Inicet Nov 23 - QP

INI-CET Nov’23 – QP
(Authentic MCQs by Team: BDS-2-MDS)

1. World ‘No Tobacco day’ is celebrated on?
1) 31st May
2) 20th December
3) 7th April
4) June 6th
2. Which of the following is not affected by outliers?
1) Standard deviation
2) Range
3) Interquartile range
4) Mean
3. The term Enameloma refers to?
1) Tumour resembling enamel present on the gingiva

2) Tumour of ameloblasts failed to differentiate
3) Remnants of epithelium in the line of fusion
4) Tiny globule of enamel, arises from a small group of misplaced ameloblasts
4. A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with painful ulcers which rapidly progressed. Histopathology reveals
ballooning degeneration of epithelial cells and Lipschutz bodies. What is the diagnosis?
1) Herpes
2) Herpangina
3) Condyloma accumulatum
4) Infectious mononucleosis
5. A 3-year-old girl having delayed milestones, playing with herself, difficulty in learning is likely to be suffering from?
1) Autism
2) ADHD
3) Mental retardation
4) Specific learning disorder
6. Lifespan of RBCs in circulating blood is?
1) 12 days
2) 100-110 days
3) 1 year
4) 6 days
www.bds2mds.com ANSWERS & DISCUSSIONS on BDS-2-MDS App

7. The physiologic transport medium to carry an avulsed tooth which is not to be replanted immediately is?
1) HBSS
2) Viaspan
3) Saline
4) Milk
8. Identify the wiring technique from the given image:
1) Ivy eyelet
2) Gilmer
3) Risdon’s
4) Kazanjian button
9. What is the instrument used here?
1) Diagnodent
2) EPT
3) Apex locator
4) Quantitative Laser Fluorescence
10. Scammon's curves for growth of the four major tissue systems of the body. Which is the tissue the arrow
depicts?
1) Neural
2) General
3) Lymphatic
4) Genital
11. Space maintainer comes under which level of prevention?
1) Health promotion
2) Disability limitation
3) Specific protection
4) Rehabilitation
12. A 20-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 6-month history of pain over the TMJ and reduced mouth
opening. On examination tenderness of TMJ is seen. Radiographic image shows resorptive changes in the condyle.
Identify the condition:
1) Disc displacement with reduction

2) Idiopathic condylar resorption
3) Fractured condyle
4) TMJ dislocation

13. What is the diagnosis peculiar to this radiograph?
1) Multiple myeloma
2) Paget’s disease
3) Craniofacial dysostosis
4) Mutational dysostosis
14. Bilateral expansile mandibular lesion is characterised by?
1) Paget’s disease
2) Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
3) Cherubism
4) Giant cell granuloma
15. For extraction of mandibular third molar, LA was injected in a known diabetic patient. After the injection of LA he
complains of double vision. What can be the cause?
1) Hyperglycaemia
2) Hypoglycemia
3) Syncope
4) Inadvertent injection into infraorbital foramen

16. Identify the diagnosis in a male patient with a tongue lesion enlarging progressively :
1) Hemangioma
2) Lymphangioma
3) Kaposi sarcoma
4) Angiosarcoma
17. A patient in dental chair suddenly becomes unconscious but he is breathing. What should be the next step?
1) Check BP and intubate

2) 12 lead ECG
3) CPR immediately
4) Recline the chair, shout for help, give oxygen
18. 18-30 fluted carbide bur is used for?
1) Finishing
2) Polishing
3) Grinding
4) Contouring
19. Carotid sinus is situated at the origin of?

1) Aorta
2) External carotid artery
3) Common carotid artery
4) Internal carotid artery

20. Facial bone which is more prone to fracture is?
1) Nasal
2) Mandible
3) Maxilla
4) Zygoma
21. The given instrument works on the principle of?
1) Class 2 lever
2) Wheel and axle
3) Wedge
4) Class 3 lever
22. Identify the type of injury from the image:

1) Subluxation
2) Lateral luxation
3) Complicated crown root fracture
4) Intrusive luxation
23. What is the given orthodontic appliance?
1) Ni-Ti expander
2) Ni-Cr expander
3) Quad Helix
4) Hyrax
24. A young patient has subluxation injury. What is the best treatment in such scenario?
1) Flexible splinting for 2 weeks with no healing of periodontium

2) Fixed splinting for 4 weeks for healing of periodontium
3) Flexible splinting for 2 weeks only for pain relief and not for periodontal healing
4) Fixed splinting for 2 weeks for pain relief only
25. Factors predisposing to myiasis are all except:
1) Proclination of incisors
2) Cerebral palsy
3) Poor oral hygiene
4) Improper sanitation
26. Which is the ideal finish line for all ceramic crown preparations?
1) Chamfer
2) Shoulder
3) Radial shoulder
4) Feather edge

27. The wall which most commonly collapses in orbital blow out fracture is:
1) Medial
2) Lateral
3) Roof
4) Floor
28. In relative analgesia, minimum concentration of oxygen supplied with nitrous oxide is?
1) 30%
2) 40%
3) 20%
4) 10%
29. Oxygen supply is needed for a patient admitted in ICU. According to color coding, how will one identify the
oxygen cylinder?
1) Blue cylinder with white collar

2) Black cylinder with white collar
3) White cylinder with black collar
4) White cylinder
30. Identify the surgical instrument:

1) Piezoelectric surgery insert
2) Sinus lift surgery insert
3) Ultrasonic scaler tip
4) Titanium insert
31. Common carotid artery bifurcates at the level of:
1) Hyoid bone
2) Cricoid cartilage
3) 2nd tracheal ring
4) Thyroid cartilage
32. Incision for emergency cricothyroidectomy is given at the level of:
1) Below thyroid cartilage

2) Above thyroid cartilage
3) Below cricoid cartilage
4) Below hyoid bone
33. Which of the following give rise to calcified tissues of teeth?
1) Mesoderm and Endoderm

2) Ectoderm only
3) Ectoderm and Mesoderm
4) Ectoderm and Endoderm
34. Which of the following tumors develop from odontogenic mesenchyme?
i. Odontogenic myxoma
ii. Odontoameloblastoma
iii. Cementoblastoma
iv. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour
1) i&ii
2) ii&iii
3) ii&iv
4) i&iii
35. True microdontia of maxillary lateral incisor is called?
1) Taurodont
2) Peg lateral
3) Hutchinson’s tooth
4) Mulberry tooth

36. When the incidence of a particular disease is greater than the prevalence of the same disease in a given period of
time, which can be true?
1) Disease is fatal & easily curable

2) Disease is not fatal & not curable
3) Incidence cannot be higher than prevalence
4) Data is wrongly interpreted
37. Exclusion criteria for silver diamine fluoride application:
1) Patient with no history of spontaneous pain

2) Mild pulpal inflammation
3) Caries involving dentin
4) When patient is uncoperative
38. Stiffness of a dental material is best described by?
1) Resistance to abrasion
2) Resistance to elastic deformation
3) Resistance to fracture
4) Resistance to plastic deformation
39. Match the following:
1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

2) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
40. Most common measure of variance when measuring the prevalence of malocclusion is:
1) Standard deviation
2) Range
3) Coefficient
4) Mean

41. Standard deviation is 8 and mean is 49, what is the coefficient of variance?
1) 16.2
2) 0.16
3) 0.85
4) 1.6
42. Identify the instrument in the colour palette
1) Marquis colour coded probe

2) Naber’s probe
3) Michegan O probe
4) Dental explorer
43. Lymphatic drainage of tongue does not drain into which of the following?
1) Central
2) Marginal
3) Posterior
4) Ventral
44. Which of the mixed dentition analysis does not use mandibular incisors?
1) Tanaka and Johnson

2) Moyers
3) Huckaba
4) Staley Kerber

45. Which is the best method of isolation during vital pulp therapy ?
1) Cotton roll
2) Rubber dam
3) Salivary ejector
4) Sialogogues
46. 1 PHC covers _________________ people in hilly region.
1) 20,000
2) 1,00,000
3) 30,000
4) 50,000
47. Which among the following is the best method to prevent ventilator associated pneumonia in critically ill
patients?
1) Manual tooth brushing

2) Oral hygiene care and chlorhexidine mouthwash
3) Powered tooth brushing
4) Betadine
48. Which of the following contains all three germ layers?
1) Teratoid cyst
2) Hamartoma
3) Dermoid cyst
4) Sebaceous cyst
49. Identify the following abnormality
1) Dilaceration
2) Gemination
3) Dental fusion
4) Supernumerary tooth

50. Which of the following correctly depicts the image?
1) CPITN probe with markings of 3.0 – 5.5 and 8.5 – 11.5

2) WHO probe with markings of 3.5 – 5.0 and 8.5 – 11.5
3) CPITN probe with markings of 3.5 – 5 and 8.5 – 11.0
4) WHO probe with markings of 3.5 – 5.5 and 8.5 – 11.5
51. In this case, nasolabial angle is
1) Acute
2) Obtuse
3) Normal
4) Ideal
52. Non-parametric equivalent of paired t test
1) Kruskall Wallis test

2) Friedman test
3) Wilcoxon signed test
4) Z-test

53. Calorific value of fat is
1) 14
2) 9
3) 4
4) 30
54. Hyperactive mentalis activity is more common in which type of malocclusion?
1) Class II div 2
2) Class III
3) Class II div 1
4) Bimaxillary protrusion
55. Combination of Amoxycillin and Clavulanic acid works best because of
1) Antagonism
2) Cumulative action
3) Partial antagonism
4) Synergism
56. Phrenic nerve supplies
1) Diaphragm
2) Stomach
3) Oesophagus
4) Ileum
57. Purpose of pulpotomy in young permanent tooth
1) To induce root formation

2) To prevent root fracture
3) To form a calcified barrier
4) To prevent infection
58. Excessive carbohydrate is stored in the form of
1) Trans fatty acid

2) Mucopolysaccharide
3) Polypeptide
4) Glycogen
59. Which of the following represents airway obstruction
1) Strenuous breathing
2) Slow pounding pulse

3) Increased pulse rate
4) Decreased blood pressure
60. Some of the bacteria contains capsule. Purpose of capsule in bacteria is:
1) Spore formation
2) Decreased virulence
3) To prevent them from phagocytosis
4) Protection against immune system
61. Treatment for the given cleft is ideally done at
1) 6 months
2) 9 months
3) 18 months
4) 12 months
62. Which will be the ideal pontic design for the case given below
1) Conical
2) Modified ridge lap
3) Sanitary
4) Ovate
63. Platelets circulate in blood for

1) 2 days
2) 6 - 7 days
3) 1 month
4) 1 year
64. Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis is not characterized by
1) Gingival recession
2) Bone loss
3) Tooth loss
4) Pocket
65. 100 chest X-rays were given to two physicians for evaluating kappa statistics. The value obtained is 0.71. The
resulting association can be interpreted as:
1) Perfect agreement
2) Disagreement
3) Good agreement
4) Moderate agreement
66. Identify the appliance from the given image:
1) Activator
2) Bionator
3) Functional regulator
4) Twin block

67. Identify the appliance from the given image
1) Herbst
2) Jasper jumper
3) Forces appliance
4) RITO
68. Streptococcus mutans are able to attach to the tooth surface and contribute to plaque formation by:
1) Fermnention of carbohydratres
2) Producing acids
3) Producing extracellular polysaccharides
4) Resistant to penicillinase
69. First sound produced by the child:
1) Monolabial
2) Bilabial
3) Nasal
4) Hypernasal
70. Nikolsky sign is absent in:
1) Toxic epidermal necrolysis

2) Mucous membrane pemphigoid
3) Bullous pemphigoid
4) Scalded skin syndrome
71. Which of the following chemical added to PMMA acts as a retarder
1) Hydroquinone
2) Benzoyl peroxide
3) Metal oxides
4) Dibutyl phthalate

72. The polymer to monomer ratio in resin is:
1) 3:1 by weight; 2:1 by volume

73. True about Garre’s osteomyelitis is:
1) Seen in immunocompromised patients

2) Seen in children & young adults
3) Has moth eaten radiographic feature
4) Causative organism is staphylococcus
74. Posterior triangle of neck is subdivided into two parts by which muscle?
1) Sternocleidomastoid
2) Superior belly of omohyoid
3) Inferior belly of omohyoid
4) Pulley of trapezius
75. What is the given appliance, and for which purpose it is given?
1) Removable functional appliance for thumb sucking

2) Fixed functional appliance for thumb sucking
3) Removable functional appliance for tongue thrusting
4) Fixed functional appliance for tongue thrusting
76. The colour of Bile is due to?
1) Bilirubin
2) Iron
3) Creatinine
4) Mercaptopurine

77. Leeway space of Nance is due to:
1) Space difference between primary and permanent maxillary canines

2) Space difference between primary and permanent incisors
3) Space difference between primary canines & molars and their successors
4) Space difference between primary and permanent molars
78. Highest number of bacteria can be found in which surface?
1) Buccal
2) Lingual
3) Interproximal
4) Occlusal
79. Orthodontic wires are bend at room temperature. This procedure denotes:
1) Strain hardening
2) Ductility
3) Annealing
4) Tempering
80. Waldeyer’s ring doesn’t involve:
1) Lingual tonsils
2) Pharyngeal tonsils
3) Submandibuar nodes
4) Palatine tonsils
81. The ratio of standard deviation to Mean is called:
1) Range
2) Coefficient of variance
3) Standard error
4) Proportion
82. Consider the following:
i. Odontogenic keratocysts
ii. Calcified falx cerebri
iii. Short metacarpals
iv. Enlarged head circumference
Which of the features given above are seen in Nevoid basal cell carcinoma?
1) i&ii
2) ii&iii

3) iii&iv
4) i&iv
83. Which is not a successor from the given OPG?
1) 54
2) 45
3) 16
4) 42
84. A 10-year-old boy came to the dentist with complicated crown fracture of 11&12. Immature open apex is seen in
12 with abscess formation. Vitality testing of 11,12 proves negative. What will be the treatment plan for this child?

1) Apexification 12 & RCT 11
2) Revascularization 12 & RCT 11
3) Extraction of 12 & RCT 11
4) Extraction of both 12&11
85. Identify the type of suture commonly used:
1) Figure of 8
2) Simple loop
3) Periosteal suture
4) None of the above
86. Riga Fede disease is associated with:
1) Vesicular lesion
2) Missing teeth
3) Retained primary teeth
4) Natal teeth
87. Which nerve is tested with anterior 2/3rd of the tongue protruded by placing salt on its tip?
1) Facial
2) Trigeminal
3) Lingual
4) Vagus
88. What is shown in the given image of teeth setting in an articulator?

1) Unilateral group function
2) Balanced occlusion with posterior teeth in contact during protrusion
3) Unilateral canine guided occlusion
4) Bilateral canine guided occlusion
89. Male with an extra chromosome X – most commonly seen with:
1) Dens in dente
2) Turner’s tooth
3) Supernumerary tooth
4) Taurodontism
90. Which of the following premalignant conditions has the highest potential to become malignant?
1) Proliferative verrucous leukoplakia

2) Speckled leukoplakia
3) Lichen planus
4) Tobacco pouch keratosis
91. Guide planes which are used in fabrication of RPDs serve the purpose of:
1) Determine the path of insertion

2) Predictable clasp retention
3) Required for precision attachment
4) Is perpendicular to occlusal plane
92. Ratio of event occurring to the event not occurring is called?
1) Odds ratio
2) Relative risk
3) Risk ratio
4) Odds
93. At what time during the intrauterine life, does the palatal shelves begin to fuse?
1) 6 weeks
2) 8 weeks
3) 10 weeks
4) 12 weeks
94. Common site of CSF rhinorrhea in middle third facial fractures:
1) Tegman tympani
2) Frontal bone
3) Cribriform plate
4) Inferior meatus

95. True for Curve of Wilson is:
1) Anteroposterior curve
2) Helps in posterior teeth arrangement
3) Determines posterior occlusion
4) Curve touching tips of all the teeth towards the anterior border of ramus
96. Calculate the Odds ratio for the following:
1) 2.25
2) 1.2
3) 1
4) 0.44
97. Calculate the Risk difference with the given values:
1) 0.33
2) 1.78
3) 0.16
4) 2.25
98. The most effective, scientifically proven and cost-efficient caries prevention program in children is
1) Oral health education

2) Enameloplasty
3) ART
4) Pit and fissure sealants
99. An avulsed tooth which is replanted 1 year back shows loss of lamina dura radiographically, high metallic sound
on percussion. The type of resorption is:
1) Replacement resorption
2) Inflammatory resorption
3) External resorption

4) Internal resorption
100. Medial displacement of condylar head during subcondylar fracture is due to the action of which muscle?
1) Medial pterygoid
2) Lateral pterygoid
3) Buccinator
4) Masseter
101. Which of the orthodontic wires can be bent multiple times without fracture?
1) Stainless steel
2) Co-Cr-Ni
3) Ni-Ti
4) Beta Titanium
102. An examiner wants to study the efficiency of oral hypoglycaemic drugs in a community. The blood glucose levels
of test and control groups are recorded before and after the drug intake. Which test should be used?
1) Paired ‘t’ test

2) Unpaired ‘t’ test
3) ANOVA
4) Chi square test
103. Moderately built athlete with a habit of chewing gums reported to the clinic with complaint of asymptomatic
right mandible swelling. On palpation, the swelling is bony hard in consistency. What could be the diagnosis?

1) Traumatic myositis ossificans
2) Parotitis
3) MPDS
4) Hypertrophy of masseter muscle
104. Fracture of ceramic teeth in a denture over years is due to?
1) Increased vertical dimension

2) Ridge resorption
3) Labially placed maxillary teeth
4) Contraction of resin
105. Which drug is prescribed for pain in diabetic neuropathy?
1) Pregabalin
2) Carbamazepine
3) Phenytoin
4) Amitryptyline
106. Assess the condition of the patient with the given laboratory findings:
1) Recovery from hepatitis B

2) Acute hepatitis B with high infectivity
3) Chronic hepatitis infection in an immunized patient
4) Immunised status against hepatitis B
107. Which of the following doesn’t corrode metal surfaces in oral cavity?
1) Chlorides
2) Carbides
3) Oxides
4) Sulphides

108. Old patient came with discomfort while wearing dentures and complaints of ineffective chewing. Which of the
following cannot be the cause?
1) Moving part of articulator

2) Increased VD
3) Impression error
4) Improper closure of flask
109. Which of the following is true regarding FISH technique?
1) DNA methylation
2) RNA transcription
3) Identification of genes
4) Used with interphase nucleus
110. Injection into which of the following give rise to Bell’s palsy?
1) Buccinator
2) Parotid gland
3) Maxillary sinus
4) Pterygomandibular space
111. After gap arthroplasty to a patient, which of the steps will be necessary for functional rehabilitation of the
condyle?
1) Physiotherapy
2) Inter-positional fat fascia
3) Costochondral graft
4) Reconstruction plate
112. Concentration of aluminium in retraction cord is:
1) 2%
2) 5%
3) 10%
4) 20%
113. Old CD wearer has the habit of chewing with front teeth. What will be the effect?
1) Loss of stability in the denture

2) Flabby anterior soft tissue
3) Atrophy of posterior ridge
4) Atrophy of anterior ridge
114. Low grade salivary gland malignancy among the following tumors:
1) Pleomorphic adenoma

2) Acinic cell carcinoma
3) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
4) Canalicular adenoma
115. Which of the following is not a physiological method of heat loss from the body?
1) Posture
2) Sweating
3) Peripheral vasoconstriction
4) Vasodilation
116. Edentulous patient arrived at the dental clinic for complete denture. Which of the following is not affected by
the period of edentulousness?
1) Residual ridge resorption

2) Tongue size
3) Patient’s attitude towards the denture
4) Patient’s adaptation to the CD
117. Role of plasticiser in synthetic resins:
1) Increases the smooth mix

2) To form bulk of the material
3) Reduce the softening & fusing temperature
4) To decrease polymerisation shrinkage
118. Identify the incision:
1) Thoma

2) Alkayat Bramley
3) Hind’s
4) Popowich
119 . Bigonal flaring in symphyseal fracture is managed by?
1) Buccal reduction
2) Lingual reduction
3) Intermaxillary fixation
4) Compression plates
120. Patient with a disorder characterised by the presence of Philadelphia chromosome and gingival lesions is:
1) Hairy leukoplakia
2) ALL
3) CML
4) AML
121. A 76-year-old female reported to intern in a crowded OPD, complaining of difficulty in breathing , irritable
bowel movements. She had previous history of fall one year back with confusion and was hospitalized. Intern
decided to do further geriatric examination. What are the three red flags that the intern should be aware of?
1) Age, sex, fall

2) Age, sex, confusion
3) Age, sex, irritable bowel movements
4) Age, respiratory problem, irritable bowel movements
122. Oral myiasis is most common in which country :
1) India
2) Brazil
3) Bangladesh
4) Turkey
123. Most common site of oral myiasis:
1) Lip
2) Palate
3) Gingiva
4) Buccal mucosa
124. Which of the following is not seen in Bell’s distribution?
1) When mean is smaller than median

2) When range is greater than interquartile range
3) When SD > 5
4) When there are no outliers

125. During 18th century, British East India company illegally traded which of the following to china?
1) Opium
2) Magic mushroom
3) Marijuana
4) Tobacco
126. Which of the following is not included in national immunization schedule in India
1) BCG
2) Human papilloma virus (HPV)
3) Measles
4) DPT
127. A 35-year-old female patient presents with a complaint of a persistent burning sensation in her mouth, which
intensifies when eating spicy foods. On examination, there are irregular, red, smooth, and depapillated patches on
the dorsal surface of the tongue. These patches display a serpiginous, map-like pattern with a white border. There
are no signs of infection or systemic disease. What is your diagnosis?
1) Median rhomboid glossistis

2) Erosive lichen planus
3) Candidiasis
4) Geographic tongue

1) Class 2
2) Class 3
3) End-on
4) Mesial step

129. A 26-year-old male patient presents to your clinic with a complaint of a persistent ulcer on the inside of his
cheek. He has a history of chewing tobacco for several years. On examination, the ulcer is found to be non-healing,
irregularly shaped, and measures approximately 2 cm in diameter with palpable submandibular lymph nodes.
Excisional biopsy revealed keratin pearls with downward proliferation of epithelial masses. What will be the
diagnosis?
1) Squamous cell carcinoma

2) SLE
3) Verrucous leukoplakia
4) Membranous candidiasis
130. A patient complaints of inability to open mouth and has sensitivity to spicy food has h/o chronic tobacco
chewing also; no known medical history. On examination, palpable fibrotic bands are observed from retromolar area
to the angle of mouth. The best diagnosis would be:
1) Oral lichen planus

2) OSMF
3) Fordyce’s spots
4) Atrophic leukoplakia
131. Which of the following is not associated with ‘vital tooth’?
1) Dentigerous cyst
2) Globulomaxillary cyst
3) Lateral periodontal cyst
4) Radicular cyst

132. Which of the following sets by condensation polymerisation reaction?
1) Alginate
2) Agar agar
3) Zinc oxide eugenol impression paste
4) Polyether
133. Luting of all ceramic laminates is done with:
1) GIC
2) Compomer
3) Zinc oxide eugenol
4) Any material of choice based on clinician’s opinion
134. Glazed porcelain – true is:
1) Is stronger than unglazed porcelain

2) Is weaker than unglazed porcelain
3) It has no effect on strength of porcelain
4) Is less esthetic than unglazed porcelain
135. Patient has undergone radiation therapy for carcinoma in Head & Neck region 2 years back. His oral mucosa
looks friable. What is the material of choice for impression making in such scenario?
1) ZOE
2) Reversible hydrocolloid
3) Alginate
4) Polysulphide
136. Caries is involving both the mesiobuccal and distobuccal cusps of mandibular molars, what is the material of
choice for treatment?
1) GIC
2) Full crown
3) Onlay
4) Intermediate restoration
137. Auto-inoculation is seen in:
1) Lichen planus
2) Papilloma
3) Erythema multiformae
138. Major drawback of removable orthodontic appliance is:
1) Speech difficulties
2) Esthetics

3) Difficult to clean
4) Dependant on patient’s co-operation
139. Dentinogenesis imperfecta is an autosomal dominant disorder. Which of the following chromosome is related
to it?
1) 21
2) 6
3) 4
4) 9
140. DALY is calculated by:
1) Years of healthy life lost minus years lost due to disability

2) Life expectancy at birth minus life lived without disability
3) Years of healthy life lost plus years lost due to disability
4) None
141. Identify the procedure done in the given image, with the history of fall 1 year back in which the intracanal
medicament is placed (metapex):
1) Apexification
2) Apexogenesis
3) Revascularization
4) Vital bleaching
142. Time dependant antimicrobial action is provided by:
1) Penicillin
2) Daptomycin
3) Rifampicin
4) Gentamycin

143. In statistics, data is defined as:
1) Observations recorded
2) Group of samples collected
3) Representative of the group
4) Arithmetic unit expressed in kg/l/m
144. When preparing a partial veneer crown on a maxillary premolar, proximal grooves should be:
1) Parallel to the long axis of the tooth

2) Parallel to the lingual surface
3) Parallel to the gingival two third of facial surface
4) Parallel to the incisal two third of facial surface
145. Gene associated with Ewing’s sarcoma is:
1) EWSR-1
2) BCL fusion X
3) GNAS1
4) SH3PB2
146. Which of the following is correctly matched?
a. Pre-contemplation – patient who made attempts to quit smoking last year is planning to quit smoking
now
b. Contemplation – patient is thinking about benefits of quitting smoking
c. Action – patient has quit the habit and thinks about the importance of physical activity, now walking for
30 minutes a day
d. Maintenance – obesity runs in my family, and I can’t do anything about it
1) a&b
2) b&c
3) a&c
4) b&d
147. Which of the following is highest level of community participation?
1) Contribution of resources for intervention by the community

2) Planning of intervention by the community
3) Meeting the felt needs of the community
4) Intervention according to the ideas of the community
148. Below are risk factors predisposing to carcinoma except?
1) DNA aneuploidy
2) Male
3) Leukoplakia in non-smokers

4) Invasive candidiasis
149. CO diffusion into blood is low, because of:
1) Carbon monoxide has high affinity for hemoglobin

2) Alveolar membrane is less permeable to CO
3) CO crosses epithelial barrier slowly
4) Increase in partial pressure on exposure to air
150. Virus that requires reverse transcriptase reaction before polymerase chain reaction:
1) Ebola
2) Rabies
3) Chicken pox
4) Adeno virus
151. Disease contained in a region with very less frequency which is not related to time & place can be defined as:
1) Sporadic
2) Mesoendemic
3) Lower endemic
4) Holoendemic
152. In recent years, swine flu infection was popular for its contamination. This disease is a classic example of:
1) Endemic
2) Epidemic
3) Pandemic
4) Seasonal variation
153. A 3-year-old child with a complaint of intruded upper left incisor visits the clinic after an injury. X-ray
examination reveals no fracture to the alveolar bone. What will the treatment plan?
1) Wait & watch

2) Orthodontic extrusion
3) Surgical extrusion
4) Extraction
154. When soft tissue liners are used, the pressure threshold of the underlying ridge:
1) Increases
2) Decreases
3) Depends on the resiliency of the basal tissues
4) Remains the same

155. Identify the prothesis given below:
1) Tooth supported overdenture

2) Hybrid prosthesis
3) Interim prosthesis
4) Cast partial denture
156. Ghost cells in histopathology is seen with?
1) Calcifying odontogenic cyst

2) Unicystic ameloblastoma
3) Residual periapical cyst
4) Traumatic cyst
157. The type of strain developed when force is applied perpendicular to the surface is called:
1) Tensile strain
2) Torsional strain
3) Compressive strain
4) Tensile stress

158. A 58-year-old male patient reports to the ENT OPD. The ENT surgeon identifies that he can only understand
loud & high-pitched shouting. What is the level of hearing disability seen in this patient?
1) Severe hearing loss >75%

2) Moderate hearing loss >50%
3) Mild hearing loss, 10-40%
4) Profound hearing loss >90%
159. What is explained in this image?
1) Dynamic compression plates

2) 3D plates
3) Champys mini plates
4) Bone grafting
160. Anteromedial cut in sagittal split osteotomy procedure is given:
1) 2mm posterior to lingula

2) Upper border of mandible
3) Near mandibular foramen
4) Angle of mandible
161. In Le fort osteotomy procedure, pterygomaxillary dysjunction cut is directed:
1) Anterior & inferior

2) Posterior & superior
3) Perpendicular to the occlusal plane
4) Parallel to the tuberosity
162. Applying a group study to an individual in a community comes under:
1) Ecological fallacy
2) Atomistic fallacy
3) Both ecological & atomistic
4) None of the above

163. A data scientist want to compare the validity of new test with old test. Which test will he choose?
1) Content validity
2) Construct validity
3) Criterion validity
4) Convergent validity
164. The patient has brownish discolouration of teeth since childhood. Radiographic feature involves obliteration of
pulp with decalcified enamel and dentin. Identify the gene associated with this disease:
1) AMELX
2) APC
3) Enamelin 1
4) COL1A1

165. What is the provisional diagnosis of this patient?
1) Acromegaly
2) Gigantism
3) Addison’s disease
4) Cushing’s disease
165. A 50-year-old female reported to clinic with multiple painful vesicles (erythematous condition) in her skin.
Histopathological smear shows acantholysis in the basal layer. Auto-anbodies are directed against the protein
desmoglein. Identify the condition:
2) Pemphigus vulgaris
3) Cicatricial pemphigoid
4) Erythema multiforme

167. Identify the grading of ECC from the following image:
1) Mild
2) Very mild
3) Moderate
4) Severe
168. The main source of pulmonary embolism is:
1) Thrombophlebitis
2) Lymphangitis
3) Oesophageal varices
4) Deep vein thrombosis
169. Standard deviation is best described by:
1) Measure of central tendency

2) Measure of dispersion around mean
3) Most commonly occurring observation
4) Measure of average
170. A 9-year-old child reported to the dentist with Elli’s class 3 fracture of 11 within 24 hours of injury. What is the
best line of treatment?
1) Pulpectomy
2) Cvek’s pulpotomy
3) Composite restoration
4) Indirect pulp capping
171. Which is the commonest site for costochondral graft?
1) 4th rib
2) 6th rib
3) 8th rib

4) 11th rib
172. In a society, culture can be defined as:
1) Learned /shared behaviour which is dynamic

2) Beliefs /norms which are static, guides behaviour
3) Set of values regulated by religion that is dynamic
4) Beliefs /norms which are static and not conductive to health
173. Marginal bone loss after implant placement occurs due to (all except)?
1) Length of the implant

2) Diameter of the implant
3) Abutment surface
4) Osteotomy
174. Identify the procedure from the given image:
1) Distraction osteogenesis
2) Osteotomy
3) Cranial fracture fixation
4) Mandibular fracture fixation

175. What is shown in the image?
1) Altered cast technique

2) Split cast with final impression
3) 2 impressions
4) Base metal die stone technique
176. A young girl comes with juxta articular bone formation complaints of reduced mouth opening. Height of the
ramus has to be preserved for this patient. What will be the best treatment option?
1) Gap arthroplasty
2) Lateral arthroplasty
3) Costochondral graft
4) Interpositional arthroplasty
177. TMJ problems doesn’t occur in?
1) Bilateral missing molars

2) Occlusal interferences from restoration
3) Decreased VD
4) Increased overjet

178. A 9-year-old girl underwent interpositional arthroplasty with costo-chondral graft for TMJ ankylosis. She was on
post-operative physiotherapy for 4 weeks. On one month follow-up, the findings are shown in the figure / image
below. What do you see?
1) Overgrowth of graft
2) VII nerve palsy
3) Chin deviation
4) Reduced mouth opening
179. A patient with severely extruded molar reported to the dentist. On removal, this will become distal extension.
What could be the treatment plan?
1) RCT of the extruded tooth with metal coping

2) Extraction
3) Occlusal contouring
4) No treatment, proceed with RPD
180. A 3 weeks old child patient with a tooth like structure seen over the gums (only crown). X-ray shows rootless
structure. What should be the treatment?
1) Excision under general anaesthesia

2) Excision under local anaesthesia
3) Nothing to be done as it will erupt into permanent tooth
4) Explain parents about the importance of toothing and advice not to remove

181. Identify the suitable material for A & B:
1) Calcium hydroxide for both A & B

2) Calcium hydroxide for B & Polycarboxylate cement for A
3) GIC for both A & B
4) Calcium hydroxide for A & Resin cement for B
182. A 26-year-old female presents with a gradually enlarging, painless, bony hard swelling in the anterior mandible,
extending from the area of tooth number 23 to 26. Radiographic examination reveals a well-demarcated, radiopaque
lesion with a mixed radiolucent-radiopaque appearance, suggestive of intraosseous growth. The swelling is firm,
fixed to the underlying bone, and has caused displacement of adjacent teeth. What is the diagnosis of this lesion?
1) Central ossifying fibroma of bone

2) Giant cell granuloma
3) Osteoma
4) Polyostatic fibrous dysplasia

183. What could be the diagnosis for the given radiograph?
1) Rudimentary mesiodens
2) Compound odontomes
3) Impacted lateral incisors
4) Developing/Erupting canines
184. Identify the diagnosis from the given H/P image:
1) Ductal ameloblastoma
2) Metastatic ameloblastoma
3) Squamous odontogenic tumor
4) Psammomatoid ossifying fibroma

185. Clasp indicated to engage a distobuccal undercut adjacent to distal extension space:
1) RPI
2) Combination clasp
3) Reverse circlet clasp
4) Embrassure clasp
186. After TMJ surgery for a patient who had TMJ ankylosis, he was asked to close the eyes. Following image shows
the observation. Which nerve will be affected in this scenario?
1) Zygomatic
2) Frontal
3) Buccal
4) Trigeminal
187. An edentulous patient with bilateral bony exostoses in the tuberosity region visited the dentist for denture.
Exostoses is 2cm in size. What is advised?
1) Keep both the exostoses as it aids in retention

2) Surgical removal of any one exostosis
3) Surgical removal of both the exostoses
4) Provide relief in the denture for the exostoses
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INI-CET Nov’23 – QP

(Authentic MCQs by Team: BDS-2-MDS)

2. Which of the following is not affected by outliers?

3. The term Enameloma refers to?

1) Tumour resembling enamel present on the gingiva

6. Lifespan of RBCs in circulating blood is?

www.bds2mds.com ANSWERS & DISCUSSIONS on BDS-2-MDS App

8. Identify the wiring technique from the given image:

9. What is the instrument used here?

11. Space maintainer comes under which level of prevention?

1) Disc displacement with reduction

www.bds2mds.com ANSWERS & DISCUSSIONS on BDS-2-MDS App

14. Bilateral expansile mandibular lesion is characterised by?

www.bds2mds.com ANSWERS & DISCUSSIONS on BDS-2-MDS App

1) Check BP and intubate

18. 18-30 fluted carbide bur is used for?

19. Carotid sinus is situated at the origin of?

www.bds2mds.com ANSWERS & DISCUSSIONS on BDS-2-MDS App

21. The given instrument works on the principle of?

22. Identify the type of injury from the image:

www.bds2mds.com ANSWERS & DISCUSSIONS on BDS-2-MDS App

23. What is the given orthodontic appliance?

1) Flexible splinting for 2 weeks with no healing of periodontium

25. Factors predisposing to myiasis are all except:

www.bds2mds.com ANSWERS & DISCUSSIONS on BDS-2-MDS App

1) Blue cylinder with white collar

30. Identify the surgical instrument:

www.bds2mds.com ANSWERS & DISCUSSIONS on BDS-2-MDS App

31. Common carotid artery bifurcates at the level of:

32. Incision for emergency cricothyroidectomy is given at the level of:

1) Below thyroid cartilage

33. Which of the following give rise to calcified tissues of teeth?

1) Mesoderm and Endoderm

34. Which of the following tumors develop from odontogenic mesenchyme?

35. True microdontia of maxillary lateral incisor is called?

www.bds2mds.com ANSWERS & DISCUSSIONS on BDS-2-MDS App

1) Disease is fatal & easily curable

37. Exclusion criteria for silver diamine fluoride application:

1) Patient with no history of spontaneous pain

38. Stiffness of a dental material is best described by?

39. Match the following:

1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

www.bds2mds.com ANSWERS & DISCUSSIONS on BDS-2-MDS App

42. Identify the instrument in the colour palette

1) Marquis colour coded probe

1) Tanaka and Johnson

www.bds2mds.com ANSWERS & DISCUSSIONS on BDS-2-MDS App

46. 1 PHC covers _________________ people in hilly region.

1) Manual tooth brushing

48. Which of the following contains all three germ layers?

49. Identify the following abnormality

www.bds2mds.com ANSWERS & DISCUSSIONS on BDS-2-MDS App

1) CPITN probe with markings of 3.0 – 5.5 and 8.5 – 11.5

51. In this case, nasolabial angle is

52. Non-parametric equivalent of paired t test

1) Kruskall Wallis test

www.bds2mds.com ANSWERS & DISCUSSIONS on BDS-2-MDS App

54. Hyperactive mentalis activity is more common in which type of malocclusion?

55. Combination of Amoxycillin and Clavulanic acid works best because of