TEST 2

B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points)

Part 1. Choose one of the words marked A, B, C, or D which best completes each of the
following sentences. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points)
1. In __________, it was a bad idea to pay him in cash.
A. hindsight B. consideration C. retrospect D. knowledge
2. The ministered assured us that there were funds for this project.
A. rich B. financial C. ample D. deep
3. After years of working together, the partners found themselves __________ linked
A. permanently B. indelibly C. perpetually D. inextricably
4. The president decided to release a number of political prisoners as a(n) __________ of
goodwill.
A. gesture B. indication C. pledge D. symbol
5. The racing-driver climbed out of the wreckage completely __________ .
A. unwounded B. intact C. unscathed D. well-preserved
6. The King showed his mercy by __________ the rebel’s lives.
A. saving B. sparing C. granting D. accepting
7. If you don’t not repay the money we will, as a last , taking you to court.
A. measure B. attempt C. act D. resort
8. In terms of protocol, the president takes over all others in the country.
A. precedence B. priority C. the lead D. the head
9. When attacked by his opponents, the general __________ with a strong justification for his
policy.
A. hit back B. struck up C. leapt up D. push forward
10. To get his proposal accepted, the Finance Manager had to __________ heavy pressure from
colleagues.
A. laugh off B. fend off C. send off D. rose up
11. It is very appropriate that the prize __________ go to such a young architect.
A. could B. should C. need D. might
12. Casinos ensure there is a healthy __________ between what they take from gamblers and
what they pay out.
A. balance B. profit C. margin D. difference
13. I revised my views comments from colleagues.
A. in the light of B. further to C. against D. consequent upon
14. __________ his love of swimming, it’s hardly surprising he enjoys spending his holidays by
the sea.
 A. Recognizing B. Given C. Providing D. Granted
15. Because of the ice, drivers found their cars on the road.
A. squealing B. slipping C. squeaking D. skidding
16. is understood to be no question of a criminal act having taken place.
A. There B. It C. Although D. And
17. Over the centuries the feet of many visitors have the steps to the castle.
A. worn out B. worn through C. worn down D. worn in
18. They attempted to the painting to its original.
A. renovate B. restore C. repair D. refurbish
19. The general was relieved of his command after committing one of the worst __________ in
the history of warfare.
A. blunders B. faults C. disasters D. defeats
20. This is a matter of the __________ concern.
A. ultimate B. utmost C. utter D. universal
Part 2. Read the passage below which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write
the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
LINE TEXT
1 Human memory, formerly believed to be rather inefficient, is really more
2 sophisticated than that of a computer. Researchers approaching the problem from a
3 variation of viewpoints have all concluded that there is a great deal more storing in
4 our minds than has been generally supposed. Dr. Wilder Penfield, a Canadian
5 neurosurgery, proved that by stimulating their brains electrically, he can elicit the
6 total recall of specific events in his subjects’ lives. Even dreams and another minor
7 events supposedly forgotten for many years suddenly emerged in details. Although
8 the physical basic for memory is not yet understood, one theory is how the fantastic
9 capacity for storage in the brain is the result of an almost unlimited combination of
10 interconnections between brain cell, stimulated by patterns of activity. Repeated
11 references with the same information support recall. In other word, improved
12 performance is the result of strengthening the chemical bonds in the memory.
13
Your answers:
Line Mistakes Corrections
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10

Part 3. Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in the
spaces provided below. (10 points)
The greenhouse effect is essentially the process by which the (1. ABSORB) ___________ and
emission of infrared radiation by gases in the atmosphere warms the planet’s lower atmosphere
and surface. Put simply, the so-called greenhouse gases which cause this effect (2. BASE)
___________ redirect heat that would otherwise escape back into outer space down towards the
surface of the earth. This phenomenon is actually key to creating conditions (3. CONDUCT)
___________ to life on Earth. Without the natural (4. OCCUR) ___________ of these gases and
consequent planetary warming, Earth would actually be a very (5. HOSPITABLE)
___________ place. The problem, however, began in the 1800s during the industrial revolution.
The increased amount of industrial activity led to additional volumes of greenhouse gases being
produced unnaturally as a result of human activity. Obviously, as the level of industrial activity
has increased dramatically over the last several centuries , so too then has the rate of production
and emission of greenhouse gases. Human activity has therefore altered the balance of things
with (6. CONCENTRATE) of greenhouse gases such as CO2 and methane in the atmosphere
significantly higher today than at any other time in the past 800,000 years of Earth’s history.
About two-thirds of the additional CO2 released is attributed to the burning of fossil fuels, while
the rest of the increase in atmospheric greenhouse gas levels is put down to changes in land-use,
in particular (7. FOREST) ___________, and population growth, which, for example, has led to
greater numbers of livestock than ever before being reared for (8. CONSUME) ___________,
and a consequent significant increase in methane emissions. The (9. DEPLETE) ___________
of the tropospheric ozone layer, caused by chlorofluorocarbons, has also had a significant
warming effect on the Earth’s surface, but this is not to be confused with the greenhouse effect as
the two phenomena are largely (10. RELATE) ___________ .
C. READING (50 points)
Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap.
Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
 THE FUTURE IN BIOTECHNOLOGY
Modern industry pollutes, and it also seems to cause significant changes to the climate.
What is needed is an industry that (1) ____________ the benefits without the costs. And the (2)
____________ of such an industry can now be discerned.
That industry is based on biotechnology. At the moment, biotech’s main uses are in
medicine and agriculture. However, its biggest long-term impact may be industrial.
Biotechnology will (3) ____________ demand for oil by taking the cheapest raw materials
imaginable, carbon dioxide and water, and using them to make fuel and plastics.
It is now possible to create enzymes that work thousands of times faster than their natural
counterparts. These should turn the manufacture of ethanol as a petrol additive from a subsidised
boondoggle into a industry that can pay its (4) ____________. Biotechnologists are also working
on enzymes that can digest cellulose. Turning cellulose into fermentable sugars really would give
petrol a (5) ____________ for its money.
The plastics industry, too, may be (6) ____________ by biotechonology. There are now
plastics made entirely by bacteria that have had their metabolic pathways redesigned. Soon,
plastics may be grown on farms, in genetically engineered plants, rather than being (7)
____________ in huge, centralised industrial plants.
Plastics and fuels made in this way would have several advantages. They can be called
“renewables”, (8) ____________ nothing is depleted to make them. They would be part of the
natural carbon cycle, borrowing that element from the atmosphere for a few months, and
returning it when they were burned or (9) ____________. That means that they could not
possibly contribute to global warming. They would also be environmentally friendly in other
ways. Bioplastics are biodegradable, and biofuels are a lot cleaner than petrol and diesel, and
would be cleaner (10) ____________even than the fuel-cell technology.
All in all, the future could be green in ways that traditional environmentalists had not
expected.
1. A. delivered B. collects C. reaps D. produces
2. A. impact B. age C. glimmerings D. outgrowth
3. A. satisfy B. preserve C. boost D. diminish
4. A. road B. route C. way D. course
5. A. path B. run C. race D. climb
6. A. converted B. substituted C. modulated D. transformed
7. A. manufactured B. assembled C. constructed D. mingled
8. A. although B. since C. otherwise D. therefore
9. A. garbaged B. wasted C. disposed D. dumped
10. A. almost B. wholly C. overall D. thoroughly
Part 2. Read the following text and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your
answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)
THE CHANGING FACE OF WORKING LIFE
The accepted concept of a career 1. _________followed a similar pattern for decades. After
completing their education, people would enter the adult world of work, 2. _______ down on to
a job which they would likely remain from that point 3____________ . Not only would this
occupation provide their income for their entire working life, it would also allow them a healthy
pension when they retired and moved into 4. __________age. Over the past twenty years, 5.
__________, the relationship between a wage earner and their chosen profession has changed
enormously. Today, the idea of a ‘job-for-life’ has all 6.__________ disappeared, to be
replaced by an unforgiving world of unstable employment. Some observers even argue that
current society to pit old 7. ____________young in a constant battle to find work of
some description, all against a 8._____________of increasing debt and economic difficulties.
At the same time, the government regularly releases figures that suggest the economy is
prospering, evidencing this claim with the fact that the unemployment rate continues to fall
annually. There are indeed more jobs available. However, a huge number of these are casual,
temporary or short-term positions, all of 9. _____________are low-paid and create little in the
way of tax income for the government. This has a number of debilitating long- term effects, not
10. ____________because this assurance of a growing economy is based more in myth than fact.
Part 3. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each of the following
questions. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
Biological diversity has become widely recognized as a critical conservation issue only
in the past two decades. The rapid destruction of the tropical rain forests, which are the
ecosystems with the highest known species diversity on Earth, has awakened people to
the importance and fragility of biological diversity. The high rate of species extinctions in
these environments is jolting, but it is important to recognize the significance of
biological diversity in all ecosystems. As the human population continues to expand, it
will negatively affect one after another of Earth's ecosystems. In terrestrial ecosystems
and in fringe marine ecosystems (such as wetlands), the most common problem is habitat
destruction. In most situations, the result is irreversible. Now humans are beginning to
destroy marine ecosystems through other types of activities, such as disposal and runoff
of poisonous waste; in less than two centuries, by significantly reducing the variety of
species on Earth, they have irrevocably redirected the course of evolution.
Certainly, there have been periods in Earth's history when mass extinctions have
occurred. The extinction of the dinosaurs was caused by some physical event, either
climatic or cosmic. There have also been less dramatic extinctions, as when natural
competition between species reached an extreme conclusion. Only 0.01 percent of the
species that have lived on Earth have survived to the present, and it was largely chance
that determined which species survived and which died out.
However, nothing has ever equaled the magnitude and speed with which the human
species is altering the physical and chemical world and demolishing the environment. In
fact, there is wide agreement that it is the rate of change humans are inflicting, even more
than the changes themselves, that will lead to biological devastation. Life on Earth has
continually been in flux as slow physical and chemical changes have occurred on Earth,
but life needs time to adapt-time for migration and genetic adaptation within existing
species and time for the proliferation of new genetic material and new species that may
be able to survive in new environments.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The variety of species found in tropical rain forests
B. The cause of the extinction of the dinosaurs
C. The time required for species to adapt to new environments
D. The impact of human activities on Earth's ecosystems
2. The word "critical" is closest in meaning to
A. essential B. negative C. complicated D. interesting
3. The word "jolting" is closest in meaning to
A. illuminating B. unknown C. shocking D. predicted
4. What does the word "they" in paragraph I refers to ?
A. activities B. species C. centuries D. humans
5. The author mentions all of the following as examples of the effect of humans on the
world's ecosystems EXCEPT
A. damage to marine ecosystems
B. habitat destruction in wetlands
C. the introduction of new varieties of plant species
D. destruction of the tropical rain forests
6. The author mentions the extinction of the dinosaurs in the 2nd paragraph to emphasize
that ________________
A. not all mass extinctions have been caused by human activity
B. actions by humans could not stop the irreversible process of a species' extinction
C. Earth's climate has changed significantly since the dinosaurs' extinction
D. the cause of the dinosaurs' extinction is unknown
7. The word "magnitude" is closest in meaning to __________.
A. carelessness B. extent C. determination D. concern
8. According to the passage, natural evolutionary change is different from changes caused
by humans in that changes caused by humans __________.
A. affect fewer ecosystems B. are occurring at a much faster rate
C. are reversible D. are less devastating to most species
9. Which of the following can best replace "in flux" ?
A. breaking B. producing C. changing D. increasing
10. With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree?
A. The extinction of a few species is an acceptable consequence of human progress.
B. Technology will provide solutions to problems caused by the destruction of
ecosystems.
C. Human influence on ecosystems should not be a factor in determining public policy.
D. Humans should be more conscious of the influence they have on ecosystems.
Part 4. Read the following text and do the tasks that follow. (15 points)
A. A condition that causes children to dislike being hugged and sometimes reject all physical
affection is closer to being understood following research into the part of the brain responsible
for our senses. Scientists at Northwestern University, Illinois, and the University of Edinburgh
explored fragile X syndrome, a condition associated with hypersensitivity to sounds, touch,
smells and visual stimuli that can result in social withdrawal or anxiety. Hypersensitivity is a
condition in which the person affected responds in an excessive way to contact with the world
around them. Some sufferers are even hypersensitive to material on their skin.
B. The scientists found that critical phases in the brain’s development may be wrongly timed in
people with the condition. This may result in delayed communication between certain neurons in
the brain. By recording electrical signals in the brains of mice, bred to exactly copy the effects of
the condition, the researchers found that connections in the brain’s sensory cortex were late to
develop fully. The study, published in the journal Neuron, found that normal neural connections
in the sensory cortex occur much easier than previously thought: in the first week of pregnancy
in mice, which is equivalent to the middle of the second trimester (or fifth month) of pregnancy
in humans. In fragile X syndrome, the mistiming also has a domino effect, causing further
problems with the correct wiring of the brain. The hope is that by understanding how and when
the functions of the brain are effected in fragile X syndrome, a therapy may become possible.
C. “There is a “critical period” during development, when the brain is very plastic and is
changing rapidly,” said Anis Contractor, from the Geinberg School of Medicine at Northwestern
University. “All the elements of this rapid development have to be coordinated so that the brain
becomes wired correctly and therefore functions properly.” People with the syndrome have
cognitive problems as well as sensory problems that make them physically weaker. “They have
tactile defensiveness,” Dr Contractor said. “They don’t look in people’s eyes, they won’t hug
their parents, and they are hypersensitive to touch and sound. All of this causes anxiety for
family and friends as well as for the fragile X patients themselves.” Peter Kind, who led the
study at the University of Edinburgh, said: “We know there are key windows during which the
brain develops, both in the womb and afterwards. The general principle is that if these time
windows have shifted, then that could explain the cognitive problems.”
D. Professor Kind said that this could be demonstrated by the fact that a child with cataract (a
medical condition in which the lens of the eyes becomes less and less transparent) that was not
corrected would become permanently blind in the affected eye, whereas an adult would be able
to regain their sight after an operation. “We’ve learnt that theses changes happen much earlier
than previously thought, which gives valuable insight into when we should begin therapeutic
intervention for people with these conditions,” he said. “It also has implications for the treatment
of autism since the changes in the brains of people with fragile X syndrome and autistic people
are thought to significantly overlap.” Autism, as many people know, is a disability that affects
how a person communicates with and relates to other people, and how they make sense of the
world.
E. Fragile X syndrome is as common as cystic fibrosis, a genetic disorder that commonly affects
the lungs and causes breathing difficulties, and that affects about 1 in 4,000 males and 1 in 8,000
females worldwide. The Fragile X Society believes that there are many people who have the
fragile X syndrome but have never been diagnosed. It shows up in early infancy and
progressively worsens throughout childhood, causing intellectual disability as well as social,
language and behavioural problems.
F. Fragile X syndrome is caused by a gene mutation on the X chromosome- one of the two
chromosomes that determine the gender or sex of a person. The mutation interferes in the
production of a protein called fragile X mental retardation protein. Fragile X is so-named
because the X chromosome appears broken or kinked. Tim Potter, of the Fragile X Society, said:
“ We welcome any research that helps us understand fragile X and which may open the way to
reversing the effects or preventing them ever happening.
Task 1. The Reading Passage above has eight paragraphs A-H. From the list of headings
below, choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph. Write the appropriate numbers
(i-ix) in boxes 1-6. Paragraph A has been done for you.
List of Headings
i. How fragile X syndrome was discovered
ii. The genetic basic of fragile X syndrome
iii. Fragile X syndrome and developmental delays in the brain
iv. New treatments for fragile X syndrome
v. The comparative frequency of fragile X syndrome
vi. Research into understanding fragile X syndrome
vii. Reasons for the increase of fragile X syndrome
viii. Other conditions related to cognitive development
ix. Examples of the symptoms of fragile X syndrome
1 paragraph A __________
2 paragraph B __________
3 paragraph C __________
4 paragraph D __________
5 paragraph E __________
6 paragraph F __________
Task 2: Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
People with fragile X syndrome are extremely sensitive to sensory (7)
…………………………….. Some sufferers are even hypersensitive to clothing. The condition is
the result of connections within the (8) ……………………………. of the brain not being made
at the right time. Instead, the neurons of people with the condition establish connections later
than should happen, which is normally in the second (9) …………………………. of pregnancy
of humans. By understanding how the brain’s (10) ……………………..…. are affected,
scientists hope to develop a treatment.
D. WRITING (50 points)
Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the one
printed before it. Write your answers in the space provided. (10 points)
1. People became aware of the damage to the zone layer when an enormous hole was discovered
over the South Pole.
It was the …………………………………………………………………………
2. Advanced technology cannot operate without special glass.
Were it not………………………………………………………………………..
3. You cannot make use of this offer after 15 December
This offer is only………………………………………………………………….
4. Although I respect the law, I cannot accept the court’s decision.
Much ……………………………………………………………………………..
5. It was more of a business arrangement than a marriage.
It was not so………………………………………………………………………
Part II. Rewrite the sentences below in such a way that their meanings stay the same. You
must use the words in capital without changing their forms. Write your answers in the
space provided (10 points)
1. The committee members said they would remain loyal to the chairman. PLEDGED
………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. The villagers prepared themselves to withstand the coming storm. BRACED
………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. The challenger just wasn’t talented enough to provide a good contest with the reigning
champion. MATCH
………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. They could not warn people by electronic mail because that might spread the computer virus.
FEAR
……………………………………………………………………………………………….
5. Daniel’s habit of taking risks doesn’t fit in with his image as a family man.
COMPATIBLE
……………………………………………………………………………………………….

TEST 3
PART 1: Choose the best options
1. Mr and Mrs Jones are such permissive parents that their son can __________ no matter what
he insists.
A. jump on the bandwagon B. go against the grain
C. make their blood boil D. wind them around his little finger
2. You are bound to find information on the stock market crash of 1987 in the
newspaper________.
A. files B. archives C. records D. collections
3. According to psychiatrists, many violent criminals harbour feelings of ________and
insecurity.
A shortage B insufficiency C scarcity D inadequacy
4. If the market does not improve, these businesses may not be able to ________ their debts, and
we may see more bankruptcies.
A. disgorge B. milk C. indemnify D. service
5. The mini dress was _________, but now it is making a comeback.
A. a fad once thought to be finished B. once thought a fad to be finishing
C. thought a fad to be finished once D. once thought to be a finishing fad
6. Lying can be used to ________ the character of a brother or to flatter a friend.
A. backbite B. impugn C. spurn D. abnegate
7. It is ________that the Minister of Justice should be accused of corruption
A sarcastic B sardonic C ironic D cynical
8. You can’t believe a word that woman says –she is a ________liar.
A. dedicated B. committed C. compulsive D. devoted
9. He was so lonely he _________ the sound of a human voice.
A. angled for B. ached for C. egged on D. fussed over
10. I think that this painting can be ________in a number of different but equally valid ways.
A dissected B interpreted C translated D rendered
11. The photo would have been wonderful had it not been________focus.
A beyond B far from C out of D without
11. The photo would have been wonderful had it not been________focus.
A beyond B far from C out of D without
12. Tina would rather you _______ your son as she is too tired after the three-day conference.
A. had picked up B. did pick up C. would pick up D. picked up
13. Despite his reputation as a tough guy, he admits that he was scared ________ when he first
arrived in New York.
A. bananas B. dozy C. witless D. half dead
14. The protest began nearly two weeks ago and was initially sparked by plans to ________a
park to build a shopping center.
A. desiccate B. unmake C. extirpate D. bulldoze
15. The man in the market was selling leather coats very cheaply: they were such bargains
that were soon __________.
A. snapped up B. cleared off C. done for D. sold up
16. If you ask an artist how she draws so well, she is _________ to say, “Well, I just look at
something and draw what I see”.
A. prone B. predisposed C. loathe D. liable
17. The police arranged to __________ with their informant at a disused warehouse.
A. decouple B. rendezvous C. reconnoitre D. corroborate
18. I’ve just heard that argument before and quite frankly it just doesn’t ______!
A. face the music B. hit the nail on the head
C. carry weight D. hold water
19. Unfortunately, ________ stamping out the drugs trade, these programs are simply forcing
drug growers to move into more inaccessible regions.
A. besides B. rather than C. as for D. in converse to
20. I don’t like to make friends with the person who always ____ people _____ behind their
backs.
A. slag/off B. slap/ around C. strike/out D. hate/on
PART 2: Find and correct ten mistakes/ errors in the following passage
Having a roof over your head is a basic human need, but there are 1.2 billion people in the world
with adequate housing. This may change thanks for a revolutionary, low-cost use of 3D printers
to construct houses. With 3D printing, materials are joined together or reinforcing by using a
computer-controlled device to create a three-dimensional object. Two companies have joined
forces to try and ease homeless around the world by building affording homes using 3D printing.
Tech company ICON has developed a method for printing a one-floor, 60-square-meter house
out of cement in a day for just $10,000. This is a fraction of both the time and cost needing to
build a similar construction using conventional methods.
ICON has teamed up with the non-profit, internationally housing organization New Story.
Together, they will start building homes in developing countries. Their joint venture will see 100
new homes constructing in El Salvador next year. New Story's co-founder Alexandria Lafci
acknowledged that the 100 homes were just a drop in the ocean. She said: "There are over 100
million people living in slum conditions, in what we call survive mode." She also saw
possibilities for 3D-printed houses to become regular in richer countries in years to come.
However, she said that for the moment: "The tech is ready now to print very high-quality, safe
homes in the places we're building."
PART 3: Fill in each gap with the corect form of the word given
Over half a century ago, scientists found that they could record the electrical signals of
the brain at work. What at first appeared a random hotchpotch of activity became a
pattern of elegant waves (1. RHYTHM) determined. Ever since, scientists have
wondered whether the secrets of our thoughts, (2. PERCEIVE) and even (3.
CONSCIOUS) itself might be hidden in the patterns of our brain waves. The question
of why we have brain waves is, (4. ARGUE), as hotly debated today as it was when the
patterns were discovered. But the meaning, and even the existence, of fast rhythms in
the alert brain is highly (5. CONTROVERSY).
What is problematic is that you cannot perceive these rhythms directly, they are so well
hidden in the noise created by other brain activity, but many (6. SEARCH) now hold
the (7. CONVINCE) that the significance of these brain waves should not be (8.
ESTIMATE).
The latest suggestion is that the rhythms could be (9. DECIDE) in detecting progresses
going on in different regions of the brain. Some believe that these rhythms might even
interact, and in doing so help the brain to package information into (10. COHERE)
thoughts. How we bring together these related signals of the brain is a puzzle as yet
unsolved.

READING
PART 1: Choose the best options to complete the passage
FRIDAY THE THIRTEENTH
Police are hunting for a hit-and-run driver who knocked a teenage cyclist off her bike in East
Street. Sarah Tucker, 17, had a lucky escape on Friday, 13th May, when she was sent reeling
by a black Volvo on her way home from work.
She bruised her thigh and shoulder and her bicycle was 1_______. The driver stopped for a
moment but then drove off without 2________ a name or address and before Sarah could
get his number. “I tried to get out of his way, but I couldn’t” she said. “Everyone at work
kept going on about it being Friday 13th. I’m not a bit 3________ and wouldn’t change any
of my plans just because Friday 13th is supposed to be unlucky, I don’t usually take any
4_______ of that sort of thing but I will now. I think I’ll stay in bed.”
The accident 5________ at the junction with Westwood Road at about 6.30pm as Sarah
was making her 6________ home to the Harley Estate.
The Volvo pulled out of Westwood onto Henley Road in front of the teenager’s bicycle. “He
could at 7_________ have helped her up. I don’t see why he should get away with it,” said
her father, Derek, “Sarah was lucky. I don’t know why the driver didn’t see her. He can’t
have been 8_______ attention. It is unfortunate that nobody took down the number.”
Though still too 9_______ to ride a bike, Sarah was able to go back to 10_________ in
Marlow on Monday.
1. A. damaged B. harmed C. devastated D. crashed
2. A. noting B. presenting C. leaving D. suggesting
3. A. irrational B. superstitious C. unreasonable D. prejudiced
4. A. notice B. consider C. note D. care
5. A. came across B. turned up C. finished up D. took place
6. A. route B. way C. course D. path
7. A. once B. most C. least D. best
8. A. giving B. paying C. attracting D. providing
9. A. discouraged B. confused C. overcome D. shaken
10. A. work B. job C. post D. employment
PART 2: Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word
Perhaps the greatest value of biodiversity is yet unknown. Scientists have discovered and named
only 1.75 million species — less than 20 percent of those (1)________ to exist. And of those
identified, only a (2) ________ has been examined for potential medicinal, agricultural or (3)
________ value. Much of Earth’s great biodiversity is (4) ________ disappearing, even before
we know what is missing. Most biologists agree that life on Earth now is (5) ________ with the
most severe extinction episode since the event that drove the dinosaurs to (6) _______ 65 million
years ago. Species of plants, animals, fungi and microscopic organisms such as (7) ________ are
being lost at alarming rates – so many, in fact, that biologists estimate that three (8) ________ go
extinct every hour. Scientists around the (9) _________ are cataloging and studying global
biodiversity in hopes that they might (10) _______ understand it, or at least slow the rate of loss.
PART 3: Read the passage and choose the best options to answer the questions
Vincent Van Gogh was born in Groot Zundert, in The Netherlands on March 30th 1853,
to parents Theodorus Van Gogh, a preacher, and Ana Cornelia Carbentus. In 1869 at the age of
16, Van Gogh began a career, not as a painter, but as an art dealer with the firm Goupil & Cie.
He spent 7 years at Goupil & Cie where daily contacts with works of art kindled his appreciation
of paintings and drawings. Gradually Vincent lost interest in his work and decided to try his hand
teaching at a Catholic School for boys. His growing interest religion and his desire to help the
poor eventually drove him to become a clergyman. In 1878, he became a lay preacher in one of
the most impoverished regions in Western Europe: the coal-mining district of the Borinage in
Belgium. Vincent sympathized with the poverty-stricken miners and gave away most of his food
and clothing to ease their burdened lives. His extreme commitment to the miners drew disfavor
from the church, which dismissed him of his post. Vincent, however, decided to remain with the
miners and began to paint them and their families, chronicling their harsh conditions.
Soon after, thanks to his brother’s financial help, Vincent decided to go to Brussels in
1880 to begin studies in art. During the next 10 years, Vincent painted around 872 painting. In
1882, Vincent began living with Clasina Maria Hoornik, also known as Sien, and her children, in
the Hague. Their volatile personalities and the strain of living in complete poverty created
stormy relationship. Vincent was devoted to Sien and her children, but art always came first. As
his drawing and painting skills advanced, his relationship with Sien deteriorated and they parted
ways in September 1883.
In 1886, Vincent moved in with his brother-Theo in Paris where he met Paul Gauguin
and various other artists, who had a tremendous impact on his ongoing evolution as an artist.
Never truly happy in large cities, Vincent decided to move to Aries Province in the south of
France, where he rented a studio and invited Paul Gauguin to live with him. In December 1888,
Vincent experienced a psychotic episode in which he cut off a piece of his left ear. After his
episode, he was in and out of asylums for the next year. It was thought that Van Gogh was
actually epileptic and that is why people thought he had fits of insanity throughout his life. He
painted one of his best-known painting, Starry Night, during one of his stays in the asylum. In
mid-1890, Vincent left the asylum and spent the last few months of his life in Auvers, France.
On July 27th 1890, Vincent Van Gogh shot himself in the chest. Two days later he died with his
younger brother-Theo by his side. He left behind a wonderful array of paintings that make him
one of the most influential painters of our time.
1: The word "chronicling" in paragraph 1 is closest meaning to "_________".
A. recording B. classifying C. suffering D. colouring
2: Van Gogh decided to become a clergyman due to ________.
A. his love of art B. his teachings at the Catholic School for boys
C. the Goupil & Cie art dealer firm D. his developing enthusiasm in Christianity
3: Vincent's extreme commitment to the miners resulted in ________.
A. his painting the miners and their families
B. his sympathizing with the miners
C. the church discharging him of his duty
D. the church giving food and clothing to the miners
4: The word "deteriorated" in paragraph 2 is closest meaning to "_________".
A. detested B. became worse and worse
C. developed D. turned down
5: Vincent and Clasina's relationship was stormy because of ________.
A. his devotion to art B. the stress of living in poor conditions
C. her children D. their tame personalities
6: Vincent first went into an asylum because ________.
A. he painted Starry Night B. he was epileptic
C. he cut off part of his ear D. he was insane throughout his life
7: Vincent went to Aries because ________.
A. he did not get along with his brother, Theo
B. he wanted to live in Gauguin's house in Aries
C. he wanted to live in a bigger city
D. he disliked big cities
8: Vincent moved to Paris ________.
A. in order to evolve as an artist B. to live with his brother
C. to meet other artists D. to live with Paul Gauguin
9: Van Gogh was believed to be ________.
A. insane B. a loner C. epileptic D. an inadequate painter
10: The word "episode" in paragraph 3 refers to "_________".
A. important event in his life B. unbelievable fact
C. unfortunate time D. one of several parts of a story on television
PART 4: Read the passage and do the tasks follow
Thomas Harriot
The Discovery of Refraction
A When light travels from one medium to another, it generally bends, or refracts. The law of
refraction gives us a way of predicting the amount of bending. Refraction has many applications
in optics and technology. A lens uses refraction to form an image of an object for many different
purposes, such as magnification. A prism uses refraction to form a spectrum of colors from an
incident beam of light. Refraction also plays an important role in the formation of a mirage and
other optical illusions. The law of refraction is also known as Snell’s Law, named after
Willobrord, Snell, who discovered the law in 1621. Although Snell’s sine law of refraction is
now taught routinely in undergraduate courses, the quest for it spanned many centuries and
involved many celebrated scientists. Perhaps the most interesting thing is that the first discovery
of the sine law, made by the sixteenth-century English scientist Thomas Harriot (1560-1621), has
been almost completely overlooked by physicists, despite much published material describing his
contribution.
B A contemporary of Shakespeare, Elizabeth I, Johannes Kepler and Galilei Galileo, Thomas
Harriot (1560-1621) was an English scientist and mathematician. His principal biographer, J. W.
Shirley, was quoted saying that in his time he was “England’s most profound mathematician,
most imaginative and methodical experimental scientist” . As a mathematician, he contributed to
the development of algebra, and introduced the symbols of ”>” , and ”<” for ”more than” and
”less than.” He also studied navigation and astronomy. On September 17, 1607, Harriot observed
a comet, later Identified as Hailey-s. With his painstaking observations, later workers were able
to compute the comet’s orbit. Harriot was also the first to use a telescope to observe the heavens
in England. He made sketches of the moon in 1609, and then developed lenses of increasing
magnification. By April 1611, he had developed a lens with a magnification of 32. Between
October 17 ， 1610 and February 26, 1612 ， he observed the moons of Jupiter, which had
already discovered by Galileo. While observing Jupiter, s moons ，he made a discovery of his
own: sunspots, which he viewed 199 times between December 8, 1610 and January 18, 1613.
These observations allowed him to figure out the sun’s period of rotation.
C He was also an early English explorer of North America. He was a friend of the English
courtier and explorer Sir Walter Raleigh, and travelled to Virginia as a scientific observer on a
colonising expedition in 1585. On June 30, 1585, his ship anchored at Roanoke Island ， off
Virginia. On shore，Harriot observed the topography, flora and fauna, made many drawings and
maps, and met the native people who spoke a language the English called Algonquian. Harriot
worked out a phonetic transcription of the native people’s speech sounds and began to learn the
language, which enabled him to converse to some extent with other natives the English
encountered. Harriot wrote his report for Raleigh and published it as A Briefe and True Report of
the New Found Land of Virginia in 1588. Raleigh gave Harriot his own estate in Ireland, and
Harriot began a survey of Raleigh’s Irish holdings. He also undertook a study of ballistics and
ship design for Raleigh in advance of the Spanish Armada’s arrival.
D Harriot kept regular correspondence with other scientists and mathematicians, especially in
England but also in mainland Europe, notably with Johannes Kepler. About twenty years before
Snell’s discovery, Johannes Kepler (1571-1630) had also looked for the law of refraction, but
used the early data of Ptolemy. Unfortunately, Ptolemy’s data was in error, so Kepler could
obtain only an approximation which he published in 1604. Kepler later tried to obtain additional
experimental results on refraction, and corresponded with Thomas Harriot from 1606 to 1609
since Kepler had heard Harriot had carried out some detailed experiments. In 1606, Harriot sent
Kepler some tables of refraction data for different materials at a constant incident angle, but
didn’t provide enough detail for the data to be very useful. Kepler requested further information,
but Harriot was not forthcoming, and it appears that Kepler eventually gave up the
correspondence, frustrated with Harriot’s reluctance.
E Apart from the correspondence with Kepler, there is no evidence that Harriot ever published
his detailed results on refraction. His personal notes, however, reveal extensive studies
significantly predating those of Kepler, Snell and Descartes. Harriot carried out many
experiments on refraction in the 1590s, and from his notes it is clear that he had discovered the
sine law at least as early as 1602. Around 1606, he had studied dispersion in prisms (predating
Newton by around 60 years), measured the refractive indices of different liquids placed in a
hollow glass prism, studied refraction in crystal spheres, and correctly understood refraction in
the rainbow before Descartes.
F As his studies of refraction, Harriot’ s discoveries in other fields were largely unpublished
during his lifetime, and until this century, Harriot was known only for an account of his travels in
Virginia published in 1588, ，and for a treatise on algebra published posthumously in 1631. The
reason why Harriot kept his results unpublished is unclear. Harriot wrote to Kepler that poor
health prevented him from providing more information, but it is also possible that he was afraid
of the seventeenth century’s English religious establishment which was suspicious of the work
carried out by mathematicians and scientists.
G After the discovery of sunspots, Harriot’ s scientific work dwindled. The cause of his
diminished productivity might have been a cancer discovered on his nose. Harriot died on July 2,
1621, in London, but his story did not end with his death. Recent research has revealed his wide
range of interests and his genuinely original discoveries. What some writers describe as his
“thousands upon thousands of sheets of mathematics and of scientific observations” appeared to
be lost until 1784, when they were found in Henry Percy’s country estate by one of Percy’s
descendants. She gave them to Franz Xaver Zach ，her husband’s son’s tutor. Zach eventually
put some of the papers in the hands of the Oxford University Press, but much work was required
to prepare them for publication, and it has never been done. Scholars have begun to study
them，, and an appreciation of Harriot’s contribution started to grow in the second half of the
twentieth century. Harriot’s study of refraction is but one example where his work overlapped
with independent studies carried out by others in Europe, but in any historical treatment of optics
his contribution rightfully deserves to be acknowledged.
QUESTION 1-5
Choose the correct heading for paragraphs B-E and G from the list of headings below. Write the
correct number, i-x, next to the paragraphs.
List of Headings
i A misunderstanding in the history of science
ii Thomas Harriot’s biography
iii Unknown reasons for his unpublished works
iv Harriot’s 1588 publication on North America studies
v Expedition to the New World
vi Reluctant cooperation with Kepler
vii Belated appreciation of Harriot’s contribution
viii Religious pressures keeping him from publishing
ix Correspondence with Kepler
x Interests and researches into multiple fields of study
Example Answer
Para A i
1. Paragraph B 2. Paragraph C 3. Paragraph D
4. Paragraph E 5. Paragraph G
QUESTION 6-10
Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for
each answer.
Various modem applications base on an image produced by lens uses refraction, such as
6_____________. And a spectrum of colors from a beam of light can be produced with
7____________. Harriot travelled to Virginia and mainly did research which focused on two
subjects of American 8_____________. After, he also enter upon a study of flight dynamics and
9_______________ for one of his friends much ahead of major European competitor. He
undertook extensive other studies which were only noted down personally yet predated than
many other great scientists. One result, for example, corrected the misconception about the idea
of 10____________.
WRITING
PART 1: Rewriting
1. It was the goalkeeper that saved the match for us.
→Had
2. Tim insisted on being told the complete story.
→Nothing
3. Jane’s husband will be returning from South America quite soon.
→It won’t .
4. The permit expires at the end of this month.
→The permit is not
5. I don’t really like her, even though I admire her achievements.
→Much as
6. As an antidote to their disappointment, he bought them ice-cream. (OFFSET)
→
7. If interest rates are cut, the economic situation may improve. (REDUCTION)
→ .
8. I don’t personally care if they come or not. (MATTER)
→
9. Local residents said they were against the new traffic scheme. (DISAPPROVAL)
→
10. Products which seem to lack credibility are not popular. (CALL)

TEST 4
PART II: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (60 points)
I. Select the best option for each sentence. Write your answers in the box provided (20 pts)
1. Lack of sleep over the last few months is finally ________ Jane.
A. catching up with B. getting on with C. coming over D. putting on
2. Sally has an ________ command of the Chinese language.
A. extreme B. outstanding C. utter D. intensive
3. I’ve had this car for 12 years, but now I’m having more and more problems with it. Clearly it’s
________.
A. on its hind legs B. got its back up C. got its heart set D. on its last
leg
4. All things ________, she is the best student to represent our school.
A. considered B. involved C. taken D. dealt with
5. To succeed in this job, you have to be utterly ________.
A. hot-blooded B. single-minded C. kind-hearted D. near-
sighted
6. The Prime Minister gave a press conference to deny the charges ________ at him.
A. leveled B. accused C. targeted D. blamed
7. When the morning came, the scene of where the bomb had fallen was one of ________
devastation.
A. great B. utter C. entire D. extreme
8. There is still a ________ of hope that the rescuers will find survivors.
A. spray B. ray C. light D. spot
9. ________, modelling is actually hard work.
A. Even it may seem glamorous B. Yet it may seem glamorous
C. However glamorous it may seem D. Glamorous as though it is
10. The city zoo is building a new section to ________ their larger mammals.
A. house B. store C. shade D. capture
11. After so many years, it is great to see him ________ his ambitions.
A. get B. realise C. possess D. deserve
12. The review committee ________ three practicing lawyers and a retired businessman.
A. consists B. comprises C. is made up D. encloses
13. Don’t worry: this is nothing that ________ you.
A. matters B. entails C. concerns D. complicates
14. As always, I am ________ with everything you say.
A. agree B. agreeing C. agreeable D. in
agreement
15. It may be raining, but I’m ________ enjoying myself.
A. thoroughly B. highly C. extremely D. desperately
16. In the event, we found your advice absolutely ________.
A. unworthy B. valuable C. invaluable D. impecunious
17. In the end, I just lost my ________ and started gabbling incoherently.
A. head B. mind C. brain D. intelligence
18. Despite all the interruptions, he ________ with his work.
A. stuck at B. held on C. hung out D. pressed on
19. When the funds finally ________, they had to abandon the scheme.
A. faded away B. clamped down C. petered out D. fobbed off
20. The team won the championship four years ________.
A. running B. passing C. following D. rotating

Answers:
 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

II. There are TEN mistakes in the passage below. Read the passage carefully, underline the
mistakes and write your corrections on the corresponding lines in the box for Answers. (20
pts)
Answers
Each week Hilary Mullock, also known as Doctor Doppit, visiting London’s ____________
General Hospital. Carrying balloons and magic tricks better than a stethoscope, she ____________
administers her own special kind of medicine. Employed by the Theodora ____________
Children’s Trust, Hilary brings fun and laughter for the patients in the children’s____________
wards, making a hospital staying a less difficult experience for these young ____________
patients. ____________
Having studied drama at university, Hilary later became interested in ____________
children’s theatre. Seeing an advert with a clown doctor, she knew she had ____________
founded the ideal job. Before taking up the position, Hilary had to complete four ____________
weeks of training, being instructed in balloon modeling and magic tricks. ____________
According to a spokesperson for the Theodora Children’s Trust, ____________
hospitalized children, having been excluding from their normal day-to-day routine ____________
and the family environment, are likely to be frightening and homesick. Clown ____________
doctors like Hilary has a valuable part to play in helping them forget their ____________
problems for a while. Humour, it has been seen, has a positively impact on health. ____________
In fact, certain chemicals produced in the body by laughter have even been shown ____________
to act as natural painkillers. Laughter really is the best medicine, it seems. ____________
____________
____________
III. Use the word given in capitals at the end of some of the lines to form a word that fits in
the space in the same line. Write your answers in the box provided (10 pts)
Until comparatively recent times science and technology performed different
and separate functions, the progress of one so often completely (1) ________ to
the progress of the other. RELATE
(2) ________ have established that, since the earliest times, the improvements in HISTORY
our way of life have resulted from an empirical approach, that is a process of
 trial and error, by which equipment and tools are made to satisfy important
needs. It is to this approach that we owe the evolution of technology. Our
modern concept of science, both (3) ________ and pragmatic in approach, stems
from the seventeenth century, when extensive investigations into the natural PHILOSOPHY
laws governing the behavior of matter were (4) ________. It was this (5)
________ style of thought which led to a science-based technology. Scientific TAKE
knowledge was not in itself seen as a (6) ________ for the earlier system of trial REVOLUTION
and error, but it did help the technical (7) ________ to see which path of
experimentation might be more (8) ________. With the industrialization of the PLACE
nineteenth century, the bond between science and technology (9) ________. In INNOVATE
our own time, the mutual (10) ________ of one discipline upon the other has FRUIT
increased still further. STRONG
RELY
PART III: READING (42 points)
I. Choose the words that best complete the sentences in the text. Write your answers in the box
provided (15 pts)
Despite the continued 1.________ of those early town perks, it wasn't until the Depression
that modern Hershey started to take shape. Perhaps the only town in the country actually
to 2_________ during the 1930s, it thrived because Hershey vowed his Utopia would
never see a breadline. lnstead he 3_________ a massive building boom that gave rise to
the most visited buildings in today's Hershey and delivered wages to more than 600
workers. He admitted that his 4____________ were partly selfish: "lf I don't provide work
for them, I'll have to feed them. And since building materials are now at their lowest cost
levels, I'm going to build and give them jobs."
He seems to have 5__________ no expense; most of the new buildings were strikingly
6________. The first to be finished was the three-million-dollar limestone Community
Center, home to the 1,904-seat Venetian-style Hershey Community Theater, which has
played 7______ since 1933 to touring Broadway shows and to music, dance, and opera
performances. lt offers just as much to look at when the lights are on and the curtains
closed. The floors in the 8_________ named Grand Lobby are polished ltalian lava rock,
surrounded by marble walls and capped with a bas-relief ceiling showing sheaves of wheat,
beehives, swans, and scenes from Roman mythology. With the 9________ inner foyer,
Hershey thumbed his nose even harder at the ravages of the Depression: The arched ceiling
is tiled in gold, the fire curtain bears a painting of Venice, and the ceiling is 10_______with
88 tiny lightbulbs to re-create a star-lit night.
1. A. flexibility B. rigidity C. elasticity D. resilience
2. A. prosper B. decline C. get on D. flower
3. A. trusted B. funded C. accounted D. stocked
4. A. pretensions B. objections C. preoccupation D. intentions
5. A. spared B. spent C. allowed D. justified
6. A. impoverished B. unattractive C. poor D. opulent
7. A. hosting B. housing C. host D. homogeneously
8. A. aptly B. inappropriately C. seemingly D. frightfully
9. A. dizzying B. gaudy C. dazzling D. bland
10. A. holed B. studded C. supported D. magnified

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE
WORD in each space. Write your answers in the box provided (10 pts)
Throughout our lives, right from the moment when (1) ________ infants we cry to express
hunger, we are engaging in social interaction of one form or another. Each and (2) ________
time we encounter fellow human beings, some kind of social interaction will take place, (3)
________ it’s getting on a bus and paying the fare for the journey, or socializing with friends. It
goes without (4) ________, therefore, that we need the ability to communicate. Without some
method of transmitting intentions, we would be at a complete loss when it comes to interacting
socially.
Communication involves the exchange of information, which can be (5) ________ from a
gesture to a friend signaling boredom to the presentation of a university thesis which may (6)
________ ever be read by a handful of others, or it could be something in (7) ________ the two.
Our highly developed languages set us apart from animals. But for these languages, we could not
communicate sophisticated or abstract ideas. (8) ________ could we talk or write about people
or objects (9) ________ immediately present. (10) ________ we restricted to discussing objects
already present, we would be unable to make abstract generalisations about the world.
III. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the following
questions. Write your answers in the box provided (10 pts)
Exquisite patterns and surface ornamentation were an integral part of the aesthetics of the late
Victorian era. In America, these developments were incorporated into the themes of national
expositions and artistic movements, as cottage industries grew and productivity in the decorative
arts flourished. The last three decades of the 19 th century saw a change in sensibility that resulted
in new stylistic approaches in American decorative arts, a departure from the previous era of
Rococo and Renaissance Revival excess. Shapes became more angular, smoother and less
flamboyant. The popular carvings and deep modeling of earlier years disappeared as
ornamentation became more linear and lighter in appearance. Decoration focused on the surface
with rich and elegant patterns adorning furniture, objects of every sort, and architectural and
interior decorations. This artistic reawakening was prompted by the effects of the Industrial
Revolution on contemporary design.
This new attitude, with its focus on ornament and decorative, was later referred to as the
Aesthetic Movement, but it also encompassed the early Arts and Crafts Movement as well. The
purpose was to bring a refined sensibility and components of “good taste” to the domestic
interior. Art and good taste not only denoted good character, but also could be used to induce
proper moral conduct and actions, thereby contributing to the betterment of society. This placed
a heavy burden on designers/decorators as well as on women as keepers of the home. Americans
drew inspiration from the writing and work of English artists. This was a period of great
eclecticism. Tastes ranged from the Modern Gothic through the Persian, Greek and Islamic, to
the Japanese, and with more than a nod to Mother Nature. Yet, regardless of the influence,
surface pattern reigned supreme. English reformers dictated that ornament should be derived
from nature, and pattern should be flat and stylized. Forms were accentuated by colored outlines,
or often with touches of gold. The emphasis was on art and on development of a refined
sensibility. It was all a matter of taste.
1. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Defining the “Aesthetic Movement”
B. Decorative arts in late 19th century America
C. English influences on American decorative arts in the late 19th century
D.The change in tastes from “Rocco and Renaissance Revival” to the “Aesthetic Movement” in
the late 19th century America
2. The word “integral” in line 1 is closest in meaning to
A. essential B. additional C. important D. beautifying
3. According to the passage, during the Aesthetic Movement popular carvings and deep
modeling of earlier years ________.
A. were popular B. again became popular
C. disappeared D. defined good taste
4. The word “elegant” is closes in meaning to ________.
A. beautiful B. ornamental C. colorful D. refined
5. According to the passage, the purpose of the Aesthetic Movement was to ________.
A. induce proper moral conducts and actions
B. define what was meant by good taste in the domestic interior
C. encompass Arts and Crafts as well as ornament and decoration
D. define good character and contribute to the betterment of society
6. The phrase “new attitude” refers to ________.
A. including the early Arts and Craft Movement as well
B. artistic reawakening
C. the Industrial Revolution
D. Rococo and Renaissance Revival
7. The word “denoted” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. promoted B. facilitated C. developed D. signified
8. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. designers and decorators were mainly responsible for starting the new attitude
B. the movement led to a higher standard of morality in late 19th century America
C. the Americans considered the English to be the arbiters of good taste
D. women, as keepers of the home, faced a heavy burden
9. According to the passage, which of the following remained most important, regardless of
influences from other countries?
A. surface pattern B. English opinions
C. good taste D. Proper moral conduct and actions
10. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as feature of the Aesthetic Movement?
A. shapes became less flamboyant B. ornamentation became lighter in
appearance
C. forms were accentuated by colored lines D. decorations focused mainly on
furniture
IV. There are seven paragraphs A – G. Choose the correct heading for each paragraph
from the list of headings below. Write your answers in the box provided. (7 pts)
List of Headings
I. Optimistic beliefs held by the writers of childrens’s literature 1. Paragraph A
II. The attitude of certain adults towards children’s literature 2. Paragraph B
III. The attraction of children’s literature 3. Paragraph C
IV. A contrast that categorises books as children’s literature 4. Paragraph D
V. A false assumption made about children’s literature 5. Paragraph E
VI. The conventional view of children’s literature 6. Paragraph F
VII. Some good and bad features of children’s literature 7. Paragraph G
VIII. Classifying a book as children’s literature
IX. The treatment of various themes in children’s literature
X. Another way of looking at children’s literature
A I am sometimes asked why anyone who is not a teacher or a librarian or the parent of little kids
should concern herself with children’s books and folklore. I know the standard answers: that
many famous writers have written for children, and that the great children’s books are also great
literature; that these books and tales are an important source of archetype and symbol, and that
they can help us to understand the structure and functions of the novel.
B All this is true. But I think we should also take children’s literature seriously because it is
sometimes subversive: because its values are not always those of the conventional adult world.
Of course, in a sense much great literature is subversive, since its very existence implies that
what matters is art, imagination and truth. In what we call the real world, what usually counts is
money, power and public success.
C The great subversive works of children’s literature suggest that there are other views of human
life besides those of the shopping mall and the corporation. They mock current assumptions and
express the imaginative, unconventional, noncommercial view of the world in its simplest and
purest form. They appeal to the imaginative, questioning, rebellious child within all of us, renew
our instinctive energy, and act as a force for change. That is why such literature is worthy of our
attention and will endure long after more conventional tales have been forgotten.
D An interesting question is what – besides intention – makes a particular story a ‘children’s
book’? With the exception of picture books for toddlers, these works are not necessarily shorter
or simpler than so-called adult fiction, and they are surely not less well written. The heroes and
heroines of these tales, it is true, are often children: but then so are the protagonists of Henry
Jame’s What Maisie Knew and Toni Morrison’s The Bluest Eye. Yet the barrier between
children’s books and adult fiction remains; editors, critics and readers seem to have little trouble
in assigning a given work to one category or the other.
E In classic children’s fiction a pastoral convention is maintained. It is assumed that the world of
childhood is simpler and more natural than that of adults, and that children, though they may
have faults, are essentially good or at least capable of becoming so. The transformation of
selfish, whiny, disagreeable Mary and hysterical, demanding Colin in Frances Hodgson Burnett’s
The Secret Garden is a paradigm. Of course, there are often unpleasant minor juvenile characters
who give the protagonist a lot of trouble and are defeated or evaded rather than reeducated. But
on occasion even the angry bully and the lying sneak can be reformed and forgiven. Richard
Hughes’s A High Wind in Jamaica, though most of its characters are children, never appears on
lists of recommended juvenile fiction; not so much because of the elaborations of its diction
(which is no more complex than that of, say, Treasure Island), but because in it children are
irretrievably damaged and corrupted.
F Adults in most children’s books, on the other hand, are usually stuck with their characters and
incapable of alteration or growth. If they are really unpleasant, the only thing that can rescue
them is the natural goodness of a child. Here again, Mrs. Burnett provides the classic example, in
Little Lord Fauntleroy. (Scrooge’s somewhat similar change of heart in Dicken’s A Christmas
Carol, however, is due mainly to regret for his past and terror of the future. This is one of the
things that makes the book a family rather than a juvenile romance; another is the helpless
passivity of the principal child character, Tiny Tim.).
G Of the three principal preoccupations of adult fiction – sex, money and death – the first is
absent from classic children’s literature and the other two either absent or much muted. Money is
a motive in children’s literature, in the sense that many stories deal with a search for treasure of
some sort. These quests, unlike real-life ones, are almost always successful, though occasionally
what is found in the end is some form of family happiness, which is declared by the author and
the characters to be a ‘real treasure’. Simple economic survival, however, is almost never the
problem; what is sought, rather, is a magical (sometimes literally magical) surplus of wealth.
Death, which was a common theme in nineteenth-century fiction for children, was almost
banished during the first half of the twentieth century. Since then it has begun to reappear; the
breakthrough book was E. B. White’s Charlotte’s Web. Today not only animals but people die,
notably in the sort of books that get awards and are recommended by librarians and
psychologists for children who have lost a relative. But even today the characters who die tend to
be of another generation; the protagonist and his or her friends survive. Though there are some
interesting exceptions, even the most subversive of contemporary children’s books usually
follow these conventions. They portray an ideal world of perfectible beings, free of the necessity
for survival.
Answers:
Paragraph 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Heading

PART IV: WRITING (50 points)

I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it. (20 points)
1. That week, the train was late everyday except for Friday. RUN
Only once ___________________________________________________________.
2. I really think you should be more assertive about your rights. UP
It’s about time ________________________________________________________.
3. Graham took back his words on noticing there were fresh strawberries on the menu.
TUNE
Graham sang _________________________________________________________.
4. Paul couldn’t stop thinking about the argument he had had with his brother. WENT
Paul ________________________________________________________________.
5. My grandmother would always make us eat everything on our plates when we visited her.
WASTE
Nothing we __________________________________________________________.
6. Alternative medicine is a complete mystery to some people.
Some people are ______________________________________________________.
7. You may be disqualified if you don’t obey the regulations.
Failure ______________________________________________________________.
8. He tried hard so that he could win the first prize.
Having ______________________________________________________________.
9. I only recognized him when he came into the light.
It was not until _______________________________________________________.
10. Mass tourism has been one of the causes of the environmental problems.
Mass tourism is _______________________________________________________.

TEST 5
LEXICAL – GRAMMAR (50 POINTS)
Part I. Choose the correct answer for each gap in the following sentences (20 points).
1. In the ________ of security, personnel must wear their identity badges at all time.
A. requirement B. interests C. demands D. assistance
2. The strike was________ owing to a last minute agreement with the management.
A. called off B. broken up C. set back D. put down
3. Lindsay’s excuses for being late are beginning to________ rather thin.
A. get B. turn C. wear D. go
4. ________, the people who come to this club are in their twenties and thirties.
A. By and large B. Altogether C. To a degree D. Virtually
5. My cousin was nervous about being interviewed on television but she rose to the________
wonderfully.
A. event B. performance C. incident D. occasion
6. The train service has been a ________ since they introduced the new schedules.
A. shambles B. rumpus C. chaos D. fracas
7. Is an inexperienced civil servant ________ to the task of running the company?
A. capable B. skilled C. eligible D. suited
8. John’s got very ________ feelings about taking on more responsibility at the moment.
A. puzzled B. jumbled C. mixed D. muddled
9. You’ve lived in the city for most of your life, so ________ you’re used to the noise.
A. apparently B. presumably C. allegedly D. predictably
10. The storm ripped our tent to________ last night.
A. slices B. shreds C. strips D. specks
11. He cannot ________ ignorance as his excuse: he should have known what was happening in
his own department.
A. insist B. plead C. refer D. defend
12. If you don’t pay your bill, the Electricity Board will________ your power supply.
A. dismantle B. sever C. disconnect D. uncouple
13. There is a lot of friendly ________ between the supports of the two teams.
A. contest B. rivalry C. contention D. defiance
14. Despite the high divorce rate, the ________ of marriage remains popular.
A. practice B. habit C. institution D. state
15. The zoo attendant opened the cage and tried to________ the animal back in.
A. coax B. induce C. seduce D. convince
16. I lost too much money betting at the races last time, so you won’t ________ me to go again.
A. convince B. impress C. persuade D. urge
17.He has been ______________for gross misconduct.
A. impounded B. impeached C. impelled D. impaled
18.Not getting the promotion felt like a real kick in the ____________as I’d put in so much hard
work for the company.
A. head B. teeth C. back D. leg
19.China, which has been producing cars joint ventures with foreign partners, is now
launching its own brand ____________the global market.
A. through/on B. for/over C. of/throughout D.alongside/ in
20.Everyone in the company detests getting close to him because he’s always trying to
___________the boss.
A.suck up to B. cry out for C. pin down to D. fall over to
Part II. Complete the sentences with the correct form of words (10 points).
Mobile phones emit (1) (MICRO) ________ radio emissions. Researchers are
questioning whether (2) (EXPOSE) ________ to these radio waves might lead to brain cancer.
So far, the data are (3) (CONCLUDE) ________ The scientific evidence does not enable
us to say with (4) (CERTAIN) ________ that mobile phones are (5) (CATEGORY) ________
safe. On the other hand, current research has not yet demonstrated clear adverse effects (6)
(ASSOCIATE) ________with the (7) (LONG) ________ use of mobile phones.
 Numerous studies are now going on in (8) (VARY) ________ countries. Some of the
results are (9) (CONTRADICT) ________ but others have shown an association between mobile
phone use and cancer. However, these studies are preliminary and the issue needs further, (10)
(TERM) ________ investigation.
Until the scientific data are more definite, it is prudent for people to try not to use mobile
phones for long periods of time. Don’t think that hands-free phones are any safer either. At the
moment, research is in fact showing the opposite and they may just be dangerous.
Part III. There are ten errors in the following passage. Underline them in the text and
correct them in the numbered box (10 points)
Why do some people back on when faced with a threat, while others stand up to
it? When giving a difficult task, why do some people see it through, white others give up?
It all comes down to personalities. But where does that come from? Some scientists believe that
most of traits are inherited. The others take the opposite view: personality, they say, is
formed by our environment and parents do not pass it on in their children. The truth is
probably anywhere in between. Some traits are clearly determined by your environment:
However your genetic background, if you grow up in Sweden, you'll probably speak Swedish.
On the other hand, when it comes to traits like the colour of your eyes or your blood type,
it is clear that genetics alone accounts for them. There are also traits which are partly
inherited but partly shaped by environment: your weight, and even your height and skin
colour, are examples. Of course, genetics and the environment together are not the total picture.
Your free will - your ability to take decisions - is also a factor in shaping your identity, but
how big a factor?
You'll have to make your own mind up for that!
READING (50 POINTS)
Part I. Choose the best answer for each gap in the following passage (10 points).
In the early morning of 23 January, 2009, the most powerful storm for a decade hit
western France. With wind speeds in (1) ________ of 120 miles per hour, it flattened forests, (2)
________ down power lines and caused massive destruction to buildings and roads. But it also
left behind an extraordinary creation. Seven miles out to sea at the (3) ________ where the
Atlantic Ocean meets the estuary of the River Gironde, a small island had (4) _________ out of
water. Locals soon gave it the name The Mysterious Isle. What was so remarkable, (5) ________
its sudden apparition, was the fact that the island (6) _________ intact in what is often quite a
hostile sea environment. It could well become a permanent feature.
Scientists (7) ________ realised that the island's appearance (8) ________ a unique opportunity
to study the creation and development of a new ecosystem. Within months, it had been colonised
by seabirds, insects and vegetation. Unfortunately, however, they were not alone in (9) ________
the island attractive. It became increasingly difficult to (10) ________ the site from human
visitors. In its first year, day trippers came in powered dinghies, a parachute club used it as a
landing strip, a rave party was even held there one night.
1. A. surplus B. advance C. excess D. put
2. A. fetched B. brought C. carried D. sent
3. A. scene B. mark C. stage D. point
4. A. risen B. growth C. lifted D. surfaced
5. A. in spite of B. instead of C. apart from D. on account of
6. A. prolonged B. remained C. resided D. preserved
7 A. quickly B. briskly C. hastily D. speedily
8. A. delivered B. awarded C. proposed D. offered
9. A. regarding B. finding C. seeking D. deciding
10. A. prevent B. preserve C. protect D. prohibit
Part II. Read the following passage and fill in each gap with ONE suitable word ( 15
points).
One of the most dangerous drugs for pregnant women to consume is alcohol. Because
alcohol is delivered quickly into the blood and passes quickly into the tissues and membranes,
the human fetus is particularly vulnerable to (1) ________ effects. The reality is that the (2)
________ effects on a fetus are so pronounced that babies born after exposure to alcohol are said
to be (3) ________ from fetal alcohol syndrome. As a pregnant woman drinks alcohol, the
alcohol is passed into her bloodstream almost simultaneously. Moreover, because the
bloodstream of the fetus is inextricably tied to (4) ________ of the mother, the alcohol passes
directly into the bloodstream of the fetus as well. And, what is (5) ________, the concentration
of alcohol in the fetus is exactly the same as in the mother.
For the mother, this concentration is not a problem (6) ________ her liver can remove
one ounce of alcohol from her system per hour. However, the fetus's liver is not completely
developed ((7) ________ developed it is depends on its stage of development). The rate at which
it is able to eliminate the alcohol from the blood of the fetus is much slower. Eventually, the
alcohol will be returned to the mother's system by passing across the placenta, but this process is
slow. By the time this takes place, major neurological damage may have (8) ________ occurred.
Research has shown that as (9) ________ as one drink of alcohol can produce
significant, irreversible damage to the fetus. Babies born after exposure to alcohol generally
exhibit facial distortion, (10) ________ to concentrate, and difficulty in remembering. Simply
speaking, it is imperative that pregnant women avoid alcohol.
Part III. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions (10 points)
 Deaf people should enjoy a play as much as the hearing audience. This is the thinking behind
the Americans with Disabilities Act, which requires that theatres become accessible to deaf
people. Theatre producers, on the other hand, are beginning to realise that such a feature makes
their product attractive to a wider audience – with considerable financial rewards.
Interpreted theatre usually takes place at two or three performances in a theatre season.
Preference for tickets is given to the deaf and their guests, but tickets are also sold to hearing
people who are interested in seeing theatre interpreters at work.
It is a colossal project for the interpreters. Ian Cox works for SeeTheatre, a Chicago-based
association of interpreters. He says, ‘for about a month we work with the support of a Sign
Language consultant to translate and rehearse an entire play. The workload is immense. Consider
that each actor in the play has about four weeks to rehearse his or her lines, we have to learn the
whole play in as much time. And, when interpreting musicals, where timing, rhythm and
harmonies must be practised, the workload doubles.’
The most important technical aspect of theatre interpretation for the deaf is the location of the
interpreter. Placement strategies can be categorised into three styles: ‘placed’, where interpreters
are located outside the acting space and do not move; ‘zoned’, where interpreters are within the
acting space, but usually move only during a change of scene or act; and, finally, ‘shadowed’,
where interpreters move freely within the acting space, shadowing the movement of the actors
for whom they are interpreting.
The ‘placed’ style of interpreting in the theatre is by far the most common. The interpreters
are side-by-side and face the audience (although some interpreters interact with each other as
appropriate). The location of the interpreter is generally in one of three places: stage right or
stage left, or on the floor of the house.
The ‘zoned’ style of interpreter placement is a happy medium between the ‘placed’ and
‘shadowed’ styles. Here, interpreters are placed side-by-side within the acting space. Usually,
they change position on stage from scene to scene - or from act to act - in order to be within the
same ‘zone’ as the majority of the action. Zone placement makes it easier for the deaf patron to
see the interpreters and actors at the same time.
The ‘shadowed’ style of interpreting is the most inclusive style of interpreting for the theatre.
It involves placing the interpreters directly within the action - nearly making them ‘sign language
actors’. The interpreters are ‘blocked’ into each scene, and literally shadow the actors. The
advantage of this is clear: the interpreter is in such close proximity to the actor that the deaf
patron need not make a decision about whom to watch - he or she can watch both at the same
time. In the best of cases, the deaf patron mentally blends the interpreter with the actor, and
forgets that the actor does not sign.
 Theatre interpreters for the deaf are dedicated professionals who take great pride in their
work. ‘Theatre,’ says Ian, ‘is the art of communicating beautiful ideas in interesting ways.
Interpreted theatre, therefore, is an art in itself. Thankfully, instead of seeing us as ‘additions’,
producers nowadays think of interpreters for the deaf as a new avenue to creativity.’
Question 1: Theatre interpreters have become commonplace because _______.
A. a new law made their presence compulsory
B. theatres wanted to become more accessible
C. deaf people were avoiding the theatre
D. producers wanted a way to attract audiences
Question 2: Why do hearing people go to see interpreted performances?
A. They give a better understanding of the play.
B. They are even better than standard performances.
C. They offer a chance to admire the work of interpreters.
D. They are the most popular performances of the season.
Question 3: The workload of theatre interpreters is so great because they have to _______.
A. go to many of the rehearsals B. interpret in front of a consultant
C. learn the lines of all the actors D. work in all parts of the production
Question 4: The word ‘patron’ in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. producerB. sponsor C. playgoer D. playwright
Question 5: In which style(s) of interpreting do the interpreters change their position?
A. the ‘zoned’ and the ‘shadowed’ styles B. the ‘zoned’ style
C. the ‘placed’ and the ’shadowed’ styles D. the ‘shadowed’ style
Question 6: Why does the writer refer to the ‘zoned’ style as 'a happy medium’?
A. It combines elements from the two other styles.
B. It is mostly used in light-hearted plays.
C. It allows the interpreters to mix with the actors.
D. It makes the interpreter's job easier.
Question 7: The word 'this' in paragraph 7 refers to _______.
A. the advantages of the ‘shadowed’ style B. the position of the interpreters
C. the action in a performance D. the placement of the actors
Question 8: What does Ian say about theatre producers in the last paragraph?
A. They don't respect interpreters.
B. They think interpreters are expensive.
C. They see interpreters as a necessary evil.
D. They appreciate the work of interpreters.
Question 9: What is the writer's purpose in the passage?
 A. To show the variety in modern theatre.B. To advertise interpreted theatre.
C. To inspire interest in the topic. D. To criticise the attitude of theatre directors.
Question 10: The word ‘shadowing’ in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. following B. changing C. directing D. controlling
Your answers:
1...................2....................... 3..................... 4............... 5................
6....................7....................... 8..................... 9............... 10...............
Part 3: For questions 1- 13, read the following passage and answer the following questions
(1.3 points)
SKYSCRAPER
A. The word skyscraper was originally a nautical term for a tall mast or sail on a sailing ship.
Today the word is used exclusively to refer to a tall habitable building, usually higher than 150
meters (500 feet). Most skyscrapers serve as office buildings or hotels. The term “high-rise” is
also used to describe tall buildings, but it tends to be applied specifically to residential buildings.
Modern building of great height, constructed on a steel skeleton originated in the United States.
B. Until the 19th century, buildings of over six stories were rare. It was impractical to have people
walk up so many flights of stairs, and water pressure could only provide running water to about
50 feet (15m). Many mechanical and structural developments in the last quarter of the 19 th
century, contributed to the evolution of building. With the perfection of the high speed elevator
after 1887, skyscrapers were able to attain any desired height. The earliest tall buildings were of
solid masonry construction, with the thick walls of the lower stories usurping a disproportionate
amount of floor space. In order to permit thinner walls through the entire height of the building,
architects began to use cast iron in conjunction with masonry. This was followed by cage
construction, in which the iron frame supported the floors and the masonry walls bore their own
weight.
C. The next step was the invention of a system in which the metal framework would support not
only the floors but also the walls. This innovation appeared in the Home Insurance Building in
Chicago, designed in 1883 by William Le Baron Jenney – the first building to employ steel
skeleton construction and embody the general characteristics of a modern skyscraper. The
subsequent erection in Chicago of a number of similar buildings made it the centre of the early
skyscraper architecture. In the 1890s the steel frame was formed into a complete riveted skeleton
bearing all the structural loads, with the exterior or thin curtain walls serving merely as an
enclosing screen.
D. Heating and air conditioning played an important role in the structure of skyscrapers. They
are the key units that control the inside atmosphere of all skyscrapers. In the early days, the heat
sources in the building came from fireplaces and stoves. Later on heat in the building is supplied
by the hot water boiler. The boiler heats up the water and sends it out to the radiators through a
system of pipes. This was later replaced by central heating furnace with ventilation ducts that
channel heat to various areas of the building. Air condition originated from refrigeration. The
process of refrigeration is to draw heat away from substances to lower their temperature. Today,
the skyscrapers use the central heating system with ventilation ducts that can be shared with the
heating and air conditioning system. Engineers are working on new ways to make heating and air
conditioning more efficient and environmental friendly.

E. In 1892 the New York Building Law made its first provisions for skeleton constructions.
There followed a period of experimentation to devise efficient floor plans and aesthetically
satisfying forms. In 1916, New York City adopted the Building Zone Resolution, establishing
legal control over the height and plan of buildings and over the factors relating to health, fire
hazard, and assurance of adequate light and air to buildings and streets. Regulations regarding
the setting back of exterior walls above a determined height, largely intended to allow light to
reach the streets, gave rise to buildings whose stepped profiles characterize the American
skyscraper of subsequent years.
F. With the complex structural and planning problems solved, architects still seek solutions to
the difficulties of integrating skyscrapers with community requirements of hygiene,
transportation and commercial interest. In New York during the 1950s, public plazas were
incorporated into the designs of the Lever House by Gordon Bunshaft and Seagram Building of
Mies van der Robe. These International style buildings are also examples of the effective use of
vast expanses of glass in skyscrapers. More recently, numerous skyscrapers have been
constructed in a number of postmodern modes.
G. The cost of building a skyscraper is in hundred million dollar in the current market. The
skyscraper is well known for its great height and the social status comes with it and has always
associated with wealth and power. To the general public, big is good; in terms of building, the
taller the better. In general, large company or firm would host its head office in these
skyscrapers. For example, Chrysler had its head office in the Chrysler Building, owned by
Chrysler which is one of the big three automakers. The Sears Tower, the head office for Sears
and owned by Sears. It was known for being the world’s tallest skyscraper in Chicago. Tenants
expect clients to know where they are located when they tell them the Sears Tower as their
location. These skyscrapers are owned by the wealthy individuals whom are in the upper level of
financial social status. There is a sense of prestige for having offices or shops in these
skyscrapers.
H. Modern skyscrapers are being redefined by the use of advance technologies. Thanks to the
advancement in technology, skyscrapers are able to reach new height easily. It changes the way
architects design the structure of these buildings. The new function of the skyscraper is to
provide great views, house antennas for communications, telebroadcasting and for entertainment
purpose. The use of computer climate control system made the building a more comfortable
environment for everyone. The great height of the skyscraper like the Sears Tower, it associates
itself with the prestige of being the tallest of all. With the rapid advancement of technology and
the influence of fame and wealth, sky will be the only limit for the next generation of
skyscrapers.
From the list of the headings, choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs A – D
Hot water boiler and refrigerator
A period of innovation
Skyscraper and a tall mast
Advanced technology
Words for tall buildings
The wall evolution
Hot and cold
From stone to iron
Paragraph A: ________
Paragraph B: ________
Paragraph C: ________
Paragraph D: ________
Your answers: 1...................2....................... 3..................... 4...............
Match the following innovations with A,B,C and D
Mid-20th century B. late 1880s C. 1890s D. early 1880s
The high-speed elevator: ________
Public square : ________
Steel framework: ________
Riveted skeleton: ________
Your answers: 5................6....................7.......................8.....................
Write TRUE, FALSE, NOT GIVEN
A skyscraper is both a tall sailing mast ad a tall habitable building.
A steel frame is able to support both floors and walls.
Your answers: 9............... 10...............
WRITING (50 POINTS)
Part I: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first
sentence, using the word given (don’t change the word given) or beginning in such a way
that their meanings remain unchanged (20 POINTS).
1. Vanessa was taken on by a big law firm as soon as she graduated ( LANDED)
On graduation,Vanessa ……………………………………………………………….
2. At the end of the concert, Mariah Carey got everyone in the audience to sing along with her.
( SINGING)
At the end of the concert, Mariah Carey …………………………………………………
3. I will never regret telling the truth. (SPADE)
Not ........................................................................................................................................
4. It was Jane who came up with the idea for the sales promotion. (BRAINS)
Jane ................................................................................................. the sales promotion.
5. Doing regular exercise often helps improve your attitude to life. (DO)
Many.............................................................................................................on life.
6. Students must not enter the exam late, whatever the reason might be. (NO)
…………………………………………………………………………………………...late.
7. In this area, Thailand is much better than all other countries in football. (SHOULDERS)
In this area, Thai land ……………………………………………………..
8. I felt stupid when I realized what we had done. (A)
I felt …………………………………………….we had done.
9. He thinks his friends do not appreciate him. (FOR)
He dislikes ………………………………………………………………….
10. She had four daughters. The youngest of them was her favourite. (EYE)
She had four daughters ………………………………………………………..

TEST 6
B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Part 1 (20pts). Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and
write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
1. After having children, the woman starts to __________.
A. go to seed B. come up smelling of roses
C. push up the daisies D. gild the lily
2. Reliable salesmen do not make ________ claims for their product.
A. unbridled B. extravagant C. madding D. unruly
3. Eva likes to have a dictionary _____ hand when she's writing.
A. at B. on C. off D. by
4. With the blistering pace of technological advancements in recent years, both workers
and employers have a myriad of choices, and ________ access to education.
A. exhaustive B. profuse C. bottomless D. unfettered
5. It’s amazing how Jenny acts as though she and Darren ___________ serious problems at
the moment.
A. aren’t having B. hadn’t had C. weren’t having D. hadn’t been having
6. The winning team were ________ criticized by the local media for the way in which they
had gloated over the losing team.
A. shrilly B. decidedly C. roundly D. cheaply
7. He's a(n) __________ piece of nothing at the office; no one even knows he exists.
A. two-bit B. abbreviated C. venial D. tinpot
8. I _________ his telephone number while he was still talking.
A. jotted down B. wrote up C. set down D. dashed off
9. I feel __________ to inform the head teacher that a number of students and parents are
annoyed with the decision.
A. my duty B. this my duty C. it my duty D. that my duty
10. A cute kid is _________ a lot of attention on the internet thanks to his uncanny
resemblance to a famous Kpop idol.
A. amassing B. raking C. garnering D. gathering
11. Government becomes no longer the servant of the people but in the thrall of big money,
lobbyists and a media happy to live off its fancy leftovers in a ___________ of gossip and
shallow speculation.
A. feeding frenzy B. second wind C. fever pitch D. buffer zone
12. Not until Kentucky’s Mammoth Cave had been completely explored in 1972 _________.
A. when was its full extent realized B. that its full extent was realized
C. was its full extent realized D. the realization of its full extent
13. James didn’t take ________ to your suggestion that he was mean with money.
A. kindly B. pleasantly C. agreeably D. cheerfully
14. Even though it’s still easy to _________ digital copy protection, most users can’t do it.
A. outflank B. deflect C. circumvent D. oscillate
15. Sending a reporter against the families' wishes only ensures that we will ______those
families ______.
A. walk/over B. tick/off C. push/around D. turn/on
16. They say that even the police hesitate before entering some of the city’s most
lawless_____.
A. suburbs B. crowds C. ghettoes D. allotments
17. Rising temperatures are said to be _________ the habitats and feeding patterns of
penguins.
A. marring B. dotting C. shifting D. altering
18. Some _________ left the door open overnight. How stupid!
A. scum of the earth B. bright spark C. live wire D. nasty piece of work
19. The school of fish, hiding among the jagged coral, _____________ by the hammerhead
shark, despite the gloomy camouflage of the surroundings.
A. were easily seen B. was easily seen C. seen D. being seen
20. Supermarkets were _________ one supplier _________ against another to get the
lowest price.
A. playing/off B. lousing/up C. gnawing/away D. fouling/up
Part 2:(10pts) The passage below contains 10 errors. IDENTIFY and CORRECT them. (0) has
been done as an example.

(0) concerning à concerned

People have been concerning with their hair since ancient times. In 1500
B.C., the Assyrians, inhabiting the area known today as Northern Iraq, were
the World’s first truly hair stylists. Their skills at cutting, curling, layering
and dyeing hair were known through the Middle East. In fact, they were
obsessing with their hair, which was oiled, perfumed, and tinted. A
fashionable courtier wore his hair cut in neat geometric layers. Kings,
soldiers and noblemen had
their hair curl with a fire-heated iron bar, probably the world’s first curling
iron. So important was hair styling in Assyria which law dictated certain
types of hair styles according to a person’s position and employment. Facial
hair was also important. Men grew beards down from their chests and had
them clipped in layers. High-rank women in both Egypt and Assyria wore
fake beards during official court business to show their equal authority with
men.
As the Assyrians, the early Greeks liked long, scented, curly hair. Fair hair
was favored over dark, so those who were not “ natural blonds” lightened or
reddened their hair with soaps and bleaches. The Romans, on the other
hand, favored dark hair for men for high social or politics rank. Early Saxon
men were neither blonds nor brunets but dyed their hair and beards blue,
red, green, and orange.
Since the centuries, societies have combed, curled, waved, powdered, dyed,
cut, coiffed, and sculpted their hair, or someone else’s during times of wig
crazes. Churches and lawmakers have sometimes tried to put a stop to the
humans obsession with hair, but with few success. It seems hair styling is
here to stay, and the future will likely prove no exception.
Part 3. (10pts) Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers
in the spaces provided below.
THE RNLI
The RNLI (Royal National Lifeboat Institution) is an organization (1)…………
(DEPEND) of the government control, dedicated to saving lives at sea. The RNLI has an active
fleet of several hundred of lifeboats around the length and (2)…………..(BROAD) of Britain’s
coastline.
Since it was founded in 1824, the RNLI has had an extremely (3)…………….(SIGNIFY)
impact on maritime safety, saving over 130, 000 lives.
Because the RNLI is not funded by the government, it relies on the (4)……….(GOOD)
of the public to cover its costs, its income coming from membership fees and (5)…………….
(CHARITY) donations. Some people have raised (6)…………..(OBJECT) to this, saying that
such (7)……………(VALUE) service should be government - funded.
The lifeboat crews are almost all volunteers. They are generally (8)…………..(KNOW)
by the British people as being (9)………….(EXAMPLE) in their (10)……………(SELF),
frequently putting their lives at risk to save others.
C. READING (60pts)
Part 1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.(10pts)
Do you ever wish you were more optimistic, someone who always (1) ............. to be
successful? Having someone around who always fears the worst isn't really a lot of (2) …...... -
we all know someone who sees a single cloud on a sunny day and says, 'It looks like rain.' But if
you catch yourself thinking such things, it's important to do something about it.
You can change your view of life, according to psychologist. It only takes a little…(3)…..,
and you'll find life more rewarding as a..(4)................ . .Optimism, they say, is partly about self-
respect and confidence but it's also a more positive way of looking at life and all it has to (5)
………….. . Optimists are more (6) ............. to start new projects and are generally more
prepared to take risks.
Upbringing is obviously very important in forming your (7) ………..... to the world. Some
people are brought up to depend too much on others and grow up forever blaming other people
when anything (8)……..... wrong. Most optimists, on the (9) ……….. hand, have been brought
up not to (10)….... failure as the end of the world - they just get on with their lives.
1. A. counted B. expected C. felt D. waited
2. A. amusement B. play C. enjoyment D. fun
3. A. energy B. effort C. work D. effect
4. A. result B. reason C. purpose D. product
5. A. supply B. suggest C. offer D. propose
6. A. possible B. likely C. hopeful D. welcome
7. A. opinion B. attitude C. view D. position
8 A. goes B. falls C. comes D. turns
9. A. opposite B. others C. other D. far
10 A. regard B. respect C. suppose D. think

Part 2: Fill each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the numbered blanks
provided below the passage.(15 pts)
TEENAGERS AND TELEVISION
Until recently, teenagers have been hooked on television. Parents have worried that their
children are becoming fat, (1)…………potatoes, and teenagers seem to have preferred watching
TV (2)………….almost any other activity in the home. Except perhaps sleeping. But no more!
According to the latest statistics, teenagers have (3)………..off TV and are turning off in droves.
Given the choice (4)………….TV and the internet, it is clear what most teens prefer. The
internet (5)…………an interactive, social need that TV doesn’t. Teenagers at a loose (6)
………..in their bedrooms can hang (7)………..with their mates in cyberspace. As websites such
as My space have (8)…………off, teenagers have been only (9)……….eager to join in their
millions and spend hours a day - and night online. We’re witnessing the birth of the generation of
the “Keyboard potato”, for (10)…………of a better expression.
Part3:(10pts) You are going to read a passage and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which
you think fits best accordng to the text.
LAKE DISTRICT WATER PLAN SCRUTINISED
A public inquiry opened yesterday into plans to pump extra water from the Lake District
National Park to refill reservoirs drained by drought. United Utilities has submitted its proposals
to take water from two lakes, Windermere and Ullswater, to public scrutiny because of concerns
about the potential damage to wildlife.
Anglers are concerned that spawning sites for salmon and trout could dry out if water is
drained from the rivers that flow from the lakes. But the utilities company insists that removing
and treating the extra water will not hurt local flora and fauna. The hearing, headed by the
government inspector, Stuart Nixon, is being held in the Cumbrian town of Windermere and will
last for two days. A final decision is expected to be taken later this month by Margaret Beckett,
the Environment Secretary.
United Utilities insists that the drought orders are necessary to prevent the further depletion
of water from two of its reservoirs in the Lake District, Haweswater and Thirlmere. Because of
the unusually dry summer this year, Haweswater has only 53 per cent of its capacity compared
with 68 percent at the same time last year. Thirlmere has just 47 percent, whereas last year it had
79 percent.
If United Utilities is given the go-ahead, it would be able to take extra water from the
Windermere and Ullswater rivers – Leven and Eamont respectively – this winter, rather than
having to take emergency measures next year. Water from Ullswater would be piped into
Haweswater reservoir; water from Windermere would enter the local supply, and prevent further
depletion of Thirlmere. Water supplies would reach two million people in Manchester,
Lancashire, south Cumbria and parts of Cheshire.
Cumbria Wildlife Trust said taking extra water could pose problems for wildlife if not
properly managed. But a spokesman said it was not opposing United Utilities' plans because it
was better for water to be drained in the wet winter months rather than in the summer. ‘If they
don’t have to do it now, they will have to do it in April,’ the spokesman said.
Dickon Knight, the agent for the landowner Holker Estates, said the proposed minimum
flows on the river Leven would harm efforts to protect salmon stocks. Alistair Maltby, the
manager of the Eden Rivers Trust, said taking water from the rivers during the winter was the
best approach but urged United Utilities to mend leaks in its pipes in the long run. Gary Dixon,
customer service manager at United Utilities, said, ‘We can’t predict what supplies will be like
over the winter. Normally this is when our reservoirs would refill but if the low rainfall continues
we need to start planning ahead for next summer. Taking action now will have a lower impact on
the river environment than during the spring.’
The company said the deluge of rain in recent weeks was helping to top up the reservoirs.
John Carberry, a spokesman, said, ‘There is no crisis and no panic, but we are looking ahead for
next year. There is a potential impact on the environment which is why we are seeking
permission to do what we want to do.’ The Environment Agency said it would work with the
utility company to ensure any damage to fish stocks was kept to a minimum.
1. According to the opening paragraph, the controversy arose due to ________.
A a proposed scheme to top up water supplies.
B excessive water in local lakes.
C civilians protesting over a threat to the environment.
 D a possibility that reservoirs could be contaminated.
2. The word “hearing” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. trial B. legal action C. lawsuit D. official meeting
3. Who does the outcome of the proposal ultimately rest with?
A the area’s fishermen B a utilities company
C Margaret Beckett D Stuart Nixon
4. What have high temperatures resulted in?
A several bodies of water in the Lake District completely drying up
B United Utilities wanting to take certain measures
C two lakes being left with less than 50% of their water
D a large decrease in profits for United Utilities
5. The word “go-ahead” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. leave B. consensus C. authorization D. permit
6. If the plan is implemented, _______.
A it will inevitably avert a national crisis.
B its impact will be felt nationwide.
C it could cause irreversible damage.
D it should preferably be done in winter.
7. Which of the following statements is NOT true, according to the passage?.
A the water depletion rate of all reservoirs is not the same.
B Wildlife might be affected by excessive water taking
C It’s inevitable that water should be drained sooner or later.
D Water from two rivers would be pumped into the local supply
8. What is Alistair Maltby’s opinion on refilling reservoirs?.
A It will be detrimental to certain species of fish.
B It’s the best solution as long as a technical problem is sorted out.
C It will have a negative effect on the environment if left until spring.
D Its success depends on how well United Utilities manage the project.
9. It can be inferred from the passage that ________.
A it’s spring at the moment the passage was written
B salmon stocks are being kept to a minimum
C there will be an active collaboration for the common good
D water depletion has reached epidemic proportions
10. What is the overall tone of the passage?
A alarmed B sarcastic C neutral D dismissive
Part 4: (15pts) Read the following passage and answer the questions.
A. After hours of driving south in the pitch-black darkness of the Nevada desert, a dome of hazy
gold suddenly appears on the horizon. Soon, a road sign confirms the obvious: Las Vegas 30
miles. Looking skyward, you notice that the Big Dipper is harder to find than it was an hour ago.
B. Light pollution—the artificial light that illuminates more than its intended target area—has
become a problem of increasing concern across the country over the past 15 years. In the
suburbs, where over-lit shopping mall parking lots are the norm, only 200 of the Milky Way’s
2,500 stars are visible on a clear night. Even fewer can be seen from large cities. In almost every
town, big and small, street lights beam just as much light up and out as they do down,
illuminating much more than just the street. Almost 50 percent of the light emanating from street
lamps misses its intended target, and billboards, shopping centres, private homes and skyscrapers
are similarly over-illuminated.
C. America has become so bright that in a satellite image of the United States at night, the
outline of the country is visible from its lights alone. The major cities are all there, in bright
clusters: New York, Boston, Miami, Houston, Los Angeles, Seattle, Chicago, and, of course, Las
Vegas. Mark Adams, superintendent of the McDonald Observatory in west Texas, says that the
very fact that city lights are visible from on high is proof of their wastefulness. “When you’re up
in an airplane, all that light you see on the ground from the city is wasted. It’s going up into the
night sky. That’s why you can see it.”
D. But don’t we need all those lights to ensure our safety? The answer from light engineers, light
pollution control advocates and astronomers is an emphatic “no.” Elizabeth Alvarez of the
International Dark Sky Association (IDA), a non-profit organization in Tucson, Arizona, says
that overly bright security lights can actually force neighbours to close the shutters, which means
that if any criminal activity does occur on the street, no one will see it. And the old assumption
that bright lights deter crime appears to have been a false one: A new Department of Justice
report concludes that there is no documented correlation between the level of lighting and the
level of crime in an area. And contrary to popular belief, more crimes occur in broad daylight
than at night.
E. For drivers, light can actually create a safety hazard. Glaring lights can temporarily blind
drivers, increasing the likelihood of an accident. To help prevent such accidents, some cities and
states prohibit the use of lights that impair night-time vision. For instance, New Hampshire law
forbids the use of “any light along a highway so positioned as to blind or dazzle the vision of
travellers on the adjacent highway.”
F. Badly designed lighting can pose a threat to wildlife as well as people. Newly hatched turtles
in Florida move toward beach lights instead of the more muted silver shimmer of the ocean.
Migrating birds, confused by lights on skyscrapers, broadcast towers and lighthouses, are
injured, sometimes fatally, after colliding with high, lighted structures. And light pollution harms
air quality as well: Because most of the country’s power plants are still powered by fossil fuels,
more light means more air pollution.
G. So what can be done? Tucson, Arizona is taking back the night. The city has one of the best
lighting ordinances in the country, and, not coincidentally, the highest concentration of
observatories in the world. Kitt Peak National Optical Astronomy Observatory has 24 telescopes
aimed skyward around the city’s perimeter, and its cadre of astronomers needs a dark sky to
work with.
H. For a while, that darkness was threatened. “We were totally losing the night sky,” Jim
Singleton of Tucson’s Lighting Committee told Tulsa, Oklahoma’s KOTV last March. Now,
after retrofitting inefficient mercury lighting with low-sodium lights that block light from
“trespassing” into unwanted areas like bedroom windows, and by doing away with some
unnecessary lights altogether, the city is softly glowing rather than brightly beaming. The same
thing is happening in a handful of other states, including Texas, which just passed a light
pollution bill last summer. “Astronomers can get what they need at the same time that citizens
get what they need: safety, security and good visibility at night,” says McDonald Observatory’s
Mark Adams, who provided testimony at the hearings for the bill.
I. And in the long run, everyone benefits from reduced energy costs. Wasted energy from
inefficient lighting costs us between $1 and $2 billion a year, according to IDA. The city of San
Diego, which installed new, high-efficiency street lights after passing a light pollution law in
1985, now saves about $3 million a year in energy costs.
J. Legislation isn’t the only answer to light pollution problems. Brian Greer, Central Ohio
representative for the Ohio Light Pollution Advisory Council, says that education is just as
important, if not more so. “There are some special situations where regulation is the only fix,” he
says. “But the vast majority of bad lighting is simply the result of not knowing any better.”
Simple actions like replacing old bulbs and fixtures with more efficient and better-designed ones
can make a big difference in preserving the night sky.
Questions 1- 6
The first six paragraphs of the reading passage are lettered A-F. Choose the most suitable
headings for paragraphs A-F from the list of headings below.
NB There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.
List of Headings

I .Why lights are needed

ii. Lighting discourages law breakers

iii. The environmental dangers

 iv. People at risk from bright lights

v. Illuminating space

vi. A problem lights do not solve

vii. Seen from above

viii. More light than is necessary

ix. Approaching the city

1) Paragraph A
2) Paragraph B
3) Paragraph C
4) Paragraph D
5) Paragraph E
6) Paragraph F
Questions 7-10
Complete each of the following statements with words taken from the passage.
Write ONE or TWO WORDS for each answer.
7) According to a recent study, well-lit streets do not .................... or make neighbourhoods safer
to live in.
8) Inefficient lighting increases .................... because most electricity is produced from coal, gas
or oil.
9) Efficient lights .................... from going into areas where it is not needed.
10) In dealing with light pollution .................... is at least as important as passing new laws.
D. WRITING (50 pts)
Part 1: Rewrite the sentences with the given words or beginning in such way that their
meanings remain unchanged.(20pts)
1. Turning down that job was very foolish of you.
à You.............................................................................................................................
2. Many species of wild life are threatened with extinction.
à Many species .............................................................................................................
3. She didn’t shed a tear when the story ended in tragedy
à Not a tear ...................................................................................................................
4. You’d be wasting your time trying to make him change his mind
à It................................................................................................................................
5. We don’t seem to have much sugar left!
 à We.................................................................................................................................
6. He seems to be more active because he has won a scholarship to study overseas.
(lease)
à That he has won ...........................................................................................................
7. It wasn’t until last week that the minister admitted he was wrong. (error)
à Only ..........................................................................................................................
8. The effects of the gale were felt mainly along the south coast. (brunt)
à The south coast……………………………………………………………………….the gale.
9. Getting upset over Michael’s departure is pointless. (tears)
à There is no………………………………………………… over Michael’s departure.

10. I have become extremely good at missing the rush hour over the last few weeks (fine)
à I have got……………………………………………………………………….…last few
weeks.

TEST 7
B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points)
Part 1 : Choose the correct option for each gap in the following sentences. (20 points)
1. Please accept our _____ congratulations!
A. finest B. warmest C. dearest D. deepest
2. You should _____ at least three days for the journey.
A. expect B. permit C. accept D. allow
3. I had no chance to defend myself: the dog _____ for me as soon as I opened the door.
A. went B. ran C. fell D. stood
4. Please _____ a copy of your application form for at least six months.
A. return B. revise C. retain D. refer
5. _____ , dolphins have no sense of smell.
A. As known as far B. It is known as far
C. Known thus far as D. As far as is known
6. Alone in a deserted house, he was so busy with his research work that he felt _____ lonely.
A. nothing but B. everything but C. anything but D. all but
7. Good health enables people to enjoy life and have the _____ to achieve their gold.
A. chance B. opportunity C. occasion D. situation
8. The current political _____ of our country is favorable for foreign investments.
A. climate B. weather C. temperature D. state
9. They drove _____ the home when their car run out of oil.
 A. in a mile to B. for a mile to C. within a mile to D. within a mile by
10. If the size of the workforce can be easily and rapidly altered _____ market fluctuations,
profits will be maximized.
A. in terms of B. in response to C. in reply to D. with respect to
11. Leo was ________ from the meeting after he began objecting loudly to other people’s ideas.
A. ejected B. rejected C. dejected D. injected
12. He was completely ________, sleeping on the streets and begging for money.
A. down-and-out B. grin and bear C. prim and proper D. fits and starts
13. It was ________ whether the operation would go ahead because so many staff were on sick
leave that week.
A. safe and sound B. touch-and-go C. pros and cons D. grin and bear
14. Everything was at ________ when we arrive, as they had only moved into the house the day
before.
A. fits and starts B. safe and sound C. sixes and sevens D. song and dance
15. My toothache is worse but until I can get to the dentist, I’ll just have to ________ it.
A. grin and bear B. prim and proper C. get rid of D. cast a spell on
16. The play is simply a vehicle for its stars and falls ________ of having a decent plot.
A. fast B. short C. quick D. thin
17. Anna’s friend knew the casting director, so she pulled a few ________ to arrange an
audition.
A. ropes B. wires C. threads D. strings
18. Only a few companies were found to be in ________ with the new laws.
A. submission B. obedience C. compliance D. fulfillment
19. Miguel felt he was being overlooked, which is why he ________ back rudely when his
manager finally asked him what he thought.
A. answered B. responded C. replied D. uttered
20. As Mary was an ________ member of the team, everyone was disappointed when she was
announced her resignation.
A. intensive B. interior C. internal D. integral

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Part 2: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and correct them in the space
provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example. (10 points)

Why I dislike computers

Most everyone says that computers are wonderful and that they are changing our lives Line 1……..
for the better by making everything faster and more reliable, but I’m not so sure that this
is a case. Line 3……..
The another day I was standing in a large department store waiting to pay for a couple Line 4……..
of films for my camera while the assistant announced that the computer which Line 5……..
controlled the till had stopped working. I didn’t think this was a big problem and I set
up to find another counter, but of course, all the machines are part of the same system. Line 7……..
So there we were: a shop full of customers, money at the ready, waiting to do our
purchases, but it was quite clear that none of the assistants knew what to do. They Line 9……..
weren’t allowed to take our money and give customers a written receipt, so that the
sales wouldn’t then have been recorded on the computer system. Line 11……..
At the end, like many other people, I left my shopping on the counter and walked out.
Don’t you think that’s ridiculous? It will never have happened before computers, and Line 13……..
that, for me, is the problem: we are beginning to depend on these machines so Line 14……..
completely that we simply can’t manage without them no more.

Line 17……..
Part three: Fill each gap in the following sentences with only one suitable preposition particle. (10
points)
1. His honesty _____ question; nobody can doubt it.
2. The building of the new road has been held _____ by bad weather.
3. We can get _____ with eight computers in the lab at the moment, but we’ll need a couple more when
the new staff arrive.
4. She established the school in 1960 and since then tens of thousands of children have passed _____ her
school.
5. Judging _____ the time of the day when something is done, one can decide how important an event is.
6. Her business has gone _____, and she has lost everything.
7. I can’t concentrate on my work with the prospect of the court case hanging _____ me.
8. Peter was an inspirational politician, who put _____ his ideas with clarity.
9. His ball control skills really set _____ him from the rest of the players.
10. Can you check _____ these figures against last year’s figures. I’d like to know which year was more
successful.
Part 4 : Use the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the passage. (10 points)
The upper layers of Earth’s oceans have cooled (1. SIGNIFY)__________ over the past two years, even
though the planet as a whole is warming up. While this may just be part of the natural (2. VARY)
__________ of oceans, (3. CLIMATE) __________ are still confounded by the massive uncountable
loss of heat. Scientists have been (4. INCREASE) __________ concerned by rising sea temperatures
over the last 50 years but these new (5. FIND) __________ tell a different story. Generally speaking, the
(6. ABSORB) of heat by the oceans reduces atmospheric warming. Now (7. MEASURE) __________
taken by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration have put a wrinkle in the trend. The
researchers used data from 3000 floating buoys which monitor the oceans (8. WORLD)
__________.They found that the oceans dropped in temperature by an (9. BELIEVE) __________ 0.02
degrees centigrade between 2011 and 2013. Now, that may not seem like much, but trying to account for
the missing energy is proving to be enormously (10. PROBLEM) __________. It is possible that
volcanic eruptions are one main cause of the phenomenon, but no firm answers have yet been provided.
C. READING (50 points)
Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write
your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts)
The money that some professional sportsmen earn shouldn’t impress anyone when you take into
consideration the fact that only a few of them manage to (1) ____________ immorality and everlasting
fame. And once they reach their prime and display their talent at their best, they are (2) ____________
conscious that their brilliant careers won’t last forever. They live under a constant pressure of being (3)
____________ and subsequently replaced by someone who is younger, faster and more accomplished.
For that reason, objectives like retirement benefits and pensions are of great concern to all professional
athletes.
Some of the retired competitors go as far as to organize strikes and rallies to (4) ____________
their protest against any policy unresponsive to their demands whereas the younger professionals seek
more upgrading solutions to the problem as more and more of them attach a proper significance to (5)
____________ a solid education, even at university level. Such an approach should help them find
interesting and well-paid jobs (6) ____________ their sports career is over.
A completely new strategy has been (7) ____________ by the schools priding themselves (8)
____________ supporting their own teams. Their authorities insist that the sports club members achieve
high academic standards or else they are debarred from partaking in certain sports events, which may lead
to further (9) ____________ in their professional careers.
By these practical and most effective means, combining education with sports activity, the (10)
____________ of the professional athlete as being brainless and unintelligent may eventually be
changing to the sportsmen’s benefit.
1. A. acquire B. fulfill C. attain D. succeed
2. A. fully B. extremely C. terribly D. very
3. A. outcast B. outshone C. outstayed D. outgrown
4. A. voice B. claim C. insist D. speak
5. A. mastering B. learning C. receiving D. attending
6. A. right away B. promptly C. barely D. once
7. A. assembled B. installed C. devised D. emerged
8. A. with B. on C. for D. in
9. A. disruption B. disturbance C. detachment D. damage
10. A. vision B. outlook C. image D. judgment
Part 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in
each space. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)
Throughout history people have worn clothing of one description or another. Apart from protection
against the weather, clothes were also often used to show the wearer’s status and wealth. Over the years,
numerous fashions in clothing have come and gone. (1) ____________ some of these have been popular
for relatively short periods, others have lasted longer.
Until the first half of the 20th century, the ability to follow fashion was limited to those (2)
____________ had the money to (3) ____________ so. But following fashion did not only demand
money, it also required large amounts of leisure time. Wealthy people took fashion very seriously and
close attention had to (4) ____________ paid to detail. Wearing the correct clothes for different occasions
was very important, despite the (5) ____________ that this often meant changing clothes five or six (6)
____________ day.
More recently, fashionable clothes have come within the reach of ordinary people. The traditional craft of
dressmaking, (7) ____________ usually involved sewing (8) ____________ hand, was both costly and
slow. But today, large-scale manufacturing has made it easier for people to keep (9) ____________ with
changes in fashion (10) ____________ having to spend a great deal of money.
Part 3. Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C, or D to answer the questions. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
Tides are the periodic rise and fall of the Earth’s waters that are caused by the Moon’s and Sun’s
forces of gravity acting on the Earth. It is important to distinguish natural tidal phenomena from huge
tsunamis, with the later being caused by earthquakes and undersea volcanic eruptions.
The Moon is a main factor controlling ordinary tides. At the location on the Earth closest to the
Moon, it exerts a powerful gravitational pull on the water. The resulting rise in the water produces higher
tides. The water on the side of the Earth farthest away from the Moon also gets pulled by this lunar
gravity, but not as strongly. The Earth itself has its own gravitational force that is constantly pulling
waters downward, which is why the oceans do not simply bulge out toward the Moon. Ordinary tides
usually feature high and low waters alternating in relation to the Earth’s rotation. Most shores around the
world have two high waters and two low waters for each day, which last about 24 hours and 50 minutes.
The difference in height between high water and low water is called the range of tide, and it can be quite
dramatic in narrower bays. Canada’s bays of Fundy, for example, commonly experiences the world’s
most extreme tidal ranges, with daily differences of 16 meters.
 Two other types of tides are influenced by the Sun, which is much farther away from the Earth
and exerts less than half of the Moon’s gravitational force. When the Sun, the Moon and the Earth are
directly in line, the solar and lunar gravitational forces and up to produce higher spring tides. The range
of spring tides is intensified, with higher high water marks and lower low water marks. However, when
the Moon is in the first or third quarter, it is at a 90-degree angle with the Sun in relation to the Earth. The
opposing solar and lunar forces partially cancel each other out, and the result is a lower tide. This is
called a neap tide, which comes twice a month and has lower high water marks and higher low water
marks. The range of neap tides is minimum.
Some tides do not occur over water at all. The solid body of the Earth has slight elasticity, so
lunar and solar gravity causes it to stretch very subtly. These changes in the Earth’s shape, although
imperceptible to humans, are known as Earth tides. Another tidal phenomenon, atmospheric tides, is
caused by the Sun’s heating of the Earth’s atmosphere. Like ordinary tides, they usually occur over 12-
hour periods.
Question 1. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Tides are influenced more by the Moon than by the Sun.
B. Tides are a natural phenomenon but are not a natural disaster.
C. Tides always occur over water and are usually predictable.
D. Tides are a phenomenon mainly caused by forces of gravity.
Question 2. Why does the author mention tsunamis in the passage?
A. To explain that not all tides are caused by gravity
B. To give an example of an extreme tidal phenomenon p
C. To show that they are not related to natural tides
D. To suggest that more categories for tides area needed
Question 3. The word “exerts” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. mixes with B. brings into use
C. infers from D. connects with
Question 4. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to
A. height B. the high water
C. the low water D. the range of tide
Question 5. What can be inferred about Canada’s Bay of Fundy?
A. It may experience tsunamis because of its extreme tides.
B. It may have a longer tide cycle because of its wide variations.
C. It may be very narrow because it has wide tidal variations.
D. It may be influenced more by gravity than other places.
Question 6. The word “imperceptible” in the last paragraph could best be replaced by
A. not noticeable B. difficult to explain
C. not generally known D. not able to be said
Question 7. According to paragraph 3, it is true that
A. neap tides are characterized by lower water during the low tide period.
B. spring tides occur when the Moon is in the first and the Third quarter.
C. the Sun has more gravitational force than the Moon because of its larger size.
D. the range of tide is greater in spring tides than in ordinary tides.
Question 8. What is true about the Moon’s gravitational force?
A. It pulls water on the far side of the Earth more strongly
C. It is more than twice as powerful as that of the Sun.
B. It has reduced gravity when it is lined up with the Sun and the Earth.
D. Its force is strongest when it is located at 90 degrees to the Earth.
Question 9. Besides ordinary tides, how many other types of tide are mentioned in the passage?
A. two B. three C. four D. five
Question 10. Which of the following does not relate to ordinary tides?
A. receiving greatest influence from the Moon
B. influenced by the Sun’s position relative to the Moon
C. taking turns the higher and lower water relating to the Earth’s rotation
D. having the striking range of tide in narrower bays
Part 4. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (15 points)
CLONING
A. The ethics of human cloning has become a great issue over the past few years. The advocates for
both sides of the issue have many reasons to clone or not to clone. A recent poll has shown the
differences in opinions with half as many women as men approving of the process. Many people find it
strange to see such a clear difference between men and women with twenty-six percent of men favouring
cloning.
B. So, what is cloning? It has been defined as “the production of genetically identical organisms via
somatic cell nuclear transfer”. You take an egg and remove its nucleus, which contains the DNA/genes.
Then you take the DNA from an adult cell and insert it into the egg, either by fusing the adult cell with
the enucleated egg, or by a sophisticated nuclear transfer. You then stimulate the reconstructed egg
electrically or chemically and try to make it start to divide and become an embryo. You then use the same
process to implant the egg into a surrogate mother that you would use with artificial insemination. What
cloning does is that it copies the DNA/genes of the person and creates a genetic duplicate. The person
will not be a Xerox copy. He or she will grow up in a different environment than the clone, with different
experiences and different opportunities. Genetics does not wholly define a person and the personality.
C. In February 1997, when embryologist Ian Wilmut and his colleagues at Roslin Institute in Scotland
were able to clone a lamb named Dolly, the world was introduced to a new possibility and will never be
the same again. Before this, cloning was thought to be impossible, but now there is living proof that the
technology and knowledge to clone animals exist. Questions began to arise within governments and
scientific organizations and they began to respond. Are humans next? Is it possible to use this procedure
to clone humans also? Would anyone actually try? What can we learn if we clone humans? How will this
affect the world? These are only a few of the questions that have surfaced and need answering. A whole
new concept in ethics was created when the birth of Dolly was announced.
D. When the cells used for cloning are stem cells, we are talking about cells that are pluripotential. This
means that they have the capacity to develop into any of the numerous differentiated cell types that
make up the body. Early embryonic cells are pluripotent and a limited number of stem cells are also
found in adults, in bone marrow for instance. There is an important distinction to be made between
therapeutic cloning and reproductive cloning. Reproductive cloning would be exactly like Dolly; it would
involve the creation of a cloned embryo which would then be implanted into a womb to develop to term
and the birth of a clone. On the other hand, therapeutic cloning involves the use of pluripotent cells to
repair damaged tissue, such as found after strokes, Parkinson’s disease and spinal cord injuries.
E. There is evidence for the effectiveness of therapeutic cloning as shown by work involving the
introduction of stem cells into the brain of patients suffering from brain diseases, when the cells which
have been added differentiate to form nerve cells which can in turn then lead to recovery of the lost
function. In the US, foetal human cells have been similarly used though recent reports indicate that the
results so far are disappointing. However, apart from the ethical problems associated with the use of
foetal cells in this way, there are simply not enough cells available for it to be an effective treatment,
since it needs the cells from three foetuses to treat one patient.
F. After Dolly, governments began to take control and make laws before anything drastic could ever
happen. Several ethics committees were asked to decide whether scientists should be allowed to try to
clone humans. In the United States, the Bioethics Advisory Commission recommended a five-year
moratorium on cloning a child through somatic cell nuclear transfer. In the United Kingdom, the Human
Fertilization and Embryology Authority and the Human Genetics Advisory Commission have approved
human cloning for therapeutic purposes, but not to clone children. Many organizations have come out and
stated their opinions also. Amongst all this ethical defining, many people are being ignored by the
governments. People are speaking out about what they want done.
G. Historically, we find that many a great medical breakthrough, now rightly seen as a blessing, was in
its own time condemned by bio-conservative moralists. Such was the case with anesthesia during surgery
and childbirth. People argued that it was unnatural and that it would weaken our moral fibre. Such was
also the case with heart transplantations and with in vitro fertilization. It was said children created by IVF
would be dehumanized and would suffer grave psychological harm. Today, of course, anesthesia is taken
for granted; heart transplantation is seen as one of medicine’s glories and the public approval rate of IVF
is up from 15% in the early seventies to over 70% today.
Task one: The passage has 7 paragraphs (A - G). Which paragraph offers information on the following
ideas? Write the appropriate letters (A - G) in the gaps for questions 1 - 6. One paragraph is used more
than once and two are not used at all.
1. Different types of cloning. _______
2. Protective legislation. _______
3. Similar situations _______
 4. A survey on attitudes towards cloning. _______
5. Scientific reasons why cloning is currently not viable for medical cures. _______
6. Illness examples that cloning could help treat. _______
Task two: Choose the correct answers.
7. Which of the following is a feature of cloning used for possible medical treatment?
A. A genetic duplicate is born through use of a surrogate mother.
B. The creation and implantation of an embryo.
C. Implantation of differentiated pluripotent cells.
D. Genetic mutation of pluripotent cells.
8. Which of the following is NOT a feature of cloning?
A. Reproduction of a genetic copy of the subject cloned.
B. Reproduction of exact personality characteristics of the subject cloned.
C. Reproduction of the pluripotential stem cells of the subject cloned.
D. Reproduction of the DNA of the subject cloned.
Task three: Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage to answer the questions
9. In what part of an egg is found the DNA used for cloning? ________________
10. According to the text, what body wants to wait before cloning a human? _______________
D. WRITING (50 points)
Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the
same as the one printed before it. Write your answers in the space provided (10
points)
1. Two men stole the old lady's handbag.
The old lady was ……………………………………………………………
2. The minister gave no precise figures about the casualties.
The minister didn't go ………………………………………………………
3. You just can’t compare the quality of her work with his.
There’s no …………………………………………………………………...
4. Fares will be very likely to go up again this autumn.
It looks ………………………………………………………………………
5. For further information, please send a self-addressed envelope to the above address.
Further information can ………………………………………………………
Part II. Rewrite the sentences below in such a way that their meanings stay the same. You must use
the words in capital without changing their forms. Write your answers in the space provided (10
points)
1. One of our philosophers is supposed to have said this. (ATTRIBUTED)

………………………………………………………………………………………
2. A government official leaked the story to the world press. (WIND)
………………………………………………………………………………………
3. He's becoming very successful. (PLACES)
………………………………………………………………………………………
4. They're faced with the choice of two alternatives. (HORNS)
………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Since the advertisement, we’ve had more applications than we can deal with. (SWAMPED)
………………………………………………………………………………………
TEST 8
B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Part 1. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
1. Business leaders predict a hard year ahead with the economy _________.
A. on the rocks B. on the cards C. in the black D. in the doldrums
2. A punctual man himself by nature, he detested the thought of any _______ delays, and
so roused Peter as early as he dared.
A. groundless B. unfounded C. improper D. untoward
3. In preparation for a lucky New Year, my parents decorate the living room, while my sister
and I __________ the attic.
A. conk out B. clam up C. turn out D. back into
4. Prosperity and happiness arrive to reward her confidence in a _______ economy.
A. floating B. buoyant C. dynamic D. fluid
5. Global warming has progressed ________ glaciers everywhere are shrinking.
A. too much that B. enough to cause
C. to such an extent that D. so great an extent that
6. The authority is going to great lengths to _________ war on dangerous driving.
A. launch B. stage C. boot D. wage
7. During the rush hour, the traffic in big cities is _________.
A. devil B. crime C. fire D. murder
8. The problem with losing weight is that, if you succeed, all your clothes need to be
________.
A. taken in B. cut down C. decked out D. made down
9. In bas-relief sculpture, a design projects very slightly from its background, ______ some
coins.
A. as on B. with which C. outwith D. similarly
10. Shell decoration is an effective _________ for demonstrating artistic skills, especially in
Easter.
A. method B. means C. vehicle D. drive
11. It’s so unfortunate to have a boss who ________ all the time.
A. follows your nose B. breathes down your neck
C. keeps your temper D. draws your eyes
12. ______ are considered humorous is mainly due to his characters’ use of slang.
A. That Damon Ruyan’s stories B. Damon Ruyan’s stories, which
C. Damon Ruyan’s stories D. Because Damon Ruyan’s stories
13. A(n) ________ love of country lays the foundation for sustainable development and
complete harmony.
A. ingrained B. indelible C. abiding D. established
14. It is necessary that they _________ a bit and examine the history of the problem.
A. backfire B. backtrack C. backlash D. backwash
15. Demand for the product is expected to peak five years from now and then to _________.
A. taper off B. fall down C. set back D. drift away
16. Her comments cast a _______ on the integrity of his employees.
A. blot B. slur C. stain D. drag
17. To apply for this position, each candidate has to submit a ________ photo besides other
required documents.
A. full-bodied B. full-scale C. full-length D. full-fledged
18. During the early period of ocean navigation, __________ any need for sophisticated
instruments and techniques.
A. so that hardly B. when there hardly was
C. hardly was D. there was hardly
19. Although the task is basically a no-brainer, she’s making such a ________ weather of it.
A. heavy B. weighty C. stormy D. rough
20. Although colouring books for adults may raise a few eyebrows, more and more people
are seeking them ________ as a way to relax and de-stress.
A. up B. on C. by D. out
Part 2. Read the passage below which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the
corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes.
LINE TEXT
1 Sociologists believe groups form in two basic ways. One is through
2 social cohesion, in which is when people come together base on interpersonal
3 attraction, or in other words, when they admire one another’s personality traits.
4 On contrast, other groups form through social identity, which is centred round a
5 person’s social category. This involves economical status, profession, ethnicity,
6 and other such factors. Furthermore, with social identity, it is important for the
7 individual to include certain people from their group. First of all, they feel
8 distinctly different from other groups, which strengthens their own identity. A
 9 third, less common group, known as an emergent group, forms as opposed to
some type of sudden event, such as a disaster. Accordingly, these individuals
had no prior knowledge of each other and may not possess mutually attractive
personnel traits or sharing identities, they can form strong lasting bonds
nonetheless.
Part 3. Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in the spaces
provided below.
Dealing with phobias
Do you feel hysterical at the thought of spiders? Do you start to shake if you think that you might
have to touch cotton wool? It is estimated that between three to five million Britons suffer from such
phobias, and the majority of these people do not (l. GO) ___________ form of treatment. Most (2.
RATION) ___________ fears begin in the first instance as mild forms of (3. ANXIOUS) ___________
and only develop gradually into (4.BLOWN) ___________ phobias. They seem to be becoming
increasingly frequent in all sections of society - perhaps because with the expansion of technology,
people who are (5. CUSTOM) ___________ to controlling their (6.STYLE) ___________ with the push
of a button panic when things go wrong. Men are less likely to suffer from such fears than women, but
attempts by either men or women simply to (7. REGARD) ___________ them can exacerbate the
problem.
Nowadays, however, phobias can be treated. The easiest option is prescription drugs, which
effectively control the physical symptoms, but may have (8. DESIRE) ___________ side-effects. The
other option is behavioural therapy, in which you gradually learn to (9. COME) ___________ your fear
through facing up to it. This is a safe and lasting (10. ALTERNATE) ___________ to drug treatment.
C. READING
Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write
your answers in corresponding numbered boxes.
There can be no (1) ___________ that online shopping is of huge benefit to the consumer. Far
from becoming (2) ___________, online shoppers are very demanding. Overpriced merchants with poor
services should beware. Gone are the days when stores could charge what they liked for goods and get
away with it. The same, too, for shady manufacturers: smarter consumers know which products have a
good (3) ___________ and which do not, because online they now read not only the sales (4)
___________ but also reviews from previous purchasers. And if customers are disappointed, a few (5)
___________ of the mouse will take them to places where they can let the world know.
Nowadays there is nothing more damning than a flood of negative comments on the internet.
However, the big boys, as always, are ahead of the game. Some companies are already adjusting
their business models to take account of these trends. The stores run by Sony and Apple, for instance, are
more like brand showrooms than shops. They are there for people to try out (6) ___________ and to ask
questions to knowledgeable staff. Whether the products are ultimately bought online or offline is of
secondary importance.
 Online traders must also adjust. Amazon, for one, is (7) ___________ turning from being
primarily a bookseller to becoming a (8) ___________ retailer by letting other companies sell products
on its site, rather like a marketplace. During America’s Thanksgiving weekend last November, Amazon's
sales of consumer electronics in the United States (9) ___________ its book sales for the first time in its
history. Other transformations in the retail business are (10) ___________ to follow.
1. A. query B. examination C. question D. proposal
2. A. complacent B. dissatisfied C. competent D. compassionate
3. A. distinction B. resolution C. opinion D. reputation
4. A. bubble B. message C. blare D. blurb
5. A. taps B. clucks C. clicks D. prods
6. A. devices B. tools C. emblems D. schemes
7. A. mistakenly B. rapidly C. unreasonably D. secretly
8. A. mass B. block C. lump D. chunk
9. A. receded B. excluded C. repressed D. exceeded
10. A. tied B. secured C. bound D. fastened
Part 2. Read the following text and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in
corresponding numbered boxes.
Graffiti: Art or Vandalifm?
(1) __________ recently, spray-painting a wall would land you in jail, but these days even politicians are
associating with graffiti artists in an effort to gain popularity and internationally acclaimed artist Banksy,
(2) __________ works of art make millions has transformed the way the community views street art.
However, many still see (3) __________ as a crime, especially as the cost of removing grafitti from walls
runs (4) __________ millions of euros every year. Last May, members of a gang which had left a six-year
trail of destruction on trains as (5) __________ apart as Australia and Japan were jailed for eight months
(6) __________ pleading guilty to conspiracy to commit criminal damage. (7) __________ other form of
art has ever divided people so strongly, even (8) __________ the custom of leaving paintings on walls
goes back to the days of cave art. No one would imagine scraping cave drawings (9) __________ the
walls of a cave, and a thousand years from now children may find (10) __________ studying street artists
in school.
adapted from The Olive Press
your answers in corresponding numbered boxes.
How birds navigate during migration
Bird migration is one of the most interesting yet least understood natural phenomena. Every fall
birds from northern latitudes fly in groups to the warmer southern latitudes and then return north in the
spring. Scientists agree on the main reasons for migration: to follow the food supply and to avoid harsh
climate conditions. For example, insects disappear during the cold months, prompting insect-dependent
birds to fly south to warm areas where insects breed. No similar consensus has emerged, however, about
how birds are able to navigate. Despite many recent experiments, bird experts still do not know how birds
arrive at the same destination every year and then find their way back home in the spring.
Some have suggested that birds find their way by following landmarks, such as rivers and
mountain ranges. Experiments have confirmed that some species do follow such topographic features.
But that method cannot explain how some birds travel at night. Other studies show that some nocturnal
birds navigate by the stars. But that explanation cannot explain daytime migration or travel when the
skies are cloudy.
The most popular explanation currently is that birds are guided by Earth’s magnetic poles. The
mechanism by which that works has not yet been proved. One theory points to the fact that some birds’
brains contain magnetite, a naturally occurring magnetic compound consisting of iron oxide. Magnetite
has been found in many animals, including beds. With magnets embedded their brains, birds would be
able to sense the magnetic fields of the North and South Poles
A recent experiment with homing pigeons provided some evidence that magnetite does play a
crucial role in migration. Homing pigeons are known to have the ability to return to their homes after
being taken hundreds of miles away. Researchers found that they could train homing pigeons to recognize
changes in a magnetic field. When a surrounding magnetic field was normal, the birds would gather at
one end of a cage. But when the field’s polarity was altered, they hoped to the other end, suggesting that
they were detecting and responding to changes in the magnetic field.
Another theory has been offered to explain this sensitivity to magnetic poles, a theory that draws
upon quantum mechanics, which is the study of how particles move inside an atom. It relies on that fact
that electrons come in pairs that orbit the nucleus of an atom. The two electrons spin in opposite
directions, creating two magnets that neutralize each other. But when molecules split and react with other
molecules to form compounds, the electron pairs may no longer spin in opposite directions. Instead, they
may repel each other, as when two north ends of magnets are pressed together. The electrons struggle to
change direction in order to achieve a stable state in which the two electrons again neutralize each other,
giving off no magnetic field.
The theory is that these disturbed electron pairs are created in birds when they are exposed to
changes in light. The birds can sense the efforts of the electrons in trying to reach a condition of stability
because of the slight changes in the pull of the North and South Poles. In this way, the birds can detect
the direction of the poles while they are in flight.
In one experiment to confirm this effect, a group of European robins were tricked by artificial
light to believe that it was time for spring migration. The birds became eager to fly north. The changes in
light triggered the electron-pair movement described above exposing the robins to the magnetic field,
accompanying the electron pairs. The birds became disoriented and flew in all directions. The simulated
magnetic fields were much too weak to be detected by the birds' natural magnetite, suggesting to the
experimenters that the electron pairs, not the magnetite, were responsible for the birds' confused flying.
The current view, therefore, is that light plays an important role in guiding bird migration. This
may be why birds turn their heads from side to side before flying off. Their eyes are collecting the
surrounding light, which in turn allows them to process and analyze the existing magnetic fields and to
keep themselves pointed in the right direction.
1. According to paragraph 1, insects influence bird migration in which of the following ways?
A. Insects generate a magnetic field that birds can detect.
B. Insects provide a food supply that exists only in warm climates.
C. Birds follow the paths taken by flying insects.
D. Birds know when to migrate by a sudden increase in insect population.
2. The word some in the passage refers to
A. insects B. recent experiments C. bird experts D. birds
3. According to paragraph 3, birds can detect the magnetic fields of the North and South Poles because
A. they sense the motion of electron pairs
B. they can locate the poles by following landmarks
C. they ingest metal particles that are attracted by the poles
D. they have magnetite in their brains
4. The word embedded in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. implanted B. attached C. attracted D. activated
5. The author discusses homing pigeons in paragraph 4 in order to
A. provide an example of how humans can train birds
B. describe an experiment showing the importance of magnetite
C. show that homing pigeons return home by following landmarks
D. report homing pigeons’ behavior inside a cage
6. According to the passage, all of the following are theories about how birds navigate EXCEPT:
A. They follow landmarks like rivers and mountains.
B. They are guided by their position relative to the stars.
C. They feel vibrations in nerve endings in their brains.
D. They respond to changes in light
7. According to paragraph 4, the pigeons moved to the opposite end of a cage because
A. the magnetic field was normal
B. the magnetic field was stronger at one end
C. the magnetic field changed its polarity
D. the magnetic field was removed
8. The word altered in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. reversed B.canceled C. strengthened D. detected
9. Which of the following can be inferred about an electron pair in two north ends of magnets?
A. The two electrons spin in opposite directions.
B. One electron will move to the south end
C. One electron will be captured by the nucleus.
D. The two electrons spin in the same direction.
10. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence? Incorrect
answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
A. The bird’s failure to detect the magnetic fields led researchers to conclude that the electron pairs
caused the birds' confusion.
B. The birds’ failure to detect the electron pairs showed that their magnetite was the cause of their
disorientation.
C. Experimenters found that the electron pairs were stronger than the birds’ magnetite and helped them
find their destinations.
D. Magnetic fields that are triggered by artificial light are detected by the birds’ magnetite causing them
to fly in the right direction
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 4. Read the following text and do the tasks that follow.
Playing psychological games
A.
‘Psychological games’ is an approach to relationships that developed around the 1960s. It is a way of
looking at the interaction between people – identifying what seem to be fixed scripts in a seemingly
spontaneous conversation. One person says something which seems to elicit a certain type of response
from the other person, and the response seems to demand yet another particular response from the first
person. And on it goes, as if the two people were following a script that someone had written.
B
Games fall into a number of categories, ranging from the harmless to the destructive. Some harmless
games are even essential to social interaction - such as the 'Greeting Game' (‘Hello, how are you?’ “I'm
fine, how are you?”) and the “Thanks Game” (“Thank you for inviting me. I had a great time.”). Game
playing is expected in some situations. Everyone involved knows that it is a game, and what is expected.
A sales person plays a game of pleasing the prospective customer. Children play games with parents. In
cases like these, the game player creates an impression, saying things which are not sincere but are ways
and means of getting what they want. Other games, however, keep a relationship from developing to a
more real and important level. Still others can actually be destructive, as they are played by people with
deeper psychological needs and motivations for power, control or manipulation.
C
Some people set out to manipulate others for their own reasons. But others may not realize that they are
being manipulative. They are acting rather from an emotional script. Like a child that wants something,
and does all sorts of things to get it, some game players act from their own internal desires, not realizing
the effect their words and actions have on others.
D
A number of potentially damaging games have been identified. In the ‘Corner Game’ the manipulator
backs the other person into a corner – places them in a situation where anything they do is wrong. A
parent complains that their son or daughter’s room is never clean. Yet when the child tidies the room, the
parent says, “Why did it take you so long?” or “You haven’t tidied up inside the cupboard.” The ‘It’s
Your Decision Game’ is played by people who want to escape the responsibility of making a decision: “I
don’t mind. You decide.” Although actually very much concerned about the outcome of the decision, by
insisting they are not the game player forces the other person to take all responsibility for the
consequences of the decision.
E
Games may indicate a lack of confidence in the other person, an unwillingness to communicate with them
directly. In the most innocent cases, they are played in an attempt at politeness, or genuine concern for
the other's feelings (trying not to hurt them). However, even these well-intentioned games don't always
have a good end. They can make it impossible for an atmosphere of trust to be created.
F
At their worst, games are a way for an individual to retain power in a relationship, because their own
personal feelings are not revealed. The person who uses games to their own advantage needs to win a
game in order to have a sense of self-esteem - by harming someone else's self-confidence. Manipulators
range from Dictator (who always has to be in charge) to Nice Guy (who exaggerates care and love for
others, in order to get what he or she wants), to Protector (who is over- supportive or over-protective)
G
Some game players have so many psychological needs that fulfilling their desires overshadows
everything else in a relationship. For example, a person who needs to be the centre of attention may play
games in which they consistently take the role of someone who needs help, someone who is dependent
Sometimes people fall into games in a relationship because of the roles that they think they should be
playing. A young couple that accepts the traditional roles for men and women may assume that the
husband needs to defend his wife against criticism by his family, or that he will automatically make the
decisions about minor repairs on her car, even though in both cases the wife is perfectly capable of
looking after herself. Their exchange will fall into a kind of game, because they have restricted
themselves by their concept of the roles that they should play.
Task 1. The Reading Passage above has seven paragraphs A-G. From the list of headings below,
choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph. Write the appropriate numbers (i-x) in boxes 1-
6. Paragraph A has been done for you.

LIST OF HEADINGS
i. Towards a classification of games
ii. How the theory of games was developed
 iii. Feeling good by making others have doubts about themselves
iv. Being cautious towards other people
v. Games that create permanent relationships between people
vi. Game-playing - conscious or unconscious
vii. How a relationship can be dominated by games
viii. The type of people that game players look for
ix. Some examples of harmful games
x. A tool for understanding communication

Example:
0. Paragraph A ____ x________
1. Paragraph B______________ 2. Paragraph C _____________
3. Paragraph D ______________ 4. Paragraph E _____________
5. Paragraph F ______________ 6. Paragraph G _____________

Task 2: Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer in the reading passage? Write
YES if the statement reflects the claims of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
8. When people want a certain decision they will always make it themselves.
9. Games that show regard for other people can prevent trust from developing in the relationship.
10. Giving another person too much help may be a form of manipulation.
11. Avoiding social pressure to behave in certain ways is difficult for a young married couple.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
7. 8. 9. 10.
D. WRITING
Part 1. Rewrite each sentence using the word in brackets so that the meaning stays the same. You must
use between TWO and SIX words, including the word given.
1. When they started their trek, they had no idea how bad the weather would become. (OUTSET)
à Nobody realized how bad the weather would become.
2. The footballer injured his knee, so that was the end of his hopes of a first team place. (PAID)
à The footballer’s knee his hopes of a first team place.
3. I inherited this clock from my father and it belonged to his grandfather before that. (DOWN)
à This clock grandfather to my father and, in turn, to me.
4. It has been difficult for the children to accept their parents’ separation. (COME)
à The children are finding with their parents’ separation.
5. If Marc hadn’t taken up politics, he might have become a famous art historian. (NAME)
à If Marc hadn’t taken up politics, he might have himself as an art historian.
Part 2. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it.
1. Many creatures still survive and thrive in the harsh conditions of the deserts.
àHarsh ___________________________________________________________________.
2. She is prohibited from importing animal products for fear of spreading infectious diseases.
àLest .
3. We had to go home early from our holiday because of a strike threat from airport workers.
à We had to cut .
4. The thought passed through his mind and the decision was taken a moment later.
à The thought had no .
5. Nowadays I consider taking up a hobby to be far less important than I used to.
à Nowadays I don’t attach nearly .

TEST 9
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Exercise 1: Choose the best answer to complete each sentence.
1. I forgot my glasses so I'm as blind as a(n)_______.
A. bat B. owl C. racoon D. beaver
2. When a major disaster _________, the local Red Cross society coordinates the response.
A. hits B. strikes C. rises D. arrives
3. The university should not lay ______ its employees on the grounds of financial stringency.
A. out B. down C. away D. off
4. Graduates are expected to _____ a contribution to our society to promote democracy.
A. make B. take C. give D. hand
5. ______ the operation costs were rising so fast, the UN decided to reduce the personnel
by half.
A. Because B. If C. As if D. As a result
6. Their jealousy led them to commit deeds that they would come to regret _________.
A. painfully B. harshly C. heavily D. deeply
7. Jane was born with a ________ spoon in her mouth.
A. gold B. silver C. diamond D. bronze
8. We used to share a room at college, but we ______ apart over the years.
A. ran B. broke C. drifted D. distanced
9. It costs about thirty dollars to have a tooth ______.
A. filling B. to fill C. filled D. fill
10. Technical knowledge is of ______ importance for technical translation.
A. lively B. vibrant C. essential D. vital
11. The team turned ______ trumps in the final game and won the championship.
A. up B. out C. above D. over
12. I’d say let’s meet on Saturday but I’m none _____ sure what’s happening at the
weekend.
A. so B. very C. that D. too
13. We’ve seen it effects in many experiments, but there’s still a ________ chance it’s just
an illusion.
A. thin B. slim C. narrow D. restricted
14. The purpose of the survey was to ________ the inspectors with local conditions.
A. inform B. acquaint C. instruct D. notify
15. If you’d like to take a seat in the waiting room till the doctor can see you, you’ll find
plenty of magazines to browse _______.
A. over B. through C. in D. round
16. Peregrine _______ the rewards of his hard work when he was given the chair of classics.
A. grasped B. got C. reaped D. collected
17. The film traces the _______ of fascism in Europe.
A. debut B. rise C. introduction D. invention
18. She thinks that you started that rumor about her - that’s why she’s been giving you the
cold _______ all day.
A. shoulder B. look C. hand D. back
19. These measures have been taken _______ increasing the company’s profits.
A. Thanks to B. with a view to C. with a reason for D. for fear of
20. When we _______, we totally stop acting and moving.
A. fall down B. die out C. pass away D. go down

Exercise 2: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write their
correct forms in the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example.
One rain day in 2012, I ducked into my local library of shelter and, for some (0) rain => rainy
reason, started looking at wills. I found one written by a woman from Derby (1) ……………
who had disguised her as a man and gone off to fight – and die – in the first (2) ……………
world war. She had written her will phonetic, which made it easier for me to (3) ……………
read as I’m dyslexic. That was one reason why I connected with it. The other (4) ……………
was the phrase: “Blood swept lands and seas of red where angels fear to (5) ……………
tread.” It leapt out at me, made me to think about the war’s death toll. With a (6) ……………
bit of research, I discovered that there had been 888,246 British and Colonial (7) ……………
military fatality. (8) ……………
 I decided to represent that deaths through ceramic flowers, anything I had (9) ……………
first started making at university. Ceramics are transient and fragile, like we (10) …………..
are. They feel part of our very humane – societies have always been carbon-
dated by their ceramics and pottery. I considered making roses, which
symbolise sacrifice in Victorian times, but I settled on the poppy because of
its links to war and remembrance.
Exercise 3: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in
the column on the right.
Putting some fun into the workplace
In a study of 737 chief executives working in large corporations, the vast
(1)___________ gave the same answer when asked what kind of person they MAJOR
like to employ. Ninety-eight per cent said they would hire someone with a
cheerful attitude, (2)___________ with a good sense of humour. PREFER
Having fun at work apparently inspires (3)___________ in employees. A
survey of 1,000 workers showed how (4)___________ their manager’s sense of LOYAL
humour or lack of it was to the (5)___________ of time they stayed in a job. If SIGNIFY
they worked for a boss whose sense of humour they described as ‘below LONG
average’, the employee’s (6)___________ of staying dropped to seventy-seven
per cent compared to ninety per cent for a boss who had an ‘above average’
sense of humour. LIKELY
Laughter may be both (7)___________ and good for business but it isn’t
(8)___________ a positive aspect of all jobs. Some people working in retail
jobs are required to smile (9)___________. Such enforced happiness can cause BENEFIT
(10)___________ at work and also result in emotional stress. NECESSARY
CONTINUE
SATISFY

III. READING
Exercise 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each
gap. Write your answer in the numbered box.
Frescoes painting is the age-old technique which 1________ painting on a damp plaster
walls. It is known to have been used to decorate homes for at least 5000 years and has
probably existed in one form or another for 2________ longer. Its very nature makes it
3_________ for adorning large surfaces, which explains its 4_________in churches and
government buildings. 5___________ oil paintings, which are glossy and reflect light,
making it difficult to view them from certain angles, frescoes have a pleasing matte finish.
As fresco plaster bleaches relatively easily, artists do not use as wide a range of pigments as
in other types of painting, sticking mainly to pale earth 6_______.
Fresco painting is considered to have reached its 7__________ in Italy during the
Renaissance, with Michelangelo being perhaps the most famous artist to 8__________ this
technique. A great many churches in Europe 9__________ wonderful frescoes, while more
recently celebrated artists such as the renowned Mexican muralist Diego Rivera have used
the technique to great 10_________.
1. A. composes B. comprises C. involves D. consists
2. A. greatly B. noticeably C. perceptibly D. considerably
3. A. ideal B. pertinent C. relevant D. absolute
4. A. ubiquity B. universality C. preoccupation D. all-presence
5. A. On the contrary B. Unlike C. Conversely D. In reverse
6. A. tones B. tints C. shades D. hues
7. A. summit B. crest C. height D. top
8. A. operate B. enlist C. engage D. employ
9. A. demonstrate B. boost C. expose D. boast
10. A. result B. success C. effect D. reaction

Exercise 2: Read the following passage and fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word.
Write your answer in the numbered box.
Over the last century the world has become increasingly smaller. Not geographically, of
course, but in the sense that media, technology and the opening of borders has enabled the
world’s citizens to view, share and gain 1_________ to a much wider range of cultures,
societies and world views. In this 2________ pot that the world has become, today’s child
is privy 3_________ facets of the human experience that his immediate predecessors had
no inkling even existed. It 4____________ to reason that in order to absorb, configure and
finally form opinions about this information-laden planet, children must be supplied with
certain tools. 5____________ in this list of ‘tools’ are: education, social skills, cultural
awareness and the acquisition of languages, the most important of these being the latter.
Until recently, a child who had the ability to speak more than one language would have
been considered a very rare entity. 6___________ one-language phenomenon could be
attributed to a combination of factors. One of them is that the monolingual environment in
which a child was raised played a strong role, 7___________ did the limited, biased
education of the past. With regards to immigrants, the sad fact was that non-native parents
tended to withhold the teaching of the mother tongue so that the child would acquire the
more ‘prestigious’ language of the adopted country. Nowadays, the situation has
8___________ an almost complete reversal. In the majority of North American and
European countries, most children are given the opportunity to learn a second or
9__________ a third language. Children acquire these foreign languages through various
and diverse means. In many countries, learning a foreign language is a compulsory subject
in the state school curriculum. Other children rely on language schools or private tuition to
achieve their goal. In other instances, children are 10_________ to bilingual parents, who, if
they so desire, may teach the children two languages.

Exercise 3: Read the following passage and decide which option (A, B, C, or D) best answers each
question. Write your answer in the numbered box.
Deep in the Sierra Nevada, the famous General Grant giant sequoia tree is suffering its loss of stature in
silence. What once was the world's No. 2 biggest tree has been supplanted thanks to the most
comprehensive measurements taken of the largest living things on Earth.
The new No. 2 is The President, a 54,000-cubic-foot gargantuan not far from the Grant in Sequoia
National Park. After 3,240 years, the giant sequoia still is growing wider at a consistent rate, which may
be what most surprised the scientists examining how the sequoias and coastal redwoods will be affected
by climate change and whether these trees have a role to play in combating it.
"I consider it to be the greatest tree in all of the mountains of the world," said Stephen Sillett, a redwood
researcher whose team from Humboldt State University is seeking to mathematically assess the potential
of California's iconic trees to absorb planet-warming carbon dioxide.
The researchers are a part of the 10-year Redwoods and Climate Change Initiative funded by the Save the
Redwoods League in San Francisco. The measurements of The President, reported in the current National
Geographic, dispelled the previous notion that the big trees grow more slowly in old age.
It means, the experts say, the amount of carbon dioxide they absorb during photosynthesis continues to
increase over their lifetimes.
In addition to painstaking measurements of every branch and twig, the team took 15 half-centimeter-wide
core samples of The President to determine its growth rate, which they learned was stunted in the
abnormally cold year of 1580 when temperatures in the Sierra hovered near freezing even in the summer
and the trees remained dormant.
But that was an anomaly, Sillett said. The President adds about one cubic meter of wood a year during its
short six-month growing season, making it one of the fastest-growing trees in the world. Its 2 billion
leaves are thought to be the most of any tree on the planet, which would also make it one of the most
efficient at transforming carbon dioxide into nourishing sugars during photosynthesis.
"We're not going to save the world with any one strategy, but part of the value of these great trees is this
contribution and we're trying to get a handle on the math behind that," Sillett said.
After the equivalent of 32 working days dangling from ropes in The President, Sillett's team is closer to
having a mathematical equation to determine its carbon conversion potential, as it has done with some
less famous coastal redwoods. The team has analyzed a representative sample that can be used to model
the capacity of the state's signature trees.
More immediately, however, the new measurements could lead to a changing of the guard in the land of
giant sequoias. The park would have to update signs and brochures - and someone is going to have to
correct the Wikipedia entry for "List of largest giant sequoias," which still has The President at No. 3.
Now at 93 feet in circumference and with 45,000 cubic feet of trunk volume and another 9,000 cubic feet
in its branches, the tree named for President Warren G. Harding is about 15 percent larger than Grant,
also known as America's Christmas Tree. Sliced into one-foot by one-foot cubes, The President would
cover a football field.
Giant sequoias grow so big and for so long because their wood is resistant to the pests and disease that
dwarf the lifespan of other trees, and their thick bark makes them impervious to fast-moving fire.
It's that resiliency that makes sequoias and their taller coastal redwood cousin worthy of intensive
protections and even candidates for cultivation to pull carbon from an increasingly warming atmosphere,
Sillett said. Unlike white firs, which easily die and decay to send decomposing carbon back into the air,
rot-resistant redwoods stay solid for hundreds of years after they fall.
Though sequoias are native to California, early settlers traveled with seedlings back to the British Isles
and New Zealand, where a 15-foot diameter sequoia that is the world's biggest planted tree took root in
1850. Part of Sillett's studies involves modeling the potential growth rate of cultivated sequoia forests to
determine over time how much carbon sequestering might increase.
All of that led him to a spot 7,000 feet high in the Sierra and to The President, which he calls "the
ultimate example of a giant sequoia." Compared to the other giants whose silhouettes are bedraggled by
lightning strikes, The President's crown is large with burly branches that are themselves as large as tree
trunks.
The world's biggest tree is still the nearby General Sherman with about 2,000 cubic feet more volume
than the President, but to Sillett it's not a contest.
"They're all superlative in their own way," Sillett said.

1. The word "supplanted" in paragraph 1

A. means inquisitive
B. Has a double-meaning both as a pun on the topic of plants and a literal meaning of "to replace"
C. Is a synonym for "to plant again"
D. Has the same meaning as "to plant," with extra emphasis
2. One common myth about trees that The President helps disprove is
A. that giant sequoias are more resilient than other tree species
B. that old trees are as productive at photosynthesis as younger ones
C. that only giant sequoias may be named after historical figures
D. that large trees grow more slowly as they age
3. What is the primary benefit that Sillett and other researchers suggest that giant sequoias may have?
A. Their natural beauty can have health benefits for those who travel to wildlife preserves to see
them
 B. They represent centuries of natural history that no other living things do
C. Because of their size, they are able to process more carbon dioxide than other trees, which can
have significant benefits for the atmosphere
D. Their resilient bark may have eventual uses in human medicine.
4. The giant sequoias are compared to white firs to demonstrate that?
A. Even when the sequoias fall, they do not decay and so send less carbon into the air
B. White firs are more plentiful because they grow and decay more quickly than sequoias
C. The giant sequoias are completely resistant to death
D. White firs are essential because when they decompose they emit necessary nutrients
5. The President has grown every year EXCEPT
A. 1850
B. 2012
C.1580
D. The President has grown every year of its life
6. All of the following contribute to the lifespan of the giant sequoia EXCEPT
A. They are resistant to diseases that can affect other tree species
B. Their size makes them less vulnerable to animal attacks
C. They are resistant to pests that commonly inhabit trees
D. Their thick bark protects them from wildfires.
7. The term "changing of the guard" in Paragraph 10 means
A. The size rankings of various large sequoias is being reevaluated
B. Human security will be employed to protect these valuable trees
C. Wildlife parks will bring in new equipment to ensure the safety of the trees
D. A new schedule of shifts will be made for studying the trees
8. What does the term "cultivated sequoia forests" in Paragraph 14 imply?
A. Current sequoia reserves will be altered to grow in particular patterns
B. That sequoias may be specially grown in the future for the sole purpose of filtering carbon
from the air
C. New forests may be grown globally to promote the beauty of the species
D. Wildlife parks will make more of an effort in the future to direct visitors to the sequoia forests
9. Giant sequoias are native to California, but can also be found in
A. New Zealand B. France C. South America D. Australia
10. In the final sentence, the word "superlative" is closest in meaning to
A. Best of a species B. Most beautiful
C. The winner of a contest D. Having individual, unique merit
Exercise 4: Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow.
TOURISM
A Tourism, holidaymaking and travel are these days more significant social phenomena than most
commentators have considered. On the face of it there could not be a more trivial subject for a book. And
indeed since social scientists have had considerable difficulty explaining weightier topics, such as work
or politics, it might be thought that they would have great difficulties in accounting for more trivial
phenomena such as holidaymaking. However, there are interesting parallels with the study of deviance.
This involves the investigation of bizarre and idiosyncratic social practices which happen to be defined as
deviant in some societies but not necessarily in others. The assumption is that the investigation of
deviance can reveal interesting and significant aspects of normal societies. It could be said that a similar
analysis can be applied to tourism.
B Tourism is a leisure activity which presupposes its opposite, namely regulated and organised work. It is
one manifestation of how work and leisure are organised as separate and regulated spheres of social
practice in modern societies. Indeed acting as a tourist is one of the defining characteristics of being
‘modern’ and the popular concept of tourism is that it is organised within particular places and occurs for
regularised periods of time. Tourist relationships arise from a movement of people to, and their stay in,
various destinations. This necessarily involves some movement, that is the journey, and a period of stay
in a new place or places. ‘The journey and the stay’ are by definition outside the normal places of
residence and work and are of a short term and temporary nature and there is a clear intention to return
‘home’ within a relatively short period of time.
C A substantial proportion of the population of modern societies engages in such tourist practices new
socialised forms of provision have developed in order to cope with the mass character of the gazes of
tourists as opposed to the individual character of travel. Places are chosen to be visited and be gazed upon
because there is an anticipation especially through daydreaming and fantasy of intense pleasures, either
on a different scale or involving different senses from those customarily encountered. Such anticipation is
constructed and sustained through a variety of non-tourist practices such as films, TV literature,
magazines records and videos which construct and reinforce this daydreaming.
D Tourists tend to visit features of landscape and townscape which separate them off from everyday
experience. Such aspects are viewed because they are taken to be in some sense out of the ordinary. The
viewing of these tourist sights often involves different forms of social patterning with a much greater
sensitivity to visual elements of landscape or townscape than is normally found in everyday life. People
linger over these sights in a way that they would not normally do in their home environment and the
vision is objectified or captured through photographs postcards films and so on which enable the memory
to be endlessly reproduced and recaptured.
E One of the earliest dissertations on the subject of tourism is Boorstins analysis of the pseudo event
(1964) where he argues that contemporary. Americans cannot experience reality directly but thrive on
pseudo events. Isolated from the host environment and the local people the mass tourist travels in guided
groups and finds pleasure in inauthentic contrived attractions gullibly enjoying the pseudo events and
disregarding the real world outside. Over time the images generated of different tourist sights come to
constitute a closed self-perpetuating system of illusions which provide the tourist with the basis for
selecting and evaluating potential places to visit. Such visits are made says Boorstin, within the
environmental bubble of the familiar American style hotel which insulates the tourist from the
strangeness of the host environment.
F To service the burgeoning tourist industry, an array of professionals has developed who attempt to
reproduce ever-new objects for the tourist to look at. These objects or places are located in a complex and
changing hierarchy. This depends upon the interplay between, on the one hand, competition between
interests involved in the provision of such objects and, on the other hand changing class, gender, and
generational distinctions of taste within the potential population of visitors. It has been said that to be a
tourist is one of the characteristics of the modern experience. Not to go away is like not possessing a car
or a nice house. Travel is a marker of status in modern societies and is also thought to be necessary for
good health. The role of the professional, therefore, is to cater for the needs and tastes of the tourists in
accordance with their class and overall expectations.
Questions 1-5
Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below Write the
appropriate numbers (i-ix) in boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet.
Paragraph D has been done for you as an example.
NB. There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them You may use any heading
more than once.
List of Headings
i The politics of tourism
ii The cost of tourism
iii Justifying the study of tourism
iv Tourism contrasted with travel
v The essence of modern tourism
vi Tourism versus leisure
vii The artificiality of modern tourism
viii The role of modern tour guides
ix Creating an alternative to the everyday experience
1. Paragraph A
2. Paragraph B
3. Paragraph C
Example Answer
Paragraph D ix
4. Paragraph E
5. Paragraph F
Questions 6-10
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in the reading passage? In boxes 6-10
write :
YES if the statement agrees with the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
6. Tourism is a trivial subject.
7. An analysis of deviance can act as a model for the analysis of tourism.
8. Tourists usually choose to travel overseas.
9. Tourists focus more on places they visit than those at home.
10. Tour operators try to cheat tourists.
IV. WRITING
Exercise 1: Rewrite the sentences so that they have the same meaning as the ones before them.
1. We get on very well with our next door neighbor.
=> We are on ______________________________.
2. The last time we met each other was a fortnight ago.
=> It has been two ______________________________.
That makes me think of something that happened to me.
=> That brings ______________________________.
4. Apart from Philip, everyone else at the meeting was a Party member.
=> With the ____________________________, everyone else at the meeting was a Party member.
5. His arrival was completely unexpected.
=> His arrival took ______________________________.
Exercise 2: Rewrite the sentences using the words given so that they have the same meaning as the
ones before them. Do not change the words given.
1. Bill reckoned that his success was due to incredible luck. PUT
=> Bill ______________________________.
2. They’re faced with the choice of two alternatives. HORNS
=> They’re ______________________________.
3. I suddenly realized the meaning of a “freebie”. DAWNED
=> It ______________________________.
4. I feel certain that there will be a new government after the election. BOUND
=> In my opinion, there is ______________________________.
5. I didn’t realize how much she was influenced by her mother. EXTENT
=> I didn’t realize the ______________________________.

TEST 11
B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (50 pts)
Part I. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences. (20pts)
1. As it’s not out on DVD yet, we might ______ get it on video, I suppose.
A. also B. as well C. too D. and
2. I’m ______ my brother is.
A. nowhere like so ambitious B. nothing near as ambitious as
C. nothing as ambitious than D. nowhere near as ambitious as
3. The government was finally______ down by a minor scandal.
A. brought B. taken C. come D. pulled
4. It appears that the hostages were not______ to any unnecessary suffering.
A. subjugated B. subjected C. subsumed D. subverted
5. The incoming administration ______ to clean up corruption in the city.
A. pledged B. contemplated C. suggested D. resumed
6. The company has just got a big order and the workers are working round the ------.
A. day B. clock C. hour D. night
7. My brother Ted is a high school dropout who joined a circus; he is the black ------ in the family.
A. sheep B. dog C. cat D. goat
8. When James came home at three in the morning, his father hit the ------.
A. door B. chair C. table D. ceiling
9. Forget it. It is no use crying over ------ milk.
A. spoiled B. spilt C. lost D. stolen
10. Coin collecting is interesting, but you find a valuable coin only once in a blue ------.
A. moon B. sky C. star D. space
11. John got sick, then his brothers and sisters all got sick. It never rains but it ------.
A. fallsB. drops C. pours D. dries
12. Can you __________ to it that no one uses this entrance?
A ensure B guarantee C assure D see
13. Next year I hope to __________ my ambition of climbing Mont Blanc.
A complete B follow C realise D impose
14. We should all ___________ when advertisers attempt to use unfair practices.
A. make a stand B. make a dealC. make amends D. make a comeback
15. We were not _________ convinced by his arguments.
A. closely B. extremely C. entirely D. widely
16. I’m sure that never happened. It’s just a ______ of your imagination.
A. figment B. piece C. picture D. fantasy
17. Did you see Jonathan this morning? He looked like ______. It must have been quite a party last night.
A. a wet blanket B. a dead duck C. death warmed up D. a bear with a sore head
18. In the ______ of security, personnel must wear their identity badges at all time.
A. requirement B. demands C. assistance D. interests
19. I thought I had made it ______ that I didn’t wish to discuss this matter.
A. distinct B. plain C. frank D. straight
20. It's freezing outside so ______ to stay home and be warm.
A. we'd do well B. we might as well C. we'd better D. we're better off

Part II. Find out ten mistakes in the following passage then correct them. (10pts)
Water scarcity is fast becoming one of major limiting factors in world crop production. In many
areas, poor agricultural practices have led to increased desertification and the loss of former arable lands.
Consequently, those plant species are well adapted to survive in dry climates are being looked at for an
answer in developing more efficient crops to grow in marginally arable lands.
Plants use several purely mechanical and physical adaptations, such as the shape of the
Planet’s surface, small leaf size, and extensive root system. Some of adaptations are related with chemical
mechanism. Many plants such as cactuses, have internal gums which give them water retaining
properties. Another chemical mechanism is that of the epicuticular wax layer. This was layer acts like a
cover to protect the plant which prevents loss of internal moisture.

Part III. Read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end of some of the lines to form
a word that fits in the space in the same line. There is an example at the beginning (0). (10pts)

A recent poll on the use of animals in circuses showed that the (0. MAJOR) … MAJORITY… of people
in the UK now disapproves of it. Circuses which employ animals are no longer seen as a form of (1.
HARM) ……………….entertainment; in fact, most people think they should be banned outright. Eighty
percent of those interviewed (2. EQUIVOCAL) ……………………. declared that the use of endangered
wild animals such as elephants and tigers should be prohibited, while sixty-five percent said no animals
(3. WHAT) ……………………. should be used in circuses. A large proportion also claimed they were
opposed to the inevitable (4. BRUTAL) ……………..involved in training animals to perform tricks.
Animals in the wild do not juggle balls, ride monocycles, leap through (5. FIRE)………………… hoops
or wear clown costumes. Furthermore, besides being kept in (6. CONFINE) ……………………., circus
animals travel for most of the year, living a life of (7. DEPRIVE) ……………………. Unfortunately,
there is evidence to indicate that most animals face (8. TREAT) …………………….on a daily basis. The
number of people who visit animal free circuses these days is over twice the number of those who visit
traditional circuses. Animal free circuses are growing in number as well as (9. POPULAR)
……………………, and many say that the quality of the acts performed by humans far (10. EXCESS)
……………………. those acts that use animals.
C. READING COMPREHENSION (50 pts)
Part I. Read the text below and decide which answer best fits each space. (10 pts)
(1) ___________ popular belief, one does not have to be a trained programmer to work online. Of course,
there are plenty of jobs available for people with high-tech computer skills, but the growth of new media has (2)
___________up a wide range of Internet career opportunities requiring only a minimal level of technical (3)
___________. Probably one of the most well-known online job opportunities is the job of webmaster. However, it
is hard to define one basic job description for this position. The qualifications and responsibilities depend on what
tasks a particular organization needs a webmaster to (4) ___________.
To specify the job description of a webmaster, one needs to identify the hardware and software that the
website will manage to run (5) ___________. Different types of hardware and software require different skill sets
to manage them. Another key factor is whether the website will be running internally or externally. Finally, the
responsibilities of a webmaster also depend on whether he or she will be working independently, or whether the
firm will provide people to help. All of these factors need to be considered before one can create requiring (6)
___________ knowledge of the latest computer applications. (7) ___________, there are also online jobs available
for which traditional skills remain in high (8) ___________. Content jobs require excellent writing skills and a
good sense of the web as a "new media".
The term "new media" is difficult to define because it encompasses a (9) ___________ growing set of new
technologies and skills. Specifically, it includes websites, email, Internet technology, CD-ROM, DVD, streaming
audio and video, interactive multimedia presentations, e-books, digital music, computer illustration, video games,
(10) ___________ reality, and computer artistry.
1. A. Apart from B. Contrary to C. Prior to D. In contrast to
2. A. taken B. sped C. set D. opened
3. A. expertise B. master C. efficiency D. excellency
4. A. conduct B. perform C. undergone D. overtake
5. A. on B. over C. in D. with
6. A. built-in B. up-market C. in-service D. in-depth
7. A. However B. Therefore C. Moreover D. Then
8. A. content B. demand C. reference D. requirement
9. A. constantly B. continually C. increasingly D. invariably
10. A. fancy B. imaginative C. illusive D. virtual

Part II. Read the passage and fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. (15 pts)
My stay among the indigenous people of Africa turned out to be a mixture of both success and failure. I was
able to observe firsthand (1) __________ the people lived instead of relying on books or films. I was pleasantly
surprised to find out that they were genial people. They were friendly (2) ___________ me from the very first day
and they did not display any signs of hostility throughout my month long stay. I felt indignant (3)____________ I
thought of the terrible way they had always been (4) __________ in films and books. I felt (5)____________ for
them as they did not know how much others (6) __________ them.
However, my trip was not a (7) __________ of roses. I had been warned many times by my colleagues that
when I stay with a tribe, I had to do as the Romans do. I should not be afraid to try new things especially the food
that they (8) __________ delicacies. These were highly prized and only eaten on special (9)__________.
Unfortunately, I did not (10) __________ their advice and I gagged on a piece of meat that they offered me. They
looked offended and from that day, many of them were not as friendly as they used to be.

Part III. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each question. (10 pts)
HERBS AND DRUGS
Herbs are different kinds of plants and plant parts that can be used for medicinal purposes. This can include
the leaves, stems, roots, or seeds of the plant. Herbs have been important in traditional medicine for centuries, in
both of the East and the West. In Western medicine, they have largely been replaced by drugs. Herbal treatments
are, however, still an integral part of Eastern medicine. In recent years, interest in traditional medicine has
increased in the West. Many people are either using modern methods combined with traditional treatments or are
turning to these treatments entirely. While traditional medicine can be helpful, they are not without their share of
problems.
 The main difference between herbs and drugs is that, while herbs are simply parts of plants, drugs are
specific chemicals in a pure form. Many modern drugs are derived from chemicals found in plants. One example is
aspirin, which is made from a chemical extracted from the back of the willow tree. Other drugs are entirely
synthetic. Even those drugs that are derived from natural sources are heavily processed in order to purify and
concentrate them. This allows drugs to be administered in very precise amounts. Different kinds and degrees of
illnesses often require dosages that differ only slightly. A little too much or not enough of a certain drug can have
negative effects on the patient. Many drugs also produce negative effects even when taken in the recommended
dosage. These undesired negative effects are called “side-effects”
The possibility of dangerous and unexpected side-effects from drugs has led many people back to
traditional medicine. Herbal treatments seem more natural than modern drugs. Many feel that traditional medicine
is more concerned with treating the underlying causes of disease instead of just the symptoms, through the truth of
this claim is not yet clear. In any case, there is a certain comfort in taking natural herbal treatments instead of the
processed, synthetic chemicals derived from them.
There are, however, disadvantages to herbal treatments, some of them are serious. Few herbal treatments
have been scientifically studied. While the active chemicals in the herb may be known, it may not be clear what
they really do, or if they are really effective at all. Because the active chemicals are not used alone, it is very
difficult to determine the proper amount for treatment, since the levels of the chemical are not constant throughout
the plant. Therefore, the risk of under- and overdose is higher than with drugs. A more serious problem is that
certain herbal treatments may have no real medicinal effect, thus giving the patient a false sense of security. This is
particularly harmful when the patient refuses treatment with modern drugs that could be effective.
There are even certain herbs that can cause side-effects, just like a drug. (A) One of these is ma-huang, also
called ephedra, which is taken to increase energy. (B) It has been known to cause damage to the heart and nervous
system. Garlic and ginger are common elements in food that are also taken as herbal treatments, but they can be
dangerous for people with diabetes. (C) In general, herbs are most dangerous when they are taken along with
common drugs. This may happen in two ways: a patient decides to supplement his or her regular treatment with
herbs, or a dishonest manufacturer adds modern drugs to an herbal treatment. (D) In both cases, the results can be
very serious. The herb St. John’s wort is often used to treat depression, but if it is used along with conventional
antidepressants, such as Zoloft, the combination can cause confusion, headaches, allergic reactions, and other
problems.
Finally, because production of herbal treatments is seldom regulated, harmful substances can be present in
herbal preparations. Herbs grown in polluted soil may contain lead, arsenic, or mercury. They may also be tainted
with pesticides. It is for these reasons that herbs should not be treated as the perfect substitute for drugs. Although
herbs appear to be quite distinct from modern drugs, it is important to use them with the same sort of care.

1. The word “integral” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to

A. harmful. B. important. C. famous. D. controversial.
2. Which of the following is closest in meaning to “tained” in paragraph 6?
A. Accompanied. B. Augmented. C. Substituted. D. Contaminated.
3. The word “this” in paragraph 4 line 8 refers to
A. patients taking ineffective herbs instead of drugs.
B. patients having a sense of security.
C. the risk of under and overdose of an herbal treatment.
D. the patient’s belief that modern drugs are bad for you.

4. Why does the author mention that drugs are heavily processed?
A. To show that herbs cannot compete with modern medical techniques.
B. Because many mistakes can occur in this processing.
C. To illustrate that drugs are not natural.
D. To point out that many countries cannot afford to produce drugs.
5. What is the main difference between herbs and drugs according to the passage?
A. Drugs can cause side-effects, whereas herbs do not.
B. Drugs are at least partially synthetic, whereas herbs are natural.
C. Herbs are dangerous when taken in large amounts, drugs are safer.
 D. Herbs can produce a false sense of security, whereas drugs do not.
6. According to the passage, when are herbs most dangerous?
A. When not taken under a doctor’s supervision.
B. When the patient refuses modern medicine.
C. When the dosage is not administered precisely.
D. When taken in combination with drugs.
7. According to the passage, who should not take ginger or garlic as herbal treatments?
A. Patients with diabetes.
B. Patients with liver damage.
C. Patients taking antidepressants.
D. Patients with problems of the heart or nervous system.
8. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Some herbal treatments are not effective in fighting disease.
B. Modern doctors often do not approve of using herbs.
C. Herbal treatments can also produce side-effects.
D. Some manufacturers add drugs to herbs.
9. It can be inferred from the passage that.
A. The drug industry is better regulated than the herb industry.
B. People who use drugs instead of herbs recover more quickly.
C. The popularity of herbal treatments will decrease in the future.
D. The side-effects of drugs are more serious than those of herbs.
10. Where the following sentence could be added to paragraph 5:
“Certain herbs have also been known to be harmful for people suffering from asthma.”
A. (A) B. (B) C. (C) D . (D)

Part IV. Read the passage and do the tasks that follow. (15 pts)
Secrets of the Forest
A. In 1942 Allan R.Holmberg, a doctoral student in anthropology from Yale University, USA, ventured deep into
the jungle of Bolivian Amazonia and searched out an isolated band of Siriono Indians. The Siriono, Holmberg later
wrote, led a "strikingly backward" existence. Their villages were little more than clusters of thatched huts. Life
itself was a perpetual and punishing search for food: some families grew manioc and other starchy crops in small
garden plots cleared from the forest, while other members of the tribe scoured the country for small game and
promising fish holes. When local resources became depleted, the tribe moved on. As for technology, Holmberg
noted, the Siriono "may be classified among the most handicapped peoples of the world". Other than bows, arrows
and crude digging sticks, the only tools the Siriono seemed to possess were "two machetes worn to the size of
pocket knives".
B. Although the lives of Siriono have changed in the intervening decades, the image of them as Stone Age relics
has endured. Indeed, in many respects the Siriono epitomize the popular conception of life in Amazonia. To casual
observers, as well as to influential natural scientists and regional planners, the luxuriant forests of Amazonia seem
ageless, unconquerable, a habitat totally hostile to human civilization. The apparent simplicity of Indian ways of
life has been judged an evolutionary adaptation to forest ecology, living proof that Amazonial could not - and
cannot - sustain a more complex society. Archaeological traces of far more elaborate cultures have been dismissed
as the ruins of invaders from outside the region, abandoned to decay in the uncompromising tropical environment.
C. The popular conception of Amazonia and its native residents would be enormously consequential if it were true.
But the human history of Amazonia in the past 11,000 years betrays that view as myth. Evidence gathered in recent
years from anthropology and archaeology indicates that the region has supported series of indigenous cultures for
eleven thousand years; an extensive network of complex societies - some with populations perhaps as large as
100,000 - thrived there for more than 1,000 years before the arrival of Europeans. (Indeed, some contemporary
tribes, including the Siriono, still live among the earthworks of earlier cultures.) Far from being evolutionarily
retarded, prehistoric Amazonian people developed technologies and cultures that were advanced for their time. If
the lives of Indians today seem "primitive", the appearance is not the result of some environmental adaptation of
ecological barrier; rather it is a comparatively recent adaptation to centuries of economic and political pressure.
Investigators who argue otherwise have unwillingly projected the present onto the past.
D. The evidence for a revised view of Amazonia will take many people by surprise. Ecologists have assumed that
tropical ecosystems were shaped entirely by natural forces and they have focused their research on habitats they
believe have escaped human influence. But as the University of Florida ecologist, peter Feinsinger, has noted, an
approach that leaves people out the equation is no longer tenable. The archaeological evidence shows that the
natural history of Amzonia is to a surprising extent tied to the activities of its prehistoric inhabitants.
The realization comes none too soon. In June 1992 political and environmental leaders from across the world met
in Rio de Janeiro to discuss how developing countries can advance their economies without destroying their natural
resources. The challenge is especially difficult in Amazonia. Because the tropical forest has been depicted as
ecologically unfit for large-scale human occupation, some environmentalists have opposed development of any
kind. Ironically, one major casualty of that extreme position has been the environment itself. While policy makers
struggle to define and implement appropriate legislation, development of the most destructive kind has continued
apace over vast areas.
F. The other major casualty of the "naturalism" of environmental scientists has been the indigenous Amazonians,
whose habits of hunting, fishing, and slash-and-burn cultivation often have been represented as harmful to the
habitat. In the clash between environmentalists and developers, the Indians, whose presence is in fact crucial to the
survival of the forest, have suffered the most. The new understanding of the pre-history of Amazonia, however,
points toward a middle ground. Archaeology makes clear that with judicious management selected parts of the
region could support more people than anyone thought before. The long-buried past, it seems, offers hope for the
future.
Questions 1-4
Choose the most suitable headings (i-vi) for sections A, B, C and D
List of Headings
i. Amazonia as unable to sustain complex societies
ii. The role of recent technology in ecological research in Amazonia.
iii. The hostility of the indigenous population to North America influences
iv. Recent evidence
v. The influence of prehistoric inhabitants on Amazonian natural history.
1. Section A_______
2. Section B_______
3. Section C_______
4. Section D_______
Question 5-10
Do the following statements agree with the view of the writer of the passage? Please write
Yes If the statement agrees with the view of the writer
No If the statement contradicts the view of the writer
Not given If it is impossible to say what the writer think about this
5. The reason for the simplicity of the Indian way of life is that Amazonian has always been unable to support a
more complex society. _________________
6. There is a crucial popular misconception about the human history of Amazonia. ______________
7. There are lessons to be learned from similar ecosystem in the other parts of the world. ___________
8. Most ecologists were aware that the areas of Amazonia they were working in had been shaped by human
settlement. _____________
9. The indigenous Amazonian Indians are necessary to the well-being of the forest. ______________
10. It would be possible for certain parts of Amazonia to support a higher population. _____________

D. WRITING (50 pts)

Part I. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it stays the same meaning to the first one,
using the word given. Do not change the word given. (10pts)
1. Don't panic about something so trivial. MOUNTAIN
_______________________________________________________________________
2. I suddenly realized the meaning of a "freebie". DAWNED
_______________________________________________________________________
3. They arrived at their destination alive and kicking. SOUND
_______________________________________________________________________
4. My jewellery has been stolen. OFF
_______________________________________________________________________
5. This is a subject that Jack and I disagree about. EYE
_______________________________________________________________________

Part II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word
given. Do not change the word given. You must use between three and six words, including the word given.
There is an example at the beginning (0). (10pts)
0. He paid no attention to our warning.
NOTICE
He ……… took no notice of …………. our warning.
1. I’m not sure which year saw the abolition of capital punishment in this country.
DID
I’m not sure when they ……………………………………………………………… capital punishment in this
country.
2. I wish I hadn’t said that to her.
TAKE
If only ………………………………………………………………I said to her.
3. If children were allowed to do what they wanted, they would probably play computer games all day.
OWN
If children were ……………………………………………………………… they would probably play
computer games all day.
4. If Tom hadn’t acted promptly to extinguish the fire, there might have been more damage to the house.
IN
But ……………………………………………………………… out the fire, there might have been more
damage to the house.
5. Initially, everybody believed his story but now they think he was lying.
UP
He is now ……………………………………………………………… the story.

TEST 12
II: Grammar& Vocabulary
Part 1: Choose the best option to complete each of the following questions.
1. I’m sure there’s a definite __________ of envy in her nasty comments about you.
A. factor B. ingredient C. component D. element
2. In the ___________ of just two days, her whole life changed.
A. interval B. space C. spell D. duration
3. The thieves took ___________ when they heard a police car approaching.
A. retreat B. flight C. escape D. getaway
4. Afterwards, when I ___________ on the events of that day, I could hardly believe what had happened.
A. contemplated B. reviewed C. reflected D. weighed
5. There was a huge ___________ of applause when the star of the show appeared.
A. bout B. stint C. round D. spate
6. As he accepted the award, his voice ___________ with emotion.
A. quivered B. flinched C. cringed D. winced
7. Rose has always had a ___________ interest in matters to do with the environment.
A. fierce B. sharp C. grave D. keen
8. By the ___________ of it, the economy will improve over the next few months.
A. face B. impression C. evidence D. look
9. Tim and Alan have never got on well and there is a lot of ___________ feeling between them.
A. cross B. adverse C. ill D. vile
10. Peter has now arrived late for work three days in a ___________ .
A. line B. sequence C. series D. row
11. Harry doesn’t ___________ to great fame and fortune; he just wants to make a decent living.
A. crave B. hanker C. yearn D. aspire
12. A lot of people are ___________ to the damage that is being done to the environment.
A. blind B. unacquainted C. uninitiated D. ignorant
13. She showed little ___________ of the problems we were facing.
A. affinity B. appreciation C. regard D. sensitivity
14. This is the ___________ timetable for the conference – it may change later.
A. conditional B. provisional C. indeterminate D. indefinite
15. They worked for six ___________ hours without a break.
A. solid B. incessant C. perpetual D. constant
16. I wrote to them a fortnight ago but ___________ I haven’t had a reply.
A. as yet B. so long C. just now D. these days
17. I couldn’t stop myself from ___________ with boredom during the lecture.
A. sighing B. panting C. blowing D. gasping
18. She didn’t show even a ___________ of emotion when the court found her guilty.
A. wink B. flicker C. flash D. gleam
19. The manager’s future ___________ whether the team wins or loses this one game.
A. stems from B. derives from C. counts on D. rests on
20. Sam has always taken the ___________ that there is more to life than money.
A. view B. outlook C. belief D. opinion
Part 2: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in the column on the
right.
When Bryan Ferry recorded his solo album, Another Time,
Another Place, in 1974, he was an apparently unstoppable, 1. ________ 1. __________________
(EXHAUST) creative force. His band, Roxy Music, was barely two 2. __________________
years old. During a brief and 2. ________ (METEOR) ascent, the band 3. __________________
had released three albums and, under Ferry’s close 3. ________ (ART) 4. __________________
guidance, refashioned the rock’n roll experience as a 4. ________ 5. __________________
(WEIRD) costumed trip around some 5. ________ (FUTURE) archive. 6. __________________
6. ________ (WHERE) between global engagements with Roxy music, 7. __________________
Ferry had found time to launch a solo career seemingly dedicated to 7. 8. __________________
________ (HONOR) the songs he grew up listening to. 9. __________________
Nowadays, albums of old hits (cover versions) are a standard 10. __________________
career ploy, but back in 1973 such retrospective dalliance was simply
not the done thing amongst rock musicians. Neither was posing for your
sleeve photo in full evening dress, like a posh matinee idol from the
1940s. But 8. ________ (LOOSE) the iron grip of 9. ________
(CONFORM) rock behavior was 10. ________ (PRECISION) Ferry’s
point, and he had more than enough musical wit and wisdom to back up
these outlandish postures.
Part 3: Correcting mistakes: The passage below contains 10 errors. Underline and correct them. Write your
answers in the space provided on the right.
Tourism is now among the world’s most important industries,
generate jobs and profits worth billions of pounds. At the same time, 1.___________________
however, mass tourism can have dire effects on the people and places 2. __________________
they embraces – both tourists and the societies and human environments 3.___________________
they visit. We are increasingly familiar with some of the worst effect of 4. __________________
unthinking, unmanaged, sustainable tourism: previous undeveloped 5. __________________
coastal villages that have become sprawling, charmless towns, their seas 6. __________________
poisonous by sewage, denuded of wildlife, their beaches stained by litter 7. __________________
and empty tubes of sun cream. Historic towns, their streets now choking 8. __________________
with traffic, their temples, churches and cathedrals seemingly reduced to 9. __________________
 backdrop for holiday snaps that proclaim, “Been there, Done that”. Some 10. _________________
of the world’s richest environments were bruised by the tourist onslaught,
their most distinctive wildlife driven to near-extinction, with wider
environmental impacts caused by the fuel-hungry transport systems used
to take holidaying travelers around the world and back again.

III. READING.
Part 1. For each gap, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D which best fits the context.
Nature’s clock
Our biological clocks govern almost every aspect of our life. Our sensitivity to stimuli (1) _______ over the
course of the day, and our ability to perform certain functions is subject to fluctuations. Consequently, there is an
(2) _______ time for tasks such as making decisions: around the middle of the day. Anything that (3) _______
physical co-ordination, on the other hand, is best attempted in the early evening. What is more, there is a dramatic
drop in performance if these activities are carried out at other times. The risk of accident in a factory, for example,
is 20% higher during the night (4) _______.
Primitive humans lived their lives in tune with the daily cycle of light and dark. Today we are firmly
convinced that we can (5) _______ schedules on our life at (6) _______. Sooner or later, however, we pay a (7)
_______ for ignoring our natural rhythms. A good example is jet lag, caused when we confuse our body’s
biological clocks by crossing several time (8) _______. People suffering from jet lag can take several days to
adjust to new environments, and have a reduced ability to make decisions, which is a worrying thought, as serious
(9) _______ of judgement can be made. And this may be just the (10) _______ of the iceberg.
Question 1: A. modifies B. ranges C. varies D. wavers
Question 2: A. peak B. optimum C. maximum D. summit
Question 3: A. requests B. demands C. dictates D. stipulates
Question 4: A. shift B. labor C. duty D. work
Question 5: A. blame B. base C. emphasize D. impose
Question 6: A. stake B. best C. most D. will
Question 7: A. price B. fine C. fee D. cost
Question 8: A. warps B. trials C. spans D. zones
Question 9: A. errors B. inaccuracies C. mistakes D. fallacies
Question 10: A. peak B. pinnacle C. top D. tip
Part 2: Fill in each blank in the following passage with ONE suitable word.
Evolution and children
If we are asked to envisage an archetypal human 1. ________, the picture that comes into our minds may be
male or female. It may be black, white or yellow, but it will almost certainly be an adult. We take it for granted that
2. ________ is the meaningful part of our existence, and everything prior to it is merely preparation. The old
adage quoted by Samuel Butler is often 3. ________ but has not yet been fully assimilated: “A hen is an egg's way
of making another 4. ________.” It is very difficult for any of us to think of 5. ________ as a baby's way of
making another baby.
So there is a tendency in discussions about human evolution to overlook the fact that at every step of the
journey there were not only males and females, but also babies, infants and children, and 6. ________ selection
would never have favoured one age group at too great a cost to 7. ________ of the others.
8. ________ children as smaller, imperfect copies of ourselves, we explain much of their behaviour in the
way we explain the rough-and-tumble play of cubs and kittens, calling it “preparation for adult life” or “developing
the skills that they will later need.” That is strange, because it is one of the inviolable tenets of evolutionary theory
that what an animal is or 9. ________ is governed by events that have happened, 10. ________ events that are
going to happen. Only in describing the young is it acceptable to believe that a mammal's behaviour is governed by
the future that awaits it, rather than the history that lies behind it.
Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question.
When one hears the expression “role models”, one’s mind naturally jumps to celebrities, especially as far as young
people are concerned. Therefore, it would be more than natural to assume that teenagers, heavily influenced by the
media, are dazzled by well-known Hollywood stars, famous musicians and internationally renowned athletes.
However, nothing could be further from the truth.
In reality, according to a recent survey, over 75% of teens who filled out an online questionnaire claimed that the
role model for whom they had the greatest respect was not a famous personality, but a family member. It seems
that the qualities that make a good role model are more complex than researchers first assumed. For example,
Nancy L, a teenage girl from Wisconsin, described her role model as a woman who had a clear sense of what was
important to her, making the effort to create things that would make a real difference in the world. The woman she
was referring to was her favorite aunt, who was a painter and sculptor.
Role models come into young people’s lives in various ways. They are family members, educators, peers and
ordinary people encountered in their daily lives. Students emphasized that being a role model is not confined to
those with international fame or unbelievable wealth. Instead, they said the greatest attribute of a role model is the
ability to inspire others. Teachers were often mentioned as examples in this case, ones that are dedicated to
encouraging students, helping them push their limits and strengthen their characters.
Another quality high on the list was the ability to overcome obstacles. In addition to parents, peers often made up a
large percentage of such role models. Young people are at a point in their lives when they are developing the skills
of initiative and capability, so it is only natural that they admire people who show them that success in the face of
difficulty is possible.
A final and perhaps unexpected character trait that the youth of today admire is a clear set of values. Children
admire people whose actions are consistent with their beliefs; in other words, who practice what they preach. Role
models help them to understand the significance of honesty, motivation and the desire to do general good. For
example, local politicians who clearly struggle to improve living conditions in their cities are high on their lists of
role models.
Perhaps what should be understood from what young people consider important in a role model is that each and
every person around them affects them to a certain extent, perhaps much more than most parents think. This makes
it crucial for adults to be aware of their influence on the young and set the best examples possible.
Question 1: Which of the following is closest in meaning to “dazzled”?
A. impressed B. disappointed C. confused D. frightened
Question 2: Which of the following is LEAST likely to be assumed as teens’ role model?
A. A handsome actor B. A talented footballer
C. A hot popstar D. A brilliant scientist
Question 3: What is surprising about the findings of the survey?
A. Celebrities are the most common role models to most teens.
B. The role models of the respondents are not quite influential.
C. The qualities that make up teens’ role models are not simple.
D. Most celebrities have their family members as role models.
Question 4: What does the passage tell us about Nancy L’s role model?
A. She was not related to her. B. She was famous for her talent.
C. She was a mysterious person. D. She had strong priorities.
Question 5: Which of the following is closest in meaning to “confined to”?
A. assisted by B. restricted to C. similar to D. influenced by
Question 6: According to the passage, what quality makes teachers good role models?
A. their ambition to succeed B. their wide knowledge
C. their ability as academic educators D. their positive effect on students
Question 7: The ability to overcome obstacles is important to young people because ______.
A. teens must have it to teach their peers
B. it is not something that one can easily find
C. obstacles make life more difficult
D. it is relevant to the stage of life they are in
Question 8: According to paragraph 5, children really look up to those who _______.
A. are as active as possible B. do what they say they will do
C. pay attention to the needs of the young D. are religious in their life
Question 9: According to the passage, some politicians are considered admirable ______.
A. because they are familiar to young people
B. because of the strong power they have
C. because of their concern for others
D. because they believe in themselves
Question 10: The passage suggests that adults should ______.
A. try to avoid imposing their influence on younger people
B. realize that they have a strong effect on young people
C. be careful of the role models their children may have
D. encourage children to reject celebrities as role models

Part 4: Read the following passage and answer the questions.

Questions 1-13 which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.
The Life of Sir Isaac Newton
A
Isaac Newton was born on January 4, 1643, in Lincolnshire, England. The son of a farmer, who died three months
before he was born, Newton spent most of his early years with his maternal grandmother after his mother
remarried. Following an education interrupted by a failed attempt to turn him into a farmer, he attended the King’s
School in Grantham before enrolling at the University of Cambridge’s Trinity College in 1661, where he soon
became fascinated by the works of modern philosophers such as René Descartes. When the Great Plague shut
Cambridge off from the rest of England in 1665, Newton returned home and began formulating his theories on
calculus, light and color, his farm the setting for the supposed falling apple that inspired his work on gravity.
B
Newton returned to Cambridge in 1667. He constructed the first reflecting telescope in 1668, and the following
year he received his Master of Arts degree and took over as Cambridge’s Professor of Mathematics. In 1671 he
was asked to give a demonstration of his telescope to the Royal Society of London in 1671, the same year he was
elected to the prestigious Society. The following year, fascinated with the study of light, he published his notes on
optics for his peers. Through his experiments, Newton determined that white light was a composite of all the colors
on the spectrum, and he asserted that light was composed of particles instead of waves. His methods were heavily
criticized by established Society member Robert Hooke, who was also unwilling to compromise again with
Newton’s follow-up paper in 1675. Known for his temperamental defense of his work, Newton engaged in heated
correspondence with Hooke before suffering a nervous breakdown and withdrawing from the public eye in 1678.
In the following years, he returned to his earlier studies on the forces governing gravity.
C
In 1684, English astronomer Edmund Halley paid a visit to the reclusive Newton. Upon learning that Newton had
mathematically worked out the elliptical paths of celestial bodies, such as the movement of the planets around the
sun, Halley urged him to organize his notes. The result was the 1687 publication of “Philosophiae Naturalis
Principia Mathematica” (Mathematical Principles of Natural Philosophy), which established the three laws of
motion and the law of universal gravity. Principia made Newton a star in intellectual circles, eventually earning
him widespread acclaim as one of the most important figures in modern science.
D
As a now influential figure, Newton opposed King James II’s attempts to reinstate Catholic teachings at English
Universities, and was elected to represent Cambridge in Parliament in 1689. He moved to London permanently
after being named warden of the Royal Mint in 1696, earning a promotion to master of the Mint three years later.
Determined to prove his position wasn’t merely symbolic, Newton moved the pound sterling from the silver to the
gold standard and sought to punish forgers.
E
The death of Hooke in 1703 allowed Newton to take over as president of the Royal Society, and the following year
he published his second major work, “Opticks.” Composed largely from his earlier notes on the subject, the book
detailed Newton’s experiments with refraction and the color spectrum, and also contained his conclusions on such
matters as energy and electricity. In 1705, he was knighted by Queen Anne of England.
F
Around this time, the debate over Newton’s claims to originating the field of calculus, the mathematical study of
change, exploded into a nasty dispute. Newton had developed his mathematical concept of ‘fluxions’ (differentials)
in the mid-1660s to account for celestial orbits, though there was no public record of his work. In the meantime,
German mathematician Gottfried Leibniz formulated his own theories and published them in 1684. As president of
the Royal Society, Newton oversaw an investigation that ruled his work to be the founding basis of the field, but
the debate continued even after Leibniz’s death in 1716. Researchers later concluded that both men likely arrived at
their conclusions independent of one another.
G
Newton was also obsessed with history and religious doctrines, and his writings on those subjects were collected
into multiple books that were published after his death. Having never married, Newton spent his later years living
with his niece at Cranbury Park, near Winchester, England. He died on March 31, 1727, and was buried in
Westminster Abbey. A giant even among the brilliant minds that drove the Scientific Revolution, Newton is
remembered as an extraordinary scholar, inventor and writer. His theories about the movement of bodies in the
solar system transformed our understanding of the universe and his precise methodology helped to give birth to
what is known as the scientific method. Although his theories of space-time and gravity were eventually
superseded by those of Einstein his work remains the foundation stone of modern physics was built.

Questions 1-6
The text has seven paragraphs labelled A–G.
Reading passage 1 has seven paragraphs, A-G.
Choose the correct headings for paragraphs B-G from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number, i-viii, in boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i Continued breakthroughs in research
ii Competing claims of originality
iii The early years of Sir Isaac Newton
iv The legacy of an exceptional mind
v Routine life at a 17th century university
vi Heated academic disputes
vii A new venture
viii His crowning achievement
ix A controversial theory about planets
Answer Example
iii Paragraph A
1 Paragraph B
2 Paragraph C
3 Paragraph D
4 Paragraph E
5 Paragraph F
6 Paragraph G

Questions 7-8
Answer the questions below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer
Write your answers in boxes 7-8 on your answer sheet.
7 With which scientific organization was Newton associated for much of his career?.....
8 With whom did Newton live as he got older?......

Questions 9-13
Complete the notes below.
Choose ONE WORD from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 9-13 on your answer sheet.

Sir Isaac Newton’s achievements

 Created first reflecting 9………………….., subsequently made a professor at Cambridge at the age of 25.
 Helped develop the scientific method with his experiments in 10……………………, the study of light;
showed that it is 11………………….., not waves, that constitute light.
  Worked out the laws of the movement of bodies in space (planets etc.), published Principia Mathematica
with laws of gravity and 12……………………..
 Joint founder (with Leibniz) of 13……………………., a new branch of mathematics.

IV. WRITING:
Part 1: A. For each of the sentence below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original
sentence using the word given. This word must not be altered in any way.
1. David played the main role when the proposal was drafted. (instrumental)
David _____________________________ of the proposal.
2. If you hadn't changed our original agreement, everything would have been fine. (stuck)
Had _________________________________ agreed, everything would have been fine.
3. I think you should have some consideration for those who don't have lives as privileged as yours. (spare)
I think you should ________________________ lives aren't as privileged as yours.
4. We decided to stay for longer because we were so thrilled by the place. (prolong)
We decided to __________________________________ we by the place.
5. Competitors were amazed by how shrewdly he conducted his business affairs. (marveled)
Competitors ____________________________ which he conducted his business affairs.
B. For each of the sentence below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original
sentence.
1. There are plans to close down the cinema due to poor attendance levels.
The cinema is under _____________________________ due to poor attendance levels.
2. The machine looks dangerous, but I'll believe it's safe if you say so.
The machine doesn't look safe, but I’ll take _____________________________ it.
3. Once signed, this contract is binding.
As soon as you sign, you ___________________________ this contract.
4. Looking back, I really believe I did everything I could to stop her.
I can honestly say, with hindsight, _________________________________ more to stop her.
5. She has become a famous novelist.
She has made ____________________________________ a novelist.

TEST 13
B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points)
Part 1: Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and write your answers in
the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points)
1. I’m afraid that the herring we had for dinner has given me _______.
A. sickness B. indisposition C. infection D. indigestion
2. This lime juice needs _______ before you can drink it.
A. diluting B. dissolving C. softening D. watering
3. It must be true. I heard it straight from the _______ mouth.
A. dog’s B. horse’s C. camel’s D. cat’s
4. The facilities at many schools today are still _______ inadequate.
A. sadly B. woefully C. regrettably D. grimly
5. His laziness at work made him _______ with his workmate.
A. improper B. disliked C. unpopular D. unappealing
6. Although he’s shy, it certainly hasn’t _______ his career in any way.
A. restricted B. obstructed C. cramped D. impeded
7. She used the map to discover where she was in _______ to her surroundings.
A. connection B. affinity C. relation D. reference
8. You can’t always depend on _______ on time.
A. the trains’ arriving B. the trains to arrive
C. the arriving of trains D. the train that arriving
9. You’d _______ that clock fixed; it hasn’t worked for over a week now.
A. rather have B. better have C. rather had D. have
10. The picking of the fruit, _______, takes about a week.
A. whose work they receive no money.
B. as they receive no money for that work
C. for which work they receive no money
D. they receive no money for it
11. If I don’t write you a note to say you have a doctor’s appointment, the teacher will think you are playing
________.
A. the fool B. truant C. for time D. hard to get
12. Exercise tends to _______ the effects of old age.
A. waylay B. run down C. set back D. offset
13. There’s an old saying, “It’s the double gins that cause the _______.”
A. crossed eyes B. double chins C. flat feet D. knock knees
14. It’s a good area for shopping. All the shops are within easy _______.
A. approach B. arrival C. neighbourhood D. reach
15. The big new supermarket on the outskirts of town does a _______ trade.
A. crying B. roaring C. screaming D. shouting
16. Sport provides an _______ for a teenager’s feeling of aggression or frustration.
A. overflow B. outlet C. exit D. exhaust
17. She was caught cheating in the race. _______, she was disqualified.
A. Explicitly B. Accordingly C. Equally D. Fundamentally
18. Alice was not sure which profession to enter, but finally _______ for medicine.
A. opted B. chose C. accepted D. selected
19. Jane handed in the test and awaited the results _______.
A. with bated breath B. out of breath
C. under her breath C. in the same breath
20. Burglar alarms on cars and houses may act as a _______ to the casual thief.
A. prevention B. precaution C. stopper D. deterrent

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Part 2: Read the passage below which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the corrections
in the corresponding numbered boxes. There is an example at the beginning. (10 points)
Example: Line 1: Originalà Originally
THE NEW BRITISH LIBRARY
Original commissioned 14 years ago, the new British Library was supposed to open in 1990. Thus, the
project has been delayed by political infighting, poor planning and financial problems. The most recent setback
came in June when inspectors discover that 60 miles of new metal shelving had started to rust and needed to be
replaced. That would postpone the opening of the project’s first phase for yet other two years. “Things have gone
from bad to worse’, said Brian Lake, secretary of the Regular Readers, an association of writers and scholars who
are not happy with plans to the new library. “It is a grand nation project that has become a great scandal”.
It sounded like a splendid idea which the government unveiled its 164- million project in 1978. Sophisticated
electronic equipment would help keep the library’s irreplaceable stock at an optimal temperature and humid. A
computer-controlled delivery system would provide books to readers within minutes of a request better than days.
And to serve other needs of the reading public, the library would also include exhibition gallery, a restaurant and a
conference hall.
That was the plan, anyway. The start of construction delayed until 1982 by arguments about planning and by
a change of government. Four years later, members of the cabinet ordered a progress report and discovered that the
committee responsible for supervision the project hadn’t met in four years.
Part 3: Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in the spaces provided
below. (10 points)
 Rebuilding Conventry
In the late 30s, (1) __________ knew that the centre of the historic town ANALYSE
of Conventry in the West Midlands needed to be redeveloped. Plans had
to be (2) __________ when the Second World War started in 1939. SHELF
However, the architects’ opportunity (3) __________ when the city
centre was practically destroyed during the war. Many buildings were MATERIAL
(4) __________ damaged and demolition work began. Aiming to create
a much more (5) __________ area for REPAIR
(6) __________ to work and shop in, town planners came up with a SPACE
radical idea. They would make the city more RESIDE
(7) __________ by pedestrianising the centre, preventing cars entering.
There were (8) __________ from local shopkeepers, who thought that it INHABIT
would have an impact on trade, but the planners went ahead. What was OBJECT
once a (9) __________ populated area became a pleasant, attractive
place to visit. It was a real (10) __________ achievement, one that many DENSE
British towns have emulated since.
ARCHITECT

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
C. READING (50 points)
Part 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your
answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
All in the Stars
First-time visitors to India are likely to be impressed by how profoundly astrology influences almost every
(1) ______ of life on the subcontinent. In fact, the belief that the motions of remote heavenly bodies can affect
events on Earth is so (2) ______ that several Indian universities (3) ______ courses in the subject. It is not,
therefore, surprising that many people will (4) ______ an astrologer before they take any important step. For
example, Indian marriages are arranged with the aid of an astrologer, who will cast the horoscopes of the bride and
groom, and also work out the best date for the wedding to take place. A few years ago in Delhi, thousands of
couples rushed to get married on a particularly auspicious day, with the (5) ______ that priests, brass bands and
wedding photographers were in short supply.
The role of astrology is not (6) ______ only to the social aspects of Indian life. Few people (7) ______
business without resorting to their astrologer. Major films are only released on suspicious dates. Even (8) ______
of state are not exempt from its influence: when India (9) ______ her independence from Britain in 1947, the (10)
______ of power was carefully timed to take place after a particularly inauspicious period had passed.
1. A. division B. facet C. angle D. sector
2. A. widespread B. overwhelming C. intensive D. capacious
3. A. offer B. afford C. supply D. serve
4. A. interrogate B. confer C. interview D. consult
5. A. effect B. outcome C. upshot D. result
6. A. demarcated B. bound C. confined D. restrained
7. A. engage B. perform C. carry D. conduct
8. A. affairs B. cases C. issues D. topics
9. A. grabbed B. procured C. gained D. captured
10. A. delivery B. inheritance C. succession D. transfer

Your answer:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 2: Read the following text and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in
corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)
A sting in the tale
A scorpion stung Peter Marks on the back of his right leg, (1) ________ below the knee, then continued up
that leg and down the (2) ________, he believes, before getting him again in the shin. It wasn’t (3) ________ he
was expecting on a flight from Chicago to Vermont. Marks, a 46-year-old builder, was abroad the United Airlines
flight on the second leg of his trip home from San Francisco where he and his wife Helena had been visiting their
sons. He awoke (4) ________ a nap shortly before landing and noticed something strange.
“My leg felt like it was asleep, but that was isolated to one spot, and it felt as (5) ________ it was being
jabbed with a sharp piece of plastic (6) ________ something. The second sting came after the plane had landed and
the Marks were waiting for their bags at the luggage carousel. Peter rolled up his cuff to investigate, and the
scorpion fell out.
“It felt like a shock, a tingly thing. Someone screamed, ‘It’s a scorpion’,” Peter recalled. Another passenger
stepped on the 5-centimetre arachnid, and (7) ________ else suggested Marks seek medical help. “The airlines tell
you that you can’t bring water on a plane”, Helena Marks said, “but the scorpion did make it abroad”. A United
spokesperson said the incident “is something that we will look (8) ________. We’re very sorry for what happened.
Our customers’ safety and security is our number one priority.” (9) ________ incidents are not unheard of. An
American Airlines flight was delayed for an hour in Toronto on Sunday after a passenger was stung by a scorpion
that had (10) ________ its way on board. Paramedics treated the man when the flight landed.

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3: Read the following passage and circle the best answer to each of the following questions. Write your
answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
The medieval artists didn’t know about perspective; they didn’t want to make their people look like real,
individual people in a real, individual scene. They wanted to show the truth, the eternal quality of their religious
stories. So these artists didn’t need to know about perspective.
In the European Renaissance period, artists wanted to show the importance of the individual person and his
or her possessions and surroundings. A flat medieval style couldn’t show this level of reality and the artists needed
a new technique. It was the Italian artist Brunelleschi who discovered the technique of perspective drawing. At first
the artists of the Renaissance only had single-point perspective. Later they realized that they could have two-
pointed perspectives and still later multi-point perspective.
With two-point perspective they could turn an object like a building at an angle to the picture and draw two
sides of it. The technique of perspective which seems so natural to us now is an invented technique, a part of the
“grammar of painting”. Like all bits of grammar there are exceptions about perspective. For example, only
vertical and horizontal surfaces seem to meet on eye level. Sloping roof tops don’t meet on eye level.
For 500 years, artists in Europe made use of perspective drawing in their pictures. Nevertheless, there are a
range of priorities that artists take in displaying individual styles. Crivelli wanted to show depth in his picture and
he used a simple single-point perspective. Cezanne always talked about space and volume. Van Gogh, like some of
the other painters of the Impressionist period, was interested in Japanese prints. And Japanese artists until this
century were always very strong designers of “flat” pictures. Picasso certainly made pictures which have volume
and depth. However, he wanted to keep our eyes on the surface and to remind us that his paintings are paintings
and not illusions.
It is technically easy to give an illusion of depth. However, a strong two dimensional design is just as a
feeling of depth, and perhaps more important.
1. The passage mainly discusses
A. the difference between medieval and Renaissance art.
B. how the technique of perspective influenced the modern art.
C. the discovery of the technique of perspective.
D. the contribution of Renaissance artists.
2. The word “eternal” in line 3 is closest in meaning to
A. timeless B. infinite C. frequent D. constant
3. According to the passage, which is the main concern for medieval artists?
A. The individual person and his/ her possessions and surroundings.
B. Real people, real scenes.
C. Eternal timeless truth of the earth.
D. Themes of religious stories.
4. The discovery of perspective was the result of
A. Renaissance artists’ to prove that the medieval artists could show level of reality.
B. the need to turn an object at an angle and draw more than one side of it.
C. the subject being shifted from religious stories to individual person and surroundings.
D. natural evolution of human senses.
5. The word “it” in bold in paragraph 3 refers to
A. the picture B. perspective C. angle D. the object
6. The word “grammar” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. construction B. grammatical rules
C. rules and regulations D. tones and volume
7. The author’s purpose to give the example in the last two sentences of paragraph 3 is to
A. explain how perspective work in painting.
B. support two-pointed perspective.
C. illustrate that there are exceptions about perspective.
D. point out that the technique of perspective though seems so natural is an invented technique.
8. The following artists’ priorities in style shift away from perspective EXCEPT
A. Crivelli B. Cezanne
C. Japanese artists D. Brunelleschi
9. The word “illusion” in bold in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. deception B. photograph C. decoration D. illustration
10. It can be inferred from the passage that Renaissance artists
A. embraced the medieval style of eternal truth.
B. needed to develop a new approach towards painting to show a new level of reality.
C. were inspired by vertical and horizontal surfaces in inventing the technique of perspective.
D. saw two dimensional design more important than a feeling of depth.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 4: Read the following text and do the tasks that follow. Write your answers in corresponding numbered
boxes. (15 points)
Questions 1-13 which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.
Sending money home
the economics of migrant remittances
A
Every year millions of migrants travel vast distances using borrowed money for their airfares and taking little or
no cash with them. They seek a decent job to support themselves with money left over that they can send home
to their families in developing countries. These remittances exceeded $400 billion last year. It is true that the
actual rate per person is only about $200 per month but it all adds up to about triple the amount officially spent
on development aid.
B
In some of the poorer, unstable or conflict-torn countries, these sums of money are a lifeline – the only salvation
for those left behind. The decision to send money home is often inspired by altruism – an unselfish desire to help
others. Then again, the cash might simply be an exchange for earlier services rendered by the recipients or it
could be intended for investment by the recipients. Often it will be repayment of a loan used to finance the
migrant’s travel and resettlement.
C
At the first sign of trouble, political or financial upheaval, these personal sources of support do not suddenly dry
up like official investment monies. Actually, they increase in order to ease the hardship and suffering of the
migrants’ families and, unlike development aid, which is channelled through government or other official
agencies, remittances go straight to those in need. Thus, they serve an insurance role, responding in a
countercyclical way to political and economic crises.
D
This flow of migrant money has a huge economic and social impact on the receiving countries. It provides cash for
food, housing and necessities. It funds education and healthcare and contributes towards the upkeep of the
elderly. Extra money is sent for special events such as weddings, funerals or urgent medical procedures and other
emergencies. Occasionally it becomes the capital for starting up a small enterprise.
E
Unfortunately, recipients hardly ever receive the full value of the money sent back home because of exorbitant
transfer fees. Many money transfer companies and banks operate on a fixed fee, which is unduly harsh for those
sending small sums at a time. Others charge a percentage, which varies from around 8% to 20% or more
dependent on the recipient country. There are some countries where there is a low fixed charge per transaction;
however, these cheaper fees are not applied internationally because of widespread concern over money
laundering. Whether this is a genuine fear or just an excuse is hard to say. If the recipients live in a small village
somewhere, usually the only option is to obtain their money through the local post office. Regrettably, many
governments allow post offices to have an exclusive affiliation with one particular money transfer operator so
there is no alternative but to pay the extortionate charge.
F
The sums of money being discussed here might seem negligible on an individual basis but they are substantial in
totality. If the transfer cost could be reduced to no more than one per cent, that would release another $30
billion dollars annually – approximately the total aid budget of the USA, the largest donor worldwide – directly
into the hands of the world’s poorest. If this is not practicable, governments could at least acknowledge that
small remittances do not come from organised crime networks, and ease regulations accordingly. They should put
an end to restrictive alliances between post offices and money transfer operators or at least open up the system
to competition. Alternately, a non-government humanitarian organisation, which would have the expertise to
navigate the elaborate red tape, could set up a non-profit remittance platform for migrants to send money home
for little or no cost.
G
Whilst contemplating the best system for transmission of migrant earnings to the home country, one should
consider the fact that migrants often manage to save reasonable amounts of money in their adopted country.
More often than not, that money is in the form of bank deposits earning a tiny percentage of interest, none at all
or even a negative rate of interest.
H
If a developing country or a large charitable society could sell bonds with a guaranteed return of three or four per
cent on the premise that the invested money would be used to build infrastructure in that country, there would
be a twofold benefit. Migrants would make a financial gain and see their savings put to work in the development
of their country of origin. The ideal point of sale for these bonds would be the channel used for money transfers
so that, when migrants show up to make their monthly remittance, they could buy bonds as well. Advancing the
idea one step further, why not make this transmission hub the conduit for affluent migrants to donate to worthy
causes in their homeland so they may share their prosperity with their compatriots on a larger scale?

Questions 1-7
Reading Passage 1 has seven paragraphs, A–G.
Choose the correct heading for paragraphs B–H from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number, i–x, in boxes 1–7 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i Stability of remittances in difficult times
ii Effect of cutback in transaction fees
iii Targeted investments and contributions
iv Remittances for business investment
v How to lower transmission fees
vi Motivations behind remittances
vii Losses incurred during transmission
viii Remittances worth more than official aid
ix How recipients utilise remittances
x Frequency and size of remittances
xi Poor returns on migrant savings
Example:
Paragraph G xi
1 Paragraph A
2 Paragraph B
3 Paragraph C
4 Paragraph D
5 Paragraph E
6 Paragraph F
7 Paragraph H
Questions 8–13
Complete the summary below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 8–13 on your answer sheet.
Countries are unwilling to enforce lower transaction fees as they are worried about 8……………….., and villagers
lose out when post offices have a special relationship with one particular money transfer agency.
Each remittance might be small but the total cost of remittance fees is huge. Governments should 9………………..
on small amounts and end the current post office system or make it more competitive. Another idea would be for
a large non-profit association, capable of handling complicated 10……………….. to take charge of migrant
remittances.
Migrants who send money home are able to save money, too, but it receives little or no interest
from 11………………… If a country or organisation sold bonds that earned a reasonable rate of interest for the
investor, that money could fund the development of homeland 12………………… The bonds could be sold at the
remittance centre, which could also take donations from 13..……………….. to fund charitable projects in their home
country.

D. WRITING (50 points)

Part 1: Rewrite each sentence using the word in brackets so that the meaning stays the same. You must use
between TWO and SIX words, including the word given. (10 points)
1. Spending two weeks in hospital was very different from lying on the beach! (CRY)
Spending two weeks in hospital was …………………………………lying on the beach!
2. The parents of that girl are furious about her expulsion. (ARMS)
That’s the girl ……………………………………………………. about her expulsion.
3. I’m finding it difficult to cope with all the work I have to do.
(TOP)
All the work I have to do ………………………………………………. me.
4. I wouldn’t confront the manager if I were you.
(HORNS)
I wouldn’t ………………………………………. the manager if I were you.
5. He was arrested when they caught him driving a stolen vehicle.
(ACT)
Being ……………………………………………….. a stolen vehicle, he was arrested.

Part 2: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it, beginning as shown. (10 points)
1. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting.
Rather ………………………………………………………………………………..
2. You can eat as much as you like for £5 at the new lunch-bar.
There is no
3. We regret to inform you that your application has not been successful.
Much to
4. “I think the whole idea’s ridiculous,” he said.
He dismissed
5. The managing director refuses to resign.
The managing director has no

TEST 14
B. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (50 points)
Part 1. Choose one of the words marked A, B, C, or D which best completes each of the following sentences.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points)
1. It seems our application has been refused ________.
A. point blank B. carte blanche C. bull’s eye D. long shot
2. The silence of the public library was _________ by the sound of transistor radio.
A. smashed B. fractured C. crushed D. broken
3. You could tell that she wasn’t happy about the news by the way she ________ her face in
disapproval.
A. crossed out B. blew up C. blacked out D. screwed up
4. Although we cannot be sure of the exact purposes of the early cave paintings, pictorial
images seem to be ________ linked to human culture as we understand it.
A. inexorably B. inextricably C. indubitably D. indomitably
5. He gave up hope of passing the examination, __________.
A. it failing twice already B. having already failed it twice
C. already to have failed twice D. it had been failed twice already
6. It is far too easy to lay the blame ________ on the shoulders of the management.
A. solidly B. flatly C. rightly D. squarely
7. __________ by venting about all the reasons you’re leaving is not a good idea when you
do decide to quit your job.
A. Burning bridges B. Wagging the dog
C. Giving yourself airs D. Passing the buck
8. Until this evening, Hannah is still ________ away at her unfinished report.
A. hammering B. grinding C. whiling D. axing
9. Although ________, she tried her best to realize her dream of becoming a sports woman.
A. being disabled B. her disability C. she is disabled D. disabled
10. Anticipating renewed rioting, the authorities erected ______ to block off certain streets.
A. barrages B. barricades C. ditches D. dykes
11. It’s time we change the __________ regarding the roles in the family.
A. idée fixe B. hoi polloi C. avant garde D. faux pas
12. The government intends to introduce a new bill on taxation, __________.
A. whose provisions will be the work of experts on both sides of the House will be study
B. of which the study of its provisions will be the work of experts on both sides of the House
C. the work of experts on both sides of the House will be the study of its provisions
D. the study of whose provisions will be the work of experts on both sides of the House
13. Apart from a parking fine ten years before, she had an __________ driving record.
A. unsullied B. unalloyed C. unblemished D. untarnished
14. Everyone was ___________ with him after he missed the penalty in the last 2 minutes
of the final match.
A. lamenting B. commiserating C. condoling D. identifying
15. We shall need also to ________ the foundations of mathematics, and even to question
the very nature of physical reality.
A. pertain to B. touch on C. delve into D. slur over
16. When she saw me nearly dropped the precious vase, she _________ in horror.
A. grasped B. grunted C. grumbled D. gasped
17. They have _________ a beautiful film by making these changes.
A. disfigured B. mutilated C. defaced D. amputated
18. You can try reformatting your computer, but once you open that _________, you’ll
probably be working on it for days.
A. apple of discord B. can of worms C. load of cobblers D. spot of bother
19. _________ nocturnal creature(s).
A. Owl is a B. An owl is a C. The owl is a D. The owls are
20. It’s natural for students to worry about whether they will ________ or not at a new
school.
A. measure up B. sprout up C. show up D. dig up
Part 2. Read the following text which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the corrections in the
corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
Sir Walter Scott was the key figure in creating a colorful image of Scotland’s past, initially with his
bestselling narrative poem, with his even more celebrated novels, the first of which was Waverley. It was published
anonymously in 1814 and, in subsequent years, its successors were described as being ‘by the author of Waverley’,
which accounts the term ‘Waverley novels’. Although Scott gave no public acknowledgement of his authorship
until 1827, the writer’s identity was an open secret long before then. He wrote ordinarily quickly, and the first
collected edition of the Waverley novels was published as early as 1819. The set of illustrations of Alexander
Nasmyth was produced for the second collected edition and these drawings used on the title pages.
Nasmyth has been called the father of landscape painting and, such as Walter Scott, he helped to popularized his
country’s romantic and picturesque scenery. The drawings were recently presented to the National Library of
Scotland, which now boasts a superb and rivalled collection of manuscripts and papers relating to Scott and his
circle.
What is less well known about Sir Walter Scott is that after his bankruptcy in 1826, his last years were spent in
frantic literary activity to pay off all the creditors whom he owned money.
Part 3. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered
boxes. (10 points)
THE SPIRAL AND THE HELIX
They are everywhere, graceful, curving shapes whose incredible (1) REGULAR _________ contrasts so
sharply with the random world around them. We call them spirals and helices but that hardly does (2) JUST
____________ to their diversity or their significance.
Over the centuries, (3) MATHEMATICS __________ have identified many different types, but the most
intriguing are those that (4) REPEAT ____________ occur in the natural world.
The need to (5) RAVEL _____ the mysteries of the existence of spirals and helices has exercised some of
the best scientific brains in the world and opened the way to a number of (6) BREAK ______________ in fields as
widely varied as genetics and (7) METEOR ______________.
The most (8) SPECTACLE ________________ spirals on earth are also the most unwelcome - hurricanes.
Their (9) AWE _______________ power comes from the sun's heat, but they owe their shape to the force caused
by the rotation of the earth. After innumerable years of study, however, Nature's spirals and helices have yet to
(10)_____________ all their secrets. For example, why, astronomers wonder, are so many galaxies spiral-shaped?
C. READING (60 points)

Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your
answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts)
Film directors usually make the least promising subjects for biography. They tend to stay
behind the camera and get on with making films, emerging only to make the particular
promotional statement. Only rarely is a film-maker interesting enough to 1_________
biographical interest, and some pay off the attention handsomely. What biographer could
2________ analyzing Hitchcock, Woody Allen or Polanski? These directors, in any case,
were themselves sufficiently absorbed in their own 3__________ to cross over the other
side of the camera and 4__________ themselves to the public.
Much of Jean Renoir’s public profile is 5___________ on his appearance in his final film.
But judging by the most recent biography, by Ronald Bergan, the man was simply not
interesting. He grew up in the benevolent 6________ of his painter father, against whom
he appears not to have 7__________ in any way, emerged to make his own 8_________
in the early life and went on making films for most of the rest of his life. Even when
9_________ with war, Renoir seems to have 10__________ through his career with
equanimity.
1. A. award B. prize C. value D. merit
2. A. oppose B. resist C. confront D. expel
3. A. view B. image C. trend D. expression
4. A. display B. examine C. allow D. distinguish
5. A. described B. based C. imagined D. gathered
6. A. memory B. vision C. shadow D. regard
7. A. rebelled B. related C. referred D. resisted
8. A. spot B. field C. mark D. point
9. A. faced B. tackled C. charged D. opposed
10. A. flown B. sailed C. wandered D. run
Part 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)

Along with London’s West End theatres, New York’s Broadway theatres are thought to (2) _________ the
pinnacle of theatrical production in the English-speaking world. For most American actors, landing a role in one of
these productions is far (2) _________ their wildest dreams, as working on Broadway represents the highest (3)
_________ in any theatrical actor’s career. Naturally, all actors must keep their options (4) _________ when
seeking theatrical work. For those just about to (5) _________ the plunge, it might be wise to first pursue a role in
what’s known as the Off-Broadway theatres, or even better, Off-Off-Broadway theatres. These two types of theatre
are defined by seating capacity - the former being 100 to 499 seats, the latter (6) _________ 100. While the
productions are smaller, performances in these theatres can still (7) _________ respect from the theatrical
community. An actor can use the venues to get their craft down to a fine (8) _________ and eventually turn in
performances eliciting reviews (9) _________ of praise from critics who attend. Conversely, there’s less need for
an actor to worry too much about a bad performance. As it’s only an Off-Off-Broadway production, it’s not the
(10) _________ of the world.
Part 3. Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C, or D to answer the questions. Write your answers
in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
In the course of its history, human inventions have dramatically increased the average
amount of energy available for use per person. Primitive peoples in cold regions burned wood
and animal dung to heat their caves, cook food, and drive off animals by fire. The first step
toward the developing of more efficient fuels was taken when people discovered that they
could use vegetable oils and animal fats in lieu of gathered or cut wood. Charcoal gave off
more intensive heat than wood and was more easily obtainable than organic fats. The Greeks
first began to use coal for metal smelting in the 4th century, but it did not come into extensive
use until the Industrial Revolution.
In the 1700s, at the beginning of the Industrial Revolution, most energy used in the United
States and other nations undergoing industrialization was obtained from perpetual and renewable
sources, such as wood, water streams, domesticated animal labor, and wind. These were
predominantly locally available supplies. By mid-1800s, 91 percent of all commercial energy
consumed in the United States and European countries was obtained from wood. However, at the
 beginning of the 20th century, coal became a major energy source and replaced wood in
industrializing countries. Although in most regions and climate zones wood was more readily
accessible than coal, the latter represents a more concentrated source of energy. In 1910, natural
gas and oil firmly replaced coal as the main source of fuel because they are lighter and, therefore,
cheaper to transport. They burned more cleanly than coal and polluted less. Unlike coal, oil could
be refined to manufacture liquid fuels for vehicles, a very important consideration in the early
1900s, when the automobile arrived on the scene.
By 1984, non-renewable fossil fuels, such as oil, coal, and natural gas, provided over 82
percent of the commercial and industrial energy used in the world. Small amounts of energy were
derived from nuclear fission, and the remaining 16 percent came from burning direct perpetual and
renewable fuels, such as biomass. Between 1700 and 1986, a large number of countries shifted from
the use of energy from local sources to a centralized generation of hydropower and solar energy
converted to electricity. The energy derived from non-renewable fossil fuels has been increasingly
produced in one location and transported to another, as is the case with most automobile fuels. In
countries with private, rather than public transportation, the age of non-renewable fuels has created a
dependency on a finite resource that will have to be replaced.
Alternative fuel sources are numerous, and shale oil and hydrocarbons are just two
examples. The extraction of shale oil from large deposits in Asian and European regions has
proven to be labor consuming and costly. The resulting product is sulfur-and nitrogen-rich, and
large scale extractions are presently prohibitive. Similarly, the extraction of hydrocarbons from
tar sands in Alberta and Utah is complex. Semi-solid hydrocarbons cannot be easily separated
from the sandstone and limestone that carry them, and modern technology is not sufficiently
versatile for a large-scale removal of the material. However, both sources of fuel may
eventually be needed as petroleum prices continue to rise and limitations in fossil fuel
availability make alternative deposits more attractive.
1.What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Application of various fuels B. Natural resources and fossil fuels
C. A history of energy use D. A historical review of energy rates

2.The phrase “per persion” is close in meaning to

A. per capita B. per year C. per family D. per day

3.It can be inferred from the first paragraph that ______.

A. coal mining was essential for primitive peoples
B. the Greeks used coal in industrial productions
C. the development of efficient fuel was a gradual process
D. the discovery of efficient fuels was mostly accidental
4. The phrase “in lieu” is closest in meaning to
A. in spite B. in place C. in every way D. in charge
5 .The author of the passage implies that in the 1700s, sources of energy were ______.
A. used for commercial purposes
B. used in various combinations
C. not derived from mineral deposits
D. not always easy to locate
6 .According to the passage, what was the greatest advantage of oil as fuel?
A. It was a concentrated source of energy.
B. It was lighter and cheaper than coal.
C. It replaced wood and coal and reduced pollution.
D. It could be converted to automobile fuel.
7. According to the passage, the sources of fossil fuels will have to be replaced because _____ .
A. they need to be transported B. they are not efficient
C. their use is centralized D. their supply is limited.
8. It can be inferred from the passage that in the early 20th centurgy, energy was obtained primarily from______.
A. fossil fuels B. nuclear fission
C. hydraulic and solar sources D. burning biomass
9. The author of the passage implies that alternative sources of fuel are currently ______.
A. being used for consumption B. being explored
C. available in few locations D. examined on a lar
10. The word “prohibitive” is closest in meaning to
A. prohibited B. provided
C. too expensive D. too expedient

Part 4. Read the text and do the following tasks. (15 points)
For questions 1-6, choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-F from the list of headings below. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.

The Hollywood Film Industry

A This chapter examines the ‘Golden Age’ of the Hollywood film studio system and explores how a
particular kind of filmmaking developed during this period in US film history. It also focuses on the
two key elements which influenced the emergence of the classic Hollywood studio system: the advent
of sound and the business ideal of vertical integration. In addition to its historical interest, inspecting
the growth of the studio system may offer clues regarding the kinds of struggles that accompany the
growth of any new medium. It might, in fact, be intriguing to examine which changes occurred during
the growth of Hollywood studio, and compare those changes to comtemporary struggles in which
production companies are trying to define and control emerging industries, such as online film and
interactive television.
B The shift of the industry away from ‘silent’ films began during the late 1920s. Warner Bros.’ 1927
film The Jazz Singer was the first to feature synchronized speech, and with it came a period of turmoil
for the industry. Studios now had proof that ‘talkie’ films would make them money, but the financial
investment this kind of filmmaking would require, from new camera equipment to new projection
facilities, made the studios hesitant to invest at first. In the end, the power of cinematic sound to both
move audiences and enhance the story persuaded studios that talkies were worth investing in. Overall,
the use of sound in film was well-received by audiences, but there were still many technical factors to
consider. Although full integration of sound into movies was complete by 1930, it would take
somewhat longer for them to regain their stylistic elegance and dexterity. The camera now had to be
encased in a big, clumsy, unmoveable soundproof box. In addition, actors struggled, having to direct
their speech to awkwardly-hidden microphones in huge plants, telephones or even costumes.
C Vertical integration is the other key component in the rise of the Hollywood studio system. The
major studios realized they could increase their profits by handling each stage of a film’s life:
production (making the film), distribution (getting the film out to people) and exhibition (owning the
theaters in major cities where films were shown first). Five studios, ‘The Big Five’, worked to achieve
vertical integration through the late 1940s, owning vast real estate on which to construct elaborate
sets. In addition, these studios set the exact terms of films’ release dates and patterns. Warner Bros.,
Paramount, 20th Century Fox, MGM and RKO formed this exclusive club. ‘The Little Three’ studios
- Universal, Columbia and United Artists - also made pictures, but each lacked one of the crucial
elements of vertical integration. Together these eight companies operated as a mature oligopoly,
essentially running the entire market.
D During the Golden Age, the studios were remarkably consistent and stable enterprises, due in large
part to long-term management heads - the infamous ‘movie moguls’ who ruled their kingdoms with
iron fists. At MGM, Warner Bros, and Columbia, the same men ran their studios for decades. The rise
of the studio system also hinges on the treatment of stars, who were constructed and exploited to suit a
studio’s image and schedule. Actors were bound up in seven-year contracts to a single studio, and the
studio boss generally held all the options. Stars could be loaned out to other production companies at
any time. Studio bosses could also force bad roles on actors, and manipulate every single detail of
 stars’ images with their mammoth in-house publicity departments. Some have compared the
Hollywood studio system to a factory, and it is useful
to remember that studios were out to make money first and art second.
E On the other hand, studios also had to cultivate flexibility, in addition to consistent factory output.
Studio heads realized that they couldn’t make virtually the same film over and over again with the
same cast of stars and still expect to keep turning a profit. They also had to create product
differentiation. Examining how each production company tried to differentiate itself has led to loose
characterizations of individual studios’ styles. MGM tended to put out a lot of all-star productions
while Paramount excelled in comedy and Warner Bros, developed a reputation for gritty social
realism. 20th Century Fox forged the musical and a great deal of prestige biographies, while Universal
specialized in classic horror movies.
F In 1948, struggling independent movie producers and exhibitors finally triumphed in their battle
against the big studios’ monopolistic behavior. In the United States versus Paramount federal decree
of that year, the studios were ordered to give up their theaters in what is commonly referred to as
‘divestiture’ - opening the market to smaller producers. This, coupled with the advent of television in
the 1950s, seriously compromised the studio system’s influence and profits. Hence, 1930 and 1948 are
generally considered bookends to Hollywood’s Golden Age.
For question 1- 4 : The reading passage has seven paragraphs A - G. Choose the correct heading for
paragraphs A - G from the list of headings below.

List of Headings
i. The power with each studio
ii. The movie industry adapts to innovation
iii. Contrast between cinema and other media of the time
iv. The value of studying Hollywood’s Golden Age
v. Distinguishing themselves from the rest of the market
vi. A double attack on film studios’ power
vii. Gaining control of the industry
viii The top movies of Hollywood’s Golden Age

Example: Paragraph A ______iv____

1. Paragraph B __________
2. Paragraph C __________
Example: Paragraph D ____i_____
3. Paragraph E __________
4. Paragraph F __________
For question 5- 7: Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage?
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
5. After The Jazz Singer came out, other studios immediately began making movies with synchronized sound.
6. There were some drawbacks to recording movie actors’ voices in the early 1930s.
7. There was intense competition between actors for contracts with the leading studios.
For questions 8 – 10, choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
THE HOLLYWOOD STUDIOS
Throughout its Golden Age, the Hollywood movie Industry was controlled by a handful of studios.
Using a system known as (8) ______________, the biggest studios not only made movies, but handled their
distribution and then finally showed them in their own theaters. These studios were often run by autocratic
bosses - men known as (9) ______________, who often remained at the head of organisations for decades.
However, the domination of the industry by the leading studios came to an end in 1948, when they were
forced to open the market to smaller producers - a process known as (10) ______________.
D. WRITING (40 points)
Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the one printed before it.
Write your answers in the space provided. (10 points)

1. They believe that Oliver failed his exam because he was nervous.
--> Oliver’s failure _______________________________________________________
2. The inhabitants were far worse-off twenty years ago than they are now.
--> The inhabitants are nowhere ___________________________________________
3. If you don't know the art market, there's a risk you will spend a lot of money on rubbish.
--> If you don't know the art market, you are _____________________________________
4. Whatever the methods used to obtain the result, drugs were definitely not involved.
-> There was no question ___________________________________________
5. Those terrapins which survive their first year may live to be twenty.
-> Should _________________________________________

Part II. Rewrite the sentences below in such a way that their meanings stay the same. You must use the words in
capital without changing their forms. Write your answers in the space provided (5 points)
6. Every student will get good marks to express their gratitude towards teachers. (lengths)
_________________________________________
7 I am determined to become a teacher of maths. (heart)
_________________________________________
8 Some of the patients taken to the hospital have got an infectious disease. (diagnosed)
_________________________________________
9 This contract is as important and confidential as that one. (equally)
_________________________________________
10 He has called the meeting in order to raise money for the latest storm. (purpose)
_________________________________________

B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points)

Part 1. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes.
1. I am going to go round the _________ if they don’t turn that music down soon.
A. bell B. bend C. leg D. stock
2. I was so tired that I couldn’t even think _________
A. mind B. doubt C. focus D. straight
3. The cat slept peacefully _________ in the long grass.
A. huddled B. nestled C. snuggled D. cuddled
4. Mr. Wright _________ his vegetable garden very carefully.
A. tends B. grows C. maintains D. attends
5. She _________ a few clothes into the case and hurried to the airport.
A. shoved B. scattered C. piled D. heaved
6. No teenager really knows what _________ for them career-wise in the future.
A. knuckles own B. lies head C. whiles away D. crops up
7. The consultant called in by the firm brought a _________ of experience to bear on the problem.
A. wealth B. realm C. bank D. hoard
8. Several passengers received minor injuries when the train unexpectedly came to a _________
A. delay B. halt C. break D. stand
9. John refused to put his career in _________ by opposing his boss.
A. jeopardy B. hazard C. risk D. stake
10. The area is famous for its _________ gardens, where all kinds of different vegetables are grown for cash.
 A. market B. hothouse C. trade D. greenhouse
11. It is essential to be on the _________ for any signs of movement in the undergrowth since there are poisonous
snakes in the area.
A. guard B. care C. alarm D. alert
12. I could see the lantern _________ in the dark.
A. gleaming B. glowing C. glistening D. glimmering
13. It was a daring robbering, which took place in _________ daylight.
A. broad B. total C. wide D. absolute
14. For my _________ of mind, promise you’ll wear a life jacket in the boat.
A. satisfaction B. contentment C. peace D. calmness
15. By using all the latest technology, the yatchman managed to cross the Atlantic in _________ time.
A. quickest B. lightning C. top D. record
16. I’m afraid Tim doesn’t take much care over his homework. He usually does it _________
A. any old how B. any how C. how on earth D. how come
17. What a mad thing to do! You could all have been killed! It was _________ folly.
A. merely B. only C. sheer D. wild
18. The bark of a tree thickens _________
A. with age B. it gets older C. as older D. by age
19. Widely reproduced in magazines and books, _________
A. Ansel Adams depicted the Western wilderness in his photographs.
B. the Western wilderness was depicted in the photographs of Ansel Adams.
C. Ansel Adam’s photographs deppicted the Western wilderness.
D. it was through his photographs that Ansel Adams depicted the Western wilderness.
20. When I advised you to change jobs, I had your best _________ at heart.
A. feelings B. interests C. thoughts D. aspects

Part 2. Read the passage below which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the corrections in
the corresponding numbered boxes.
Example: Line 1: wrongly à wrong
Human memory, formerly believing to be rather inefficient, is really more sophisticated than that of
a computer. Researchers approaching the problem from a variation of viewpoints have all concluded
that there is a great deal more storing in our minds than has been generally supposed. Dr. Wilder
Penfield, a Canadian neurosurgery, proved that by stimulating their brains electrically, he can elicit
the total recall of specific events in his subjects’ lives. Even dreams and another minor events
supposedly forgotten for many years suddenly emerged in details. Although the physical basic for
memory is not yet understood, one theory is how the fantastic capacity for storage in the brain is the
result of an almost unlimited combination of interconnections between brain cell, stimulated by
patterns of activity. Repeated references with the same information support recall. In other words,
improved performance is the result of strengthening the chemical bonds in the memory.
Part 3. Complete each sentence with one suitable particle or preposition. Write your answer in the box provided.
1.Something’s cropped _________, I am afraid I won’t be able to make it this afternoon.
2. They are planning to wind ________ their operation in Greece and concentrate on Eastern Europe.
3. Tina is an authority _________ Byzaantine architecture.
4. His sense of fun has rubbed _________ his children.
5.– “ Will the concert start soon?”
_ “ It should get _________ way any minute now.”
6. Being rich doesn’t count _________ much on a desert island.
7. The company’s announced it’s laying _________ 1,000 workers.
8. Could you lend me some money to tide _________ me to the end of the month?
9. If the business does well, I’ll hopefully be able to take _________ a part-time assistant in the spring.
10. When I was younger I wanted to be an air pilot but I soon went _________ the idea when I realised I hated
flying.
Part 4. Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in the spaces provided
below.
WITH MANY THANKS
Many people have given (0. ASSIST) ...assistance… to me during the writing of this book, but it is to Miss Leigh
Keith, senior editor of Ramsay and Brown that I am most deeply (1. DEBT) _________ for her loyalty and (2.
DEVOTE) _________ during the four years the project lasted. She gave her time and advice (3. STINT)
_________ in order for this work to be completed, giving both moral and (4. PRACTICE) _________ support for
the lengthy research into social conditions the project (5. NECESSARY) _________ Her assurance and
encouragement sustained me in my (6. BELIEVE) _________ that this was valuable work and it was (7. DOUBT)
_________ what enabled me to continue in the face of often discouraging circumstances. I must also thank my
father, who has been a (8. WILL) _________ collaborator in all my efforts and who spent long hours in libraries
and on trains to distant parts of the country in search of material. I know that he will say that he enjoyed it, but
without his (9. FLAG) _________ enthusiasm this book would never have been written. Finally, I would like to
thank my friends and family, who have had to put up with what must have seemed to them an (10. EXCEPT)
_________ long drawn out piece of writing. Thank you, all of you, very much.
C. READING (50 points)
Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your
answers in corresponding numbered boxes.
WHAT IS GENEALOGY?
Genealogy is a branch of history. It concerns family history, 1______ than the national or
world history studied at school. It doesn’t 2_______ involve drawing a tree, however -
tracing your family history can also 3_______ in learning about your roots and your
identity. The internet enables millions of people worldwide to 4________ information
about their family history, without great 5_______.
People who research their family history often 6______ that it’s a fascinating hobby which
7_______ a lot about where they come from and whether they have famous ancestors.
According to a survey involving 900 people who had researched their family history, the
chances of 8________ a celebrity in your past are one in ten. The survey also concluded
that the 9________ back you follow your family line, the more likely you are to find a
relation who was much wealthier than you are. However, the vast majority of people who
10________ in the survey discovered they were better off than their ancestors.
1. A. instead B. rather C. except D. sooner
2. A. clearly B. merely C. rarely D. wholly
3. A. cause B. mean C. result D. lead
4. A. accomplish B. access C. approach D. admit
5. A. fee B. price C. charge D. expense
6. A. describe B. define C. remark D. regard
7. A. reveals B. opens C. begins D. arises
8. A. catching B. acquiring C. discovering D. revealing
9. A. older B. greater C. higher D. further
10. A. attended B. participated C. included D. associated

Part 2. Read the following text and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in
corresponding numbered boxes.
TREES
All over the world, forests are safeguarding the health of the planet 1______. They do this
2______ protecting the soil, providing water, and regulating climate. Trees bind soil
mountain-sides. Hills, 3_______ the trees have been felled, lose 500 times as much soil a
year as those with trees.
Trees catch and store rainwater. Their leaves break the impact of the rains, robbing them
4_______ their destructive power. The roots of trees allow the water to go into the soil,
which gradually releases it to flow down rivers and refill ground-water reserves. Where
there are 5________ trees, the rains run in sheets of water off the land, carrying soil with
them. Land covered with trees and other plants absorbs 20 times more rainwater than bare
earth. As 6________ grow, trees absorb carbon dioxide, the main cause of the
“greenhouse 7________”, which threatens irreversibly to change the world’s climate.
Together, the world’s trees, plants and soils contain three 8________ as much carbon as
there is in the atmosphere.
The world’s forests contain 9_______ vast majority of its animal and plant species. The
tropical rainforests alone have well 10_________ half of them, even though they cover only
about 6% of the Earth’s land surface.
Part 3. Read the following passage and circle the best answer to each of the following questions. Write your
answers in corresponding numbered boxes.
(SOURCE: http://lopngoaingu.com/examinations/index.php?id=reading_comprehension/c-hiu-
toefl-bi-154)
Until recently, most American entrepreneurs were men. Discrimination against women in business, the
demands of caring for families, and lack of business training had kept the number of women entrepreneurs
small. Now, however, businesses owned by women account for more than $40 billion in annual revenues,
and this figure is likely to continue rising throughout the 1990s. As Carolyn Doppelt Gray, an official of
the Small Business Administration, has noted, "The 1970s was the decade of women entering
management, and the 1980s turned out to be the decade of the woman entrepreneur". What are some of the
factors behind this trend? For one thing, as more women earn advanced degrees in business and enter the
corporate world, they are finding obstacles. Women are still excluded from most executive suites.
Charlotte Taylor, a management consultant, had noted, "In the 1970s women believed if they got an MBA
and worked hard they could become chairman of the board. Now they've found out that isn't going to
happen, so they go out on their own".

In the past, most women entrepreneurs worked in "women's" fields: cosmetics and clothing, for example.
But this is changing. Consider ASK Computer Systems, a $22-million-a-year computer software business.
It was founded in 1973 by Sandra Kurtzig, who was then a housewife with degrees in math and
engineering. When Kurtzig founded the business, her first product was software that let weekly
newspapers keep tabs on their newspaper carriers-and her office was a bedroom at home, with a shoebox
under the bed to hold the company's cash. After she succeeded with the newspaper software system, she
hired several bright computer-science graduates to develop additional programs. When these were
marketed and sold, ASK began to grow. It now has 200 employees, and Sandra Kurtzig owns $66.9
million of stock.
Of course, many women who start their own businesses fail, just as men often do. They still face hurdles
in the business world, especially problems in raising money; the banking and finance world is still
dominated by men, and old attitudes die hard. Most businesses owned by women are still quite small. But
the situation is changing; there are likely to be many more Sandra Kurtzigs in the years ahead.
1. What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Women today are better educated than in the past, making them more attractive to the business world.
B. The computer is especially lucrative for women today.
C. Women are better at small businesses than men are.
D. Women today are opening more businesses of their own.
2. The word "excluded" in line 13 is closest in meaning to
A. not permitted in
B. often invited to
C. decorators of
D. charged admission to
3. All of the following were mentioned in the passage as detriments to women in the business world
EXCEPT
A. women were required to stay at home with their families
B. women lacked ability to work in business
C. women faced discrimination in business
D. women were not trained in business
4. In line 17, "that" refers to
A. a woman becomes chairman of the board
B. women working hard
C. women achieving advanced degrees
D. women believing that business is a place for them
5. According to the passage, Charlotte Taylor believes that women in the 1970s
A. were unrealistic about their opportunities in business management
B. were still more interested in education than business opportunities
C. had fewer obstacles in business than they do today
D. were unable to work hard enough to succeed in business
6. The author mentions the "shoebox under the bed" in the third paragraph in order to
A. show the frugality of women in business
B. show the resourcefulness of Sandra Kurtzig
C. point out that initially the financial resources of Sandra Kurtzig's business were limited
D. suggest that the company needed to expand
7. The expression "keep tabs on" in line 24-25 is closest in meaning to
A. recognize the appearance of
B. keep records of
C. provide transportation for
D. pay the salaries of
8. The word "hurdles" in line 33 can be best replaced by
A. fences
B. obstacles
C. questions
D. small groups
9. It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes that businesses operated by women are small
because
A. women prefer a small intimate setting
B. women can't deal with money
C. women are not able to borrow money easily
D. many women fail at large businesses
10. The author's attitude about the future of women in business is
A. skeptical
B. optimistic
C. frustrated
D. negative
Part 4. Read the following text and do the tasks that follow.
Why companies should welcome disorder
A
Organisation is big business. Whether it is of our lives – all those inboxes and calendars – or how companies are
structured, a multi-billion-dollar industry helps to meet this need.
We have more strategies for time management, project management and self-organisation than at any other time in
human history. We are told that we ought to organize our company, our home life, our week, our day and seven our
sleep, all as a means to becoming more productive. Every week, countless seminars and workshops take place
around the world to tell a paying public that they ought to structure their lives in order to achieve this.
This rhetoric has also crept into the thinking of business leaders and entrepreneurs, much to the delight of self-
proclaimed perfectionists with the need to get everything right. The number of business schools and graduates has
massively increased over the past 50 years, essentially teaching people how to organise well.
B
Ironically, however, the number of business that fail has also steadily increased. Work-related stress has increased.
A large proportion of workers from all demographics claim to be dissatisfied with the way their work is structured
and the way they are managed.
This begs the question: what has gone wrong? Why is it that on paper the drive for organisation seems a sure shot
for increasing productivity, but in reality, falls well short of what is expected?
C
This has been a problem for a while now. Frederick Taylor was one of the forefathers of scientific management.
Writing in the first half of the 20th century, he designed a number of principles to improve the efficiency of the
work process, which have since become widespread in modern companies. So the approach has been around for a
while.
D
New research suggests that this obsession with efficiency is misguided. The problem is not necessarily the
management theories or strategies we use to organise our work; it’s the basic assumptions we hold in approaching
how we work. Here it’s the assumption that order is a necessary condition for productivity. This assumption has
also fostered the idea that disorder must be detrimental to organizational productivity. The result is that businesses
and people spend time and money organising themselves for the sake of organising, rather than actually looking at
the end goal and usefulness of such an effort.
E
What’s more, recent studies show that order actually has diminishing returns. Order does increase productivity to a
certain extent, but eventually the usefulness of the process of organisation, and the benefit it yields, reduce until the
point where any further increase in order reduces productivity. Some argue that in a business, if the cost of
formally structuring something outweighs the benefit of doing it, then that thing ought not to be formally
structured. Instead, the resources involved can be better used elsewhere.
F
In fact, research shows that, when innovating, the best approach is to create an environment devoid of structure and
hierarchy and enable everyone involved to engage as one organic group. These environments can lead to new
solutions that, under conventionally structured environments (filled with bottlenecks in terms of information flow,
power structures, rules, and routines) would never be reached.
G
In recent times companies have slowly started to embrace this disorganisation. Many of them embrace it in terms
of perception (embracing the idea of disorder, as opposed to fearing it) and in terms of process (putting
mechanisms in place to reduce structure).
For example, Oticon, a large Danish manufacturer of hearing aids, used what it called a ‘spaghetti’ structure in
order to reduce the organisation’s rigid hierarchies. This involved scrapping formal job titles and giving staff huge
amounts of ownership over their own time and projects. This approach proved to be highly successful initially,
with clear improvements in worker productivity in all facets of the business.
In similar fashion, the former chairman of General Electric embraced disorganisation, putting forward the idea of
the ‘boundaryless’ organisation. Again, it involves breaking down the barriers between different parts of a
company and encouraging virtual collaboration and flexible working. Google and a number of other tech
companies have embraced (at least in part) these kinds of flexible structures, facilitated by technology and strong
company values which glue people together.

Questions 1-7
Reading Passage 4 has seven sections, A-G.
Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number, i-ix, in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i Complaints about the impact of a certain approach
ii Fundamental beliefs that are in fact incorrect
iii Early recommendations concerning business activities
iv Organisations that put a new approach into practice
v Companies that have suffered from changing their approach
vi What people are increasingly expected to do
vii How to achieve outcomes that are currently impossible
viii Neither approach guarantees continuous improvement
ix Evidence that a certain approach can have more disadvantages that advantages
1. Section A ___________
2. Section B ___________
3. Section C ___________
4. Section D ___________
5. Section E ___________
6. Section F ___________
7. Section G ___________
Questions 8-10
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage?
In boxes 8-10 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
8. Both businesses and people aim at order without really considering its value.
9. Innovation is most successful if the people involved have distinct roles.
10 Google was inspired to adopt flexibility by the success of General Electric.
D. WRITING (50 points)
Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentences
printed before it.
1. As far as I know, there’s no reason for James to be so unhappy.
→ To the ____________________________________________________________________
2. A rise in temperature in the next century seems likely.
→ In all _____________________________________________________________________
3. If we delay too long, we are unlikely to clinch the deal.
→ The longer_________________________________________________________________
4. The brochure gives hardly any useful information.
→ Precious little _____________________________________________________________
5. You could be arrested for not giving a breath sample to the police.
→ Refusal __________________________________________________________________
Part 2: Use the word(s) given in brackets and make any necessary additions to complete a new sentence in such
a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change the form of the given
word(s).

1. Jenny isn't a bad accountant, but I don't think it is a very suitable occupation for her.
cut
I just don't think Jenny ___________________________ an accountant.
2. We had no problems at all during our holiday in Turkey.
plan
Everything ___________________________ during our holiday in Turkey.
3. It's possible Clare phoned while we were out.
may
Clare ___________________________ while we were out.
4. Our class has won the History Quiz for the third year running.
succession
For the ___________________________ , our class has won the History Quiz.
5. The thunderstorm brought their tennis match to an abrupt end.
cut
They had to ___________________________ because of the thunderstorm.