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Multiple Choice Questions of Artificial Intelligence
S/No Statements and Options Ans

1. Which is the most straightforward approach for planning algorithm? B
a) Best-first search b) State-space search
c) Depth-first search d) Hill-climbing search
2. How many ways are available to solve the state-space search? B
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
3. What is Artificial intelligence? C
a) Putting your intelligence into Computer
b) Programming with your own intelligence
c) Making a Machine intelligent
d) Playing a Game
4. Which search method takes less memory? A
a) Depth-First Search b) Breadth-First search
c) Optimal search d) Linear Search
5. How do you represent “All dogs have tails”? A
a) X dog(X) ahastail(X) b) X dog(X) ahastail(Y)
c) X dog(Y) ahastail(X) d) X dog(X) ahasatail(X,Y)
6. Which condition is used to cease the growth of forward chaining? C
a) Atomic sentences b) Complex sentences
c) No further inference d) All of the mentioned
7. What is the condition of variables in first-order literals? B
a) Existentially quantified b) Universally quantified
c) Both Existentially & Universally quantified d) None of the mentioned
8. There exist only two types of quantifiers, Universal Quantification and A
Existential Quantification.
a) True b) False
9. Translate the following statement into FOL. A
“For every a, if a is a philosopher, then a is a scholar”
a) ∀ a philosopher(a) scholar(a) b) ∃ a philosopher(a) scholar(a)
c) All of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned
10. First Order Logic is also known as ___________ D
a) First Order Predicate Calculus b) Quantification Theory
c) Lower Order Calculus d) All of the mentioned
11. Which algorithm will work backward from the goal to solve a problem? B
a) Forward chaining b) Backward chaining
c) Hill-climb algorithm d) None of the mentioned
12. Which is mainly used for automated reasoning? C
a) Backward chaining b) Forward chaining
c) Logic programming d) Parallel programming
13. Which algorithm are in more similar to backward chaining algorithm? A
a) Depth-first search algorithm b) Breadth-first search algorithm
c) Hill-climbing search algorithm d) All of the mentioned
14. Which problem can frequently occur in backward chaining algorithm? D
a) Repeated states b) Incompleteness
c) Complexity d) Both Repeated states & Incompleteness
15. State Space is a _________ Aa
16. Factors which affect the performance of learner system does not include D
a) Representation scheme used b) Training scenario
c) Type of feedback d) Good data structures
17. Which of the following is the model used for learning? D
a) Decision trees b) Neural networks
c) Propositional and FOL rules d) All of the mentioned
18. Automated vehicle is an example of ______ A
a) Supervised learning b) Unsupervised learning
c) Active learning d) Reinforcement learning
19. A heuristic is a way of trying D
a) To discover something or an idea embedded in a program
b) To search and measure how far a node in a search tree seems to be from
a goal
c) To compare two nodes in a search tree to see if one is better than another
d) All of the mentioned
20. The search strategy the uses a problem specific knowledge is known as D
a) Informed Search b) Best First Search
c) Heuristic Search d) All of the mentioned
21. Best-First search is a type of informed search, which uses A
________________ to choose the best next node for expansion.
a) Evaluation function returning lowest evaluation
b) Evaluation function returning highest evaluation
c) Evaluation function returning lowest & highest evaluation
d) None of them is applicable
22. Best-First search can be implemented using the following data structure. C
a) Queue b) Stack
c) Priority Queue d) Circular Queue
23. Heuristic function h(n) is ____ C
a) Lowest path cost
b) Cheapest path from root to goal node
c) Estimated cost of cheapest path from root to goal node
d) Average path cost
24. In a rule-based system, procedural domain knowledge is in the form of: A
a) production rules b) rule interpreters
c) meta-rules d) control rules
25. Following is an example of active learning: a
a) News Recommender system b) Dust cleaning machine
c) Automated vehicle d) None of the mentioned
26. Which of the following is not an application of learning? d
a) Data mining b) WWW
c) Speech recognition d) None of the mentioned
27. Which of the following is the component of learning system? D
a) Goal b) Model
c) Learning rules d) All of the mentioned
28. What among the following could the universal instantiation of D
___________
For all x King(x) ^ Greedy(x) => Evil(x)
a) King(John) ^ Greedy(John) => Evil(John)
b) King(y) ^ Greedy(y) => Evil(y)
c) King(Richard) ^ Greedy(Richard) => Evil(Richard)
29. Lifted inference rules require finding substitutions that make different C
logical expressions looks identical.
a) Existential Instantiation b) Universal Instantiation
c) Unification d) Modus Ponen
30. What among the following could the Existential instantiation of A
∃x Crown(x) ^ OnHead(x, Johnny)
a) Crown(John) ^ OnHead(John, Jonny)
b) Crown(y) v OnHead(y, Jonny)
c) Crown(x) ^ OnHead(x, Jonny)
d) None of the mentioned
31. Translate the following statement into FOL. A
“For every a, if a is a PhD student, then a has a master degree”
a) ∀ a PhD(a) -> Master(a) b) ∃ a PhD(a) -> Master(a)
c) A is true, B is true d) A is false, B is false
32. To overcome the need to backtrack in constraint satisfaction problem can A
be eliminated by
a) Forward Searching
b) Constraint Propagation
c) Backtrack after a forward search
d) Omitting the constraints and focusing only on goals
33. Language/Languages used for programming Constraint Programming A
includes
a) Prolog b) C#
c) C d) Fortrun
34. Backtracking is based on, D
a) Last in first out b) First in first out
c) Recursion d) Both Last in first out & Recursion
35. An Artificial Intelligence technique that allows computers to understand C
associations and relationships between objects and events is called:
a) heuristic processing b) cognitive science
c) relative symbolim d) pattern matching
36. The field that investigates the mechanics of human intelligence is: B
a) history b) cognitive science
c) psychology d) sociology
37. What is the name of the computer program that simulates the thought C
processes of human beings?
a) Human logic b) Expert reason
c) Expert system d) Personal information
38. What is the name of the computer program that contains the distilled C
knowledge of an expert?
a) Database management system b) Management information System
c) Expert system d) Artificial intelligence
39. A computer program that contains expertise in a particular domain is called C
an:
a) intelligent planner b) automatic processor
c) expert system d) operational symbolizer
40. What is the term used for describing the judgmental or commonsense part A
of problem solving?
a) Heuristic b) Critical
c) Value based d) Analytical
41. Decision support programs are designed to help managers make: C
a) budget projections b) visual presentations
c) business decisions d) vacation schedules
42. Programming a robot by physically moving it through the trajectory you B
want it to follow is called:
a) contact sensing control b) continuous-path control
c) robot vision control d) pick-and-place contro
43. What is the goal of artificial intelligence? C
a) To solve real-world problems
b) To solve artificial problems
c) To explain various sorts of intelligence
d) To extract scientific causes
44. Which is true regarding BFS (Breadth First Search)? B
a) BFS will get trapped exploring a single path
b) The entire tree so far been generated must be stored in BFS
c) BFS is not guaranteed to find a solution, if exists
d) BFS is nothing but Binary First Search
45. What is a heuristic function? D
a) A function to solve mathematical problems
b) A function which takes parameters of type string and returns an integer
value
c) A function whose return type is nothing
d) A function that maps from problem state descriptions to measures of
desirability
46. The traveling salesman problem involves n cities with paths connecting the C
cities. The time taken for traversing through all the cities, without knowing
in advance the length of a minimum tour, is
a) O(n) b) O(n2)
c) O(n!) d) O(n/2)
47. An algorithm A is admissible if B
a) It is not guaranteed to return an optimal solution when one exists
b) It is guaranteed to return an optimal solution when one exists
c) It returns more solutions, but not an optimal one
d) It guarantees to return more optimal solutions
48. Knowledge may be D
I. Declarative.
II. Procedural.
III. Non-procedural.
a) Only (I) above b) Only (II) above
c) Only (III) above d) Both (I) and (II) above
49. In LISP, the addition 3 + 2 is entered as D
a) 3 + 2 b) 3 add 2
c) 3 + 2 = d) (+ 3 2)
50. In LISP, the function assigns the symbol x to y is D
a) (setq y x) b) (set y = ‘x’)
c) (setq y = ‘x’) d) (setq y ‘x’)
51. In LISP, the function (minusp (-20 4 8 8 1) returns A
a) T b) F
c) NIL d) -20
52. In LISP, which of the following function assigns the value 10 to the A
symbol a?
a) (setq a 10) b) (a = b) where b = 10
c) (a = 10) (d) (setq 10 a) d) All of the mentioned
53. In LISP, the atom that stands for “False” is B
a) t b) nil c) y d) time
54. In AI programming, a list may contain: D
a) cells b) fields c) pointers d) all of the
mentioned
55. Forward chaining systems are _____________ where as backward chaining C
systems are ___________
a) Goal-driven, goal-driven b) Goal-driven, data-driven
c) Data-driven, goal-driven d) Data-driven, data-driven
ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE
1. A perceptron is:
a) a single layer feed-forward neural network with pre-processing
b) an auto-associative neural network
c) a double layer auto-associative neural network
d) a neural network that contains feedback
2. An auto-associative network is:

a) a neural network that contains no loops
b) a neural network that contains feedback
c) a neural network that has only one loop
d) a single layer feed-forward neural network with pre-processing
3. What are the advantages of neural networks over conventional computers?

(i) They have the ability to learn by example
(ii) They are more fault tolerant
(iii)They are more suited for real time operation due to their high ‘computational’ rates
a) (i) and (ii) are true
b) (i) and (iii) are true
c) Only (i)
4. Which is true for neural networks?

a) It has set of nodes and connections
b) Each node computes it’s weighted input
c) Node could be in excited state or non-excited state
5. Why is the XOR problem exceptionally interesting to neural network researchers?

a) Because it can be expressed in a way that allows you to use a neural network
b) Because it is complex binary operation that cannot be solved using neural networks
c) Because it can be solved by a single layer perceptron
d) Because it is the simplest linearly inseparable problem that exists.
6. What is back propagation?

a) It is another name given to the curvy function in the perceptron
b) It is the transmission of error back through the network to adjust the inputs
c) It is the transmission of error back through the network to allow weights to be adjusted
so that the network can learn.
7. A perceptron adds up all the weighted inputs it receives, and if it exceeds a certain value,
it outputs a 1, otherwise it just outputs a 0.
a) True
b) False
c) Sometimes – it can also output intermediate values as well
d) Can’t say
8. The network that involves backward links from output to the input and hidden layers is
called as ---------.
a) Self organizing maps
b) Perceptrons
c) Recurrent neural network
d) Multi layered perceptron
9. Which of the following is an application of NN (Neural Network)?

a) Sales forecasting
b) Data validation
c) Risk management
10. A rule-based system generally represents which one of the following statement..
a) If
b) If-Then
c) If-Else
d) Iff
11. Two basic types of rule based systems are,

1. -----------
2. -----------
a) Forward chaining, backward chaining
b) Reduction to propositional logic, Apply modus ponen
c) Apply modus ponen, Manipulate rules directly
d) Convert every rule to Horn Clause, Reduction to propositional logic
12. Artificial intelligence is

a) It uses machine-learning techniques. Here program can learn From past experience and
adapt themselves to new situations
b) Computational procedure that takes some value as input and produces some value as
output.
c) Science of making machines performs tasks that would require intelligence when
performed by humans
d) None of these
13. Input segments of AI programming contains…

a) Sound and smell
b) Touch
c) Sight and taste
d) All of the above
14. Output segments of AI programming contains?

a) Printed language and synthesized
b) Manipulation of physical object
c) Locomotion
d) All of above
15. Forward chaining systems are ----------, where as backward chaining systems are ---------.
a) Goal-driven, goal-driven
b) Goal-driven, data-driven
c) Data-driven, goal-driven
d) Data-driven, data-driven
16. The turing machine showed that you could use a/an ..............system to program any algorithmic
task ?
a) Binary
b) Electrochemical
c) Recursive
d) Semantic
17. The characteristics of the computer system capable of thinking,reasoning and learning is
called ?
a) Machine intelligence
b) Human intelligence
c) Artificial intelligence
d) Virtual intelligence
18. Semantic Networks is

a) A way of representing knowledge
b) Data Structure
c) Data Type
19. Graph used to represent semantic network is,

a) Undirected graph
b) Directed graph
c) Directed Acyclic graph (DAG)
d) a or b
20. A.M Turing developed a technique for determining whether a computer could or could
not demonstrate the artificial intelligence. Presently this technique is called ?
a) Turing test
b) Algorithm
c) Boolean algebra
d) Logarithm
21. What is the term used for describing the judgmental or commonsense part of problem
solving?
a) Heuristic
b) Critical
c) Value based
d) Analytical
22. Weak AI is
a) the embodiment of human intellectual capabilities within a computer.
b) a set of computer programs that produce output that would be considered to reflect
intelligence if it were generated by humans.
c) the study of mental faculties through the use of mental models implemented on a
computer.
d) All of the above
23. What among the following constitutes to the representation of the knowledge in different
forms?
a) Relational method where each fact is set out systematically in columns
b) Using Frames
c) Inferential knowledge
d) Semantic Networks
e) All above
24. Strong Artificial Intelligence is

computer.
25. A.M. turing developed a technique for determining whether a computer could or could
not demonstrate the artificial Intelligence, Presently, this technique is called
a) Turing Test
b) Algorithm
c) Boolean Algebra
d) Logarithm
26. Which of the following, is a component of an expert system?

a) inference engine
b) knowledge base
c) user interface
27. One method of programming a computer to exhibit human intelligence is called modeling
or:
a) simulation
b) cognitization
c) duplication
d) psychic amelioration
28. Machine learning is

a) The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer programs
b) The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of manual programs
e) The selective acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer programs
d) The selective acquisition of knowledge through the use of manual programs
e) None of the mentioned
29. Factors which affect the performance of learner system does not include
a) Representation scheme used
b) Training scenario
e) Type of feedback
d) Good data structures
e) Learning algorithm
30. Perception involves

a) Sights, sounds, smell and touch
b) Hitting
e) Boxing
d) Dancing
e) Acting
31. How the new states are generated in genetic algorithm?

a) Composition
b) Mutation
c) Cross-over
d) Both b & c
32. Though local search algorithms are not systematic, key advantages would include
a) Less memory
b) More time
c) Finds a solution in large infinite space
d) a & c
33. An optimal algorithm finds a…

a) Global minimum
b) Global maximum
c) a or b
d) None
34. Hill-Climbing algorithm terminates when,
a) Stopping criterion met
b) Global Min/Max is achieved
c) No neighbor has higher value
d) Local Min/Max is achieved
e) c & d
35. Hill climbing sometimes called ------------- because it grabs a good neighbor state without
thinking ahead about where to go next.
a) Needy local search
b) Heuristic local search
c) Greedy local search
d) Optimal local search
36. Hill-Climbing approach stuck for the following reasons

a) Local maxima
b) Ridges
c) Plateaux
d) All of above
37. Where does the bayes rule can be used?

a) Solving queries
b) Increasing complexity
c) Decreasing complexity
d) Answering probabilistic query
38. What does the Bayesian network provides?

a) Complete description of the domain
b) Partial description of the domain
c) Complete description of the problem
39. From which rule does the modus ponens are derived?
a) Inference rule
b) Module rule
c) Both a & b
40. The field that investigates the mechanics of human intelligence is:
a) history
b) cognitive science
c) psychology
d) sociology
41. Natural language processing is divided into the two subfields of:
a) symbolic and numeric
b) time and motion
c) algorithmic and heuristic
d) understanding and generation
42. Which of the following have people traditionally done better than computers?
a) recognizing relative importance
b) finding similarities
c) resolving ambiguity
43. Weak Artificial intelligence is?

a) The embodiment of human intellectual capabilities within a computer
b) A set of computer programs that produce output that would be consider to reflect
intelligence if it
c) The study of mental faculties using mental models implemented on a computer.
44. Input segments of AI programming contain?

a) Sound and smell
b) Touch
c) Sight and taste
45. Output segments of AI programming contain?

c) Locomotion
46. What is a Cybernetics?

a) Study of communication between two machines
b) Study of communication between human and machine
c) Study of communication between two humans
d) Study of Boolean values
e) Study of communication between logic circuits
47. What is the goal of artificial intelligence?

e) To restrict problems
48. Which is true regarding BFS (Breadth First Search)?

e) BFS is one type of sorting
49. What is a heuristic function?

b) A function which takes parameters of type string and returns an integer value
d) A function which returns an object
e) A function that maps from problem state descriptions to measures of desirability
50. What kind of perception is used in printing?

a) Optical character recognition
b) Speech recognition
c) Perception
51. What is the name for information sent from robot sensors to robot controllers?
a) temperature
b) pressure
c) feedback
d) signal
e) output
52. The first AI programming language was called:

a) BASIC
b) FORTRAN
c) IPL(Inductive logic programming)
d) LISP
a) history
c) psychology
d) sociology
54. -----------------reasoning is based on forming, or inducing a ‘generalization’ from a limited set of

observations
a) Deductive
b) Abductive
c) Analogical
d) Inductive
55. ------------- is the process of deriving logical conclusions from given facts
a) Representation
b) Execution
c) Reasoning
d) Planning
56. Identify the correct step used to start designe of an expert system
a) Feasiblity study
b) Problem recognization
c) Scope study
d) Rapid prototyping
57. If the antecedent is only partially true, then the output fuzzy set is truncated according to the ---
--------- method
a) Intrinsic
b) Implication
c) Boolean
d) None of the given
58. Choose the fields in which Fuzzy inference systems have been successfully applied
a) automatic control
b) data classification
c) decision analysis
d) All of the given
59. Usually a ----------- graph is chosen to represent a fuzzy set

a) Triangular
b) Circular
c) Conical
60. What is the name of the computer program that simulates the thought processes of human
beings?
a) Human logic
b) Expert reason
c) Expert system
d) Personal information
61. MSE stands for ---------------

a) Mean Square Error
b) Mean Standard Error
c) Mean Square Entry
62. IF name is "Bob" AND weather is cold THEN tell Bob "Wear a coat" The above rule is an example
of --------------
a) Recommendation Rule
b) Directive Rule
c) Relation Rule
d) None of the given options
63. Which of the following is a valid example which represents a suitable antecedent in a rule?
a) IF x > 3
b) IF name is “Bob”
c) IF weather is cold
d) All of the given options
64. IF A THEN B This can be considered to have a similar logical meaning as the following
a) A -> B
b) A <-> B
c) A <- B
65. A rule, which takes a set of inputs and gives advice as a result, is called
b) Directive Rule
c) Relation Rule
66. In the statement “IF A THEN B”, B is called

a) Antecedent
b) Consequent
67. Using deduction to reach a conclusion from a set of antecedents is called

a) Forward chaining
b) Backward chaining
68. Measure of the effectiveness of an attribute in classifying the training data is called
a) Information Gain
b) Measure Gain
c) Information Goal
69. Which one is NOT the advantage of Neural Network

a) Excellent for pattern recognition
b) Excellent classifiers
c) Handles noisy data well
70. The entropy is 1 when the collection contains number of positive example --------to/than
negative example
a) Equal
b) Greater
c) Less
d) None of given
71. The multilayer perceptions are the most basic artificial neural
a) Network
b) Layers
c) Icon
d) None of given
72. A computer program that contains expertise in a particular domain is called an:
a)intelligent planner
b)automatic processor
c)expert system
d)operational symbolizer
73. Backpropagation is used with..

(a) expert systems
(b) theoremproving
(c) neural nets
(d) Markov chains
(e) none of these
74. Which one is NOT the phase of machine learning

a) Training
b) Application
c) Validation None of the given
75. In training a neural net, weights of connections are changed in response to

(a) agent judgment
(b) Bayesian formulas
(c) predicate-logic expression values
(d) errors detected inoutput units
(e) correct outputs
76. In GA, the random process is repeated until an individual with required ------- level is
found
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Fitness
d) Logical
77. Neurons in hidden layers are those

(a) protected from firing
(b) with external inputs and outputs
(c) with external inputsbut no external outputs
(d) with external outputs but noexternal inputs
(e) without external inputs or outputs
78. Artificial Neural Networks is a new learning paradigm which takes its roots from -------
inspired approach to learning
a) Chemistry
b) Physics
c) Biology
d) Mathematics
79. Neural nets learn by…

(a) abduction
(b) symbolic methods
(c) Bayesian inference
(d) adjusting weights of synapses
(e) computing rewards
80. Perceptron learning adjusts….

(a) a knowledge base
(b) inference rules
(c) probability estimates
(d) synapseweights
(e) transitions
81. Graphs represent…. problems and their solution spaces

a) Problems
b) Solutions
c) a & b
d) None of the above
82. Graph can be converted into

a) Tree
b) Path
c) Semantic net
d) Relation
83. Breadth-first search is a good idea when you are confident that the branching factor is
a) Extremely
b) Small
c) Medium
d) Large
84. In Basic Genetic Algorithm the term mutation refers to a small random
a) Number
b) Change
c) Operator
d) Operand
85. An ----------- is “A computer program designed to model the problem solving ability of a
human expert."
a) Expert system
b) Intelligent System
c) Echo System
d) Energy System
86. An expert system may ……

a) replace the expert
b) assist the expert
c) a & b
d) None
87. In Artificial Intelligence GA stands for..

a) Genetic Algorithm
b) Graph Algorithm
c) Graph Approach
d) None
88. A database of rules is also called knowledge base

a) Schema
b) Knowledge Base
c) Inference
d) None
89. In optimal path searches we try to find the -------- solution

a) Worst
b) Least
c) Least but not worst
d) Best
90. The High level language ..…. has now become the dominant AI programming language.
a) Ada
b) Lisp
b) AI pro
d) High AI
91. In AI, a representation of ….… is a combination of data structures and interpretive

procedures that is used in the right way in a program.
a) Knowledge
b) Power
c) Strength
d) Intelligence
92. …….. is an environment in which the search takes place.

a) problem place
b) problem instance
c) problem space
d) Non of the above
93. Which is not the commonly used programming language for AI?
(a) PROLOG
(b) Java
(c) LISP
(d) Perl
(e) Java script.
a) temperature
b) pressure
c) feedback
d) signal
e) output
95. Which provides agents with information about the world they inhabit?
a) Sense
b) Perception
c) Reading
d) Hearing
96. What is used to initiate the perception in the environment?

a) Sensor
b) Read
c) Actuators
97. How to increase the brightness of the pixel?

a) Sound
b) Amount of light
c) Surface
d) Waves
98. What is the process of breaking an image into groups?

a) Edge detection
b) Smoothing
c) Segmentation
99. What is defined by set of strings?

a) Signs
b) Formal language
c) Communication
100. What is a finite set of rules that specifies a language?

a) Signs
b) Communication
c) Grammar
d) Phrase
Answers
1. a 20. a 39. a
2. b 21. a 40. b
3. d 22. c 41. d
4. d 23. e 42. d
5. d 24. a 43. c
6. c 25. a 44. d
7. a 26. d 45. d
8. c 27. a 46. b
9. d 28. a 47. c
10. b 29. d 48. b
11. a 30. a 49. e
12. c 31. d 50. a
13. d 32. d 51. c
14. d 33. a 52. d
15. c 34. e 53. b
16. a 35. c 54. d
17. c 36. d 55. c
18. a 37. d 56. a
19. d 38. a 57. b

58. d 73. c 88. b
59. a 74. d 89. d
60. c 75. d 90. b
61. a 76. c 91. a
62. b 77. b 92. c
63. d 78. c 93. d
64. a 79. d 94. c
65. b 80. d 95. b
66. b 81. c 96. a
67. a 82. a 97. b
68. a 83. b 98. c
69. d 84. b 99. b
70. a 85. a 100. c
71. a 86. c
72. c 87. a
ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE
1. A perceptron is:


c) Only (i)



c) It is the transmission of error back through the network to allow weights to be adjusted
so that the network can learn.
7. A perceptron adds up all the weighted inputs it receives, and if it exceeds a certain value,
it outputs a 1, otherwise it just outputs a 0.
a) True
b) False
d) Can’t say
b) Perceptrons

b) Data validation
c) Risk management
a) If
b) If-Then
c) If-Else
d) Iff
11. Two basic types of rule based systems are,

1. -----------
2. -----------
a) Forward chaining, backward chaining
b) Reduction to propositional logic, Apply modus ponen
c) Apply modus ponen, Manipulate rules directly
d) Convert every rule to Horn Clause, Reduction to propositional logic
12. Artificial intelligence is

a) It uses machine-learning techniques. Here program can learn From past experience and
adapt themselves to new situations
b) Computational procedure that takes some value as input and produces some value as
output.
c) Science of making machines performs tasks that would require intelligence when
performed by humans
d) None of these
13. Input segments of AI programming contains…

a) Sound and smell
b) Touch
c) Sight and taste
d) All of the above
14. Output segments of AI programming contains?

c) Locomotion
d) All of above
15. Forward chaining systems are ----------, where as backward chaining systems are ---------.
a) Goal-driven, goal-driven
b) Goal-driven, data-driven
c) Data-driven, goal-driven
d) Data-driven, data-driven
16. The turing machine showed that you could use a/an ..............system to program any algorithmic
task ?
a) Binary
b) Electrochemical
c) Recursive
d) Semantic
17. The characteristics of the computer system capable of thinking,reasoning and learning is
called ?
a) Machine intelligence
b) Human intelligence
c) Artificial intelligence
d) Virtual intelligence
18. Semantic Networks is

a) A way of representing knowledge
b) Data Structure
c) Data Type
19. Graph used to represent semantic network is,

a) Undirected graph
b) Directed graph
c) Directed Acyclic graph (DAG)
d) a or b
20. A.M Turing developed a technique for determining whether a computer could or could
not demonstrate the artificial intelligence. Presently this technique is called ?
a) Turing test
b) Algorithm
c) Boolean algebra
d) Logarithm
21. What is the term used for describing the judgmental or commonsense part of problem
solving?
a) Heuristic
b) Critical
c) Value based
d) Analytical
22. Weak AI is
computer.
d) All of the above
23. What among the following constitutes to the representation of the knowledge in different
forms?
a) Relational method where each fact is set out systematically in columns
b) Using Frames
c) Inferential knowledge
d) Semantic Networks
e) All above
24. Strong Artificial Intelligence is

computer.
25. A.M. turing developed a technique for determining whether a computer could or could
not demonstrate the artificial Intelligence, Presently, this technique is called
a) Turing Test
b) Algorithm
c) Boolean Algebra
d) Logarithm
26. Which of the following, is a component of an expert system?

a) inference engine
b) knowledge base
c) user interface
27. One method of programming a computer to exhibit human intelligence is called modeling
or:
a) simulation
b) cognitization
c) duplication
d) psychic amelioration

a) The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer programs
e) Type of feedback
e) Learning algorithm
30. Perception involves

a) Sights, sounds, smell and touch
b) Hitting
e) Boxing
d) Dancing
e) Acting
31. How the new states are generated in genetic algorithm?

a) Composition
b) Mutation
c) Cross-over
d) Both b & c
32. Though local search algorithms are not systematic, key advantages would include
a) Less memory
b) More time
c) Finds a solution in large infinite space
d) a & c
33. An optimal algorithm finds a…

a) Global minimum
b) Global maximum
c) a or b
d) None
34. Hill-Climbing algorithm terminates when,
a) Stopping criterion met
b) Global Min/Max is achieved
c) No neighbor has higher value
d) Local Min/Max is achieved
e) c & d
35. Hill climbing sometimes called ------------- because it grabs a good neighbor state without
thinking ahead about where to go next.
a) Needy local search
b) Heuristic local search
c) Greedy local search
d) Optimal local search
36. Hill-Climbing approach stuck for the following reasons

a) Local maxima
b) Ridges
c) Plateaux
d) All of above
37. Where does the bayes rule can be used?

a) Solving queries
b) Increasing complexity
c) Decreasing complexity
d) Answering probabilistic query
38. What does the Bayesian network provides?

a) Complete description of the domain
b) Partial description of the domain
c) Complete description of the problem
39. From which rule does the modus ponens are derived?
a) Inference rule
b) Module rule
c) Both a & b
a) history
c) psychology
d) sociology
41. Natural language processing is divided into the two subfields of:
a) symbolic and numeric
b) time and motion
c) algorithmic and heuristic
d) understanding and generation
42. Which of the following have people traditionally done better than computers?
a) recognizing relative importance
b) finding similarities
c) resolving ambiguity
43. Weak Artificial intelligence is?

a) The embodiment of human intellectual capabilities within a computer
b) A set of computer programs that produce output that would be consider to reflect
intelligence if it
c) The study of mental faculties using mental models implemented on a computer.
44. Input segments of AI programming contain?

a) Sound and smell
b) Touch
c) Sight and taste
45. Output segments of AI programming contain?

c) Locomotion
46. What is a Cybernetics?

a) Study of communication between two machines
b) Study of communication between human and machine
c) Study of communication between two humans
d) Study of Boolean values
e) Study of communication between logic circuits
47. What is the goal of artificial intelligence?

e) To restrict problems
48. Which is true regarding BFS (Breadth First Search)?

e) BFS is one type of sorting
49. What is a heuristic function?

b) A function which takes parameters of type string and returns an integer value
d) A function which returns an object
e) A function that maps from problem state descriptions to measures of desirability
50. What kind of perception is used in printing?

a) Optical character recognition
b) Speech recognition
c) Perception
a) temperature
b) pressure
c) feedback
d) signal
e) output
52. The first AI programming language was called:

a) BASIC
b) FORTRAN
c) IPL(Inductive logic programming)
d) LISP
a) history
c) psychology
d) sociology
54. -----------------reasoning is based on forming, or inducing a ‘generalization’ from a limited set of

observations
a) Deductive
b) Abductive
c) Analogical
d) Inductive
55. ------------- is the process of deriving logical conclusions from given facts
a) Representation
b) Execution
c) Reasoning
d) Planning
56. Identify the correct step used to start designe of an expert system
a) Feasiblity study
b) Problem recognization
c) Scope study
d) Rapid prototyping
57. If the antecedent is only partially true, then the output fuzzy set is truncated according to the ---
--------- method
a) Intrinsic
b) Implication
c) Boolean
58. Choose the fields in which Fuzzy inference systems have been successfully applied
a) automatic control
b) data classification
c) decision analysis
d) All of the given
59. Usually a ----------- graph is chosen to represent a fuzzy set

a) Triangular
b) Circular
c) Conical
60. What is the name of the computer program that simulates the thought processes of human
beings?
a) Human logic
b) Expert reason
c) Expert system
d) Personal information
61. MSE stands for ---------------

a) Mean Square Error
b) Mean Standard Error
c) Mean Square Entry
62. IF name is "Bob" AND weather is cold THEN tell Bob "Wear a coat" The above rule is an example
of --------------
b) Directive Rule
c) Relation Rule
63. Which of the following is a valid example which represents a suitable antecedent in a rule?
a) IF x > 3
b) IF name is “Bob”
c) IF weather is cold
d) All of the given options
64. IF A THEN B This can be considered to have a similar logical meaning as the following
a) A -> B
b) A <-> B
c) A <- B
65. A rule, which takes a set of inputs and gives advice as a result, is called
b) Directive Rule
c) Relation Rule
66. In the statement “IF A THEN B”, B is called

a) Antecedent
b) Consequent
67. Using deduction to reach a conclusion from a set of antecedents is called

a) Forward chaining
b) Backward chaining
68. Measure of the effectiveness of an attribute in classifying the training data is called
a) Information Gain
b) Measure Gain
c) Information Goal
69. Which one is NOT the advantage of Neural Network

a) Excellent for pattern recognition
b) Excellent classifiers
c) Handles noisy data well
70. The entropy is 1 when the collection contains number of positive example --------to/than
negative example
a) Equal
b) Greater
c) Less
d) None of given
71. The multilayer perceptions are the most basic artificial neural
a) Network
b) Layers
c) Icon
d) None of given
72. A computer program that contains expertise in a particular domain is called an:
a)intelligent planner
b)automatic processor
c)expert system
d)operational symbolizer
73. Backpropagation is used with..

(a) expert systems
(b) theoremproving
(c) neural nets
(d) Markov chains
(e) none of these
74. Which one is NOT the phase of machine learning

a) Training
b) Application
c) Validation None of the given
75. In training a neural net, weights of connections are changed in response to

(a) agent judgment
(b) Bayesian formulas
(c) predicate-logic expression values
(d) errors detected inoutput units
(e) correct outputs
76. In GA, the random process is repeated until an individual with required ------- level is
found
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Fitness
d) Logical
77. Neurons in hidden layers are those

(a) protected from firing
(b) with external inputs and outputs
(c) with external inputsbut no external outputs
(d) with external outputs but noexternal inputs
(e) without external inputs or outputs
78. Artificial Neural Networks is a new learning paradigm which takes its roots from -------
inspired approach to learning
a) Chemistry
b) Physics
c) Biology
d) Mathematics
79. Neural nets learn by…

(a) abduction
(b) symbolic methods
(c) Bayesian inference
(d) adjusting weights of synapses
(e) computing rewards
80. Perceptron learning adjusts….

(a) a knowledge base
(b) inference rules
(c) probability estimates
(d) synapseweights
(e) transitions
81. Graphs represent…. problems and their solution spaces

a) Problems
b) Solutions
c) a & b
d) None of the above
82. Graph can be converted into

a) Tree
b) Path
c) Semantic net
d) Relation
83. Breadth-first search is a good idea when you are confident that the branching factor is
a) Extremely
b) Small
c) Medium
d) Large
84. In Basic Genetic Algorithm the term mutation refers to a small random
a) Number
b) Change
c) Operator
d) Operand
85. An ----------- is “A computer program designed to model the problem solving ability of a
human expert."
a) Expert system
b) Intelligent System
c) Echo System
d) Energy System
86. An expert system may ……

a) replace the expert
b) assist the expert
c) a & b
d) None
87. In Artificial Intelligence GA stands for..

a) Genetic Algorithm
b) Graph Algorithm
c) Graph Approach
d) None
88. A database of rules is also called knowledge base

a) Schema
b) Knowledge Base
c) Inference
d) None
89. In optimal path searches we try to find the -------- solution

a) Worst
b) Least
c) Least but not worst
d) Best
90. The High level language ..…. has now become the dominant AI programming language.
a) Ada
b) Lisp
b) AI pro
d) High AI
91. In AI, a representation of ….… is a combination of data structures and interpretive

procedures that is used in the right way in a program.
a) Knowledge
b) Power
c) Strength
d) Intelligence
92. …….. is an environment in which the search takes place.

a) problem place
b) problem instance
c) problem space
d) Non of the above
93. Which is not the commonly used programming language for AI?
(a) PROLOG
(b) Java
(c) LISP
(d) Perl
(e) Java script.
a) temperature
b) pressure
c) feedback
d) signal
e) output
95. Which provides agents with information about the world they inhabit?
a) Sense
b) Perception
c) Reading
d) Hearing
96. What is used to initiate the perception in the environment?

a) Sensor
b) Read
c) Actuators
97. How to increase the brightness of the pixel?

a) Sound
b) Amount of light
c) Surface
d) Waves
98. What is the process of breaking an image into groups?

a) Edge detection
b) Smoothing
c) Segmentation
99. What is defined by set of strings?

a) Signs
b) Formal language
c) Communication
100. What is a finite set of rules that specifies a language?

a) Signs
b) Communication
c) Grammar
d) Phrase
Answers
1. a 20. a 39. a
2. b 21. a 40. b
3. d 22. c 41. d
4. d 23. e 42. d
5. d 24. a 43. c
6. c 25. a 44. d
7. a 26. d 45. d
8. c 27. a 46. b
9. d 28. a 47. c
10. b 29. d 48. b
11. a 30. a 49. e
12. c 31. d 50. a
13. d 32. d 51. c
14. d 33. a 52. d
15. c 34. e 53. b
16. a 35. c 54. d
17. c 36. d 55. c
18. a 37. d 56. a
19. d 38. a 57. b

58. d 73. c 88. b
59. a 74. d 89. d
60. c 75. d 90. b
61. a 76. c 91. a
62. b 77. b 92. c
63. d 78. c 93. d
64. a 79. d 94. c
65. b 80. d 95. b
66. b 81. c 96. a
67. a 82. a 97. b
68. a 83. b 98. c
69. d 84. b 99. b
70. a 85. a 100. c
71. a 86. c
72. c 87. a
Introduction to Programming
1) Program development process has ----------------stages
a) 5 b) 6 c) 4 d) None
2) When program is finalized its ---------------------is prepared
a) documentation b) implementation c) algorithm d) None
3) ---------------example of procedural language
a) C b) C++ c) SQL d) None
4) The ----------------------------are used in programs to increase readability
a) token b) variable c) white spaces d) None
5) Which symbol is used to represent the OR operator in C++?
a) * b) || c) && d) None
6) The maximum range of an integer variable is ---------------------
a) 32768 b) 32776 c) 32778 d) None
7) Symbolic constant can be declared in -------------ways
a) 3 b) 0 c) 1 d) None
8) In if statement, true is represented by
a) 0 b) 1 c) 3 d) None
9) Which of the following is a correct identifier in C++?
a) 7maketea b) int c) VAR_a1234 d) $var_name
10) Which of the following is called address operator?
a) * b) % c) _ d) &
11) Which of the following escape sequence represents tab?
a) \t b) \r c) \b d) \a
12) Who created C++
a) Ken Thompson b) Bjarne Stroustrup c) Dennis Ritchie d) None
13) Which of the following correctly declares an array?
a) int array; b) int array[10]; c) array{10}; d) None
14) Which of the following gives the memory address of the first element in array?
a) array[1]; b) array[3]; c) array(0); d) array[0];
15) The data elements in the structure are also known as ?
a) objects b) members c) data d) None
16) The contents of a variable can be
a) fix b) permanent c) changed d) None
17) From where the execution of the program starts in C++?
a) Headers b) main function c) header files d) None
18) How many objects can present in a single class?
a) 1 b) 2 c) as many as possible d) 3
19) How many types of returning values from function are present in c++?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 3
20) Object is a collection of functions and
a) properties b) methods c) class d) None
21) Which operator is used to declare the destructor?
a) # b) & c) $ d) ~
22) The switch statement is also called as?
a) choosing structure b) selective structure c) certain structure d) None
23) The destination statement for the goto label is identified by what label?
a) : b) * c) @ d) &
24) The maximum range of a character variable is ---------------------
a) -128 b) 0 c) 127 d) None
25) Which of the following is used to terminate the function declaration?
a) : b) ; c) :: d) None
26) How many minimum number of functions are need to be presented in C++?
a) 0 b) 2 c) 1 d) None
27) How many specifiers are present in access specifiers in class?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) None
28) Which is used to define the member of a class externally?
a) :: b) : c) # d) None
29) An expression consists of
a) operators b) operand c) both a &b d) None
30) What is the result of given expression: 11*3-35/(11%4)
a) 20 b) 22 c) 29 d) None
31) How many variables can be used in one cout object?
a) one b) two c) many d) None
32) Which of following symbol is used for AND operator?
a) || b) ! c) & d) None
33) All of the following are logical operators except
a) = b) && c) ! d) ||
34) The do while loop is this type of loop
a) pre-test b) post-test c) infinite d) None
35) Which of following loop is called counter loop?
a) for b) if c) do-while d) None
36) Which of the following is not a simple data type?
a) int b) float c) char d) array
37) The index of first element of an array is always starts with
a) 2 b) 1 c) 0 d) None
38) How many elements are in the array? int a[5];
a) 5 b) 4 c) 0 d) None
39) Array is a collection of consecutive memory
a) values b) locations c) data types d) None
40) Before a structure can be used, it must be
a) declared b) initialized c) de-allocated d) None
41) How many ways, a function definition can be given in C++
a) 2 b) 1 c) 0 d) 3
42) The statement that activates the function is known as function
a) argument b) call c) definition d) None
43) Which one is not a valid variable example?
a) $sam_paro b) ohc c) hi_ccc d) file123
44) C++ class contains data members and
a) interfaces b) methods c) clients d) None
45) Which of the class’s members are available to anyone
a) private b) protected c) public d) None
46) Constructor function’s return type is
a) int b) char c) float d) None
47) Which is an example of invalid variable in C++?
a) pukhsam b) float c) big_face d) None
48) Another name for base class is
a) sub class b) derived class c) parent class d) None
49) The inheritance relationship between classes of a program is called a class
a) hierarchy b) inheritance c) base d) None
50) Which one is a type of constant in C++
a) variable b) uaf c) int d) literal
51) Which of the following has no return type in C++
a) void b) int c) float d) None
52) The cout object is used with which operator?
a) >> b) :: c) << d) None
53) The output of given line in C++ will be: int a=5; a+=5; cout<<”a”;
a) a b) 5 c) 10 d) None
54) How many variables can be used in one cin object?
a) one b) two c) as many as possible d) None
55) Single line comments can be given in C++ with
a) /* b) // c) / d) None
56) In C++, variable may include letters, numbers and
a) keywords b) data type c) underscore d) None
Answer Key
1) a 2) a 3) a 4) c 5) b 6) d 7) d
8) b 9) c 10) d 11) a 12) b 13) b 14) d
15) b 16) c 17) b 18) c 19) d 20) a 21) d
22) b 23) a 24) c 25) b 26) c 27) d 28) a
29) c 30) b 31) c 32) d 33) a 34) b 35) a
36) d 37) c 38) a 39) b 40) a 41) d 42) b
43) a 44) b 45) c 46) d 47) b 48) c 49) a
50) d 51) a 52) c 53) a 54) c 55) b 56) c
UNIVERSITY OF AGRICULTURE, FAISALABAD
Department of Computer Science
CS-631 3(2-1) Compiler Theory
Q1. Which code is known as machine code that is processed or executed by the processor?
a. Source code
b. Object code
c. MISL code
d Byte code
Q2. Low level language is also called as
a. Machine language
b. Binary language
c. A and B are same
d High level languages
Q3. Which programming language use symbolic codes called MNEMONICS for developing
the program?
a. Machine language
b. Low level language
c. High level language
d Assembly language
Q4.
Which programming language uses constraint rather than algorithm?
a. SQL
b. C++
c. Assembly
d PROLOG
Q5. Which program allows text to be entered and changed?
a. Editor
b. Translator
c. Compiler
d Interpreter
Q6. Which program is known as translator , which read the whole code written in high level
language at once and then convert it into machine language?
a. Editor
b. Linker
c. Compiler
d Interpreter
Q7. Which is a translator program, which read the code written in high level language line by
line convert it into machine language?
a. Linker
b. Editor
c. Compiler
d Interpreter
Q8. Which program combine two or more object modules into a single object module or into
an executable file?
a. Linker
b. Interpreter
c. Assembler
D Compiler
Q9. Which program is also called as loader?
a. Interpreter
b. Linker
c. Javac
d Compiler
Q10. A __________ is responsible for the task of collecting different modules of a skeletal
source program.
a. Linker
b. Loader
c. Preprocessor
d Processor
Q11. Which code have extension "O" in unix system?
a. Source code
b. C language program
c. Object code
d Binary code
Q12. Machine language belong to __________ generation of computer language.
a. First
b. Third
c. Fourth
d Fifth
Q13. Which program is used to translates from low level language to higher one?
a. Parse generator
b. De compiler
c. Cross compiler
d Scanner
Q14. __________ refer to program that translate machine code to corresponding assembly
code.
a. Parse generator
b. Scanner
c. Disassembler
d Cross compiler
Q15. Which compiler is used to convert high level code into machine level code?
a. General compiler
b. Cross compiler
c. Native code compiler
d JIT compiler
Q16. Which compiler is used to test new hardware platform?
a. Cross compiler
b. Native code compiler
c. Source to source compiler
d JIT compiler
Q17. Which compiler comes with the virtual machine and it is optional?
a. Cross compiler
b. Miltipass compiler
c. One pass compiler
d JIT compiler
Q18. Native code is also called __________.
a. C-code
b. O-code
c. P-code
D Byte-code
Q19. Which compiler is the compiler that passes through the source code of each compilation
unit only once?
a. One pass compiler
b. Narrow compiler
c. A and B is same
d Multipass compiler
Q20. Which compiler is faster?
a. Single pass
b. Multi pass
c. Narrow
d None
Q21. __________ accept the stream of character as input and produces stream of token as
output.
a. Parser
b. Lexical analyzer
c. Scanner
d B and C are same
Q22. The sequences of character that give rise to token are called __________.
a. Intermediate code
b. Stream
c. Lexemes
d Semantic
Q23. The syntactical analyzer is also called __________.
a. Lexemes
b. Parser
c. Lexical analyzer
d Scanner
Q24. What is refer to checking context dependent datatype?
a. Lexical analysis
b. Parser
c. Semantic analysis
d Syntactical analysis
Q25. What is responsible to produce faster and smaller object program by performing some
improvements over intermediate code?
a. Intermediate code generator
b. Code generator
c. Interpreter
d Code optimizer
Q26. What is responsible for generation of final machine code tailored to target system?
a. Interpreter
b. Semantic analyzer
c. Code generator
d Code optimizer
Q27. Which programming language use compiler as well as interpreter to produce output?
a. C language
b. C++
c. COBOL
d Java
Q28. Which data structure is used for book keeping?
a. Lookup table
b. Symbol table
c. Inode table
d Tree
Q29. Which tool is used to construct compiler?
a. Compiler – Compiler
b. Compiler - generator
c. NELIAC
d Both a and b
Q30. __________ is used to construct compiler.
a. Context free grammer
b. Pragmas
c. Significant Comments
d Lexical analyzer
Q31. In ADA programming language compiler directives are called __________.
a. Pregmas
b. Preprocessor directives
c. Linker
d Loader
Q32. Bootstrapping technique is also called as __________.
a. Parser
b. Self – hosting
c. NELIAC
d None of these
Q33. The process of modifying an existing compiler to work on a new machine is often known
as __________.
a. Boot starp
b. Translation
c. Porting
d Transformation
Q34. Which program is used collect statistics on the behavior of an object program during
execution?
a. Profilers
b. Debugger
c. Loader
d Preprocessor
Q35. The lexical analyzer produce tokens, which are stored in a buffer until they are consumed
by the __________.
a. Linker
b. Loader
c. Parser
d Preprocessor
Q36. What is called lexical analysis?
a. Parallel analysis
b. Linear analysis
c. Parser
d Token
Q37. __________ expressions are widely used to specify lexical pattern.
a. Regular
b. Mathematical
c. String
d Prefix
Q38. Which operation is used for searching a lexical entry in the symbol table?
a. Insert
b. Lookup
c. Select
d Scanner
Q39. The additional information along with a token is called its __________.
a. Lexeme
b. Keyword
c. Attributes
d Subset
Q40. A lexical analyzer filter out __________ and __________.
a. Comment, Keyword
b. Whitespace, Comment
c. Character, Number
d Operator, oprand
Q41. Token refer to a set of __________.
a. String
b. Keyword
c. Pattern
d Lexeme
Q42. Which kind of relationship exists between lexical analyzer and parser?
a. Producer- Consumer
b. Teacher- student
c. Has- a
d Association
Q43. What is sequence of characters that gives rise to token?
a. Keyword
b. Word
c. Pattern
d Lexeme
Q44. Lexer is implemented as a __________, which in turn is called by the parser.
a. Lexical analyzer
b. Function
c. Processor
d Scanner
Q45. A __________ is finite sequence of symbol.
a. String
b. Word
c. Both a and b
d Language
Q46. An alphabet is a __________ set of symbol.
a. Finite
b. Infinite
c. Large
d None
Q47. How many type of formal language according to Noam Chomsky?
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d Five
Q48. The process of discovering a handle and reducing it to the appropriate left hand side is
called __________.
a. Handle
b. Handle pruning
c. Bottom parsing
d Handle parsing
Q49. Which is parse generator?
a. Yacc
b. Visual parse++
c. Grammatica
d All of the above
Q50. The following grammar
G = (N, T, P, S)
N = {S, A, B}
T = {a, b, c}
P : S ? aSa
S ? aAa
A ? bB
B ? bB
B ? c is
a. is type 3
b. Is type 2 but not type 3
c. Is type 1 but not type 2
d Is type 0 but not type 1
G = (N, T, P, S)
N = {S, A, B, C, D, E}
T = {a, b, c}
P : S ? aAB
AB ? CD
CD ? CE
C ? aC
C?b
bE ? bc is
a. Is type 3
G = (N, T, P, S)
N = {S, A, B, C}
T = {a, b, c}
P : S ? aS
A ? bB
B ? cC
C ? a is
a. Is type 3
Q53 The following grammar
G = (N, T, P, S)
N = {S, A, B, C, D, E}
T = (a, b, c}
P : S ? ABCD
BCD ? DE
D ? aD
D?a
E ? bE
E ? c is
a. Is type 3
Q54. Consider the following CFG
S ? aB S ? bA
B?bA?a
B ? bS A ? aS
B ? aBB A ? bAA
Consider the following derivation

S ? aB
? aaBB
? aaBb
? aabSb
? aabbAb
? aabbab
This derivation is
a. A leftmost derivation
b. A rightmost derivation
c. Both a and b
d Neither a and b
Q55. Consider the following language
L = {anbncndn|n = 1}
L is
a. CFL but not regular

b. CSL but not CFL
c. Regular
d Type 0 language but not type 1
Answers:
1 b 11 c 21 d 31 a 41 a Q.51 C
2 c 12 a 22 c 32 b 42 a 52 A
3 d 13 b 23 b 33 c 43 d 53 D
4 d 14 c 24 c 34 a 44 b 54 D
5 a 15 a 25 d 35 c 45 c 55 B
6 c 16 a 26 c 36 b 46 a
7 d 17 d 27 d 37 a 47 c
8 a 18 c 28 b 38 b 48 b
9 b 19 c 29 d 39 c 49 d
10 c 20 a 30 a 40 b 50 b
DATA COMMUNICATION AND NETWORKING (MCQ’s)
1. Which of the following items is not used in Local Area Networks(LANs)?
A. Computer Modem B. Cable
C. Modem D. Interface card
2. Which of the following represents the fastest data transmission speed?

A. Gbps B. Kbps
C. Bps D. Bandwidth
3. A device that connects to a network without the use of cables is said to be

A. Open source B. Cabled
C. Distributed D. Wireless
4. WI–FI uses
A. Phase line B. Radio waves
C. Optic fiber D. Sound waves
5. Network components are connected to the same cable in the _______ topology.
A. Mesh B. Bus C. Star D. Ring
6. How many bits are there in the Ethernet address?

A. 16 bits B. 32 bits C. 48 bits D. 64 bits
7. Geometric arrangement of devices on the network is called.

A. Protocols B. Topology C. Trailer D. LAN
8. Which type of network would use phone lines?

A. Wireless B. WAN C. LAN D. WWAN
9. Which of the following is not a network device?

A. Router B. Modem C. Bridge D. Switch
10. Servers are other computer which provide resources to other computer connected by.
A. Super computer B. Mainframe C. Network D. Client
11. Which of the following refers to a small, single-site network?
A. RAM B. DSL C. USB D. PAN
12. Ethernet uses

A. Mesh topology B. Ring topology
C. Bus topology D. All of these
13. A device operating at the physical layer is called a

A. Bridge B. Router C. Repeater D. All of these
14. Which of the following is the fastest communication channel?

A. Micro wave B. Optical fiber
C. Radio wave D. None of the above
15. Encryption and decryption are the function of

A. Session layer B. Presentation layer
C. Transport layer D. None of the above
16. _______ is the most important/powerful computer in a typical network.

A. Desktop B. Network client
C. Network server D. Network station
17. In a ring topology, the computer in possession of the ______ can transmit data.
A. Data B. Packet C. Access method D. Token
18. How many layers are in the TCP/IP model?

A. 4 layers B. 5 layers C. 7 layers D. 8 layers
19. Which of the following topologies is not of broadcast type.

A. Bus B. Ring C. Star D. All of these
20. An alternate name for the completely interconnected network topology is

A. Mesh B. Star C. Tree D. Ring
21. What is the use of bridge in network?
A. To connect LAN’s B. To separate LAN’s
C. To control network speed D. None of these
22. What type of resource is most likely to be a shared common resource in a computer network?
A. Printers B. Speakers
C. Floppy disk drives D. Keyboards
23. Information can be represented as a sequence of

A. byte patterns B. characters
C. bit patterns D. images
24. Parameter that refers to recording and broadcasting of picture is

A. Text B. Audio C. Image D. Video
25. Both station can transmit and receive data simultaneously in

A. Simplex mode B. Half duplex mode
C. Full duplex mode D. None of Above`
26. Data communications are transfer of data through some

A. transmission medium B. linear medium
C. Network LAN D. Protocols
27. In OSI network architecture, the routing is performed by
A. Data link layer B. Network layer

C. Session layer D. Transport layer
28. Hub is associated with______ network.
A. Bus B. Star C. Ring D. Mesh
29. A combination of hardware and software that allows communication and electronic transfer
of information between computer is a
A. Network B. Server
C. Peripheral D. Backup system
30. LAN can use ________ architecture.

A. Client and server B. Peer–to–peer
C. Both a and b D. Neither A or B
31. P2P is a _______ application architecture.
A. 1–tier B. Network client
C. Client/server D. None of these
32. ________ is the transmission of data between two or more computers over communication
links.
A. Data communication B. Data networking
C. Networking D. Communication
33. Communication channel having ______ types.
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
34. LAN can use ________ architecture.

C. Both a and b D. Neither A or B
35. P2P is a _______ application architecture.

A. tier-1 B. Network client
C. Client/server D. None of these
36. ________ is the transmission of data between two or more computers over communication
links.
A. Data communication B. Data networking
C. Networking D. Communication
37. Keyboard and traditional monitors are examples of
A. Simplex devices B. Duplex devices
C. Half Duplex devices D. Full Duplex devices
38. Term that is used for physical path by which a message travels from sender to receiver is
A. Jitter B. Protocol
C. Transmission Medium D. Information
39. In star topology if central hub goes down, it effects
A. One node B. No node C. whole system D. whole network
40. Protocols are, set of rules to govern

A. Communication B. Standards
C. Metropolitan communication D. None of Above
41. Parameter that refers to uneven delay of data packets in delivery is

A. Jitter B. Timelessness
C. Accuracy D. Transmission medium
42. Mode in which each station can send and receive data but not at same time is called.
A. Half Duplex B. Simplex
C. Full Duplex D. Duplex
43. Maximum number of characters or symbols that can be represented by Unicode

A. 24 B. 26 C. 216 D. 232
44. In mesh topology, devices are connected via

A. Multipoint link B. Point to point link C. No Link D. None of the above
45. Performance, reliability and security are criteria of

A. Efficient network B. intranet
C. Ethernet D. None of Above
46. Effectiveness of a data communications system depends on four fundamental characteristics

A. delivery, accuracy B. timeliness and jitter
C. jitter and delivery D. both a and b
47. Hybrid network includes combination of

A. Nodes B. Devices C. topologies D. None of the above
48. Delivering data to correct destination is

A. Full Duplex B. Simplex C. Half Duplex D. None of the above
49. Telephone is an example of
A. Full Duplex B. Simplex C. Half Duplex D. None of the above
50. An internet is a
A. Collection of WANS B. Network of networks
C. collection of LANS D. Collection of identical LANS and WANS
51. When system delivers data accurately then it is called

A. Accuracy B. Delivery C. Jitter D. Timelessness
52. Mode that is like a two ways street with traffic flowing in both directions simultaneously is
A. Simplex B. Full Duplex
C. Half Duplex D. None of the above
53. Agreement between communicating devices are called

A. Data B. Message C. Protocol D. Transmission Medium
54. Five components that make up a data communications system are message, sender, receiver,
medium and
A. protocol B. Code C. connecting device D. both a and b
55. Two computers connected by an Ethernet hub are of

A. LAN topology B. MAN topology
C. WAN topology D. None of the above
ANSWERS
1 C 2 A 3 D 4 B 5 B
6 C 7 B 8 B 9 B 10 C
11 D 12 C 13 C 14 A 15 B
16 C 17 D 18 B 19 A 20 A
21 A 22 A 23 C 24 D 25 C
26 A 27 B 28 B 29 A 30 C
31 C 32 A 33 C 34 C 35 C
36 A 37 A 38 C 39 C 40 A
41 A 42 A 43 D 44 B 45 A
46 D 47 C 48 A 49 A 50 B
51 A 52 B 53 C 54 A 55 A
EXIT EXAMINATION
DATA STRUCTURES AND ALGORITHMS MCQS
1. The smallest element of an array's index is called its

A. lower bound
B. upper bound
C. range
D. extraction
2. The extra key inserted at the end of the array is called a,
A. End key.
B. Stop key.
C. Sentinel.
D. Transposition.
3. 3. The largest element of an array index is called its
A. lower bound
B. range
C. upper bound
D. All of these
4. Each array declaration need not give, implicitly or explicitly, the information about
A. the name of array
B. the data type of array
C. the first data from the set to be stored
D. the index set of the array
5. The elements of an array are stored successively in memory cells because
A. by this way computer can keep track only the address of the first element and the
addresses of other elements can be calculated
B. the architecture of computer memory does not allow arrays to store other than
serially
C. both of above
D. none of above
6. What does the following function do if S is an array used to implement a stack
float peep (float S[], int *t, int i)
{
float val;
if( (*t-i+1) > 0)
{
val = S[*t-i+1];
return val;
}
}
A. Returns the ith value from top of the stack
B. Returns the value at the top of the stack
C. It gives a compilation error
D. Returns the value at the ith postion of the array
7. You want to find the nth element of a set of numbers. If you store the numbers in
A. Finding the nth element is slower if it was stored in an array
B. Finding the nth element is faster if it was stored in an array
C. Finding the nth element takes the same amount of time across all data structures
D. Finding the nth element is slower if it was stored in a hash table
8. Arrays are best data structures
A. for relatively permanent collections of data
B. for the size of the structure and the data in the structure are constantly changing
C. for both of above situation
D. for none of above situation
9. Arrays are best data structures for
A. relatively permanent collections of data
B. the size of the structure and the data in the structure are constantly changing
C. both of above situation
D. none of above situation
10. Two dimensional arrays are also called
A. tables arrays
B. matrix arrays
C. both of the above
D. none of the above
11. What Member function places a new node at the end of the linked list?
A. addNode
B. append Node
C. DisplayNode
D. StructNode
E. None of these
12. How would you make the middle node of a doubly linked list to the top of the list?
Let assume "X" is the middle node
A. X->next->prev = x->prev x->prev->next = x->next x->next = head head->prev=x
B. x->next = head head->prev=x
C. X->next->prev=x->next x->prev->next = x->prev x->next = head head->prev=x
D. None of these
13. To create a linked list, we can allocate space and make something point to it, by writing:
struct-narne *pointer-variable;
Which of the following statement will correctly allocate the space
A. pointer-variable= malloc(sizeof(*struct-narne));
B. pointer-variable = malloc(sizeof(struct struct-name));
C. pointer-variable = a!loc(sizeof(struct struct-name));
D. pointer-variable = alloc(sizeof(*struct-name));
14. Assume single linked list pseudo code as follows?
struct Node {
data
next
}
record List {
Node firstNode
}
function1(List list) {
obsoleteNode = list.firstNode; list.firstNode = list.firstNode.next; free obsoleteNode;
}
function2(node node) {
obsoleteNode = node.next; node.next= node.next.next; free obsoleteNode;
}
function3(Node node,Node newNode) {
newNode.next = node.next;node.next= newNode
}
function4(List list, Node newNode) {
newNode.next = list.firstNode; list.firstNode = newNode;
}
A. function1 removes the first node
B. function2 removes node past this one
C. function3 inserts newNode after node
D. function4 inserts newNode after current first node
15. Which of the following can a Dynamic Link Library contain?
A. Only Code
B. Code and Data Only
C. Code and Resources only
D. Code, Data and Resources
16. Consider a linked list of n elements. What is the time taken to insert an element after an
element pointed by some pointer?
A. O(1)
B. O(log2 n)
C. O(n)
D. O(nlog2 n)
17. In a circular linked list
A. components are all linked together in some sequential manner
B. there is no beginning and no end
C. components are arranged hierarchically
D. forward and backward traversal within the list is permitted
18. In a linked list with n nodes, the time taken to insert an element after an element pointed
by some pointer is
A. O(1)
B. O(log n)
C. O(n)
D. O(n1og n)
19. Which of the following operations is performed more efficiently by doubly linked list
than by singly linked list?
A. Deleting a node whose location in given
B. Searching of an unsorted list for a given item
C. Inverting a node after the node with given location
D. Traversing a list to process each node
20. The time required to delete a node x from a doubly linked list having n nodes is
A. O(n)
B. O(log n)
C. O(1)
D. O(n log n)
21. How is Data in a queue accessed
A. First in First out
B. First in last out
C. Last in First out
D. None of these
22. Item in priority queue can jump to the front on the line if they have priority
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. None of these
23. The dequeue process removes data from the front of the single ended queue
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. None of these
24. Time taken for addition of element in queue is
A. O(1)
B. O(n)
C. O(log n)
D. None of these options
25. A linear list of elements in which deletion can be done from one end (front) and insertion
can take place only at the other end (rear) is known as a
A. queue
B. stack
C. tree
D. linked list
26. The data structure required for Breadth First Traversal on a graph is
A. queue
B. stack
C. array
D. tree
27. Let the following circular queue can accommodate maximum six elements with the
following data
front = 2 rear = 4
queue = _______; L, M, N, ___, ___
What will happen after ADD O operation takes place?
A. front = 2 rear = 5 queue = ______; L, M, N, O, ___
B. front = 3 rear = 5 queue = L, M, N, O, ___
C. front = 3 rear = 4 queue = ______; L, M, N, O, ___
D. front = 2 rear = 4 queue = L, M, N, O, ___
28. A queue is a,
A. FIFO (First In First Out) list.
B. LIFO (Last In First Out) list.
C. Ordered array.
D. Linear tree.
29. 9. 6, 8, 4, 3, and 1 are inserted into a data structure in that order. An item is deleted using
only a basic data structure operation. If the deleted item is a 1, the data structure cannot
be a ?
A. Queue
B. Tree
C. Stack
D. Hash Table
30. We need to implement a queue using a circular array. If DATA is a circular array of
CAPACITY elements, and rear is an index into that array, what will be the index for the
element after rear?
A. (rear + 1) % CAPACITY
B. rear + (1 % CAPACITY)
C. rear % (1 + CAPACITY)
D. (rear % 1) + CAPACITY
31. The five items: A,B,C,D and E are pushed in stack, one after the other starting from A.
The stack is Is popped four items and each element is inserted in a queue. Then two
elements are deleted from the queue and pushed back on the stack . Now one item is
popped from the stack. The popped item is:
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
32. Convert the infix to postfix for A-(B+C)*(D/E)
A. ABC+DE/*-
B. ABC-DE/*-
C. ABC-DE*/-
D. None of the above
33. What is the postfix form of the following prefix expression -A/B*C$DE
A. ABCDE$*/-
B. A-BCDE$*/-
C. ABC$ED*/-
D. A-BCDE$*/
34. The minimum number of multiplications and additions required to evaluate the
polynomial
P = 4x^3+3x^2-15x+45 is
A. 6&3
B. 4&2
C. 3&3
D. 8&3
35. The data structure required to evaluate a postfix expression is
A. queue
B. stack
C. array
D. linked-list
36. 6. The data structure required to check whether an expression contains balanced
parenthesis is
A. Stack
B. Queue
C. Tree
D. Array
37. The process of accessing data stored in a serial access memory is similar to manipulating
data on a
A. heap
B. queue
C. stack
D. binary tree
38. The postfix form of the expression is (A+B) * (C*D-E)*F/G is
A. AB+CD*E-FG/**
B. AB+CD*E-*F*G/
C. AB+CD*E-F**G/
D. AB+CDE*-*F*G/
39. The pre-order and post order traversal of a Binary Tree generates the same output. The
tree can have maximum
A. Three nodes
B. Two nodes
C. One node
D. Any number of nodes
40. What data structure would you mostly likely see in a nonrecursive implementation of a
recursive algorithm?
A. Stack
B. Linked list
C. Queue
D. Trees
41. Which of the following algorithmic paradigm is used in the merge sort?
A. Dynamic Programming
B. BackTracking
C. Greedy method
D. Divide and Conquer
42. What is the worst case performance of Selection sort algorithm?
A. O(log n)
B. O(n* n)
C. O(n)
D. O(n log n)
43. Let P be a quick sort program to sort numbers in ascending order using the first element
as the pivot. Let t1 and t2 be the number of comparisons made by P for the input [1 2 3 4
5] and [4 1 5 3 2] respectively. Which one of the following holds?
A. t1 = 5
B. t1 < t2
C. t1 > t2
D. t1 = t2
44. Consider the C function given below. Assume the array listA contains (n>0) elements,
sorted in ascending order.
int Process array (int * list A, int x, int n){
int i, j, k;
i =0;j=n-1;
do {
k = (i+j)/2;
if (x<=list A[k])
j=k-1;
if (list A[k] <=x)
i =k+1;
} while (i <=j);
if (list A[k] == x)
return (k);
else
return -1;}
Which oe of the following statements about the function Process Array is CORRECT?
A. It will run into an infinite loop when x is not in listA
B. It is an implementation of binary search.
C. It will always find the maximum element in listA.
D. It will return -1 even when x is present in listA.
45. What sorting algos have their best and worst case times equal?
A. heap and selection sort
B. insertion sort & merge sort
C. merge sort and heap sort
D. None of these
46. What data structures you should use for dictionary searching and it should be capable of
doing spell check also?
A. array
B. Hashing
C. linked list
D. Tree
47. In worst case Quick Sort has order
A. O(n log n)
B. O[n^2)/2]
C. O(log n)
D. O[n^2)/4]
48. A sort which relatively passes through a list to exchange the first element with any
element less than it and then repeats with a new first element is called
A. insertion sort.
B. selection sort.
C. heap sort.
D. quick sort.
49. Which of the following sorting algorithms does not have a worst-case running time of
O(n^2)?
A. Insertion sort
B. Merge sort
C. Quick sort
D. Bubble sort
50. The quick sort algorithm exploit _________ design technique
A. Greedy
B. Dynamic programming
C. Divide and Conquer
D. Backtracking
ANSWER KEY
1. A 26. A
2. C 27. A
3. C 28. A
4. C 29. A
5. A 30. D
6. A 31. D
7. B 32. A
8. A 33. A
9. A 34. C
10. C 35. B
11. A 36. A
12. A 37. C
13. A 38. A
14. C 39. C
15. D 40. A
16. A 41. D
17. B 42. B
18. A 43. C
19. A 44. B
20. C 45. C
21. A 46. B
22. A 47. B
23. A 48. D
24. C 49. B
25. A 50. C
MCQ’s of Database Systems
1. A database containing all students in a class would store basic data of students in:
a). Record b). Field c). Cell d). File
2. SQL stands for:
a). Unstructured Language b). Structured Language
c). Seek Quality Language d). None
3. The objectives of database management systems include:
a) Database Integrity b). Data Integration c). Availability d). All
4. Which of the following is handled by DBMS?
a) Data Integrity b). Data Security c). Data Independence d). All
5. The database system is composed of four major parts:
a) Hardware, Hard drive, Monitor, Data, User b). Hardware, Software, People and Data
c). Software, You, Me, DBA, Client d). DBMS, Hardware, User, Programming, Engineer
6. Data that causes inconsistency lacks:
a). Good data b). Data integrity c). Data redundancy d). Data Anomaly
7. DBMS stand for:
a). Database Modeling system b). Database Management System
c). Data business model system d). Data business management service
8. Database application contain procedures for:
a). Adding records b). Deleting records c). Processing queries d). All
9. The major component of DBMS is called:
a). Database manager b). File Management c). Data Manager d). All
10. Duplicate data in multiple data files is:
a). Data redundancy b). Data Multiplication c). Data Integrity d). None
11. The description of structure and organization of data in a database is contained in:
a). Data dictionary b). Data Mine c). Structured query language
d). None
12. A request for information from a database in database terminology is called:
a). Report b). Letter c). Table d). Query
13. Which of the following is not a database management system?
a). MS Access b). MS SQL c). Oracle d). SQL server
14. Which of the following is not one of the three schemas used in the ANSI/SPARC
a). External b). Internal c). Implementation d). Conceptual
15. Which of three schemas used in three-schema model represents how users view database?
a). External b). Internal c). Implementation d). Conceptual
16. Which data model creates parent-child relationships between data elements and enables each
child to have just one parent?
a). Hierarchical b). Network c). Relational d). Object
17. Which of the following data models stores data in table structures and performs various
operations on table rows and columns?
a). Hierarchical b). Network c). Relational d). Object
18. DBA stand for.
a). Database administrator b). data basic administration
c). Database application d). database authority
19. Which of the following represents a collection of concepts that are used to describe the
Structure of a database.
a). Data warehouse b). data model c). data structure d). data type
20. Physical database design decisions must be made carefully because of impacts on
a). Data accessibility b). response time c). security d). all
21. Organizing the database in-computer disk storage is done in.
a). Logical design b). physical design c). analysis
d). implementation
22. Customers, cars, and parts are examples of
a). Entities b). attributes c). cardinals d). relationships
23. An identifier may be.
a). Composite b). unique c). non-unique d). all
24. The relationship can be.
a). one by one b). one to many c). many to many d). all
25. Which of the following is an example of one to one relationship?
a). student-RegNo b). person-automobile c). mother-daughter
d). person-phone number
26. Which of the following is a one-to-many relationship?
a). student-RegNo b). person-automobile c). mother-daughter
d). both b and c
27. An entity related to itself in an ERD model refers to.
a). Recursive relationship b). one-to-many relationship
c). many-to-many relationship d). one-to-one relationship
28. In an E-R diagram, a rectangle represents a (n).
a). Entity class b). weak entity c). relationship d). attribute
29. The most common type of relationship encountered in data modeling is______relationship:
a). Unary b). Binary c). Ternary d). Associative
30. The degree of a relationship refers to the:
a). Number of entities b). Maximum cardinality
c). Minimum cardinality d). Number of attributes in a the identifiers
a). Table b). Record c). Field d). Cell
31. A table must have
a). Primary key b). Secondary Key c). Composite Key d). Sort key
32. A two dimensional table of data is called a:
a). Group b). Set c). Declaration d). Relation
33. A relation is also known as:
a). Table b). Tuple c). Relationship d). Attribute
34. A row of a relation is called a (n)
a). Attribute b). Entity c). tuple d). Field
35. A key is:
a). A field that identifies only one record b). The most important field in a record
c). The first field of table d). None
36. Which of the following describes the primary key?
a). It must be unique b). It helps in indexing of a large database
c). It makes sorting quicker d). All of the above
37. How many primary keys can a table have?
a). One b). At least one, but not more than two
c). Between 1 and 5 d). No limit
38. Which field listed below is the most appropriate primary key?
a). A person’s name b). A person’s street address
c). A person’s birth date d). A person’s social security number
39. An attribute in a relation of a database that serves as the primary key of another relation in the
same database is called a:
a). Global key b). Line key c). Foreign key d). None
40. A primary key that consists of more than one attributes is called a:
a). Foreign key b). Composite key c). Multi-valued key d). Global key
41. In 3NF, which form of dependency is removed?
a). Functional b).Non-Functional c). Associative d). Transitive
42. In relational database, table is also called:
a). Tuple b). Relation c).File d). Schema
43. In 3NF, a non-key attribute must not depend on a:
a).Non-key Attribute b). Key attribute c). Composite key d). Sort key
44. Every relation must have:
a). Primary key b). Candidate key
c). Secondary key d). Mutually exclusiveness
45. The goal of normalization is to:
a). Get stable data structure b). Increase number of relation
c). Increase redundancy d). None
46. In 2NF, which form of dependency is removed?
a). Functional b). Partial c). Associative d). Transitive
47. A relation is in third normal form if it is in second normal form and:
a). Dependent on part of the key b). Dependent on all of the key
c). Independent of the key d). Has no transitive dependencies
48. The 2NF describes the tabular format in which:
a). All the key attributes are defined b). No repeating groups in the table
c). All attributes are dependent on the primary key d). All
49. The normalization process generally:
a). Reduces the number of relations b). Increases the number of relations
c). Reduces the number of functional dependencies
d). Increases the number of functional dependencies
50. A relation is automatically in:
a). First normal form b). Second normal form c). Third normal form
d). Boyce-Codd normal form
51. A relation is considered a:
a). Column b). One dimensional table c). Two dimensional table
d). Three dimensional table
52. Which of the following is a requirement of 3NF?
a). Must contain a partial dependency b). Must contain a composite
c). Must contain no transitive dependency d). Must contain no partial dependencies
53. Which of the following should not be placed in a relational table?
a). Entity b). Attribute c). Relationship d). Repeating group
54. Which of the following is a group of one or more attributes that uniquely identifies a row?
a). Key b). Determinant c). Tuple d). Relation
55. A weak entity is one which:
a). Is not in a relationship with any other entities b). Does not have a unique identifier
c). Cannot exist in the database by itself d). Is a subtype
Key of MCQ’s Database Systems
1. d 2. b 3. d 4. d 5. b
6. b 7. b 8. d 9. a 10. a
11. a 12. d 13. b 14. c 15. a
16. a 17. c 18. a 19. b 20. d
21. b 22. a 23. d 24. d 25. a
26. d 27. a 28. a 29. b 30. a
31. a 32. d 33. a 34. c 35. a
36. d 37. a 38. d 39. c 40. b
41. d 42. b 43. a 44. a 45. a
46. b 47. d 48. b 49. b 50. a
51. c 52. c 53. d 54. a 55. c

Answer
Key
1) What is the use of bridge in network? A
A. To connect LAN’s B. To control network speed
C. To separate LAN’s D. None
2) What type of resource is most likely to be a shared in a computer network? D
A. Drives B. Internet
C. Printers D. All
3) Both stations can transmit and receive data simultaneously in B
A. Simplex mode B. Full duplex mode
C. Half duplex mode D. All
4) In OSI network architecture, the routing is performed by C
A. Data link layer B. Session layer
C. Network layer D. None
5) Hub is associated with a network known as C
A. Bus B. Ring
C. Star D. All
6) A combination of hardware and software that allows communication between computer is a A
A. Network B. Backup system
C. Mail Server D. All
7) LAN can use architecture D
C. Neither A or B D. Both A and B
8) The order of queue is A
A. FIFO B. LIFO
C. FILO D. None
9) Who created World Wide Web (WWW)? B
A. Bill Gates B. Tim Berners
C. Steve Jobs D. Guido van Rossum
10) The relationship can be D
A. One to one B. Many to many
C. One to many D. All
11) An entity related to itself in an ERD model refers to a relationship known as A
A. Recursive B. One to one
C. One to many D. Many to many
12) Which of the following is an example of one to one relationship? A
A. Student-RegNo B. Person-Automobiles
C. Mother-Daughters D. Person-Phone numbers
13) Which of the following is a one-to-many relationship? D
A. Student-RegNo B. Person-Automobiles
C. Mother-Daughters D. Both B & C
14) In an E-R diagram, a rectangle represents an A
A. Entity B. Weak entity
C. Relationship D. Attribute
15) The href attribute in the link tag specifyes the A
A. Destination of a link B. Link
C. Hypertext D. None
16) The degree of a relationship refers to the A
A. Number of entities B. Minimum cardinality
C. Maximum cardinality D. None
17) The switch statement is also called as C
A. Looping structure B. Certain structure
C. Selective structure D. None
18) The maximum range of a character variable is A
A. 127 B. -128
Discipline: ________________________ Page 1 of 4

C. 10 D. None
19) A memory address with some data value that cannot be changed is called D
A. Symbolic B. Named
C. Variable D. Constant
20) An expression consists of C
A. Operators B. Operands
C. Both A & B D. None
21) In Java, which keyword is used to inherit a class A
A. extends B. relate
C. parent D. own
22) Variable and constant names cannot contain D
A. Number B. Letter
C. Underscore D. Special characters
23) Which term describes the kind of values that a variable can store? C
A. Variable Name B. Class
C. Datatype D. None
24) Variable names cannot begin with A
A. Number B. Underscore
C. Upper-case letter D. None
25) SDLC stands for? B
A. Software design life cycle B. Software development life cycle
C. Development life cycle D. None
26) SRS stands for? A
A. Software Requirement Specification B. Software testing
C. Software requirement solution D. None
27) Waterfall model is not suitable for? B
A. Small Projects B. Accommodating many change
C. Complex Projects D. None
28) Open box testing, a software testing technique is sometimes called? D
A. Basic testing B. Dataflow testing
C. Graph testing D. Glass box testing
29) The objective of testing is B
A. To analyze requirements B. To uncover errors
C. To gain modularity D. None
30) Agile Software Development is based on C
A. Incremental Development B. Linear Development
C. Iterative Development D. None
31) RAD stands for? A
A. Rapid Application Development B. Rare Agile Development
C. Ready Agile Development D. None
32) The register used to store the flags is called as A
A. Status/Flag register B. Log register
C. Test register D. None
33) Which converts the programs written in assembly language into machine instructions B
A. Compiler B. Assembler
C. Interpreter D. Converter
34) Pixel is short for B
A. Place edit B. Picture element
C. Picture enters D. None
35) A binary signal can be sent using A
A. One bit B. Multiple bits
C. Three bits D. None
36) The physical layout of the LAN is known as B
A. Session B. Topology
C. Link D. Connector
37) The topmost layer of the OSI model is A

A. Application B. Secession
C. Network D. Physical
38) The music and speech represent B
A. Image B. Audio
C. Text D. Numeric
39) The order of the stack is C
A. FIFO B. GIGO
C. LIFO D. FIFG
40) Computer drives its basic strength from D
A. Speed B. Storage
C. Accuracy D. All
41) Computer cannot boot if it does not have D
A. Compiler B. Interpreter
C. Linker D. Operating System
42) The virus that replicates itself is called C
A. Bug B. Vaccine
C. Worm D. Bots
43) Trojan horse is a C
A. Antivirus B. Animal
C. Virus D. Hardware
44) McAfee is a(n) D
A. Worm B. Virus
C. Hacker D. Antivirus
45) Which of the following are components of LAN D
A. UTP B. Switch
C. RJ 45 D. All
46) Which one is faster A
A. Register B. RAM
C. Cache D. Hard disk
47) What is the only function that all C++ programs must have? A
A. main() B. Iostream.h
C. system() D. Stop()
48) Logical expressions produce which type of results? B
A. Explicit B. Boolean
C. Garbage D. Static
49) A class can contain objects of other classes and this phenomenon is called C
A. Relationship B. constructor
C. Containership D. None
50) Which is called automatically when an object of a class is created? C
A. constant B. Friend
C. constructor D. System Library
51) The null character will take space of A
A. 1 byte B. 2 bytes
C. 0 byte D. 4 bytes
52) Encapsulation helps D
A. Information hiding B. Providing low coupling
C. Providing high cohesion D. All
53) An Abstract class A
A. Allows normal method declaration B. Must have abstract methods
C. Can be instantiated D. None
54) Which of the following is not a multitasking operating system? A
A. DOS B. MacOS
C. Linux D. Windows
55) In operating system, the resource management can be done via: C
A. Time division multiplexing B. Space division multiplexing
C. Both A & B D. None

56) If a process fails, most operating system write the error information to a A
A. Log file B. New file
C. New process D. None
57) Which of the following data structure is of non-linear type? A
A. Tree B. Queue
C. Stack D. Array
58) A collection of data that consists of name, address and email of a person is called B
A. Byte B. Record
C. Character D. None
59) Which of the following is an example of a database D
A. Phone Book B. Student Record
C. Library Catalog D. All
60) A database is an organized collection of data A
A. Logically B. Loosely
C. Physically D. Badly
61) Database applications contain procedures for D
A. Adding records B. Deleting records
C. Processing queries D. All
62) A request for information from a database in database terminology is called C
A. Report B. Letter
C. Query D. Table
63) Properties that describe the entity’s characteristics are called B
A. Entity B. Attribute
C. Identifier D. Relationship
64) Merge sort uses A
A. Divide-and-conquer B. Heuristic approach
C. Backtracking D. Greedy approach
65) The elements “A”, “B”, “C” and “D” are placed in a queue and are deleted one at a time, there order will be? A
A. ABCD B. DCBA
C. DCAB D. ABDC
A. D and B are brothers B. A is the daughter of D
C. If D is the daughter of B, then A and D are sisters D. C is uncle of A

Computer Science (MCQS)
1- The difference between memory and storage is that memory is _____ and storage is __
a) Temporary , Permanent
b) Slow , Fast
c) Permanent , Temporary
d) All of above
2- Storage capacity of magnetic disk depends on?
a) Track per inch of surface
b) Bits per inch of tracks
c) Disk pack in disk surface
d) All of above
3- Instruction in computer languages consists of
a) OPERAND
b) OPCODE
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
4- Mnemonic a memory trick is used in which of the following language?
a) Assembly Language
b) PHP
c) Java
d) Machine Language
5- Instructions and memory address are represented by
a) Binary Code
b) Character Code
c) Binary Word
d) Parity Bit
6- If in a computer, 16 bits are used to specify address in a RAM, the number of addresses
will be
a) 64K
b) 216
c) 65,536
d) None of above
7- Which of the following is not an input device?
a) OCR
b) Optical Scanner
c) Voice Recognition Device
d) COM (Computer Output to microfilm)
8- Which type of computers uses the 8-bit code called EBCDIC?
a) Microcomputers
b) Minicomputers
c) Super Computers
d) Mainframe Computers
9- The ALU of a computer responds to the commands coming from
a) Control Section
b) Primary Memory
c) External Memory
d) Cache Memory
10- Operating System , Editors and , Debuggers comes under
a) System Software
b) Application Software
c) Utilities
d) Both a and b
11- Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ___________
transmission.
a) Automatic
b) Half Duplex
c) Full Duplex
d) Simplex
12- The First Network is called
a) CNNET
b) NSFNET
c) ARPANET
d) ASAFNET
13- The _______ is the physical path over which a message travels
a) Protocol
b) Medium
c) Path
d) Route
14- TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer but OSI model have this layer.
a) Session Layer
b) Presentation Layer
c) Application Layer
d) Both a and b
15- Which address is used in an internet employing the TCP/IP protocols?
a) Physical Address and Logical Address
b) Port Address
c) Specific address
16- Which layer is responsible for process to process delivery?
a) Network Layer
b) Transport Layer
c) Session Layer
d) Data Link Layer
17- Transmission data rate is decided by
a) Network Layer
b) Data Link Layer
c) Physical Layer
d) Transport Layer
18- Which one of the following task is not done by data link layer?
a) Framing
b) Error Control
c) Flow Control
d) Channel Coding
19- The technique of temporarily delaying outgoing outgoing acknowledgements so that
they can be hooked onto the next outgoing data frame is called
a) Piggybacking
b) Cyclic Redundancy Check
c) Fletcher’s checksum
d) None of above
20- Application layer protocol defines
a) types of messages exchanged
b) message format, syntax and semantics
c) rules for when and how processes send and respond to messages
d) all of the mentioned
21- When displaying a web page, the application layer uses the
a) HTTP protocol
b) FTP Protocol
c) SMTP Protocol
d) None of these
22- Physical or logical arrangement of network is
a) Routing
b) Topology
c) Networking
d) None
23- In Which topology requires multipoint connection
a) Star
b) Mesh
c) Ring
d) Bus
24- Which of these is not applicable for IP protocol?
a) Is connectionless
b) Offer reliable Service
c) Offer Unreliable Service
d) None
25- The Purpose of DHCP server is to
a) maintains a database of available IP addresses
b) maintains the information about client configuration parameters
c) grants a IP address when receives a request from a client
26- The following are components of a database except ________
a) User Data
b) Meta Data
c) Reports
d) Indexes
27- The following are functions of a DBMS except ________
a) creating and processing forms
b) creating databases
c) processing data
d) Administrative Database
28- The DBMS that is most difficult to use is
a) Microsoft's SQL Server
b) Microsoft's Access
c) IBM's DB2
d) Oracle Corporation's Oracle
29- An Attribute that is not part of any candidate key is known as
a) Sub Prime Attribute
b) Non-Prime Attribute
c) Sub Candidate Key
d) Non Candidate Key
30- In Hierarchical Model Data is Organized into
a) Logical Structure
b) Physical Structure
c) Tree like structure
d) None of them
31- In an Entity-Relationship Diagram Double Rectangles represents
a) Relationship Sets
b) Weak Entity Sets
c) Derived Attributes
d) Multi Valued Attributes
32- The primary key is selected from the
a) Composite Keys
b) Determinants
c) Candidate Keys
d) Foreign Keys
33- If attributes A and B determine attribute C, then it is also true that:
a) A → C
b) B → C
c) (A,B) is a composite determinant.
d) C is a determinant.
34- One solution to the multivalued dependency constraint problem is to:
a) Split the relation into two relations, each with a single theme.
b) Change the theme.
c) Add a composite key.
d) None of these
35- What SQL command can be used to delete columns from a table?
a) MODIFY TABLE Table Name DROP COLUMN Column Name
b) MODIFY TABLE Table Name DROP Column Name
c) ALTER TABLE Table Name DROP COLUMN Column Name
d) ALTER TABLE Table Name DROP Column Name
36- The SQL WHERE clause:
a) Limits the column data that are returned.
b) Limits the row data are returned.
c) Both A and B are correct.
d) Neither A nor B are correct.
37- SQL query and modification commands make up a(n) ________
a) DDL
b) DML
c) XML
d) HTML
38- When three or more AND and OR conditions are combined, it is easier to use the SQL
keyword(s):
a) LIKE only
b) IN Only
c) NOT IN only
d) Both IN and NOT IN
39- A sub query in an SQL SELECT statement:
a) can only be used with two tables
b) can always be duplicated by a join
c) has a distinct form that cannot be duplicated by a join
d) cannot have its results sorted using ORDER BY
40- Which one of the following sorts rows in SQL?
a) SORT BY
b) GROUP BY
c) ORDER BY
d) None of these
41- In object oriented design of software which of the following is not true?
a) Objects Inherit the Properties of Class
b) Classes are defined based on Attributes of the Object
c) Object can belong two classes
d) Classes are always different
42- RAD stands for
a) Relative Application Development
b) Rapid Application Development
c) Rapid Application Document
d) Both a and b
43- What is the major drawback of using RAD Model?
a) Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required.
b) Increases re-usability of components.
c) Encourages customer/client feedback.
d) Both a & c.
44- Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?
a) Waterfall Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) None of these
45- Which of the following is not a diagram studied in Requirement Analysis?
a) Use Cases
b) Entity Relationship Diagram
c) State transition diagram
d) Activity Diagram
46- How many phases are there in Requirement Analysis
a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Six
47- What are the four dimensions of Dependability
a) Usability, Reliability, Security, Flexibility
b) Availability, Reliability, Maintainability, Security
c) Availability, Reliability, Security, Safety
d) Security, Safety, Testability, Usability
48- What is the first step of requirement elicitation
a) Identifying Stakeholder
b) Listing out Requirements
c) Requirements Gathering
d) None of above
49- Which of the following UML diagrams has a static view
a) Collaboration
b) Use case
c) State chart
d) Activity
50- Interaction Diagram is a combined term for
a) Sequence Diagram + Collaboration Diagram
b) Activity Diagram + State Chart Diagram
c) Deployment Diagram + Collaboration Diagram
51- Which of the following is a mechanism that allows several objects in an class hierarchy
to have different methods with the same name
a) Aggregation
b) Polymorphism
c) Inheritance
d) None
52- How is generalization implemented in Object Oriented programming languages
a) Inheritance
b) Polymorphism
c) Encapsulation
d) Abstract Classes
53- Objects are executed
a) Sequentially
b) in Parallel
c) Both a and b
d) None
54- Which of the following is conceptually similar to objects
a) PACKAGE
b) PROC
c) PRIVATE
d) None
55- Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC
a) Waterfall Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) Both b and c
56- Which is not property of Knowledge Representation
a) Representational Verification
b) Representational Adequacy
c) Inferential Efficiency
d) Acquisitional Efficiency
57- The area of AI that investigates methods of facilitating communication between people
and computers is
a) natural language processing
b) Symbolic Processing
c) decision support
d) Robotics
58- An AI technique that allows computers to understand associations and relationships
between objects and events is called
a) heuristic processing
c) Pattern Matching
d) relative symbolism
59- Which search strategy is also called as blind search
a) Uninformed Search
b) Informed Search
c) Simple Reflex Search
d) All of above
60- Which search implements stack operation for searching the states
a) Depth Limited Search
b) Depth First Search
c) Breadth First Search
d) Hill Climbing
61- What will take place as the agent observes its interactions with the world
a) Hearing
b) Perceiving
c) Speech
d) Learning
62- A perceptron is
d) None of these
63- Which is true for neural networks
64- In many problems the path to goal is irrelevant, this class of problems can be solved
using
a) Informed search technique
b) Uninformed Search technique
c) Local Search technique
d) Only a and b
65- In an Unsupervised learning
a) Specific output values are given
b) Specific output values are not given
c) No specific Inputs are given
d) Both inputs and outputs are given
66- Different learning methods does not include
a) Memorization
b) Analogy
c) Deduction
d) Introduction
67- Factors which affect the performance of learner system does not include
b) Learning algorithm
c) Good data structures
d) Type of feedback
68- Which is used to construct the complex sentences
a) Symbols
b) Connectives
c) Logical Connectives
d) All of Above
69- Which is used to compute the truth of any sentence
a) Semantics of propositional logic
b) Alpha-beta pruning
c) First-order logic
d) Both a and b
70- How many proposition symbols are there in artificial intelligence
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
71- To join the internet, the computer has to be connected to a
a) internet architecture board
b) internet society
c) internet service provider
d) none of the mentioned
72- IPv6 addressed have a size of
a) 32 Bit
b) 64 Bit
c) 128 Bit
d) None
73- Which one of the following is not used in media access control
a) Ethernet
b) Digital Subscriber Line
c) Fiber Distributed Data Interface
d) None of Mentioned
74- HTTP is ________ protocol
a) Application Layer
b) Transport Layer
c) Data Link Layer
d) Network Layer
75- In file transfer protocol, data transfer can be done in
a) Stream Mode
b) Block Mode
c) Compressed Mode
d) All of Above
76- The data field can carry which of the following
a) TCP segment
b) UDP Segment
c) ICMP Messages
d) Both a and c
77- In Computer WWWW Stands for
a) World Wide Web Worm
b) World Wide Wildlife Web
c) World Wide Women's Web
d) World Wide Women's Week
78- A Computer on Internet are identified by
a) E-mail Address
b) Street Address
c) IP Address
d) None of Above
79- The Process of Keeping Addresses in memory for future use is called
a) Routing
b) Resolving
c) Caching
d) Both a and c
80- The Server on Internet is also Known as
a) Hub
b) Host
c) Gateway
d) Repeater
81- In a class, member variables are often called its _________, and its member functions
are sometimes referred to as its behavior, or ____________
a) Attribute , method
b) Attribute , Activities
c) Values , morals
d) None of these
82- Use of __________ protects data from inadvertent modifications.
a) Protect() member function
b) Private access specifier
c) Public access specifier
d) Both a and b
83- How will a class protect the code inside it
a) Using Access specifier
b) Abstraction
c) Use of Inheritance
84- Which of the following concept is often expressed by the phrase, ‘One interface, multiple
methods
a) Abstraction
b) Polymorphism
c) Inheritance
d) Encapsulation
85- Which Keyword from the following is used to inherit properties from one class into
another
a) Extends
b) Subclasses
c) Native
d) All of Above
86- Which of the following is a mechanism by which object acquires the properties of
another object
a) Encapsulation
b) Abstraction
c) Inheritance
d) Polymorphism
87- A copy constructor is called
a) when an object is returned by value
b) when an object is passed by value as an argument
c) when compiler generates a temporary object
d) All of above
88- Which of the following HTML form method is suitable when you need to send larger
form Submission
a) GET
b) POST
c) Both GET and POST
d) Ajax
89- Function Templates can have
a) Explicit instantiation definition with template argument for all parameters
b) explicit instantiation of declaration with template argument for all parameters
c) Both a and b
d) None
90- What is the index number of the last element of an array with 9 elements
a) 9
b) 8
c) 0
d) Programmed Defined
91- What is the tool used in tasks such as zooming, shrinking, rotating, etc.
a) Sampling
b) Interpolation
c) Filters
d) None
92- Dynamic range of imaging system is a ratio where the upper limit is determined by
a) Saturation
b) Noise
c) Brightness
d) Contrast
93- Which of the following shows three basic types of functions used frequently for image
enhancement
a) Linear, logarithmic and inverse law
b) Power law, logarithmic and inverse law
c) Linear, logarithmic and power law
d) Linear, exponential and inverse law
94- An image is considered to be a function of a(x,y), where a represents
a) Height of image
b) Width of image
c) Amplitude of image
d) Resolution of image
95- What is pixel?
a) Pixel is the elements of a digital image
b) Pixel is the elements of an analog image
c) Pixel is the cluster of a digital image
d) Pixel is the cluster of an analog image
96- Which was the first commercial computer
a) Ferranti Mark 1
b) Analytical Engine
c) Difference Engine
d) Colosses
97- What Technology is used in fifth Generation of Computers
a) Integrated Circuits
b) Vaccume Tubes
c) Artificial Intelligence
d) None
98- Which number system is usually followed in a typical 32-bit computer
a) Binary
b) Decimal
c) Hexadecimal
d) Octal
99- Which of the following storage devices can store maximum amount of Data
a) Floppy Disk
b) Hard Disk
c) Compact Disk
d) Magnetic Optical Disk
100- The Program which are as Permanent as hardware and stored in ROM is Known
as
a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Firmware
d) ROM Ware
Answer Key
1- a 26- c 51- b 76- c
2- d 27- a 52- a 77- a
3- c 28- d 53- c 78- c
4- a 29- b 54- a 79- c
5- a 30- c 55- c 80- b
6- c 31- b 56- a 81- a
7- d 32- c 57- a 82- b
8- d 33- a 58- c 83- a
9- a 34- b 59- a 84- b
10- a 35- c 60- b 85- a
11- d 36- a 61- d 86- c
12- c 37- b 62- a 87- d
13- b 38- d 63- d 88- a
14- d 39- c 64- c 89- c
15- d 40- c 65- b 90- b
16- b 41- c 66- d 91- b
17- c 42- b 67- b 92- a
18- d 43- d 68- c 93- b
19- a 44- c 69- a 94- c
20- d 45- d 70- b 95- a
21- a 46- c 71- c 96- b
22- b 47- c 72- c 97- c
23- d 48- a 73- d 98- a
24- b 49- b 74- a 99- b
25- d 50- a 75- d 100- c

MCQs
a) The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer
programs
2. Which modifies the performance element so that it makes better decision?
a) Performance element
b) Changing element
c) Learning element
3. . How many things are concerned in design of a learning element?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
4. What is used in determining the nature of the learning problem?
a) Environment
b) Feedback
c) Problem
5. Which is used for utility functions in game playing algorithm?
a) Linear polynomial
b) Weighted polynomial
c) Polynomial
d) Linear weighted polynomial
6. Which is used to choose among multiple consistent hypotheses?
a) Razor
b) Ockham razor
c) Learning element
7. What will happen if the hypothesis space contains the true function?
a) Realizable
b) Unrealizable
c) Both a & b
8. What takes input as an object described bya set of attributes?
a) Tree
b) Graph
c) Decision graph
d) Decision tree
9. How the decision tree reaches its decision?
a) Single test
b) Two test
c) Sequence of test
d) No test
10. What will take place as the agent observes its interactions with the world?
a) Learning
b) Hearing
c) Perceiving
d) Speech
11. Which modifies the performance element so that it makes better decision?
a) Performance element
b) Changing element
c) Learning element
12. 3. How many things are concerned in design of a learning element?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
(The three main issues are affected in design of a learning element are components,
feedback and representation.)
13. What is used in determining the nature of the learning problem?
a) Environment
b) Feedback
c) Problem
14. How many types are available in machine learning?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
c) Type of feedback
16. Different learning method does not include:
a) Memorization
b) Analogy
c) Deduction
d) Introduction
17. Which of the following is the model used for learning?
a) Decision trees
b) Neural networks
c) Propositional and FOL rules
18. Automated vehicle is an example of ______.
a) Supervised learning
b) Unsupervised learning
c) Active learning
d) Reinforcement learning
19. Following is an example of active learning:
a) News Recommender system
b) Dust cleaning machine
c) Automated vehicle
20. In which of the following learning the teacher returns reward and punishment to learner?
a) Active learning
b) Reinforcement learning
c) Supervised learning
d) Unsupervised learning
21. Each IP packet must contain

A. Only Source address
B. Only Destination address
C. Source and Destination address
D. Source or Destination address
22. Bridge works in which layer of the OSI model?

A. Application layer
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Datalink layer
23. _______ provides a connection-oriented reliable service for sending messages

A. TCP
B. IP
C. UDP
D. All of the above
24. Which layers of the OSI model are host-to-host layers?

A. Transport, Session, Presentation, Application
B. Network, Transport, Session, Presentation
C. Datalink, Network, Transport, Session
D. Physical, Datalink, Network, Transport
25. Which of the following IP address class is Multicast

A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
26. Which of the following is correct regarding Class B Address of IP address
A. Network bit – 14, Host bit – 16
B. Network bit – 16, Host bit – 14
C. Network bit – 18, Host bit – 16
D. Network bit – 12, Host bit – 14
27. The last address of IP address represents

A. Unicast address
B. Network address
C. Broadcast address
D. None of above
28. How many bits are there in the Ethernet address?

A. 64 bits
B. 48 bits
C. 32 bits
D. 16 bits
29. How many layers are in the TCP/IP model?

A. 4 layers
B. 5 layers
C. 6 layers
D. 7 layers
30. Which of the following layer of OSI model also called end-to-end layer?
A. Presentation layer
B. Network layer
C. Session layer
D. Transport layer
31. Why IP Protocol is considered as unreliable?

A. A packet may be lost
B. Packets may arrive out of order
C. Duplicate packets may be generated
D. All of the above
32. What is the minimum header size of an IP packet?

A. 16 bytes
B. 10 bytes
C. 20 bytes
D. 32 bytes
33. Which of following provides reliable communication?

A. TCP
B. IP
C. UDP
D. All of the above
34. What is the address size of IPv6?

A. 32 bit
B. 64 bit
C. 128 bit
D. 256 bit
35. What is the size of Network bits & Host bits of Class A of IP address?
A. Network bits 7, Host bits 24
B. Network bits 8, Host bits 24
C. Network bits 7, Host bits 23
D. Network bits 8, Host bits 23
36. What does Router do in a network?

A. Forwards a packet to all outgoing links
B. Forwards a packet to the next free outgoing link
C. Determines on which outing link a packet is to be forwarded
D. Forwards a packet to all outgoing links except the originated link
37. The Internet is an example of

A. Cell switched network
B. circuit switched network
C. Packet switched network
D. All of above
38. What does protocol defines?

A. Protocol defines what data is communicated.
B. Protocol defines how data is communicated.
C. Protocol defines when data is communicated.
D. All of above
39. What is the uses of subnetting?

A. It divides one large network into several smaller ones
B. It divides network into network classes
C. It speeds up the speed of network
D. None of above
40. Repeater operates in which layer of the OSI model?

A. Physical layer
B. Data link layer
C. Network layer
D. Transport layer
41. Which of these does not account for software failure?
a)Increasing Demand
b)Low expectation
c) Increasing Supply
d) Less reliable and expensive..
42. What are attributes of good software ?

a) Software maintainability.
b) Software functionality.
c) Software development.
d) a and b.
e) a,b and c..
43. Which of these software engineering activities are not a part of software processes ?
a) Software dependence.
b) Software development.
c) Software validation.
d) Software specification.
44. Which of these is incorrect?

a) Software engineering belongs to Computer science.
b) Software engineering is a part of more general form of System Engineering.
c) Computer science belongs to Software engineering.
d) Software engineering is concerned with the practicalities of developing and delivering
useful software.
45. Which of these is true?

a) Generic products and customized products are types of software products.
b) Generic products are produces by organization and sold to open market.
c) Customized products are comissioned by particular customer.
d) All of the above..
46. Which of these is not true?

a) Web has led to availability of software services and possibility of developing highly
distributed service based systems.
b) Web based systems have led to the degradance of programming languages.
c) Web brings concept of software as service.
d) Web based system should be developed and delivered incrementally.
47. 2. What is a Software?

a) Software is set of programs.
b) Software is documentation and configuration of data.
c) Both a and b
48. The Unified Modeling Language (UML) has become an effective standard for software
modelling. How many different notations does it have?
a) Three
b) Four
c) Six
d) Nine
49. Which model in system modelling depicts the dynamic behaviour of the system?
a) Context Model
b) Behavioral Model
c) Data Model
d) Object Model
50. Which perspective in system modelling shows the system or data architecture?
a) Structural perspective
b) Behavioral perspective
c) External perspective
51. 6. Activity diagrams are used to model the processing of data.

a) True
b) False
52. Model-driven engineering is just a theoretical concept. It cannot be converted into a

working/executable code.
a) True
b) False
53. The UML supports event-based modeling using ____________ diagrams.

a) Deployment
b) Collaboration
c) State chart
54. This section on Software Engineering MCQs focuses on “Diagrams in UML-1“.

Which of the following UML diagrams has a static view?
a) Collaboration
b) Use case
c) State chart
d) Activity
55. Which diagram in UML shows a complete or partial view of the structure of a modeled
system at a specific time?
a) Sequence Diagram
b) Collaboration Diagram
c) Class Diagram
d) Object Diagram
56. Interaction Diagram is a combined term for

a) Sequence Diagram + Collaboration Diagram
b) Activity Diagram + State Chart Diagram
c) Deployment Diagram + Collaboration Diagram
57. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?
a) Place the user in control
b) Reduce the user’s memory load
c) Make the interface consistent
58. A software might allow a user to interact via
a) keyboard commands
b) mouse movement
c) voice recognition commands
59. A software engineer designs the user interface by applying an iterative process that
draws on predefined design principles.
a) True
b) False
60. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the
software?
a) design model
b) user’s model
c) mental image
d) system image
61. A perceptron is:


c) Only (i)


c) It is the transmission of error back through the network to allow weights to be
adjusted so that the network can learn.
67. A perceptron adds up all the weighted inputs it receives, and if it exceeds a certain
value, it outputs a 1, otherwise it just outputs a 0.
a) True
b) False
d) Can’t say
b) Perceptrons

b) Data validation
c) Risk management
a) If
b) If-Then
c) If-Else
d) Iff
Multiple Choice Questions: Operating System
1. What is operating system?
a) collection of programs that manages hardware resources
b) system service provider to the application programs
c) link to interface the hardware and application programs
2. If a process fails, most operating system write the error information to a ______
a) log file
b) another running process
c) new file
3. The systems which allows only one process execution at a time, are called _______
a) uniprogramming systems
b) uniprocessing systems
c) unitasking systems
4. A process can be terminated due to ________
a) normal exit
b) fatal error
c) killed by another process
5. What is the ready state of a process?
a) when process is scheduled to run after some execution
b) when process is unable to run until some task has been completed
c) when process is using the CPU
6. Hardware generated change of flow with in system is called ___________
a) Process
b) Interrupts
c) Request
d) Instruction
7. In ______ systems, user cannot interact with the job when it is executed.
a) Parallel
b) Multiuser
c) Batch
d) Embedded
8. In operating system, each process has its own
a) address space and global variables
b) open files
c) pending alarms, signals and signal handlers
9. What is interprocess communication?
a) communication within the process
b) communication between two process
c) communication between two threads of same process
10. A set of processes is deadlock if
a) each process is blocked and will remain so forever
b) each process is terminated
c) all processes are trying to kill each other
11. Which system call returns the process identifier of a terminated child?
a) wait
b) exit
c) fork
d) get
12. The address of the next instruction to be executed by the current process is provided by the
a) CPU registers
b) Program counter
c) Process stack
d) Pipe
13. A Process Control Block(PCB) does not contain which of the following :
a) Code
b) Stack
c) Bootstrap program
d) Data
14. The number of processes completed per unit time is known as __________
a) Output
b) Throughput
c) Efficiency
d) Capacity
15. The state of a process is defined by:
a) the final activity of the process
b) the activity just executed by the process
c) the activity to next be executed by the process
d) the current activity of the process
16. Which of the following is not the state of a process?
a) New
b) Old
c) Waiting
d) Running
17. The Process Control Block is:
a) Process type variable
b) Data Structure
c) A secondary storage section
d) A Block in memory
18. The entry of all the PCBs of the current processes is in:
a) Process Register
b) Program Counter
c) Process Table
d) Process Unit
19. The degree of multiprogramming is:
a) the number of processes executed per unit time
b) the number of processes in the ready queue
c) the number of processes in the I/O queue
d) the number of processes in memory
20. A single thread of control allows the process to perform:
a) only one task at a time
b) multiple tasks at a time
c) only two tasks at a time
21. The objective of multiprogramming is to :
a) Have some process running at all times
b) Have multiple programs waiting in a queue ready to run
c) To minimize CPU utilization
22. When the process issues an I/O request :
a) It is placed in an I/O queue
b) It is placed in a waiting queue
c) It is placed in the ready queue
d) It is placed in the Job queue
23. When a process terminates :
a) It is removed from all queues
b) It is removed from all, but the job queue
c) Its process control block is de-allocated
d) Its process control block is never de-allocated
24. What is a long-term scheduler ?
a) It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue
b) It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU
c) It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping
25. What is a medium-term scheduler ?
26. What is a short-term scheduler ?
27. The primary distinction between the short term scheduler and the long term scheduler is :
a) The length of their queues
b) The type of processes they schedule
c) The frequency of their execution
28. The only state transition that is initiated by the user process itself is :
a) block
b) wakeup
c) dispatch
29. In a time-sharing operating system, when the time slot given to a process is completed, the process
goes from the running state to the :
a) Blocked state
b) Ready state
c) Suspended state
d) Terminated state
30. In a multiprogramming environment :
a) the processor executes more than one process at a time
b) the programs are developed by more than one person
c) more than one process resides in the memory
d) a single user can execute many programs at the same time
31. Suppose that a process is in “Blocked” state waiting for some I/O service. When the service is
completed, it goes to the :
a) Running state
b) Ready state
c) Suspended state
d) Terminated state
32. The context of a process in the PCB of a process does not contain :
a) the value of the CPU registers
b) the process state
c) memory-management information
d) context switch time
33. Which of the following need not necessarily be saved on a context switch between processes?
a) General purpose registers
b) Translation look a side buffer
c) Program counter
34. Which of the following does not interrupt a running process ?
a) A device
b) Timer
c) Scheduler process
d) Power failure
35. Which process can be affected by other processes executing in the system?
a) cooperating process
b) child process
c) parent process
d) init process
36. When several processes access the same data concurrently and the outcome of the execution
depends on the particular order in which the access takes place, is called
a) dynamic condition
b) race condition
c) essential condition
d) critical condition
37. If a process is executing in its critical section, then no other processes can be executing in their
critical section. This condition is called
a) mutual exclusion
b) critical exclusion
c) synchronous exclusion
d) asynchronous exclusion
38. Which one of the following is a synchronization tool?
a) thread
b) pipe
c) semaphore
d) socket
39. A semaphore is a shared integer variable
a) that can not drop below zero
b) that can not be more than zero
c) that can not drop below one
d) that can not be more than one
40. Process synchronization can be done on
a) hardware level
b) software level
c) both hardware and software level
41. A monitor is a module that encapsulates
a) shared data structures
b) procedures that operate on shared data structure
c) synchronization between concurrent procedure invocation
42. A parent process calling _____ system call will be suspended until children processes terminate.
a) wait
b) fork
c) exit
d) exec
43. The child process can :
a) be a duplicate of the parent process
b) never be a duplicate of the parent process
c) cannot have another program loaded into it
d) never have another program loaded into it
44. Message passing system allows processes to :
a) communicate with one another without resorting to shared data
b) communicate with one another by resorting to shared data
c) share data
d) name the recipient or sender of the message
45. Messages sent by a process :
a) have to be of a fixed size
b) have to be a variable size
c) can be fixed or variable sized
46. The link between two processes P and Q to send and receive messages is called :
a) communication link
b) message-passing link
c) synchronization link
47. In the Zero capacity queue :
a) the queue can store at least one message
b) the sender blocks until the receiver receives the message
c) the sender keeps sending and the messages don’t wait in the queue
48. The Zero Capacity queue :
a) is referred to as a message system with buffering
b) is referred to as a message system with no buffering
c) is referred to as a link
49. Bounded capacity and Unbounded capacity queues are referred to as :
a) Programmed buffering
b) Automatic buffering
c) User defined buffering
d) No buffering
50. The request and release of resources are ___________
a) command line statements
b) interrupts
c) system calls
d) special programs
51. Multithreaded programs are :
a) lesser prone to deadlocks
b) more prone to deadlocks
c) not at all prone to deadlocks
52. For a deadlock to arise, which of the following conditions must hold simultaneously ?
a) Mutual exclusion
b) No preemption
c) Hold and wait
53. Deadlock prevention is a set of methods :
a) to ensure that at least one of the necessary conditions cannot hold
b) to ensure that all of the necessary conditions do not hold
c) to decide if the requested resources for a process have to be given or not
d) to recover from a deadlock
54. For non sharable resources like a printer, mutual exclusion :
a) must exist
b) must not exist
c) may exist
55. For sharable resources, mutual exclusion :
a) is required
b) is not required
c) may be or may not be required
c) none of the mentioned
Answers:
1 D 12 B 23 A 34 C 45 C
2 A 13 C 24 A 35 A 46 A
3 B 14 B 25 C 36 B 47 B
4 D 15 D 26 B 37 A 48 B
5 A 16 B 27 C 38 C 49 B
6 B 17 B 28 A 39 A 50 C
7 C 18 C 29 B 40 C 51 B
8 D 19 D 30 C 41 D 52 D
9 B 20 A 31 B 42 A 53 A
10 A 21 A 32 D 43 A 54 A
11 A 22 A 33 B 44 A 55 B
Software Engineering MCQs
1. The linear sequential model of software development is also known as the
a) Classical life cycle model b) Fountain model c) Waterfall model d) Spiral model
2. Evolutionary software process models
a) Are iterative in nature b) Can easily accommodate product requirements
changes c) Do not generally produce throwaway systems d) All of above
3. Which of the following is not the element of computer-based systems?
a) documentation b) software c) Hardware d) Stakeholder
4. Three things that make requirements elicitation difficult are problems of
a) Budgeting b) scope c) understanding d) b and c
5. Which of the following is not one of the requirement classifications used in Quality
Function Deployment (QFD)?
a) Mandatory b) Exciting c) Normal d) Expected
6. Which of following is not a UML diagram used creating a system analysis model?
a) Use Case Diagram b) Sequence Diagram c) Data Flow Diagram
d) Class Diagram
7. The entity relationship diagram
a) depicts relationships between data objects b) depicts functions that transform the data flow
c) indicates how data are transformed by the system d) indicates system reactions to
external events
8. UML activity diagrams are useful in representing which analysis model elements?
a) Behavioral elements b) Class-based elements c) Flow-based elements
d) Scenario-based elements
9. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word
a) accuracy b) complexity c) efficiency d) quality
10. Usability questionnaires are most meaningful to the interface designers when completed by
a) customers b) experienced programmers c) product users
d) project managers
11. What types of errors are missed by black-box testing and can be uncovered by white-box
testing?
a) Behavioral error b) Logical error c) Typographical error d) Both b and c
12. Black- box testing attempts to find errors in which of the following categories
a) incorrect or missing functions b) interface errors c) performance errors
d) All a, b &c
13. Which model is popular for students’ small projects?
a) Waterfall Model b) Spiral Model c) Quick and Fix model
d) Prototyping Model
14. Which is not a software life cycle model?
a) Spiral Model b) Waterfall Model c) Prototyping Model d) Capability
maturity Model
15. Project risk factor is considered in_____?
a) Spiral Model b) Waterfall Model c) Prototyping Model d) Iterative
enhancement Model
16. SDLC stands for?
a) Software design life cycle b) Software development life cycle c) System design life
cycle d) Spiral development life cycle
17. SRS stands for?
a) Software requirement specification b) Software requirement solution
c)System requirement specification d) None of these
18. Waterfall model is not suitable for?
a) Small Projects b) Complex Projects c) Accommodating change d) None of
These
19. Software engineering aims at developing?
a) Reliable Software b) Cost Effective Software c) Reliable and cost-effective Software
d) None of these
20. White box testing, a software testing technique is sometimes called ?
a) Basic path b) Graph Testing c) Dataflow d) Glass box testing
21. The objective of testing is ?
a) Debugging b)To uncover errors c)To gain modularity d)To analyze
system
22. Effective software project management focuses on four P's which are
a) people, performance, payoff, product b) people, product, performance, process
c) people, product, process, project d) people, process, payoff, product
23. The first step in project planning is to
a) determine the budget. b) select a team organizational model. c) determine the project
constraints. d) establish the objectives and scope.
24. Agile Software Development is based on
a)I ncremental Development b) Iterative Development c) Linear Development
d) Both a&b
25. RAD stands for ?

a) Rapid Application Development b) Relative Application Development
c) Ready Application Development d) Repeated Application Development
26. Which one of the following is NOT a useful indicators of software quality?
a) Correctness b) Code size c) Maintainability d) Integrity
27. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?
a) elicitation b) design c) analysis d) documentation
28. QFD stands for
a) quality function design b) quality function development c) quality function
deployment d) none of the mentioned
29. Which model in system modelling depicts the dynamic behaviour of the system ?
a) Context Model b) Behavioral Model c) Data Model d) Object Model
30. A step by step instruction used to solve a problem is known as
a) Sequential structure b) A List c) A plan d) An Algorithm
31. Who designs and implement database structures.
a) Programmers b) Project managers c) Technical writers d) Database
administrators
32. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:
a) Efficiency b) Accuracy c) Quality d) Complexity
33. COTS stands for
a) Commercial Off-The-Shelf systems b) Commercial Off-The-Shelf states
c) Commercial Off-The-System state d) None of the mentioned
34. What is Software ?
a) Set of computer programs, procedures and possibly associated document concerned with the
operation of data processing b) A set of compiler instructions
c) A mathematical formula d) None of above
35. Which of the following is not the characteristic of software?
a) Software does not wear out b) Software is flexible c) Software is not
manufactured d) Software is always correct
36. During software development which factor is most crucial?
a) People b) Process c) Product d) Project
37. In component design, elaboration requires which of the following elements to be described
in detail?
a) Source code b) Attributes c) Interfaces d) both b and c
38. Risk tables are sorted by
a) probability and cost b) probability and impact c) probability and size
d) probability and exposure
39. Software engineering aims at developing?
a) Reliable Software b) Cost Effective Software c) Reliable and cost-effective
Software d) None of Above
40. Which of the following items are not measured by software project metrics?
a) Input b) Markets c) Outputs d) Results
41. In object-oriented design of software, objects have.

a) attributes and names only b) operations and names only c) attributes,
name and operations d) None of above
42. Rapid Application Development Model is not appropriate when?
a) Fast finding already done b) Technical risks are high c) Testing is not
needed d) None of above
43. Software Requirement Specification is also known as specification of ___
a) White Box Testing b) Acceptance Testing c) Integrated testing
d) Black box Testing
44. If requirements are easily understandable and defined, then which model is best suited?
a) Spiral Model b) Waterfall Model c) Prototyping Model d) None of the above
45. User requirements are expressed as _______________ in Extreme Programming?
a) implementation tasks b) functionalities c) scenarios d) none of the mentioned
46. Find out Which phase in not available in SDLC?
a) Coding b) Testing c) Maintenance d) Abstraction
47. First level of Prototype is evaluated by____
a) Developer b) Tester c) User d) System Analyst
48. Which of the items listed below is not one of the software engineering layers?
a) Process b) Manufacturing c) Methods d) Tools
49. Design phase is followed by ______
a) Coding b) Testing c) Maintenance d) None of the above
50. The two dimensions of spiral model are
a) Diagonal, angular b) Radial, perpendicular c) Radial Angular d) Diagonal,
Perpendicular
51. Compilers, come under which type of software?
a) System Software b) Application Software c) Scientific Software d) Packaged
Software
52. Which coding element is generally omitted at the end of line?
a) Naming conventions b) Identifying c) White Space d) Operators
53. Which of the following activities of a Generic Process framework provides a feedback
report?
a) Communication b) Planning c) Modeling and construction d) Deployment
54. Which is the first step in the software development life cycle?
a) Analysis b) Design c) Problem Identification d) Development
55. The conditions immediately outside a system is called___
a) Interface b) Boundary c) Environment d) None of these
Answers
21) b 42) b
1) c 22) c 43) d
2) d 23) d 44) b
3) d 24) d 45) c
4) d 25) a 46) d
5) a 26) b 47) c
6) c 27) b 48) b
7) a 28) c 49) a
8) d 29) b 50) c
9) d 30) d 51) a
10) c 31) d 52) c
11) d 32) c 53) d
12) d 33) a 54) c
13) a 34) a 55) c
14) d 35) d
15) a 36) a
16) b 37) d
17) a 38) b
18) c 39) c
19) c 40) b
20) d 41) c
System Architecture & Assembly Language
1. To extend the connectivity of the processor bus we use ________

a) PCI bus
b) SCSI bus
c) Controllers
d) multiple bus
2. The bus used to connect the monitor to the CPU is ______
a) PCI bus
b) SCSI bus
c) Memory bus
d) Rambus
3. _____ register Connected to the Processor bus is a single-way transfer capable.
a) PC
b) IR
c) Temp
d) Z
4. The instruction, Add #45,R1 does _______
a) Adds the value of 45 to the address of R1 and stores 45 in that address
b) Adds 45 to the value of R1 and stores it in R1
c) Finds the memory location 45 and adds that content to that of R1
5. Add #45, when this instruction is executed the following happen/s _______
a) The processor raises an error and requests for one more operand
b) The value stored in memory location 45 is retrieved and one more operand is requested
c) The value 45 gets added to the value on the stack and is pushed onto the stack
6. The addressing mode/s, which uses the PC instead of a general purpose register is ______
a) Indexed with offset
b) Relative
c) direct
d) both Indexed with offset and direct
7. In the following indexed addressing mode instruction, MOV 5(R1),LOC the effective address
is ______
a) EA = 5+R1
b) EA = R1
c) EA = [R1].
d) EA = 5+[R1]
8. In a system, which has 32 registers the register id is ____ long.
a) 16 bit
b) 8 bits
c) 5 bits
d) 6 bits
9. The two phases of executing an instruction are __________
a) Instruction decoding and storage
b) Instruction fetch and instruction execution
c) Instruction execution and storage
d) Instruction fetch and Instruction processing
10. The Instruction fetch phase ends with _________
a) Placing the data from the address in MAR into MDR
b) Placing the address of the data into MAR
c) Completing the execution of the data and placing its storage address into MAR
d) Decoding the data in MDR and placing it in IR
11. RTN stands for ___________
a) Register Transfer Notation
b) Register Transmission Notation
c) Regular Transmission Notation
d) Regular Transfer Notation
12. Which method/s of representation of numbers occupies a large amount of memory than
others?
a) Sign-magnitude
b) 1’s complement
c) 2’s complement
d) 1’s & 2’s compliment
13. Which representation is most efficient to perform arithmetic operations on the numbers?
a) Sign-magnitude
b) 1’s complement
c) 2’S complement
14. Which method of representation has two representations for ‘0’?
a) Sign-magnitude
b) 1’s complement
c) 2’s complement
15. When we perform subtraction on -7 and 1 the answer in 2’s complement form is _________
a) 1010
b) 1110
c) 0110
d) 1000
16. When we perform subtraction on -7 and -5 the answer in 2’s complement form is ________
a) 11110
b) 1110
c) 1010
d) 0010
17. When we subtract -3 from 2 , the answer in 2’s complement form is _________
a) 0001
b) 1101
c) 0101
d) 1001
18. The processor keeps track of the results of its operations using a flags called ________
a) Conditional code flags
b) Test output flags
c) Type flags
19. The register used to store the flags is called as _________
a) Flag register
b) Status register
c) Test register
d) Log register
20. For the addition of large integers, most of the systems make use of ______
a) Fast adders
b) Full adders
c) Carry look-ahead adders
21 The Flag ‘V’ is set to 1 indicates that,
a) The operation is valid
b) The operation is validated
c) The operation has resulted in an overflow
22. ____ converts the programs written in assembly language into machine instructions.
a) Machine compiler
b) Interpreter
c) Assembler
d) Converter
23. The instructions like MOV or ADD are called as ______
a) OP-Code
b) Operators
c) Commands
24. Instructions which won’t appear in the object program are called as _____
a) Redundant instructions
b) Exceptions
c) Comments
d) Assembler Directives
25. The last statement of the source program should be _______
a) Stop
b) Return
c) OP
d) End
26. The smallest entity of memory is called _______
a) Cell
b) Block
c) Instance
d) Unit
27. A 24 bit address generates an address space of ______ locations.
a) 1024
b) 4096
c) 248
d) 16,777,216
28. If a system is 64 bit machine, then the length of each word will be _______
a) 4 bytes
b) 8 bytes
c) 16 bytes
d) 12 bytes
29. The type of memory assignment used in Intel processors is _____
a) Little Endian
b) Big Endian
c) Medium Endian
30. When using the Big Endian assignment to store a number, the sign bit of the number is stored
in _____
a) The higher order byte of the word
b) The lower order byte of the word
c) Can’t say
31. To get the physical address from the logical address generated by CPU we use ____
a) MAR
b) MMU
c) Overlays
d) TLB
32. The collection of the above mentioned entities where data is stored is called ______
a) Block
b) Set
c) Word
d) Byte
33. _____ method is used to map logical addresses of variable length onto physical memory.
a) Paging
b) Overlays
c) Segmentation
d) Paging with segmentation
34. During the transfer of data between the processor and memory we use ______
a) Cache
b) TLB
c) Buffers
d) Registers
35. Physical memory is divided into sets of finite size called as ______
a) Frames
b) Pages
c) Blocks
d) Vectors
36. If we want to perform memory or arithmetic operations on data in Hexa-decimal mode then
we use ___ symbol before the operand.
a) ~
b) !
c) $
d) *
37. When generating physical addresses from a logical address the offset is stored in _____
a) Translation look-aside buffer
b) Relocation register
c) Page table
d) Shift register
38. The technique used to store programs larger than the memory is ______
a) Overlays
b) Extension registers
c) Buffers
d) Both Extension registers and Buffers
39. The unit which acts as an intermediate agent between memory and backing store to reduce
process time is _____
a) TLB’s
b) Registers
c) Page tables
d) Cache
40. The Load instruction does the following operation/s,
a) Loads the contents of a disc onto a memory location
b) Loads the contents of a location onto the accumulators
c) Load the contents of the PCB onto the register
41. The CISC stands for ___________
a) Computer Instruction Set Compliment
b) Complete Instruction Set Compliment
c) Computer Indexed Set Components
d) Complex Instruction set computer
42. The computer architecture aimed at reducing the time of execution of instructions is
________
a) CISC
b) RISC
c) ISA
d) ANNA
43. The Sun micro systems processors usually follow _____ architecture.
a) CISC
b) ISA
c) ULTRA SPARC
d) RISC
44. The iconic feature of the RISC machine among the following is _______
a) Reduced number of addressing modes
b) Increased memory size
c) Having a branch delay slot
45. Both the CISC and RISC architectures have been developed to reduce the ______
a) Cost
b) Time delay
c) Semantic gap
46. Out of the following which is not a CISC machine.
a) IBM 370/168
b) VAX 11/780
c) Intel 80486
d) Motorola A567
47. Pipe-lining is a unique feature of _______
a) RISC
b) CISC
c) ISA
d) IANA
48. In CISC architecture most of the complex instructions are stored in _____
a) Register
b) Diodes
c) CMOS
d) Transistors
49. Which of the architecture is power efficient?
a) CISC
b) RISC
c) ISA
d) IANA
50. The pipelining process is also called as ______
a) Superscalar operation
b) Assembly line operation
c) Von Neumann cycle
51. The reserved memory or private space of the subroutine gets deallocated when _______
a) The stop instruction is executed by the routine
b) The pointer reaches the end of the space
c) When the routine’s return statement is executed
52. _____ the most suitable data structure used to store the return addresses in the case of nested
subroutines.
a) Heap
b) Stack
c) Queue
d) List
53. Which of the register/s of the processor is/are connected to Memory Bus?
a) PC
b) MAR
c) IR
d) Both PC and MAR
54. The internal Components of the processor are connected by _______
a) Processor intra-connectivity circuitry
b) Processor bus
c) Memory bus
d) Rambus
55. The registers, ALU and the interconnection between them are collectively called as _____
a) process route
b) information trail
c) information path
d) data path
Answers:
1. a 2. b 3. d 4. b 5. b 6. b 7. d 8. c 9. b 10. d
11. a 12. a 13. c 14. a 15. d 16. b 17. c 18. a 19. b 20. c
21. c 22. c 23. a 24. d 25. d 26. a 27. d 28. b 29. a 30. a
31. b 32. c 33. c 34. d 35. a 36. c 37. b 38. a 39. d 40. b
41. d 42. b 43. d 44. c 45. c 46. d 47. a 48. d 49. b 50. b
51. c 52. b 53. b 54. b 55. d
CS -710 Visual Programming
1. What access modifier provides the least access privilege
a. Public
b. Private
c. Protected
d. None of these
2. Methods having same name & parameters but different classes that are related by inheritance
a. Method overriding
b. Method overloading
c. Method doubling
d. None
3. One execution of a loop is known as a(n):

a. Cycle
b. Iteration
c. Duration
d. Spin
4. Which keyword indicates the starting point of a decision structure?

a. LOOP
b. IF FOR
c. ELSE
d. FOR
5. Which of the following returns True if A = 25 and B = 35:

a. A != B
b. A>=B
c. A+B
d. A=B
6. The parallelogram symbol in a flow chart indicates:
a. Input.
b. Output
c. Both a and b
d. None
7. The process of carefully observing the working of an algorithm to find out logical errors is called:
a. Desk Checking
b. Compiling
c. Debugging
d. Coding
8. The process of writing a program in programming language is called:
a. Flow chart
b. Coding
c. Desk Checking
d. None
9. The set of rules for writing a program in any programming language is called:
a. Syntax
b. Bug
c. Debug
d. None
10. The output of the compiler is called:
a. Error code
b. Source code
c. Linked code
d. Object code
11. A type of language in which instructions are written in binary form is called:
a. Machine language
b. Assembly language
c. High level language
d. None
12. Writing programs in machine language is:
a. Complex
b. Simple
c. Time-consuming
d. Both a and c
13. Which of the following is not a high level language?
a. Assembly language
b. Pascal
c. BASIC
d. FORTRAN
14. The lowest level of programming language is:
a. Java
b. Binary Language
c. Pascal
d. C++
15. Which is true about a variable when it has been declared?
a. Name cannot change, value can change
b. Name can change, value cannot
c. Name & value both can change
d. Name & value both cannot change

16. Visual Studio is an:
a. Object Oriented Program
b. Integrated Development Environment
c. Compiler
d. Software Design Environment
17. What access modifier provides the most relaxed access privilege
a. Public
b. Private
c. Protected
d. None of these
18. Which of the following is NOT a windows form application control:
a. Command Button
b. Forms
c. Variable
d. Text Box
19. Which control is used to display text or to accept user input?
a. Label
b. Text box
c. Button
d. None
20. All the following are examples of controls EXCEPT:
a. Label
b. Textbox
c. Property
d. Button
21. In Java keyword __________ is used to inherit a class.
a. parent
b. own
c. extends
d. relate
22. A memory location with some data that cannot change is called:
a. Constant.
b. Variable.
c. Named constant.
d. Symbolic constant.
23. Which is true about a variable when it has been declared?
a. Name and value both can change
b. Name can change, value cannot
c. Name cannot change, value can change
d. Name and value both cannot change
24. Variable and constant names cannot contain
a. Number
b. Underscore
c. Letter
d. Special Characters
25. Variable names cannot begin with
a. Number.
b. Underscore
c. Upper-case letter
d. Lower-case letter
26: Which of the following is NOT valid variable name?
a. ThisIsAValidVariableName
B. So0is0This
c. HOWABOUTTHIS?
c. IS_THIS_VALID_ASWELL
27. Which term describes the kind of values that a variable can store?
a. Variable Name
b. Datatype
c. Variabletype
d. Variablesize
28. Which statement is TRUE about a data type?
a. A data type determines the kind of data a variable can store.
b. A data type has no effect on how data is stored in memory.
c. A data type has no impact on how fast your application will run.
d. A data type is always handled by the computer.
29. Which statement is TRUE about data types?
a. Each data type has no memory requirements
b. Each data type has different memory requirements
c. Each data type has the same memory requirements
d. None of the above
30. What kinds of numbers are stored in Single and Double data types?
a. Floating point numbers
b. Single and double numbers
c. Short integer numbers
d. Long integer numbers

31. Which of the following is required to declare a variable
a. Name of datatype
b. Name of variable
c. Data type
d. All
32. A string literal must be enclosed in:
a. Quotation marks (")
b. Single quotes (')
c. Pound signs (#)
d. Exclamation sign (!)
33. Comments are used to:
a. Help others read & understand program
b. Make the program run faster
c. Make program compile easier
d. Increase the size of executable program
34. Which of the following can be used to get input from user on a form?
a. Format
b. Text box
c. Messagebox
d. None
35. An expression consists of:
a. Operators
b. Operand
c. Both a and b
d. None
36. An expression can be a:
a. Constant.
b. Variable.
c. Combination of constants, variables, and arithmetic operators
d. All of the above
37. All of the following are valid mathematical expression EXCEPT:
a. Sales — Revenues
b. Mpg, Gallons
c. Pi * Radius
d. M/n
38. Which of the following is NOT arithmetic operators:
a. +
b. -
c. %
d. &&
39. The % operator is used for:
a. Exponentiation
b. Multiplication
c. Division
d. Integer remainder
40. The expression 10 % 3 has a value equal to:
a. 1
b. 3
c. 8
d. None
41. Which of the following operators is used to assign a value to a variable?
a. >
b. +
c. =
d. None
42. Which of the following is valid assignment statement?
a. x = 100
b. x = a + b
c. x = c - d + 10
d. All of these
43. What is the value of x after the following statements?
int x, y, z; y = 10, z = 3; x = y * z + 3;
a. 12
b. 60
c. 30
d. 33
44. What is the value of x after the following statements?
Int x = 0;
x += 30;
a. 0
b. 30
c. 33
d. none
45. ________________ loop executes at least once.
a. For
b. Do While
c. While
d. foreach
46. For the expression X = 2 *102542*6.3*2.9*12564846598745652. What is the data type of X
a.int
b. double
c. long
d. bool
47. Which value is returned if "11 % 3" is executed?
a. 2.666
b. 2
c. 2/3
d. 3
48. Which of the following is NOT a valid variable data type?
a. Integer
b. Real
c. float
d. String
49. The statement to declare a local variable called Index that will store integer numbers is:
a. let whllndex as whole
b. String strindex
c. Dim Integer as intlndex
d. int lndex
50. Which of the following statements is NOT true about variables?
a. They can be set only once during your program's execution
b. Their names have a limit of 255 characters
c. The first character of their name must be a letter
d. They may contain either numeric or string data
51. Which of the following is a valid variable declaration statement?
a. ZIPCODE 7 64323
b. String DiskSpace = "30 Gigabytes"
c. Dim $BankBalance As String = 10
d. Dimension YourAge As Integer
52. Which is the valid way to declare constant in C# ?
a. Const double pi = 3.141592
b. Const pi as double
c. Const pi=3.141592
d. None
53. To display a message ____________ is used.
a. Inputbox
b. MessageBox
c. Msgbox
d. None
54. Which of the following is a correct name of variable?
a. Vari'Name
b. 100bye
c. VariableName
d. All
55. Methods with same name in same class but different parameters are
a. Method overriding
b. Method overloading
c. Method doubling
d. None
Answers
1- B
2- A
3- B
4- B
5- A
6- C
7- C
8- B
9- A
10- D
11- A
12- D
13- A
14- B
15- A
16- B
17- A
18- C
19- B
20- C
21- C
22- A
23- C
24- D
25- A
26- C
27- B
28- A
29- B
30- A
31- D
32- A
33- A
34- B
35- C
36- C
37- B
38- D
39- D
40- A
41- C
42- D
43- D
44- B
45- B
46- B
47- B
48- B
49- D
50- A
51- B
52- A
53- C
54- C
55- B

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Multiple Choice Questions of Artificial Intelligence

S/No Statements and Options Ans

2. An auto-associative network is:

3. What are the advantages of neural networks over conventional computers?

4. Which is true for neural networks?

5. Why is the XOR problem exceptionally interesting to neural network researchers?

6. What is back propagation?

9. Which of the following is an application of NN (Neural Network)?

11. Two basic types of rule based systems are,

12. Artificial intelligence is

13. Input segments of AI programming contains…

14. Output segments of AI programming contains?

18. Semantic Networks is

19. Graph used to represent semantic network is,

24. Strong Artificial Intelligence is

26. Which of the following, is a component of an expert system?

28. Machine learning is

30. Perception involves

31. How the new states are generated in genetic algorithm?

33. An optimal algorithm finds a…

36. Hill-Climbing approach stuck for the following reasons

37. Where does the bayes rule can be used?

38. What does the Bayesian network provides?

43. Weak Artificial intelligence is?

44. Input segments of AI programming contain?

45. Output segments of AI programming contain?

46. What is a Cybernetics?

47. What is the goal of artificial intelligence?

48. Which is true regarding BFS (Breadth First Search)?

49. What is a heuristic function?

50. What kind of perception is used in printing?

52. The first AI programming language was called:

54. -----------------reasoning is based on forming, or inducing a ‘generalization’ from a limited set of

59. Usually a ----------- graph is chosen to represent a fuzzy set

61. MSE stands for ---------------

66. In the statement “IF A THEN B”, B is called

67. Using deduction to reach a conclusion from a set of antecedents is called

69. Which one is NOT the advantage of Neural Network

73. Backpropagation is used with..

74. Which one is NOT the phase of machine learning

75. In training a neural net, weights of connections are changed in response to

77. Neurons in hidden layers are those

79. Neural nets learn by…

80. Perceptron learning adjusts….

81. Graphs represent…. problems and their solution spaces

82. Graph can be converted into

86. An expert system may ……

87. In Artificial Intelligence GA stands for..

88. A database of rules is also called knowledge base

89. In optimal path searches we try to find the -------- solution

91. In AI, a representation of ….… is a combination of data structures and interpretive

92. …….. is an environment in which the search takes place.

96. What is used to initiate the perception in the environment?

97. How to increase the brightness of the pixel?

98. What is the process of breaking an image into groups?

99. What is defined by set of strings?

100. What is a finite set of rules that specifies a language?

10. b 29. d 48. b

11. a 30. a 49. e