USABO Open Exam

February 2 to 12, 2016

1. Thales is prided as the first Greek philosopher and postulated that water is the unifying principle
of the universe. Which of the following is a property of water?

A. Water is least dense at 0˚C.

B. Linear hydrogen bonds involving water are stronger than covalent bonds.
C. Water has a lower heat capacity than methanol
D. Hydroxide is the conjugate base of water.
E. Water boils at a higher temperature than blood plasma

2. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the secretion of hormones by the anterior
pituitary? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

Hormone Target Effect

A. Beta-endorphin Adrenal gland Secretion of glucocorticoid
B. Corticotropin Adrenal gland Secretion of androgens
C. Prolactin Mammary glands Promotes lactation
D. Growth Hormone Liver Promotes growth
E. Leptin Corticotrophic cells ACTH secretion

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3.

You inserted the coding sequence for your favorite protein into the HindIII site. You find that E.
coli carrying this plasmid express the protein in the presence of IPTG, a lactose analog. What DNA
elements would you expect to find in proximity to the HindIII site? Select the choice which gives
the appropriate elements in the correct order.

1. Binding sites for the LacI repressor

2. Enhancer sequences
3. Poly-A sequence
4. Ribosomal binding site
5. Stop codon(s)
6. Strong constitutive promoter

A. 1, 2, 4, [HindIII site], 5, 3
B. 2, 1, 4, [HindIII site], 3, 5
C. 6, 1, 3, [HindIII site], 4, 5
D. 1, 6, 4, [HindIII site]. 3, 5
E. 6, 1, 4, [HindIII site], 5, 3

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 4. As DNA replication is occurring, the molecule below is inserted into the nascent DNA strand
as it lengthens. Which statement below is TRUE of the progress of replication immediately
afterwards?

Source: Wikipedia.

A. DNA replication would halt because there is an extra 5′-phosphate group for DNA polymerase to
add the next nucleotide.
B. DNA replication would halt because there is no 3′OH for DNA polymerase to add the next
nucleotide.
C. DNA replication would halt because there is no 5′OH for DNA polymerase to add the next
nucleotide.
D. DNA replication would continue, but the new strand would have to be built from 3′ to 5′.
E. DNA replication would proceed normally.

5. A figure shown below is a transport model for inorganic ions and macromolecules in nuclear pore
derived from patch-clamp experiments.

In the absence of macromolecular transport, the electrical conductance (in pS) of the NPC is
variable, shifting between open and closed states. In the presence of macromolecule transport,
the central channel of the NPC is filled with electrically isolating material that plugs the tunnel.
This results in a low passive permeability. In the closed state (closed NPC without transport
cargo inside) and in the plugged state (open NPC with electrically isolating transport cargo
inside), the patch resistance is high (in GΩ). From the patch-clamp recording graph, which of the
following would correspond to the “open” state?
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6. Consider the following plasmid, pET28a, a popular expression vector that is used for protein
expression in bacteria.

You freshly purified plasmid from overnight bacterial culture using extraction kit, also known as
miniprep. You confirmed the quality of plasmids by checking DNA and protein ratio (A260/280)
and running them on a DNA agarose gel. They looked pure as they should be. You would now
like to digest this vector for gene manipulation (molecular cloning) to generate vectors suitable
for molecular cloning. If you cut the above plasmid with restriction enzyme called HindIII, the
form of DNA will be changed from

A. Linear to supercoiled.
B. Nicked to linear.
C. Nicked to supercoiled.
D. Supercoiled to linear.
E. Supercoiled to nicked.

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7. Compound C is a single organic biomolecule with an important role in plant metabolism.
Solutions of C in four separate test tubes yield the following results when combined with the
reagents listed:

Ninhydrin - Blue
Biuret reagent - Blue
Tollens' reagent - Clear
Lugol's solution - Brown

Addition of a hydrolytic enzyme to a fresh tube of compound C results in a solution that, when
combined with Tollen's reagent, forms a silvery precipitate. Which of the following is a possible
identity for Compound C?

A. Amino acid; serine.

B. Monosaccharide; glucose.
C. Peptide; glutathione.
D. Disaccharide; sucrose.
E. Polysaccharide; amylose.

8. You have designed a 15 base-pair long degenerate primer (sequence: CATCATCATMAAGCM).

The Ms represent base pairs which can either be A or C. You will be using these primers for
binding within a genome of 2*10^9 base pairs. What is the expected number of binding sites for
your primers?

A. 7.
B. 70.
C. 700.
D. 7000.
E. 70000.

9. Suppose you have solutions of the following amino acids buffered at a pH of 7.0. In which of the s
olutions would the major species have no net charge? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

A. Histidine (6.0)
B. Glutamic Acid (4.2)
C. Cysteine (8.3)
D. Isoleucine (>14)
E. Lysine (10.0)

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10. The progression of cancer is often driven by genetic and epigenetic alterations. Which of the
following is not likely to contribute to tumorigenesis?

A. Loss of function mutation in the p53 gene.

B. Upregulation of pro-apoptotic proteins.
C. Duplication of the telomerase gene.
D. Increased secretion of growth factors.
E. Moderately high level of oxidative stress.

11. Botanist Grace is attempting to determine the identity of a plant. She masterfully sections the
leaves, and through a light microscope observes that the vessels have a thick layer of concentric
mesophyll tissue around them. Which of the following plants could this most likely be?

A. Chard.
B. Crabgrass.
C. Kale.
D. Rutabaga.
E. Squash.

12. The Death Star experiences a power outage. Darth Guha, being the hipster he is, really doesn't
want his kale to die. He uses his red lightsaber as an emergency light source for his beloved
kale. Anticipating this scenario, Darth Guha engineered his kale to overexpress beta-carotene.
What is the engineered kale's photosynthetic rate, compared to wild-type kale, under the red
lightsaber?

A. The engineered kale has a significantly higher photosynthetic rate compared to wild-type kale because
beta-carotene absorbs red light better than chlorophyll.
B. The engineered kale has a significantly lower photosynthetic rate compared to wild-type kale because
beta-carotene interferes with the absorption of red light.
C. The engineered kale has a significantly lower photosynthetic rate compared to wild-type kale because
beta-carotene does not significantly absorb red light.
D. The engineered kale has approximately the same photosynthetic rate compared to wild-type kale
because beta-carotene does not significantly absorb red light.
E. The engineered kale has approximately the same photosynthetic rate compared to wild-type kale
because beta-carotene is not an accessory pigment to chlorophyll a or chlorophyll b.

13. Which of the following statements about plant growth and development is NOT correct?

A. Most plant hormones are transmitted from one individual to another through the air.
B. A nail hammered into the trunk of a tree will remain at the same height throughout the tree's lifetime.
C. When the tip of a shoot is plucked off, the plant will become bushier.
D. Plants bend towards light because cells on the dark side of the stem elongate in response to auxins.
E. The biomass of a plant is derived primarily from carbon dioxide in the air.

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14. During the reproductive process in angiosperms, all of the following transitions occur EXCEPT
that the:

A. Microspores become pollen grains.

B. Ovulary becomes a fruit.
C. Integuments become the seed coat.
D. Flower petals fall off.
E. The tube and sperm nuclei fuse.

15. Symptoms of mineral deficiency depend on the nutrient’s function and mobility within the plant.
In a figure shown below, deficiency in this nutrient results in changing color of leaves into
purple. What mineral is missing in the figure shown below?

A. Calcium.
B. Iron.
C. Nitrogen
D. Oxygen.
E. Potassium.

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16. Anthocyanins produce the red color in leaves. Trees produce them to protect the photosynthetic
machinery in the fall as they start to shut-down for the winter. Schaberg et al. (2003) measured
amount of leaf color in sugar maples from June-October 1999. Based on their data, which of the
following statements is FALSE?

A. Yellow color increased as green color decreased.

B. Significant color changes for all three colors was not detected until after the first frost.
C. Red color achieved a maximum earlier than yellow color.
D. When green leaf color was at a minimum, leaf color was more yellow than red.
E. All of the above are correct.
(Based on Figure 1 from Tree Physiology 23, 325–333.2003 Heron Publishing—Victoria, CanadaFactors influencing
red expression in autumn foliage of sugar mapletreesP. G. SCHABERG, A. K. VAN DEN BERG, P. F.
MURAKAMI, J. B. SHANE and J. R. DONNELLY)

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17. Which of the following statements about apical meristems is FALSE?

A. Apical meristems are found in roots, shoots and axillary buds.

B. Apical meristems are protected by tissues made from differentiated cells produced by the meristem.
C. The pattern of nodes is laid down by the shoot apical meristem like the pattern of branch roots is laid
down by the root apical meristem.
D. The root apical meristem contains a region called the quiescent center.
E. All apical meristems produce primary growth.

18. In what ways can terrestrial plants increase their access and uptake of water?

A. Increase the production of root hairs

B. Increase concentrations of osmotically-active solutes in the root cortical cells
C. Increase the production of siphonophores
D. B and C.
E. A and B.

19. In Adolf Huxley’s Brave New World, John remembers Linda’s quotes like “A, B, C, Vitamin D.
The fat’s in the liver, the cod’s in the sea.” This ditty was intended to coerce people into taking
vitamins. Which disease below could be helped with the same vitamin found in cod and the
liver?

A. Beriberi.
B. Pellagra.
C. Rickets.
D. Scurvy.
E. Kwashiorkor-edema.

20. Which of the following statements regarding vitamins and minerals is incorrect?

A. Essential minerals must be consumed in the diet.

B. Vitamins are organic substances.
C. Vitamins are important sources of energy for the body.
D. Iron, Fluorine, Calcium, and Sodium are all minerals.
E. Trace minerals represent <10% of our body weight.

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Questions 21 & 22. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.

A. B. C. D.

21. Which organisms in the figures above utilize holoblastic cleavage?

22. Which of the organism above in the figure above utilizes positive pressure breathing?

23. Examine the diagram below of a human eye condition. Which of the following statements is
TRUE? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.

A. Vision may be restored with convex lens and refractive surgery.

B. Vision may be restored with concave lens and refractive surgery.
C. This condition often occurs in elderly people.
D. This phenomenon can be fixed by LASIK (laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis) surgery.

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24. In your high school biology course, you were assigned to draw a diagram of the formation of
urine in human. A figure shown below is homework you did for your high school biology course.
Now, you would like to double check before you submit this to your teacher, Dr. Lee. Is there
anything wrong with this figure? If so, why?

A. No, there is nothing wrong with this figure.

B. Yes, afferent and efferent arterioles are reversed.
C. Yes, ascending part of loop of Henle should be thicker than descending part.
D. Yes, NaCl should be absorbed first and then water should be re-absorbed in loop of Henle.
E. Yes, the order of the layer in kidney should be inner medulla, outer medulla, and cortex. The
sequences for those are reversed.

25. Which of the following amniotic membranes can be involved in the respiratory exchange of gases
in a snake embryo? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.

A. Amnion.
B. Chorion.
C. Respiratory lamina propria.
D. Allantois.
E. Yolk sac.

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26. Figure 1 on the left panel describes the change in membrane potential when there is a stimulus
introduced, indicated by the arrow (or !, 0 second). Figure 2 describes the membrane potential of
one of the stages from Figure 1. We don’t know which stage it is, however. In Figure 2, Ion I and
II are also unknown –but they are either sodium ions or potassium ions. Which of the following
is TRUE regarding Stages from 1 to 6?

A. In Stage 1, the action potential is formed as a result of the stimulus that is slightly below threshold.
B. In both Stages 2 and 3, the Ion II influxes into the inside of the cell.
C. In Stage 4, the gates for Ion I are inactivated while those for Ion II are open.
D. In Stage 5, as more Ion II rushes into the inside of the cell, the membrane potential decreases below
-70 mV.
E. In Stage 6, as more Ion II rushes into the inside of the cell, the resting potential will be formed.

27. Manuel has just finished an intense 10-kilometer running race. His body has

A. An increased level of carbonic acid and increased pH of body fluids.

B. An increased level of carbonic acid and decreased pH of body fluids.
C. A decreased level of carbonic acid, and increased pH of body fluids.
D. A decreased level of carbonic acid and decreased pH of body fluids.
E. No change in level of carbonic acid or pH.

28. Before birth in the mammalian fetal heart, the ductus arteriosus joins the pulmonary artery and
the aorta and the foramen ovale joins the two atria. Why do these modifications disappear hours
after birth?

A. The fetal heart is not yet strong enough to sustain a normal circulation.
B. Development of the beating heart is one of the last steps in the maturation of the fetus.
C. The pulmonary circulation is bypassed because the fetus is not breathing in the womb.
D. Maternal hormones suppress the competing infant circulation via the placenta.
E. They act as safety valves to relieve the pressure of the viscous amniotic fluid on the fetal heart.

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29. While taking the Open Exam, you begin to experience the effects of sympathetic stimulation by
your autonomous nervous system, initiating the fight or flight response. Which of the following
choices are examples of sympathetic responses?

I. Dilation of pupils.
II. Relaxation of bladder.
III. Inhibition of digestive functions.
IV. Increase in heart rate.

A. I, II, III, and IV.

B. I and III only.
C. I, III, and IV only.
D. II, III, and IV only.
E. I and IV only.

30. Your grandfather has chronic high blood pressure, also called hypertension. Which of the
following would be a good target for treatment for his condition?

A. Stimulation to increase his heart rate.

B. Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system to release acetylcholine.
C. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system to release norepinephrine.
D. Administration of compounds that constrict his blood vessels.
E. Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system to release adrenaline.

31. In one forest, butterfly Species A is harmless but has evolved to closely to resemble bad tasting
Species B. This is an example of ___________ mimicry, and its protective power is strengthened
if the ratio of the populations of Species A to B ________________.

A. Batesian, decreases.
B. Batesian, increases.
C. Mullerian, increases.
D. Mullerian, decreases.
E. Aposematic, increases.

32. Person A and Person B, who are cousins, are both childless. Their fathers were brothers, while
their mothers are unrelated. Person B is engaged and intends to have nine children. Person A is
married expects to have only one child. One day, Person B falls into a river, from which he
cannot swim out alone and would die otherwise. Person A has a 40% chance of saving Person B
if he enters the river. However, entering the river also means certain death for Person A,
regardless of whether or not he saves Person B.

Calculate the coefficient of relatedness between Person A and Person B and decide whether,
based on Hamilton's rule, Person A should try to save Person B.

A. 0.25; Person A should try to save B.

B. 0.125; Person A should NOT try to save B.
C. 0.25; Person A should try to save B.
D. 0.0625; Person A should NOT try to save B.
E. 0.125; Person A should try to save B.

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33. During the breeding and egg-laying season, female red-cockaded woodpeckers store bone
fragments instead of seeds in the barks of trees where they nest. From time to time, they retrieve
these bones, peck at them, and ingest bone flakes. The most likely effect of this feeding practice
is to:

A. Add calcium supplements to the birds’ diet for eggshell development.

B. Hasten the rate of egg production.
C. Increase the number of eggs produced.
D. Strengthen the bones of the developing embryos.
E. Shorten the period of gestation.

34. Arrange the following genera from earliest to latest on the evolutionary time scale:

I. Amborella.
II. Pteridum.
III. Sphagnum.
IV. Gnetum.
V. Pisum.

A. I, II, III, IV, V.

B. I, III, II, IV, V.
C. II, III, IV, V, I.
D. III, II, IV, I, V.
E. III, II, IV, V, I.

35. At the end of a perfect week, Barney is suddenly confronted by the horrible news that he is the
father of a baby girl. After Barney disappears to Bermuda, the mother orders a paternity test to
confirm that Barney truly is the father. If Barney’s blood type is AB and Rh-, which of the
following blood types could his daughter NOT have?

A. A and Rh+.
B. B and Rh-.
C. AB and Rh-.
D. AB and Rh+.
E. O and Rh-.

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36. Consider the existence of a hypothetical operon, pac, which controls the expression of several
enzymes involved in the metabolism of alcohol. The structure of the operon is as shown below:

The gene for the operon regulatory protein is represented as pacR, which is normally made in
inactive form. The pac operon includes a promoter P and an operator sequence O, as well as
genes coding the metabolic proteins. Binding of alcohol to pacR activates pacR, allowing it to
bind to the O sequence, where it acts as a crucial transcription factor.

To study the pac operon, you generate diploids with various mutations in the pac operon and
plate them on medium containing alcohol as the only carbon source. (A plus sign denotes the
wild-type form of the component while a minus sign denotes mutation in that component.) Of the
following mutants listed, select the choice that best corresponds to those mutants that will
successfully survive in your experiment. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.

A. pacR-P+O+/pacR+P-O-.
B. pacR-P+O-/pacR+P-O+.
C. pacR+P-O+/pacR-P+O+.
D. pacR+P+O+/pacR-P-O+
E. pacR+P+O-/pacR+P-O+

37. You sequence a group of 50 female fruit flies, all from the same population, and calculate
nucleotide diversity across the genome for your sample sequences. You find that the X
chromosome has lower nucleotide diversity than the autosomes. Which of the following theories
could explain this finding? Assume equal numbers of males and females in the population as a
whole.

I. Balancing selection is acting to decrease diversity on the X chromosome

II. Effective population sizes are lower on the X than the autosomes because males only have
one X chromosome but they have two of every autosome.
III. Effective population sizes are higher on the X than the autosomes because males only have
one X chromosome but they have two of every autosome.
IV. Purifying selection is acting to decrease diversity on the X chromosome.

A. I and II.
B. I and III.
C. II and IV.
D. I and IV.
E. I, II, and IV.

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38. You sequence the alcohol dehydrogenase locus in Drosophila (Adh) in 50 strains of fruit flies.
You find that the Adh gene has two times as many mutations that differentiate the strains at this
locus compared to five other genes in the genome that you are using as a control. Which factors
might explain the pattern that you see?

I. There are really two copies of Adh in these genomes, making it look like Adh has
accumulated mutations twice as quickly.
II. Adh is affected by balancing selection, which acts to increase nucleotide diversity in the
gene.
III. The ‘control’ genes have experienced strong directional selection, reducing the number of
mutations that can segregate in the population.
IV. Adh is less constrained by selection than the control genes, allowing it to accumulate more
mutations.

A. II only.
B. I and III only.
C. III only.
D. I, III, and IV.
E. I, II, III, and IV.

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39. You have started working on the woolly mammoth genome sequence. When comparing
mammoths to modern elephants and mastodons, you identify the following phylogenetic tree.
Which of the following is true?

I. Mastodons are more closely related to African elephants than to Indian elephants.
II. Mastodons are more closely related to Indian elephants than to African elephants.
III. Mammoths are more closely related to Indian elephants than to African elephants.
IV. Mammoths are more closely related to African elephants than to Indian elephants.

A. I only.
B. III only.
C. I AND III only.
D. II AND III only.
E. I AND IV only.

40. You are working on samples of Phythopthera infestans (potato blight) that you have sequenced
from natural populations. You then obtain more samples from a museum in Ireland that date to
the 1840s and 1850s, when the potato blight swept through Europe (the Irish Potato Famine).
You build a phylogenetic tree and find that the samples cluster in the following way. Which of
the following conclusions best describes the data?

A. The Irish potato blight from the museum samples likely originated in Mexico.
B. The Irish potato blight from the museum samples likely originated in Argentina.
C. The Irish potato blight from the museum samples likely originated in the United States
D. All modern Phythpthera infestans comes from a strain that was ancestral to the Irish potato blight found
in the museum samples and you cannot determine its geographic origin from this data.
E. All modern Phythopthera infestans is descended from a subset of the strain that caused the Irish potato
famine, and you cannot determine its geographic origin from this data.

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41. Elk populations A and B have 1000 and 100 individuals, respectively, with all individuals in a
given population existing in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with one another. One day, you
observe that in each population, a single individual has gained a new mutation that gives it
spotted fur. The spotted fur allele is not found to affect survival or reproductive fitness. Let p_A
be the probability that the spotted fur allele eventually goes extinct in population A, and let p_B
be the probability that the spotted fur allele eventually goes extinct in population B. Which of the
following statements correctly describes the relationship between p_A and p_B?

A. p_A > p_B.

B. p_A < p_B.
C. 0 < p_A = p_B < 1.
D. p_A = p_B = 0.
E. p_A = p_B = 1.

42. When true-breeding, brown female flies with wild-type wings are mated to true-breeding, black
male flies with vestigial wings, the F1 offspring have the following phenotypes, with the numbers
of male and females approximately equal in each phenotypic class:

781 brown flies with wild-type wings

769 black flies with vestigial wings
23 brown flies with vestigial wings
27 black flies with wild-type wings

You had expected there to be equal numbers of offspring in each phenotypic class. Which of the
following best explains the deviation?

A. Small sample sizes frequently cause large differences between expected and observed offspring ratios.
B. One or both of the genes is sex-linked.
C. The alleles responsible for body color and wing size are linked.
D. Spontaneous mutation caused some individuals carrying the allele for vestigial wings to revert to
wild-type wings, and vice versa.
E. Meiotic drive causes certain chromosomes to preferentially be passed on to the next generation.
.
43. In most species, males and females are born in an approximately 1:1 ratio. From an evolutionary
perspective, what is the most likely reason that explains this?

A. In a population with a 1:1 ratio, a parent that produces nonequal numbers of males and females is
less likely to pass on their genes relative to the rest of the population.
B. A 1:1 ratio is the most likely because it has the most entropy.
C. There is no major selection pressure that acts on sex ratio.
D. Since each offspring must have 1 male and 1 female parent, this would maximize the number of total
possible offspring.
E. Since each offspring must have 1 male and 1 female parent, this would maximize the amount of
genetic diversity in the population.

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44. Ranger Geraldo is conducting a population of Rhydon in the Kanto Regional Safari Zone.
Rhydon are large mammals which move in herds. Which of the following sampling methods
would be most effective?

A. Aerial Counting.
B. Catch 'em all.
C. Mark & Recapture.
D. Quadrant Sampling.
E. Transect Sampling

Questions 45 to 47, refer to the following experiment on voles:

Two varieties of the same species of voles (meadow mice), albino and red-backed, were used in an
experiment. Both varieties were subjected to the predation of a hawk, under controlled laboratory
conditions. During the experiment, the floor of the test room was covered on alternate days with
white ground cover that matched the albino voles and red-brown cover that matched the red-backed
voles. The chart below shows the results of 50 trials.

Number of Voles Captured

Variety White Cover Red-Brown Cover Total
Albino 35 57 92
Red-backed 60 40 100
Total 95 97 192

45. The purpose of the experiment was to:

A. Compare the agility of the several varieties of voles.

B. Compare the effects of protective coloration.
C. Decrease the vole population.
D. Determine the basic intelligence of hawks and voles.
E. Measure the visual acuity of hawks.

46. Which result would have been most likely if only red-brown floor covering had been used?

A. A greater number of red-backed voles would not have survived.

B. Ninety-seven red-backed voles would have survived.
C. Ninety-five albino voles would have survived.
D. There would have been no change in the results.
E. The survival rate of the albino voles would have decreased markedly.

47. The results of this experiment lend credibility to the concept of

A. Adaptation allowing the species to survive.

B. Species perpetuation through overproduction.
C. Spontaneous generation of lethal mutations.
D. The female of the species being more deadly than the male.
E. Use and disuse of organs and tissues.

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48. An investigator studying the diatom community present in a certain stream found 150 different
species of diatoms in Mile 1, none of which comprised more than 5% of the total diatoms in the
stream. In Mile 25, the investigator found only 20 different species, with 2 species representing
80% of the total. Which of the following is the best explanation of these observations?

A. The stream was larger at mile 25.

B. The nature of the stream bottom changed.
C. Organic wastes high in nitrates and phosphates entered the stream somewhere between the two
sampling stations.
D. The stream velocity changed.
E. There must have been something wrong with the sampling methods.

49. Which of the following classes would have members undergo radial and indeterminate cleavage
during development? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.

A. Cephalopoda.
B. Holothuroidea.
C. Mammalia.
D. Scyphozoa.
E. Trematoda.

50. Chef Grace is cooking up a stir fry. She wants to use a pseudocoelomate larva. Which of the
following groups would NOT provide suitable larvae for her consumption? SELECT ALL
THAT APPLY.

A. Cestoda.
B. Aves.
C. Rotifera.
D. Mollusca.
E. Nematoda.

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