric acid for 15
minutes?

a) Transfusion tissue b) Xylem vessels c) Xylem tracheids d) Phloem parenchyma

14. Following graph represents oxyhaemoglobin

dissociation curve. Points E and G represent
venous O2 pressure during exercise and resting
state respectively. How much total percentage of
oxygen is unloaded in tissue during exercise?

a) R
b) Q
c) P + Q
d) P + Q + R

15. In the accompanying diagram, distribution of

variable like light intensity (L), nutrient
availability (N), primary producers (P) and
consumers (C) over 12 months in a year has been
shown. The lines marked 1 to 4 correspond to

a) N, L, P, C
b) L, P, N, C
c) P, C, L, N
d) C, P, N, L

16. In the given diagram of cell membrane, which

letter represents a molecule of cholesterol?

a) P b) Q c) R d) S

17. Green manure involves growing leguminous plants and ploughing them in. It ensures enrichment of
soil since

a) root nodules on them add nitrogen salts

b) legumes grow faster and accumulates phosphate
c) legumes incorporate higher amount of potassium
d) all of them
National Standard Exam in Biology (NSEB) – 2013 QP

18. The major limiting factors for photosynthesis in a plant community shown in the accompanying
diagram at levels X, Y and Z respectively are

a) temperature, light intensity and carbon dioxide

b) carbon dioxide, temperature and light intensity
c) light intensity, carbon dioxide and temperature
d) carbon dioxide, light intensity and temperature

19. Denitrification is a process carried out by microbes in which nitrates are reduced to molecular
nitrogen. This process is predominant in

a) Desert b) Bog c) Leached soil d) Tilled farm

20. In the absence of bile, what would be the status of digestion in the duodenum?

a) only lipids will not be digested through proteins and carbohydrates will get digested
d) digestion of all kinds of food will be incomplete
d) all enzymes except pepsin will be denatured due to acidic pH of chyme
d) nucleic acids will not be digested while other biomolecules will be digested

21. Which of the accompanying diagrams pertain to the animals with the post gastric symbiotic
digestion?

a) b) c) d)
National Standard Exam in Biology (NSEB) – 2013 QP

22. If a branch of dry neutral plant is grafted on along day plant exposed to light for less than the critical
period

a) Graft as well as mother plant will flower

b) Graft as well as mother plant will remain vegetative
c) Graft will bear flowers while mother plant will not
d) Graft will not flower while mother plant will

23. Transpiration is an energy consuming process. Spraying anti transpirants in flowering stages may
prove advantageous but it is not advantageous in vegetative stages since it will have a direct effect
on

a) Photosynthesis resulting in stunted plant b) Translocation of food through phloem

c) Absorption and translocation of minerals d) Synthesis and accumulation of florigen

24. Due to leakage, the bags of biennial variety of grain in a warehouse got wet so as to prevent it from
rotting the bags were transferred to adjacent cold storage for a fortnight. When inspected the stains
were found to have dried completely. On sowing, the harvest could be obtained in the same year
instead of the next year. This must have been due to

a) genetic mutation b) vernalization

c) production of ethylene in wet grains d) accumulation of dormancy hormones

25. Glucose is a high threshold substance and gets reabsorbed from ultra filtrate during urine formation.
After consuming a lot of sweets, urine of the otherwise healthy person also shows presence of
glucose. This proves that reabsorption of glucose

a) varies from time to time b) is time dependent

c) is concentration dependent d) is energy intensive

26. A nucleic acid extracted from animal liver is loaded and

run on agarose gel. After staining it shows following
pattern. If the remaining sample is treated with RNA
and loaded in gel, what result would you
National Standard Exam in Biology (NSEB) – 2013 QP

27. Evolutionary relationship can be established by studying genetic makeup of organisms. Suppose
organisms P, Q and R have similar ancestral origin but the sequence of bases in DNA may differ to
some extent at certain places as shown below. How will you pull them in a cladogram on the basis of
their genetic differences?

P: CAAGCTA Q: ATAGCTT R: AAACCTA

28. To study the ability to secrete a specific protein cells were homogenized mechanically and organelles
were separated by centrifugation. Which organelle should be used for further investigation?

a) Microsome b) Peroxisome c) Lysosome d) Ribosome

29. Which of the following statements about cholesterol in animal cell membrane are correct?

i. It reduces membrane fluidity at moderate temperature

ii. It prevents membrane gelling at low temperature by disrupting close packing of phospholipids
iii. It prevents kinking of unsaturated hydrocarbon at all temperatures
iv. It promotes kinking of unsaturated tails of phospholipids at low temperature

a) i, ii and iv b) i, iii and iv c) i, ii and iii d) i and ii

30. Elaborate courtship behaviour helps in preventing inter specific breeding constituting temporal
barrier

a) Temporal barrier
b) Pre zygotic reproductive barrier
c) Post zygotic reproductive barrier
d) Physiological barrier
National Standard Exam in Biology (NSEB) – 2013 QP

31. Tilling is a common agricultural practice. In which of the following ways is it helpful?

a) It improves soil aeration b) It improves soil mycorrhizal content

c) It improves organic matter of the soil d) All the above

32. In an aquatic ecosystem, a student observed that the lowest tier of the biomass pyramid was much
narrower than the rest. The main producers of this ecosystem most likely are

a) Single celled protists b) Aquatic plants c) Grasses d) All the above

33. A typical growth curve for a bacterium is shown in the

diagram. In which of the following phases, the total cell
count will increase while the viable count will remain same?

a) P b) Q c) R d) S

34. Epididymis is the part of male reproductive tract and produces glycoproteins that coat the sperm. It
also secretes a variety of substances such as sialic acid. These functions

a) Mitochondria b) Microsomes c) Golgi bodies d) Lysosomes

35. Which of the following respiratory parts/surfaces are associated with capillary beds?

a) spiracles b) Tracheae of invertebrates

c) Tracheae of vertebrates d) skin of earthworms

36. Gut fluid from a tunicate was collected and subjected to biochemical analysis. Results are shown in
the brackets following the analysis

I. 10 cc fluid + 10 cc 1% starch → Fehling test (+)

II. 10 cc fluid + 10 cc 1% starch → boiling → Fehling test (−)
III. 10 cc fluid + 10 cc 1% glycogen → Fehling test (+)
IV. 10 cc fluid + 10 cc 1% glycogen → boiling → Fehling test (−)
V. 10 cc fluid + 10 cc 1% maltose → Fehling test (−)
VI. 10 cc fluid + 10 cc 1% maltose → boiling → Fehling test (−)

Which of the following conclusions is most appropriate?

a) The gut fluid is rich carbohydrate content

b) The gut fluid contains disaccharide digesting enzymes
c) The gut fluid contains proteolytic enzymes
d) The gut fluid contains amylolytic enzymes
National Standard Exam in Biology (NSEB) – 2013 QP

37. A few major discoveries in cell biology are listed

I. Schleiden and Schwann proposed the cell theory

II. Leeuwenhoek discovered bacteria
III. Golgi stained cells with silver nitrate, discovered Golgi apparatus
IV. First transmission electron microscope was developed

a) I, II, III, IV b) II, III, I, IV c) II, I, III, IV d) II, I, IV, III

38. Given the fact that pluripotent stem cell can be induced to differentiate by environmental signals.
Which of the following is true?

a) Even differentiated cells retain their ability to differentiate into other type when given appropriate
chemical signals
b) Only totipotent cells can differentiate into any cell type
c) Only early embryonic cells are totipotent and pluripotent stem cells have limited capability to
differentiate into different cell types
d) All the above

39. All of the following statements are true for the typical eukaryotic cell cycle except

a) The S phase is far removed from cell division

b) G1 occurs after the S phase
c) The shortest phase in terms of time is usually M
d) Many of the enzymes necessary for DNA replication are typically produced during G1

40. Which of the following represents the correct order of electron flow during photosynthesis?

a) Chlorophyll to NADPH to water b) Water to NADPH to Chlorophyll

c) Chlorophyll to water to NADPH d) Water to Chlorophyll to NADPH

41. Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

a) Spliceosome – removal of introns

b) Transposase – insertion of DNA segments into DNA
c) DNA polymerase – makes a molecule of DNA from a DNA template
d) RNA polymerase – makes a molecule of RNA from an RNA template

42. The structure of guanine is given below. To which of the following

Guanine will have to bind to form RNA
National Standard Exam in Biology (NSEB) – 2013 QP

a) I, II and III only b) I and IV only c) III, IV & V only d) I or II only

43. To study the changes in the shape of moving amoebae isolated from a pond sample, one would use

a) Transmission electron microscope with unstained specimen

b) Dissecting microscope with fixed specimen
c) Bright field microscope with fixed specimen
d) Phase contrast microscope with unstained specimen

44. A plant growing in marshy saline areas have certain adaptations to help them sustain in such soils.
One such adaptation is that these plants accumulate Na+ and 𝑐𝑙 − ions and transport them to the
leaves. Which of the following are consequences of this adaptation?

a) It helps in marking the water potential of leaves less negative

b) It helps reduce the Transpirational loss of water
c) It helps in increasing uptake of water by the roots
d) It helps in making the leaves more succulent

a) a and c b) a and b c) b and c d) c and d

45. The evolutionary strategy is terms as ‘r’ for those species that live in unstable environments and
produce large number of offspring. Which other characteristic correlates with this life strategy?

a) large size of organisms b) a prolonged period of parental care

c) long life expectancy d) early maturity

46. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder. Shyam’s parents do not suffer from the disorder but
he has a brother who is suffering from cystic fibrosis. What is the probability that Shyam is a carrier?

a) 1 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
4 2 3 4

47. The changes in a plant cell when it is transferred from

solution P to solution Q are shown in the figure below.
Solutions P and Q most likely are
National Standard Exam in Biology (NSEB) – 2013 QP

a) P: saturated salt solution Q: dilute salt solution

b) P: solution with water potential – 5 mPa Q: solution with water potential – 10 mPa
c) P: solution with water potential – 5 mPa Q: solution with water potential – 0 mPa
d) P: alcohol Q: water

48. If K is the carrying capacity of the habitat, N is the total number of individuals in a population with
intrinsic rate of reproduction as ‘r’, the growth rate of such a population will be directly proportional
to

1 1 𝐾−𝑁
I. r II. 𝑁 III. 𝐾−𝑁 IV. 𝐾

a) I and II b) II and III c) I and IV d) only I

49. The brown lizard species (Anolis Sagrei) was introduced in a habitat where the green lizard (Anolis
Carolinensis) dwelling. After some years, it was found that low shrubs and grasses were occupied by
brown lizards while green lizards lived higher up in the trees and foliage. This is an example of niche
separation due to

a) competition b) commensalism c) amensalism d) symbiosis

50. DNA was extracted from two bacterial species to find out how genetically different they were.
Which of the following methods would help?

a) comparing the A + G contents b) comparing the denaturation temperatures

c) finding the percent complementarity d) comparing the genome sizes

51. Repeated freezing and melting of water trapped in crevices of rock causes its fragmentation because
ice

a) is harder than water b) occupies greater space than water

c) absorbs heat from rock d) hydrolyses salts more readily than water

52. Which of the following processes is catalysed by ribozyme?

a) delinking of larger and smaller subunits of ribosomes

b) linking of amino acids into polypeptide chain in a ribosome
c) making complementary copies of short pieces of RNA
d) making complementary DNA from pieces of RNA
National Standard Exam in Biology (NSEB) – 2013 QP

53. The shaded parts in all the animals exhibit:

a) Homology b) Analogy c) Paralogy d) Orthology

54. Accompanying pictures show the closely related species inhabiting environments varying mainly in
temperatures. Which of them seems to be from the warmest habitat?

55. Average primary production (g/m2/yr) of the following has

been depicted in the accompanying diagram

i. tropical rain forest ii. Tundra iii. Swamps

iv. Taiga v. coral reef

a) v, i, iii, iv, ii b) i, v, iv, iii, ii

c) ii, iv, iii, v, i d) d) iv, i, iii, iv, ii

56. Study the diagram of seaweed cover in presence and absence of limpets and urchins. Which of the
following statements is appropriate?
National Standard Exam in Biology (NSEB) – 2013 QP

a) neither limpets nor urchins influence seaweed cover

b) limpets and urchins both influence seaweed cover but the influence of limpets is higher
c) limpets and urchins both influence seaweed cover but the influence of limpets is lowers
d) only urchins seem to influence seaweed cover

57. All Ca2+ in the physiologically balanced salt solution, in which a nerve muscle, preparation was kept,
had got precipitated. On stimulating the nerve you would expect

a) stronger concentration of skeletal muscle

b) no concentration of skeletal muscle
c) muscle going into titany
d) concentration of skeletal muscle after a time lapse

58. If all the sepia in the body of an earthworm were thick, muscular and non-porous, which of the
following process would have been impaired?

a) excretion and osmoregulation b) exchange of respiratory gases

c) circulation of blood d) locomotion

59. Floating ribs are named so since they are

a) The only ribs surrounded by body fluid b) without intercostal muscles

c) not connected to sternum d) not connected to vertical column

60. The bars in accompanying diagram compare an ectotherm (alligator) and endotherm (humans) of
same body weight for their maximum potential metabolic rate and source of ATP. What would i, ii,
iii respectively be the sources of ATP?

a) Aerobic respiration, Glycolysis, Existing cellular

b) Existing cellular, Glycolysis, Aerobic respiration
c) Glycolysis, Existing cellular, Aerobic respiration
d) Glycolysis, Aerobic respiration, Existing cellular
National Standard Exam in Biology (NSEB) – 2013 QP

61. For secondary / semi sedentary and tree living animals, the most suited type or symmetry has been

a) asymmetry and symmetry respectively b) radial and bilateral respectively

c) bilateral and spherical respectively d) bilateral for both

62. When there is sepsis (pus formation), lymph nodes close to region swell. This is due to the fact that

a) The leucocytes are degraded in lymph nodes

b) Pathogens easily invade lymph nodes
c) Lymph nodes from and store leucocytes
d) Release of histamines leads to inflammation of lymph nodes

63. Continuous staring causes profuse secretion of tears. The most appropriate explanation for this is

a) It protects the cornea from damage due to desiccation

b) Strain on muscles of eyelids leads to contraction of tear glands
c) It causes capillaries to dilate leading to profuse secretion of tears
d) The dust particles entering the eye irritate the tear glands causing their hyperactivity

64. Neuroglial cells contain large amount of lipids. Choose the correct functions the cells from those
given below

i. Electric insulation ii. Thermal insulation iii. Mechanical cushioning

iv. Effective synapsing v. Effective blood brain barrier

a) i, ii and v b) ii, iii and iv c) ii, iv and v d) i, ii and iii

65. A bacterium growing on an agar surface divides. Most bacteria are not very motile on solid surface.
The progeny of bacteria remain very near to the location of original bacterium. If 10 cells are plated
and a cell takes 30 min. to multiply then the number of colonies visible, next day would be

a) 10 b) 102 c) 104 d) 108

66. An organism with the genotype BbDD is mated to one with the genotype BBDd. Assuming
independent assortment of these two genes, write the genotype of possible offspring from this cross
and calculate the probability of each genotype occurring

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
a) 16 BBDD, 2 BbDD, 4 BBDd, 4 BbDd b) BBDD, 4 BbDD, 4 BBDd, 4 BbDd
4

1 1 1 1 1 1
c) 4 BBDd, 4 BbDd d) 2 BBDD, 2 BbDD, 2 BBDd, 2 BbDd
National Standard Exam in Biology (NSEB) – 2013 QP

67. A standard bacterial growth curve at 37 0C is shown below. A

student inoculated a bacterial culture in a flask containing
culture medium and incubated the flask at 37 0C for 6 hours. He
then kept the flask at 4 0C for a couple of hours and then re
incubated it at 37 0C for further period. The most probable
growth curve that these bacteria would show is

a) b)

c) d)

68. In Linnaean system, each animal species is placed in taxonomic hierarchy with seven levels. The
level in the middle 4th is order. It contains

a) a single species b) all the genera of a family

c) only certain families d) all the classes of a phylum

69. Fish gills are

a) only respiratory in function b) only excretory in function

c) osmoregulatory in function d) all the three are correct

70. The blood pressure inside capillaries connected to the arterioles and venules is 32 mm of Hg and 7
mm of Hg respectively. What will be the pressure of interstitial fluid?

a) 22 mm of Hg b) 0 mm of Hg c) 7 mm of Hg d) 32 mm of Hg
National Standard Exam in Biology (NSEB) – 2013 QP

71. Which of the ecological parameters, when represented graphically, show inverted pyramid?

a) pyramid of number in pond ecosystem b) pyramid of number in parasitic ecosystem

c) pyramid of biomass in pond ecosystem d) Both B and C

72. Which of the following are biomagnified at different levels of food chain?

i. Heavy metal ii. Aerosol iii. DDT iv. Green house gases

a) i and ii b) i and iv c) i and iii d) ii and iii

73. In a given food chain suppose the amount of energy at the fourth tropic level is 610, what will be the
energy available at producer level?

a) 0.6 kJ b) 60 kJ c) 600 kJ d) 6000 kJ

74. A few statements are made about the characteristics of various life forms. Mark the correct
statement.

a) All chordates are vertebrates but not all vertebrates are chordates
b) All prokaryotes lack nuclear envelope but nuclear envelope is present in mitochondria of
eukaryotes
c) All eukaryotic chromosomes are associated with histone proteins but the genome of chloroplast
lacks histones
d) All bryophytes show predominant sporophytic generation but all pteridophytes show predominant
gametophytic generation

75. Rough endoplasmic reticulum (BR) is associated with the ribosomes, while smooth ER is devoid of
these Ribosomes are associated with protein synthesis. Some cells show presence of RER, others
smooth ER. Which of the following cells show predominance of RER?

a) pancreatic cell b) bone marrow cell

c) cells of mammalian testis d) both A and B
National Standard Exam in Biology (NSEB) – 2013 QP

76. The hypothesis chloroplasts are the descendants of blue-green bacteria is evident from the fact that
[choose the most appropriate answer]

a) both are green in colour

b) blue-green bacteria were the first organisms to contain chloroplasts
c) blue-green bacteria cell is similar to a chloroplast and is approximately the same size
d) blue-green bacteria were the first organisms to contain chlorophyll

77. The RQ for resting human adult is approximately 0.85. If he/she undertakes violent exercise for 3 to
5 minutes

a) RQ will rise b) RQ will fail c) RQ will remain same d) RQ will fall and rise

78. A drug “Placlitaxel” interferes with the breakdown of micro tubules and stabilizes them. This drug is
also used in cancer therapy. Which of the following stages will be severely affected when animal cell
is treated with this drug?

a) Prophase b) G0 c) Anaphase d) Cytokinesis

79. Consider a cat population of 100, in which 84 are black and 16 are white. Black trait is dominant
over white. What will be the number of heterozygote in this cat population?

a) 16 b) 36 c) 48 d) 84

80. A short fragment of DNA was analysed for various mutations.

When comparison between normal and mutated types was done,
following get pattern was observed for two individuals A and B.
Most probable type of mutation in these individuals is

a) deletion in A and inversion in B

b) deletion in A and duplication in B
c) inversion in A and deletion B
d) duplication in A and deletion in B