NEET Chemistry

1. Which statement regarding polymers is not correct?

(1) Thermosetting polymers are reusable
(2) Elastomers have polymer chains held together by weak intermolecular forces
(3) Fibers possess high tensile strength
(4) Thermoplastic polymers are capable of repeatedly softening and hardening on
heating and cooling respectively.

2. At 298 K, the standard electrode potentials of Cu 2+/ Cu, Zn2+/ Zn, Fe2+/Fe and Ag+ /
Ag are 0.34 V, –0.76 V, –0.44 V and 0.80 V, respectively.
On the basis of standard electrode potential, predict which of the following reaction
cannot occur?
(1) 2CuSO4(aq) + 2Ag(s) → 2Cu(s) + Ag2SO4(aq)
(2) CuSO4(aq) + Zn(s) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
(3) CuSO4(aq) + Fe(s) → FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
(4) FeSO4(aq) + Zn(s) → ZnSO4(aq) + Fe(s)

3. The IUPAC name of an element with atomic number 119 is

(1) ununoctium
(2) ununennium
(3) unnilennium
(4) unununnium

4. Given below are two statements

Statement I: In the coagulation of a negative sol, the flocculating power of the three
given ions is in the order.
Al3+ > Ba2+ > Na+
Statement II: In the coagulation of a positive sol, the flocculating power of the three
given salts is in the order
NaCl > Na2SO4 > Na3PO4
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

5. Which of the following statement is not correct about diborane?

(1) Both the Boron atoms are sp2 hybridised.
(2) There are two 3-centre-2-electron bonds.
(3) The four terminal B-H bonds are two centre two electron bonds.
(4) The four terminal Hydrogen atoms and the two Boron atoms lie in one plane.

6.

What is Y in the above reaction?

(1) (RCOO)2Mg
(2) RCOO–Mg+X
(3) R3CO–Mg+X
(4) RCOO–X+

7. What mass of 95% pure CaCO3 will be required to neutralise 50 mL of 0.5 M HCl
solution according to the following reaction?
CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
[Calculate upto second place of decimal point]
(1) 9.50 g
(2) 1.25 g
(3) 1.32 g
(4) 3.65 g

8. Which amongst the following is incorrect statement?

+¿¿
(1) O 2 ion is diamagnetic
+¿¿ −¿ ¿
(2) The bond orders of O 2 , O2 and O 2 are 2.5, 2, 1.5 and 1, respectively
(3) C2 molecule has four electrons in its two degenerate  molecular orbitals
+¿¿
(4) H 2 ion has one electron

9. Amongst the following which one will have maximum ‘lone pair - lone pair’ electron
repulsions?
(1) XeF2
(2) CIF3
(3) IF5
(4) SF4

10. Choose the correct statement:

(1) Both diamond and graphite are used as dry lubricants.
(2) Diamond and graphite have two dimensional network.
(3) Diamond is covalent and graphite is ionic.
(4) Diamond is sp3 hybridised and graphite is sp2 hybridized.

11. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): In a particular point defect, an ionic solid is electrically neutral, even if
few of its cations are missing from its unit cells.
Reason (R):
In an ionic solid, Frenkel defect arises due to dislocation of cation from its lattice site
to interstitial site, maintaining overall electrical neutrality.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

12.Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
(a) Li (i) absorbent for carbon dioxide
(b) Na (ii) electrochemical cells
(c) KOH (iii) coolant in fast breeder reactors
(d) Cs (iv) photoelectric cell
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a) - (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
(2) (a) - (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii)
(3) (a) - (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(4) (a) - (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)

13. Given below are half cell reactions:

−¿¿
MnO 4 +8H+ +5e-  Mn2+ +4H2O

1
O2 +2H+ +2e-  H2O
2

−¿¿
Will the permanganate ion, MnO 4 liberate O2 from water in the presence of an acid?
0
(1) No, because Ecell = − 2.733 V
(2) Yes, because E0cell = + 0.287 V
(3) No, because E0cell = – 0.287 V
0
(4) Yes, because Ecell = + 2.733 V

14. Match List-I with List-II.

List – I List – II
(Hydrides) (Nature)
(a) MgH2 (i) Electron precise
(b) GeH4 (ii) Electron deficient
(c) B2H6 (iii) Electron rich
(d) HF (iv) Ionic
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
(2) (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
(3) (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)
(4) (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)

15. Given below are two statements

Statement I: The acidic strength of monosubstituted nitrophenol is higher than phenol
because of electron withdrawing nitro group.
Statement II:
o-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol will have same acidic strength as they
have one nitro group attached to the phenolic ring.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
16. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
(Drug class) (Drug molecule)
(a) Antacids (i) Salvarsan
(b) Antihistamines (ii) Morhine
(c) Analgesics (iii) Cimetidine
(d) Antimicrobials (iv) Seldane
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a) - (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
(2) (a) - (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
(3) (a) - (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(4) (a) - (i), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)

17. The incorrect statement regarding enzymes is

(1) Enzymes are very specific for a particular reaction and substrate.
(2) Enzymes are biocatalysts.
(3) Like chemical catalysts enzymes reduce the activation energy of bio processes.
(4) Enzymes are polysaccharides.

18. Identify the incorrect statement from the following.

(1) The shapes of dxy, dyz and dzx orbitals are similar to each other; and d x − y
2 2

and d z are similar to each other.

2

(2) All the five 5d orbitals are different in size when compared to the respective 4d
orbitals.
(3) All the five 4d orbitals have shapes similar to the respective 3d orbitals.
(4) In an atom, all the five 3d orbitals are equal in energy in free state.

19. The incorrect statement regarding chirality is

(1) A racemic mixture shows zero optical rotation
(2) SN1 reaction yields 1 : 1 mixture of both enantiomers
(3) The product obtained by SN2 reaction of haloalkane having chirality at the reactive
site shows inversion of configuration
(4) Enantiomers are superimposable mirror images on each other
19(4)
Enantiomers are non-superimposable mirror images of each other.

20. Which compound amongst the following is not an aromatic compound?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

21. The given graph is a representation of kinetics of a reaction.

The y and x axes for zero and first order reactions, respectively are
(1) zero order (y = rate and x = concentration), first order (y = rate and x = t ½)
(2) zero order (y = concentration and x = time), first order (y = t ½ and x = concentration)
(3) zero order (y = concentration and x = time), first order (y = rate constant and x =
concentration)
(4) zero order (y = rate and x = concentration), first order (y = t½ and x = concentration)

22. Which one is not correct mathematical equation for Dalton’s Law of partial
pressure? Here p = total pressure
of gaseous mixture
0
(1)pi = χ i pi , where χ i = mole fraction of ith gas in gaseous mixture
0
pi = pressure of ith gas in pure state
(2) p = p1 + p2 + p3
RT RT RT
(3) p = n1 + n2 + n3
V V V
0
(4) pi = χ i pi , where pi = partial pressure of ith gas
χ i = mole fraction of ith gas in gaseous mixture

23. Given below are two statements

Statement I: Primary aliphatic amines react with HNO 2 to give unstable diazonium
salts.
Statement II: Primary aromatic amines react with HNO 2 to form diazonium salts which
are stable even above 300 K. In
the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

24. Identify the incorrect statement from the following

(1) Lithium is the strongest reducing agent among the alkali metals.
(2) Alkali metals react with water to form their hydroxides.
(3) The oxidation number of K in KO2 is +4.
(4) Ionisation enthalpy of alkali metals decreases from top to bottom in the group.

25. The IUPAC name of the complex-

[Ag(H2O)2][Ag(CN)2] is:
(1) diaquasilver(I) dicyanidoargentate(I)
(2) dicyanidosilver(II) diaquaargentate(II)
(3) diaquasilver(II) dicyanidoargentate(II)
(4) dicyanidosilver(I) diaquaargentate(I)

26. The pH of the solution containing 50 mL each of 0.10 M sodium acetate and 0.01
M acetic acid is [Given pKa of CH3COOH = 4.57]
(1) 2.57
(2) 5.57
(3) 3.57
(4) 4.57

27. Which of the following p-V curve represents maximum work done?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
28. Match List-I with List-II.
List – I List – II
(Products formed) (Reaction of carbonyl compound with)
(a) Cyanohydrin (i) NH2OH
(b) Acetal (ii) RNH2
(c) Schiff's base (iii) alcohol
(d) Oxime (iv) HCN
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(2) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(3) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
(4) (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)

29. Which of the following sequence of reactions is suitable to synthesize

chlorobenzene?

(1) , HCl, Heating

(2) Benzene, Cl2, anhydrous FeCl3
(3) Phenol, NaNO2, HCl, CuCl

(4) , HCl

30. The Kjeldahl’s method for the estimation of nitrogen can be used to estimate the
amount of nitrogen in which one of the following compounds?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
31. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than
hydrocarbons of comparable molecular masses because of weak molecular association
in aldehydes and ketones due to dipole – dipole interactions.
Statement II : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are lower than the alcohols
of similar molecular masses due to the absence of H-bonding.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
given below
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

32. Given below are two statements

Statement I
The boiling points of the following hydrides of group 16 elements increases in the
order – H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te
Statement II
The boiling points of these hydrides increase with increase in molar mass.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below :
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

33. In one molal solution that contains 0.5 mole of a solute, there is
(1) 1000 g of solvent
(2) 500 mL of solvent
(3) 500 g of solvent
(4) 100 mL of solvent

34. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): ICI is more reactive than I2.
Reason (R): I-CI bond is weaker than I-I bond.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
35. Gadolinium has a low value of third ionisation enthalpy because of
(1) high basic character
(2) small size
(3) high exchange enthalpy
(4) high electronegativity

Section B
36. Compound X on reaction with O3 followed by Zn/H2O gives formaldehyde and 2-
methyl propanal as products. The compound X is
(1) Pent-2-ene
(2) 3-Methylbut-1-ene
(3) 2-Methylbut-1-ene
(4) 2-Methylbut-2-ene

37. For a first order reaction A → Products, initial concentration of A is 0.1 M, which
becomes 0.001 M after 5 minutes. Rate constant for the reaction in min–1 is
(1) 0.2303
(2) 1.3818
(3) 0.9212
(4) 0.4606

38. In the neutral or faintly alkaline medium, KMnO4 oxidises iodide into iodate. The
change in oxidation state of manganese in this reaction is from
(1) +6 to +5
(2) +7 to +4
(3) +6 to +4
(4) +7 to +3

39. A 10.0 L flask contains 64 g of oxygen at 27ºC. (Assume O 2 gas is behaving

ideally). The pressure inside the flask in bar is (Given R = 0.0831 L bar K –1 mol–1)
(1) 4.9
(2) 2.5
(3) 498.6
(4) 49.8

40. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In Lucas test, primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols are distinguished
on the basis of their reactivity with conc. HCl + ZnCl2, known as Lucas Reagent.
Statement II: Primary alcohols are most reactive and immediately produce turbidity at
room temperature on reaction with Lucas Reagent.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

41. 3O2(g) ⇋ 2O3(g)

for the above reaction at 298 K, KC is found to be 3.0 × 10–59. If the concentration of O2
at equilibrium is 0.040 M then concentration of O3 in M is
(1) 1.2 × 1021
(2) 4.38 × 10–32
(3) 1.9 × 10–63
(4) 2.4 × 1031

42. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
(Ores) (Composition)
(a) Haematite (i) Fe3O4
(b) Magnetite (ii) ZnCO3
(c) Calamine (iii) Fe2O3
(d) Kaolinite (iv) [Al2(OH)4Si2O5]
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

43. Copper crystallises in fcc unit cell with cell edge length of 3.608 × 10 –8 cm. The
density of copper is 8.92 g cm–3. Calculate the atomic mass of copper.
(1) 65 u
(2) 63.1 u
(3) 31.55 u
(4) 60 u

44. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is

(1) 6-bromo-4-methyl-2-chlorohexan-4-ol
(2) 1-bromo-5-chloro-4-methylhexan-3-ol
(3) 6-bromo-2-chloro-4-methylhexan-4-ol
(4) 1-bromo-4-methyl-5-chlorohexan-3-ol

45. Find the emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place at 298 K
Ni(s) +2Ag+(0.001 M) Ni2+(0.001M)+2Ag(s)
2.303 RT
(Given that E0cell = 10.5 V, = 0.059 at 298K)
F
(1) 1.05 V
(2) 1.0385 V
(3) 1.385 V
(4) None

46. The order of energy absorbed which is responsible for the color of complexes
(A) [Ni(H2O)2(en)2]2+
(B) [Ni(H2O)4(en)]2+ and
(C) [Ni(en)3]2+
is
(1) (B) > (A) > (C)
(2) (A) > (B) > (C)
(3) (C) > (B) > (A)
(4) (C) > (A) > (B)

47. Which one of the following is not formed when acetone reacts with 2-pentanone in
the presence of dilute NaOH followed by heating?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

48. If radius of second Bohr orbit of the He+ ion is 105.8 pm, what is the radius of
third Bohr orbit of Li2+ ion?
(1) 158.7 Å
(2) 158.7 pm
(3) 15.87 pm
(4) 1.587 pm

49. The pollution due to oxides of sulphur gets enhanced due to the presence of:
(a) particulate matter (b) ozone
(c) hydrocarbons (d) hydrogen peroxide
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) (a), (c), (d) only
(2) (a), (d) only
(3) (a), (b), (d) only
(4) (b), (c), (d) only

50. The product formed from the following reaction sequence is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
 Solution

1(1) Thermosetting polymers are NOT reusable.

2(1)
SRP : E Zn ¿ < E Fe ¿ < Ecu ¿ < E Ag ¿
¿ ¿ ¿ ¿

Reactivity order : Zn>Fe>Cu>Ag

In case of displacement reaction, more reactive metals (lower SRP) can displace less
reactive metals (higher SRP) from their salt solution.
CuSO4( aq.) +2Ag(s) →Cu(s) +Ag2SO4( aq.)

3(2)
IUPAC nomenclature
119→ Ununennium → Uue

4(4)
According to Hardy Schulze Rule statement 1 is correct. (Generally, the greater the
valence of the flocculating ion added, the greater is its power to cause precipitation)
According to Hardy Schulze Rule statement 2 is

5(1)

B has sp3 Hybridisation Non – planar

6(2)
Correct answer is (d) RCOO-Mg+X

7(3)
CaCO3(s) +2HCl (aq.) →CaCl2 (aq.) +CO2(a)+H2O(0)

no. of moles of CaCO3 (pure) = ½ × mole of HCl

[Mole = molarity × volume(in ltr. )]
50
= ½ × ×0.5×
1000
= 0.0125
weight of CaCO3(pure) = mole × mol. wt
=0.0125×100=1.25g
wt of substance
% purity =  100
wt of impure sample
1.25
95 =  100
wt of impure sample

1.25 X 100
wt. of impure sample =  100 =1.32g
95
+¿¿
8(1) O 2 ion is diamagnetic

+¿¿
1. Electronic configuration of ion is O 2 ion is
1
2s2 *2s2 2 P2 ( π 2 P x =π 2 y )*2P *2 P y
2 2 2 0
x
It has one unpaired electron so it is para-magnetic.
+¿¿ −¿ ¿
2. The bond orders of O 2 , O2 and O 2 are 2.5, 2, 1.5 and 1, respectively
2
3. Electronic configuration of C2 molecule is ( 1s2) (*1s2) (2s2) (*2s2) (2 P x =π 2Py2)
Hence it has 4 electrons in  molecular orbitals.
4. Bond orders of and are and respectively.

9(1)
XeF2 has the maximum number of lone pairs of electrons. Number of lone pair of
electrons for XeF2 is 3 .

10(4)
In diamond each carbon is bonded with four other carbon atoms. So hybridisation of
carbon atom is sp3.
In graphite each carbon is bonded with three other carbon atoms. So hybridisation of
carbon atom is sp2.

11(2)
i) Statement-1 is correct because in point defects of ionic solid electrical neutrality is
essential condition (given question is example of metal deficiency defect)
(ii) Statement-2 is correct because In Frenkel defect cation dislocate from lattice site to
interstitial position.
(iii) Both statement are correct but statement-2 is not correct explanation of
statement-1

12(1)
Li - Electrochemical cells
Na - Coolant in fast breeder reactors
KOH - absorbent for CO2
Cs - Photoelectric cell.

13(2)
14(2)
Electron deficient hydride → Less than 8e (B2H6)
Electron precise hydride → having 8e- without I.p. (GeH4)
Electron rich hydride → having 8e- with 1.p. (HF)

15(1)
Acidic strength of phenolic group increases due to electron withdrawing groups.
Order of acidic strength

16(3)
Antacid - Cimetidine
Antihistamine - Seldane
Analgesic - Morphine
Antimicrobials - Salvarsan

17(4)
(i) Like chemical catalysts enzymes reduce the activation energy of bio process ⇒ This
is correct statement.
(ii) Enzymes are polysaccharides ⇒ This is incorrect statement because enzymes are
protein in nature
(iii) Enzymes are very specific for a particular reaction and substrate ⇒ This is correct
statement.
(iv) Enzymes are biocatalyst ⇒This is correct statement.

18(1)
The shapes of dxy, dyz and dzx orbitals are similar to each other; and d x − y
2 2

and d z are similar to each other.

2

20(1)
For a compound to be aromatic, it must be cyclic, planar, conjugated, and contain
4n+2 π electrons. The number of π electrons in A is 8 which violates the 4n+2 rule and
hence it is not aromatic(in-fact it is anti-aromatic)

21(4)

(i) curve is suitable for zero order if y = rate and x = concentration because in case of
zero order reaction rate is constant and does not depend on concn.
(ii) curve is suitable for first order if y = t 1/2 and x = concn because in case of first order
t1/2 does not depend on concn.

22(1)
Dalton's law of partial pressure :
Partial pressure of gas = mole fraction of gas in gaseous mixture × Total pressure of
gaseous mixture.
p1=X1p
p2 = X2p
p3 =X3p
Total pressure,
p=p1+p2+p3
23(4)
Correct answer is (d) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

24(3)

25(1)
IUPAC
[Ag(H2O)2] [Ag(CN)2]
Coordination number = 2, Oxidation state = Ag+1
Diaquasilver (1) dicyanidoargentate (I)

26(2)
Weak acid (CH3COOH) and salt of weak acid-strong base (CH3COONa) form an acidic
buffer. Sodium acetate (CH3COONa) = 0.10 M; Acetic acid (CH3COOH) = 0.01 M; pH
of acidic buffer solution is given by

27(3)
In P−V graph area under the curve represent magnitude of work.

28(1)
Correct answer is (a) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
29(3)
Correct answer is (c) Phenol, NaNO2,HCl,CuCl

30(4)

Kjeldahl's method is not applicable to the compounds containing nitrogen having nitro
and azo group and nitrogen present in the ring (pyridine), as nitrogen of these
compounds does not change to ammonium sulphate under these conditions.

31(2)
Boiling point of comparable molecular mass molecules
R-OH - > Aldehyde - Ketone > Alkane
H-bonding Dipole-dipole interaction Non-polar strong molecular (weak molecular
association)

32(1)

33(3)
moles of solute
m=  1000
weight of solvent (g)
 0.5
1=  1000
weight of solvent (g)

Weight of solvent (g)=500g

34(2)
Interhalogen compound group 17th

ICl is more reactive due to polar bonds.

From NCERT - X-X' bond is weaker than X−X bond except F2

35(3)
2 7 1
64Gd=[Xe]6s 4f 5d

Gd+2 =[Xe]4f75d1

After losing 5d electron 4f has maximum exchange energy so Gd has low value of
Third Ionisation energy

36(2)
Correct answer is (b) 3-Methylbut-1-ene

37(3)
A → Products
Initial conc. A0 = 0.1M
Conc. After 5minAt= 0.001M
t=5min.
For first order reaction

K=
2.303
t
log
( )
A0
At

=
2.303
t (
log
0.1
0.001 )
K=0.9212min−1

38(2)
Correct answer is (b) +7 to +4
39(1)
V=10L
W O =64g
2

T=20C
nO =2
2

R=0.083.L bar K−1mol −1

Ideal gas equation PV=nRT

2× .0831× 300
P=
10
P=4.9 bar

40(4)
10 ,20,30 Alcohol are distinguished by Lucas test on the basis of the time taken for
turbidity to appear

Reactivity of alcohol towards Lucas reagent

⇒30 >20 >10 Alcohol

41(2)
3O2(g)⇌2O3(g)
2
[ O3 ]
Kc= 3
[ O2 ]
2

3×10 −59
=
[ O3 ]
( 4 10−2 )3

[O3]2 =3×10−59×64×10−6

=19.2×10−64
=4.38×10−32

42(3)
Haematite Fe2O3
Magnetite Fe3O4
Calamine ZnCO3
Kaolinite [Al2(OH)4Si2O5]

43(2)
Z× M
d= 3
N A ×a
4×M
8.92= −8 3
6.022× 10 × ( 3.608 ×10 )
23

23
8.92× 6.02210
M= ×46.9610-24
4
M=63.1g/mol (Molar Atomic Mass)
M=63.1u (Atomic Mass)

44(2)

1-Bromo-5-chloro-4-methylhexan-3-ol

45(4)
Ni(s)+2Ag +(0.001M)→Ni+2(0.001M)+2Ag(s)
0.059 +2 1
Ecell = E0cell – log [ ¿ ]
2 ¿¿¿
0.059
Ecell =10.5− log10+3
2
0.059
=10.5− log10+3
2
0.059
=10.5− 3
2
=10.4115V

46(4)
(A) [Ni(H2O)2(en)2]2+ (B) [Ni(H2O)4,(en)]2+ (C) [Ni(en)3]2+ en is SFL (strong field ligand)
As the number of en (strong ligand) increase splitting also increases.
So, Δ0 increases.
i.e. maximum energy will be absorbed in case of option C.
So the order is C > A > B

47(1)
48(2)
Acc. to Bohar's atomic model
2
n
r
z
3rd orbit of Li+2 n1 = 3
Z1 = 3
2nd orbit of He+ n1 = 2
Z1 = 2
( r 3 ) Li +2 n1
2
Z2
= 2
×
( r 2 ) He ¿ +¿ n 2
Z1

( r 3 )Li +2 3× 3 2
×
=
105.8 pm 2× 2 3

( r 3 ) Li +2 = 158.7 pm

49(3)
The presence of particulate matter in polluted air catalyses the oxidation of
sulphurdioxide to sulphur trioxide.
2SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2S03(g)
The reaction can also be promoted by ozone and hydrogen peroxide.
SO2(g) + O3(g) → SO3(g) + O2(g)
SO2(g) + H2O2(l) → H2SO4(aq)

50(1)