ENT MCQs

1. What is the reason of Furunculosis of external ear being so painful?

a) Skin lining the external auditory canal is very sensitive

b) Free nerve endings are in greater concentration in this area

c) Skin is closely adherent to perichondrium

d) Temporal bone is very sensitive to pain

e) Disease causes osteomyelitis

2. While examining the external auditory canal, in which direction is the pinna pulled?

a) Upward, backward and outward

b) Downward, backward and outward

c) Backwards

d) Downwords

e) Outwords

3. Type A (d) graph in tympanogram is seen in which of the following condition?

a) Otosclerosis

b) Otitis media with effusion

c) Ossicular discontinuity

d) Acoustic neuroma

e) Atresia of the ear canal

4. Which is the most common microorganism in acute suppurative otitis media?

a) Staphylococcus aureus

b) Hemophilus influenzae

c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

e) Beta hemolytic streptococcus

5. What is the name of the abscess that collects in the sheath of Sternocleidomastoid muscle in cases of
acute mastoiditis?

a) Citelli’s abscess

b) Luc’s abscess

c) Subperiosteal abscess

d) Pott’s puffy tumor

e) Bezold abscess

6. What is the diagnostic test for otitis media with effusion?

a) Pure tone audiometry

b) Tympanometry

c) Brainstem evoked response audiometry

d) Otoacoustic emissions

e) Speech audiometry

7. Which ossicle is commonly eroded in cases of cholesteatoma?

a) Head of malleus

b) Long process of incus

c) Long process of malleus

d) Suprastructure of stapes

e) Foot plate of stapes

8. A 30-year-old female had modified radical mastoidectomy and myringostapediopexy for

cholesteatoma. Which of the following types of tymapnoplasty was carried out?

a) Type I

b) Type II

c) Type III

d) Type IV

e) Type V
9. A 45-year-old male presents with history of severe pain in right ear for the past 5 days. He also
complains of hearing loss and facial weakness on the same side. On examination, there is right-sided
lower motor neuron palsy, sensorineural hearing loss and small vesicle on the external auditory canal
and pinna. What is the diagnosis?

a) Bell’s palsy

b) Ramsay hunt syndrome

c) Melkerson rosenthal syndrome

d) Sarcoidosis

e) Vestibular neuronitis

10. Which is the most common cerebellopontine angle tumor?

a) Meningioma

b) Acoustic neuroma

c) Congenital cholesteatoma

d) Oligodendroglioma

e) Astrocytoma

11. Where is bulla ethmoidalis present?

a) Sphenoethmoidal recess

b) Superior meatus

c) Middle meatus

d) Inferior meatus

e) Posterior ethmoid sinus

12. Which is the commonest site of epistaxis in children?

a) Lateral wall of nose

b) Nasopharynx

c) Little’s area

d) Bony part of nasal septum

e) Middle turbinate

13. A 30-year old male was advised xylometazoline nasal drops for nasal blockage. His nasal blockage
was relieved initially but later on it was not relieved by these nasal drops. What condition has he
developed now?

a) Atrophic rhinitis

b) Vasomotor rhinitis

c) Chronic rhinitis

d) Chronic sinusitis

e) Rhinitis medicamentosa

14. What is the treatment of nasal myiasis?

a) Caldwell luc operation

b) Turpentine oil

c) Intranasal antrostomy

d) Salicylic acid in rectified spirit

e) Ichthammol in glycerine

15. Young’s procedure is used for which of the following conditions?

a) Vasomotor rhinitis

b) Atrophic rhinitis

c) Allergic rhinitis

d) Rhinitis medicamentosa

e) Chronic rhinosinusitis

16. Which is the drug of choice in atrophic rhinitis?

a) Ichthammol in glycerine

b) Salicylic acid in rectified spirit

c) 25% glucose in glycerine

d) 10% silver nitrate

e) Boric acid

17. Vidian neurectomy is done for which of the following conditions?

a) Allergic rhinitis

b) Atrophic rhinitis

c) Vasomotor rhinitis

d) Frey’s syndrome

e) Trigeminal neuralgia

18. A 25 years old male presents with a deviated nose after a brawl that occurred about 2 months back.
What is the best treatment option?

a) Closed reduction of fracture nasal bone

b) Immediate rhinoplasty

c) Re-evaluation after 6 months

d) No active treatment

e) Bi-pedicle flap repair

19. Craniofacial disjunction is seen in which of the following conditions?

a) Le fort I fracture

b) Le fort II fracture

c) Le fort III fracture

d) Fracture of zygoma

e) Fracture of mandible

20. A 45-year-old male presented with 6 months’ history of bilateral nasal blockage, sneezing and clear
rhinorrhea. On examination both of his nostrils are filled up with multiple pale grape like structures.
What is your diagnosis?

a) Nasal polyps

b) Antrochoanal polyp

c) Foreign body
d) Carcinoma of maxilla

e) Inverted papilloma

21. The lymphatic drainage of tonsils goes into which of the following lymph nodes?

a) Jugulo-omohyoid nodes

b) Jugulo-digastric nodes

c) Submandibular nodes

d) Supraclavicular nodes

e) Posterior triangle nodes

22. What is the causative microorganism for acute necrotizing gingivitis?

a) Candida albicans

b) Borrelia vincenti

c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

d) Staphylococcus aureus

e) Streptococcus pyogenes

23. What is the treatment of choice for ranula?

a) Excision

b) Marsupialization

c) Excision of submandibular gland

d) No active treatment

e) Aspiration

24. Thumb sign on x-rays is seen in which of the following conditions?

a) Acute laryngotracheobronchitis

b) Pneumonia

c) Acute laryngitis

d) Acute epiglottitis
e) Angiofibroma

25. What is the type of fever in diphtheria?

a) Low grade up to 100 degrees fahrenheit

b) High grade up to 100 degrees fahrenheit

c) Picket fence type of fever

d) Pel ebstein fever

e) Step-ladder fever

26. When does the reactionary hemorrhage after tonsillectomy occur?

a) During surgery

b) After 3 days of surgery

c) Within 24 hours of surgery

d) On 6th post-operative day

e) After 2 weeks of surgery

27. A 15-year-old boy presents with evening rise of temperature, anorexia and weight loss, night sweats
and a neck swelling for the past 2 months. His ESR is raised. Chest x-ray is normal. There are matted
lymph nodes in right posterior triangle of neck. What is your diagnosis?

a) Sarcoidosis

b) Tuberculosis

c) Syphilis

d) Wegener’s granulomatosis

e) Lymphoma

28. Which of the following is an absolute indication for tonsillectomy?

a) Recurrent tonsillitis

b) Acute tonsillitis

c) First attack of quinsy

d) Rheumatic fever
e) Obstructive sleep apnea syndrome

29. A 25-year-old female after undergoing total thyroidectomy for papillary carcinoma develops stridor
on recovery from anesthesia. On examination both vocal cords are in paramedian position. What
measures will you take in this situation?

a) Tracheostomy

b) Re-exploration of wound

c) Endotracheal intubation

d) I/V steroids

e) Masterly inactivity

30. What is the treatment of choice for achlasia cardia?

a) Heller’s myotomy

b) Nissan fundoplication

c) H2 receptor blockers

d) Dilatation by bougles

e) Total esophagectomy

31. In a patient with stridor, his voice was muffled. Which of the following sites is obstructed?

a) Pharynx

b) Larynx

c) Trachea

d) Bronchi

e) Bronchioles

32. A patient presented with squamous cell carcinoma of subglottis with invasion of pre vertebral space.
Which of the following is stage of tumor?

a) T2

b) T3a

c) T3b
d) T4a

e) T4b

33. How much anatomical dead space of airways is reduced by tracheostomy?

a) 10%

b) 20%

c) 30%

d) 60%

e) 70%

34. Which of the following is indication for high tracheostomy?

a) Laryngomalacia

b) Subglottic hemangioma

c) B/L vocal cord paralysis

d) Retrophyrangeal abscess

e) Laryngeal carcinoma

35. Which of the following rings of trachea should ideally be cut during tracheostomy?

a) 1&2

b) 2&3
c) 4&5

d) 5&6
e) 6&7

36. Which of the following is position of patient for tracheostomy?

a) Supine with neutral head position

b) Supine with neck flexed

c) Supine with neck extended

d) Trendelenburgh position
e) Barking dog position

37. Which of the following is choice in a case of difficult decannulation?

a) X-rays neck

b) CT scan

c) MRI

d) Endoscopy

e) Wait and see

38. Which of the following structures is incised during minitracheostomy?

a) Thyroid cartilage

b) Cricoid cartilage

c) Cricothyroid membrane

d) Thyrohyoid membrane

e) First tracheal ring

39. Which of the following is position of patient during rigid bronchoscopy?

a) Barking dog position

b) Rose’s position

c) Trendelenburgh position

d) Supine with neutral head position

e) Supine with head extended

40. Which of the following is size of rigid bronchoscope selected for an adult patient?

a) 2 mm

b) 4 mm

c) 6 mm

d) 7 mm

e) 8 mm
41. Which of the following is best tracheostomy tube for a patient with CA larynx undergoing
radiotherapy?
a) Fuller

b) Jackson

c) Portex

d) Harrison

e) Sorenson

42. In which of the following conditions low tracheostomy is indicated?

a) Carcinoma larynx

b) Subglottic stenosis

c) Juvenile laryngeal papillomatosis

d) Subglottic hemangioma

e) Laryngeal web

43. In which of the following conditions, tracheostomy with speaking valve is indicated?

a) Unilateral adductor palsy

b) Bilateral adductor palsy

c) Unilateral abductor palsy

d) Bilateral abductor palsy

e) Mixed palsy

44. What is not true about tracheostomy?

a) Tracheostomy is making an opening in trachea

b) Tracheostomy is making an opening in trachea and connecting it to skin

c) Tracheotomy and tracheostomy are same

d) Tracheotomy is part of tracheostomy

45. After how long endotracheal tube can be replaced by tracheostomy, if assisted ventilation is required
?
a) 01 day

b) 02 days

c) 03 days

d) 01 week

e) 02 weeks

46. In a thick fatty neck, which of the following tracheostomy tubes is ideal?

a) Jackson

b) Portex

c) Radcliffe

d) Fuller

e) Sorenson

47. What is direction of bevel of rigid bronchoscope, when negotiating through the glottis?

a) Anterior

b) Posterior

c) Lateral

d) Inferior

e) Superior

48. To achieve a trouble free decannulation after tracheostomy in a child, tracheostomy tube should be
removed after?

a) 01 week

b) 02 weeks

c) 03 weeks

d) 01 month

e) 02 months
49. In which of the following positions of child with laryngomalacia, stridor subsides?

a) Supine

b) Prone

c) Right lateral

d) Left lateral

e) Erect

50. Which of the following is modality of choice for diagnosis of laryngomalacia?

a) X-ray soft tissues neck lateral view

b) CT scan

c) MRI

d) Flexible laryngoscopy

e) Direct laryngoscopy under GA

51. A young singer presented with hoarseness of voice. On IDL examination there is soft, smooth and
rounded lesion on right vocal cord at the junction of anterior 1/3 and posterior 2/3. Which of the
following is most probable diagnosis?

a) Singer’s nodes

b) Vocal polyp

c) Reinke’s edema

d) Contact granuloma

e) Keratosis

52. An old man presented with hoarseness of voice. On examination there is reducible swelling in neck
which increased in size during cough. Which of the following is most probable diagnosis?

a) Ductal cyst

b) Saccular cyst

c) Laryngocele

d) Amyloid tumor

e) CA larynx
53. A 5 years old child presented with hoarseness of voice and stridor. On flexible laryngoscopy there are
multiple irregular growths on true vocal cords. Which is the most probable diagnosis?

a) Vocal nodules

b) Vocal polyps

c) Contact granuloma

d) CA larynx

e) Papillomatosis

54. A patient with squamous cell carcinoma of glottis extending to paraglottic space and fixed vocal cord.
Which of the following is stage of tumor?

a) T1b

b) T2

c) T3

d) T4a

e) T4b

55. A patient with squamous cell carcinoma of supraglottis extending to medial wall of pyriform sinus
with mobile vocal cords, belongs to which of the following stages?

a) T1a

b) T1b

c) T2

d) T3

e) T4

56. Which of the following lesions does not produce nystagmus?

a) Vestibular

b) Ocular

c) Cochlear

d) Central
e) Somatosensory

57. There is drug induced vertigo in all except?

a) Aminoglycosides

b) Tetracyclines

c) Metronidazole

d) Co-trimoxazole

e) Furosemide

58. Which of the following is treatment of glomus tumor confined to middle ear?

a) Tympanotomy and excision

b) Radiotherapy

c) Chemotherapy

d) Cryodestruction

e) Wait and watch

59. What does not apply to Glomus jugulare?

a) Arises from glomus bodies of jugular bulb

b) It spreads widely through temporal bone

c) It involves many cranial nerves

d) It starts from mesotympanum

e) 10% tumors secrete catecholamines

60. Glomus jugulare involves all cranial nerves except?

a) 9th

b) 10th

c) 11th

d) 12th

e) 8th
61. Which of the following is cause of dizziness?

a) Ménière’s disease

b) Acute otitis media

c) Cardiac arrhythmia

d) Long standing poorly controlled diabetes

e) Migraine

62. What is not true about glomus tympanicum?

a) Behaves as an indolent middle ear polyp

b) Arises from glomus bodies on promontory

c) Arises from glomus bodies of jugular bulb

d) Intimately related to tympanic nerve

e) Causes conductive hearing loss

63. Mucosa of mesotympanum is?

a) Cuboidal ciliated

b) Flattened

c) Stratified squamous

d) Columnar ciliated

e) Transitional

64. In which of the following conditions fatigable nystagmus is seen?

a) Central type

b) Vestibular type

c) Cochlear type

d) Ocular type

e) Cerebellar
65. Deafness in ménière’s disease is?

a) Fluctuant sensorineural

b) Mixed

c) Conductive

d) High frequency

e) Noise induced

66. Associated symptoms in ménière’s disease include all expect?

a) Bradycardia

b) Sweating

c) Constipation

d) Vomiting

e) Stress

67. Lermoyez syndrome is variant of which of following conditions?

a) Otosclerosis

b) Osteogenesis imperfecta

c) Ménière’s disease

d) Vestibular neuronitis

e) Glomus tumor

68. Pulsating tinnitus is seen in which of following conditions?

a) Carotid body tumor

b) Glomus jugulare

c) Palatal myoclonus

d) Ménière’s disease

e) Wax in ear

69. Differential diagnosis of a red mass behind tympanic membrane includes all except?
a) Glomus tumor

b) Acute suppurative otitis media

c) Aberrant carotid artery

d) Otosclerosis

e) Tympanosclerosis

70. Usual sites of paraganglia are all expect?

a) Carotid, vagal and ciliary bodies

b) The glomus jugulare complex

c) In the para adrenal area

d) Ciliary body

e) Pharyngoesophageal junction

71. Which of the following is true about glomus tumors?

a) Have a predominance in males

b) Have a predominance in females

c) No gender predominance

d) More common in old age group

e) Common in infants

72. Direction changing nystagmus is seen in which of the following?

a) Cochlear type

b) Vestibular type

c) Central type

d) Ocular type

e) Somatosensory type

73. Pain in ear may be due to diseases of all parts of ear except?

a) Auricle
b) External auditory canal

c) Middle ear

d) Cochlea

e) Tympanic membrane

74. Ménière’s disease may be bilateral in?

a) 20%

b) 40%

c) 60%

d) 80%

e) 90%

75. Direction of the nystagmus is named according to which of the following?

a) Slow component

b) Fast component

c) Rotating component

d) Cause of nystagmus

e) Position of patient

76. Which of the following vessels is not responsible for formation of Kiesselbach’s plexus?

a) Anterior ethmoidal artery

b) Posterior ethmoidal artery

c) Septal branch of superior labial artery

d) Septal branch of sphenopalatine artery

e) Septal branch of greater palatine artery

77. At which of the following sites woodruff’s plexus is located?

a) At posterior end of superior turbinate

b) At posterior end of middle turbinate

c) At posterior end of inferior turbinate

d) At anteroinferior part of nasal septum

e) At anteroinferior part of lateral wall of nose

78. Which of the following is dividing line between internal and external carotid arterial system?

a) Above the level of superior turbinate

b) Above the level of middle turbinate

c) Above the level of inferior turbinate

d) Supreme turbinate

e) Sphenoethmoidal recess

79. Which of the following is Trotter’s method for epistaxis management?

a) Nose is pinched for 5 minutes

b) Cold compresses applied to nose

c) Patient is made to sit, leaning forward & spitting blood

d) To apply coagulant over nasal mucosa

e) To apply vasoconstrictor over bleeding point

80. At which of the following levels, external carotid artery is ligated for epistaxis management?

a) Above the origin of superior thyroid artery

b) Above the origin of lingual artery

c) Above the origin of facial artery

d) Above the origin of ascending pharyngeal artery

e) Below the origin of posterior auricular artery

81. Which of the following surgical procedures is carried out to ligate maxillary artery for management of
uncontrolled posterior epistaxis?

a) Medial maxillectomy

b) Lateral maxillectomy

c) Subtotal maxillextomy
d) Total maxillectomy

e) Caldwell-luc operation

82. Which of the following vessels is catheterized for embolization in control of nasal bleeding?

a) Maxillary artery

b) External carotid artery

c) Facial artery

d) Femoral artery

e) Sphenopalatine artery

83. Which of the following vessels cannot be embolized for epistaxis management?

a) External carotid artery

b) Maxillary artery

c) Sphenopalatine artery

d) Facial artery

e) Anterior ethmoidal artery

84. Which of the following conditions can cause epistaxis?

a) Mitral stenosis

b) Mitral regurgitation

c) Tricuspid stenosis

d) Tricuspid regurgitation

e) VSD

85. Which of the following clotting factors are deficient in cirrhotic patient?

a) I, II

b) III, IV

c) V, VI

d) VII, VIII
e) IX, X

86. Which of the following is route of spread of infection from nose to cavernous sinus?

a) Direct

b) Ophthalmic vein

c) Pharyngeal plexus

d) Supratrochlear vein

e) Supraorbital vein

87. In patients with cavernous sinus thrombosis, sensory loss occurs in the distribution of which of the
following nerves?

a) Ophthalmic nerve

b) Maxillary nerve

c) Mandibular nerve

d) Ophthalmic and maxillary nerve

e) Supratrochlear nerve

88. Which of the following is CSF finding in patients with cavernous sinus thrombosis?

a) Protein is raised

b) Protein is decreased

c) Glucose level raised

d) Glucose level lowered

e) No change

89. Which of the following structures is not involved in spread of infection to cavernous sinus?

a) Nose

b) Paranasal sinuses

c) Orbit

d) Oral cavity

e) Pharynx
90. Which of the following paranasal sinuses are particularly responsible for spread of infection to
cavernous sinus?

a) Frontal sinus

b) Ethmoid sinuses

c) Sphenoid sinuses

d) Maxillary sinuses

e) Ethmoid and sphenoid sinuses

91. Which of the following structures is not included in danger zone of face?

a) Maxilla

b) Root of nose

c) Tip of nose

d) Upper lip

e) Lower lip

92. Which of the following is treatment of choice for hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia?

a) Blood transfusion

b) Septoplasty

c) Septodermoplasty

d) Laser therapy

e) Clotting factors transfusion

93. Which of the following is commonest site for epistaxis?

a) Bony septum

b) Little’s area

c) Superior turbinate

d) Lateral wall of nose

e) Inferior turbinate
94. Which of the following is cause for nasal boil?

a) Staphylococcus

b) Streptococcus

c) Pneumococcus

d) Gonococcus

e) Meningiococcus

95. Infection of which of the following structures is called boil?

a) Hair follicle

b) Sebaceous gland

c) Ceruminous gland

d) Sweat gland

e) Goblet cell

96. Regarding angiofibroma which one is true?

a) It is a benign tumor

b) It is a malignant tumor

c) More common in females

d) Biopsy is done to make diagnosis

e) Radiotherapy is treatment of choice

97. Angiofibroma is:

a) Testosterone dependent

b) Estrogen dependent

c) Prolactin dependent

d) Progesterone dependent

e) Insulin dependent

98. Angiofibroma originates from:

a) Lateral wall of nose

b) Lateral wall of nasopharynx

c) Maxillary sinus

d) Ethmoid sinus

e) Sphenopalatine foramen

99. Common age group of angiofibroma is:

a) 1 to 10 yrs

b) 10 to 20 yrs

c) 30 to 40 yrs

d) 50 to 60 yrs

e) 60 to 70 yrs

100. Angiofibroma is common in:

a) Young males

b) Infants

c) Young females

d) Elderly males

e) Elderly females

101. Most common presentation of angiofibroma is:

a) Nasal obstruction

b) Recurrent epistaxis

c) Swelling cheek

d) Proptosis

e) Anosmia

102. Chemical used for cautery of bleeding point in nose is:

a) Magnesium sulphate
b) HCL

c) Silver nitrate

d) Hydrogen peroxide

e) Magnesium sulphate

103. Most common site for anterior epistaxis is:

a) Inferior turbinate

b) Little’s area

c) Woodruff’s area

d) Middle turbinate
e) Anterior floor of nose

104. Anterior ethmoidal artery is a branch of:

a) Maxillary artery

b) Ophthalmic artery

c) Sphenopalatine artery

d) Greater palatine artery

e) Facial artery

105. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia occurs on:

a) Middle turbinate

b) Inferior turbinate
c) Anterior part of nasal septum

d) Posterior part of nasal septum

e) Floor of nose
 Compiled by:

Syed Hassnain Zafar Bukhari