Dehradun Public School ASSIGNMENT (2023-24) Subject - Social Science (087) Class - Ix

DEHRADUN PUBLIC SCHOOL
ASSIGNMENT (2023-24)
SUBJECT - SOCIAL SCIENCE (087)
CLASS - IX
HISTORY
CHAPTER-1 THE FRENCH REVOLUTION
Q1. Objective Type Questions:
Select the correct answers for the following questions.
i. Who wrote an influential pamphlet 'What is the third Estate’?
a. Mirabeau b. Abbe Sieyes
c. Jean-Paul Marat d. Olympe de Gouges
ii. Who led the representatives of the Third Estate in Versailles from 20th June 1789?
a. Mirabeau b. Abbe Sieyes
c. Louis XVI d. Both a and b
iii. Who were not considered ‘passive citizens’?
a. Women b. Children
c. Non-propertied men d. 25 year old men who paid taxes
iv. On the night of 4th August 1789, The National Assembly of France passed a decree. Which of the
following is TRUE with respect to the decree?
(i) The feudal system was abolished. Members of the clergy too were forced to give up their
privileges.
(ii) Tithes were abolished and lands owned by the Church were confiscated.
a. Only (i) b. Only (ii)
c. Both (i) and (ii) d. Neither (i) nor (ii)
v. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option.
Statement (I): The revolutionary wars brought losses and economic difficulties to the people.
Statement (II): While the men were away fighting at the front, women were left to cope with the
tasks of earning a living and looking after their families.
a. Statement (I) is correct and (II) is incorrect.
b. Statement (I) is incorrect and (II) is correct.
c. Both statements are incorrect.
d. Both statements are correct.
Q2. Assertion and Reason Type Questions:

Two statements are given in the questions given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.
i. Assertion (A): During the eighteenth century, France witnessed the emergence of a middle class.
Reason (R): The emergence of the middle class happened on account of royal patronage.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
ii. Assertion (A): A large group among the Jacobins decided to start wearing long striped trousers.
Reason (R): This was to make themselves a part of the fashionable section of society.
SSC/IX/ASGMT Page 1 of 33
Q3. Source Based Questions:
Read the source given below and answer the following questions.
The population of France rose from about 23 million in 1715 to 28 million in 1789. This led to a rapid
increase in the demand for foodgrains. Production of grains could not keep pace with the demand. So
the price of bread which was the staple diet of the majority rose rapidly. Most workers were
employed as labourers in workshops whose owner fixed their wages. But wages did not keep pace with
the rise in prices. So the gap between the poor and the rich widened. Things became worse whenever
drought or hail reduced the harvest. This led to a subsistence crisis, something that occurred
frequently in France during the Old Regime.
i. What problem did the French people face?

ii. Where were most of the workers employed as?
iii. How does a subsistence crisis happen?
Q4. Answer the following questions:

i. What was the Estates General? Which demand of the third estate did Louis XVI reject?
ii. Who were the Jacobins? Explain about them in points.
iii. Which three causes led to the subsistence crisis in France during the old Regime?
iv. What was Guillotine? How was it used?
v. What was the role of the philosophers in the French Revolution?
vi. Which laws were made to improve the status of women in the French society?
vii. What compelled Louis XVI to raise taxes in France?
viii. How did peasants contribute to the outbreak of the French Revolution? Explain.
ix. Explain any five features of the constitution of 1791.
x. What was convention? What was its main role in France?
Q5. Map Based Question:

On the Outline Political map of France locate and label the following places.
i. Bordeaux ii. Nantes
CHAPTER-2 SOCIALISM IN EUROPE AND THE RUSSIAN REVOLUTION

i. Which among the following groups was against any kind of political or social change?
a. Nationalists b. Conservatives
c. Liberals d. Radicals
ii. How can you say that the liberals were not democrats?
a. They did not believe in Universal Adult Franchise.
b. They felt that only men of property should have a right to vote.
c. They believed that women should not have right to vote.
d. All of the above
iii. Who conspired in Italy to bring about a revolution?
a. Bismarck b. Karl Marx
c. Giuseppe Mazzini d. None of the above
iv. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Statement (I): Capitalists were against private property and saw it as the root of all social ills of
that time.
Statement (II): Individuals owned the property that gave employment but the propertied were
concerned only with personal gain and not with the welfare of those who made the
property productive
v. When the procession of workers led by Father Gapon reached the Winter Palace it was attacked by
the police and the Cossacks. Over 100 workers were killed and about 300 wounded. The incident,
known as:
a. Bloody Monday b. Bloody Tuesday
c. Bloody Sunday d. Russian Revolution
vi. Study the picture given below and answer the question that follow.
Who is shown in the above picture?

a. Louis XVI b. Tsar Nicholas II
c. Napoleon d. None of these

i. Assertion (A): The Russian Social Democratic Workers Party had to operate as an illegal
organization.
Reason (R): All political parties were illegal in Russia before 1914.
ii. Assertion (A): Germany, Italy and Switzerland were divided into kingdoms, duchies and cantons
whose rulers had their autonomous territories.
Reason (R): They were closely bound to each other in spite of their autonomous rule.

When the Bolsheviks ordered land redistribution, the Russian army began to break up. Soldiers,
mostly peasants, wished to go home for the redistribution and deserted. Non-Bolshevik socialists,
liberals and supporters of autocracy condemned the Bolshevik uprising. Their leaders moved to
South Russia and organised troops to fight the Bolsheviks (the 'reds'). During 1918 and 1919, the
'greens' (Socialist Revolutionaries) and 'whites' (pro-Tsarists) controlled most of the Russian empire.
They were backed by French, American, British and Japanese troops - all those forces who were
worried at the growth of socialism in Russia. As these troops and the Bolsheviks fought a civil war,
looting, banditry and famine became common.
Supporters of private property among 'whites' took harsh steps with peasants who had seized
land. Such actions led to the loss of popular support for the non-Bolsheviks. By January 1920 the
Bolsheviks controlled most of the former Russian empire.
i. Who controlled most of the Russian empire during 1918 and 1919?
ii. Which anti-social activities become common when Bolsheviks fought a civil war?
iii. Who took harsh steps with peasants who had seized land? What was its impact?

i. Which were the views of the liberals in 19th century Europe regarding Universal Adult Franchise?
ii. Why the Stalin government wanted to eliminate Kulaks?
iii. Analyse any four features of the Russian society of the 20th century.
iv. Who were liberals? What were their political and social views?
v. How did the Mensheviks resist the protest of the Bolsheviks?
vi. What were the views of liberals about the transformation of society in the 18 th century?
vii. What was the global influence of Russian Revolution?
viii. What conditions led to the Russian Civil War in 1918-1920? Give any three points.
ix. Why did ‘the Kerenskii government’ in Russia fall?
x. How did industrialization change the lives of people in Europe? Explain.

On the Outline Political map of World locate and label the following.
Allied Powers - France, England, Russia, U.S.A.
CHAPTER-3 NAZISM AND THE RISE OF HITLER

i. The Treaty of Versailles signed at the end of World War I, was harsh and humiliating for Germany,
because:
a. Germany lost its overseas colonies, and 13 per cent of its territories.
b. It lost 75% of its iron and 26% of its coal to France, Poland, Denmark, Lithuania and was forced
to pay compensation of 6 billion pounds.
c. The western powers demilitarized Germany and they occupied resource-rich Rhineland in the
1920s.
d. All of the above
ii. Study the picture given below and answer the question that follow:
What is being depicted in the above picture?

a. German children playing in a school
b. Jewish children and teachers being expelled from the school
c. Jewish children making fun of Aryan children
d. None of the above
iii. Which of the following bodies was set up to try and prosecute the Nazi war criminals at the
end of World War II?
a. International Military Tribunal b. British Military Tribunal
c. Allied Military Tribunal d. Allied Judicial Court
iv. What was the most important result of the Spartacist League uprising in Germany in 1918-19?
a. The Weimar Republic crushed the rebellion.
b. The Spartacist founded the Communist Party of Germany.
c. The Weimar government accepted the demands of the Spartacist League.
d. Both a and b
v. DEAR FRIEND,
Friends have been urging me to write to you for the sake of humanity. But I have resisted their
request, because of the feeling that any letter from me would be an impertinence. Something tells
me that I must not calculate and that I must make my appeal for whatever it may be worth.
It is quite clear that you are today the one person in the world who can prevent a war which may
reduce humanity to the savage state.
---------------- wrote this letter to ------------------
a. Mahatama Gandhi, Lenin b. Hitler, Schacht
c. Mahatama Gandhi, Hitler d. Schacht, Hitler
vi. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Statement (I): On 3rd March, 1933, the famous Enabling Act was passed.
Statement (II): This Act established democracy in Germany.

i. Assertion (A): Nazism became a mass movement only after the Great Depression.
Reason (R): The Great Depression created heavy discontent among the people.
ii. Assertion (A): Nazi ideology was synonymous with Hitler’s world view.
Reason (R): Hitler was inspired by the writing of Charles Darwin and Herbert Spencer.

The war had a devastating impact on the entire continent both psychologically and financially. From a
continent of creditors, Europe turned into one of debtors. Unfortunately, the infant Weimar Republic
was being made to pay for the sins of the old empire. The republic carried the burden of war guilt and
national humiliation and was financially crippled by being forced to pay compensation. Those who
supported the Weimar Republic, mainly Socialists, Catholics and Democrats, became easy targets of
attack in the conservative nationalist circles. They were mockingly called the ‘November criminals.
This mindset had a major impact on the political developments of the early 1930s. The First World
War left a deep imprint on European society and polity. Soldiers came to be placed above civilians.
Politicians and publicists laid great stress on the need for men to be aggressive, strong and masculine.
The media glorified trench life. The truth, however, was that soldiers lived miserable lives in these
trenches, trapped with rats feeding on corpses. They faced poisonous gas and enemy shelling, and
witnessed their ranks reduce rapidly. Aggressive war propaganda and national honour occupied
centre stage in the public sphere, while popular support grew for conservative dictatorships that had
recently come into being. Democracy was indeed a young and fragile idea, which could not survive the
instabilities of interwar Europe.
i. What was Weimar Republic?

ii. "Weimar Republic was not received well by its own people". Examine the reasons.

i. State any two steps which were taken by Nazis to control the youth?
ii. What was Free Corps?
iii. "The First War left a deep imprint on the European society and polity'. Analyse by giving four
examples?
iv. How did Hitler reconstruct Germany?
v. Explain the three fold plan of Hitler becoming chancellor of Germany to consolidate the Nazi
power.
vi. Describe the events leading to the economic crisis in Germany.
vii. Trace any three main features of the foreign policy of Hitler.
viii. Write any five clauses of Treaty of Versailles.
ix. What was the great economic depression and what were its impacts?
x. “The Nazi regime used language and media with great effect.” Justify the statement.
xi. What steps were taken by Adolf Hitler for the destruction of democracy?
xii. What did Hitler do to overcome the economic crisis that badly hit the German economy?
CHAPTER–5 PASTORALISTS IN THE MODERN WORLD

i. Where did the pastoralists were found?
a. Plateaus b. Plains
c. Deserts d. None of these
ii. Why were some forests classified as ‘protected’?
a. In these the customary grazing rights of pastorals were granted but their movements were
severely restricted.
b. They were protected by the pastoralists.
c. The colonial officials believed that grazing destroyed the saplings and young shoots of trees
that germinated on the forest floor.
d. Both a and c
iii. Which seasonal movements affect the Dhangars of Maharashtra?
a. Cold and snow b. Climatic disturbance
c. Drought and flood d. Alternate monsoon and dry season
iv. Study the picture given below and answer the question that follow:
In the given picture, members of _____________ tribe can be seen.
a. Somali b. Turkana c. Maasai d. Kurubas
v. Raika pastoral community belongs to
a. Himachal Pradesh b. Rajasthan
c. Jammu and Kashmir d. Maharashtra
Statement (I): In the late 19th century the Maasai lost about 60% of their pre colonial lands.
Statement (II): The British colonial government encouraged local peasants to expand cultivation.

i. Assertion (A): Pastoralists are important in India.
Reason (R): Pastoralists help in the maintenance of ecological balance.
ii. Assertion (A): The colonial government imposed various restrictions on the mobility of
pastoralists.
Reason (R): They were not allowed to move out with their stocks without special permits.

'We have difficulty. We cry. We are imprisoned. We do not know why we are locked up. We are in
jail. We have no place to live We cannot get meat from the south........... Our sleeping skins cannot be
sent out.... Ovamboland is closed for us. We lived in Ovamboland for a long time. We want to take our
cattle there, also our sheep and goats. The borders are closed. The borders press us heavily. We
cannot live.'
i. Why is the writer feeling being imprisoned?

ii. Analyse the impact of closing borders on the pastoralist communities.
i. When did European imperial powers divide Africa into different colonies?
ii. Where is the Serengeti National Park located?
iii. Pastoralists combine pastoral activities with agriculture. Explain.
iv. Where did the Gaddi shepherds belong to?
v. What factors had to be kept in mind by the pastoralists in order to survive?
vi. What kind of life did the chiefs appointed by the colonial government lead?
vii. Write a short note on Gujjar Bakarwals of Jammu and Kashmir.
viii. What happened to the animal’s stock when pasture lands were turned into cultivated lands?
ix. How did the Forest Acts change the life of pastoralists?
x. What was the impact of frequent drought on the pasture lands of Maasai community?
xi. Where do the Raikas live? Mention characteristics of their economy and life?
xii. How did the Indian pastoralists cope with the changes that were brought about by the British
colonial officials?
GEOGRAPHY
CHAPTER- 1 INDIA – SIZE AND LOCATION
i. What is the position of India in the world in respect of area?
a. Eighth position b. Seventh position
c. Sixth position d. Second position
ii. India has a land boundary of about .............. and the total length of the coastline of the mainland,
including Andaman and Nicobar and Lakshadweep, is……………………. .
a. 15,000 km - 7,520.6 km b. 15,100 km - 7,616.6 km
c. 15,200 km - 7,516.6 km d. 16,200 km - 6,516.6 km
iii. Which of the following is 'TRUE' with respect to location of India?
(i) It entirely lies in the Northern hemisphere.
(ii) To the southeast and southwest of the mainland, lie the Andaman and Nicobar islands and the
Lakshadweep islands in Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea respectively.
(iii) The Tropic of Cancer (23° 30'N) divides the country into almost two equal parts.
a. Only (i) and (ii) b. Only (ii) and (iii)
c. Only (i) and (iii) d. All the mentioned above
iv. Which of the following has reduced India’s distance from Europe by 7000 km?
a. Indira Gandhi Canal. b. Panama Canal
c. Suez Canal d. Buckingham Canal
v. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Statement (I): 82°30'E has been selected as the Standard Meridian of India.
Statement (II): It lies almost in the middle of India.

i. Assertion (A): India is located in Northern hemisphere.
Reason (R): Tropic of Capricorn divides India into two halves.
ii. Assertion (A): No other country has a long coastline on the Indian Ocean as India has.
Reason (R): It justifies the naming an Ocean after it.

India is a vast country lying entirely in the Northern hemisphere. The main land extends between
latitudes 8˚4’N and 37˚6’N and longitudes 68˚7’E and 97˚25’E. The Tropic of Cancer (23˚ 30’N)
divides the country into almost two equal parts. To the southeast and southwest of the mainland, lie
the Andaman and Nicobar islands and the Lakshadweep islands in Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea
respectively. The land mass of India has an area of 3.28 million square km. India’s total area accounts
for about 2.4 per cent of the total geographical area of the world. It is clear that India is the seventh
largest country of the world. India has a land boundary of about 15,200 km and the total length of the
coast line of the mainland including Andaman and Nicobar and Lakshadweep is 7,516.6 km.
i. Mention the latitudinal extent of India.
ii. Write the significance of latitudinal extent of India.
iii. Give any two effects of the longitudinal extent of India.

i. In which year did ‘Indira Point’ submerge under water due to Tsunami?
ii. What is the total area of Indian landmass?
iii. Name the place situated on three seas of India.
iv. “India has a large coastline which is advantageous.” Explain.
v. Why is the difference between the durations of day and night hardly felt at Kanyakumari but not so
in Kashmir?
vi. What is meant by Indian standard time? Why do we need a standard meridian in India?
vii. India has had strong geographical and historical links with its neighbours. Explain.
viii. What are India’s unique locational features?
ix. Why is India called a subcontinent?
x. Write a short note about the neighbours of India.

On the Outline Political Map of India locate and label the following.
i. Tropic of Cancer ii. Standard Meridian
CHAPTER-2 PHYSICAL FEATURES OF INDIA

i. The soil containing calcareous deposits is locally known as _________________.
a. Bhangar b. Khadar
c. Bhabar d. Kankar
ii. According to the 'Theory of Plate Tectonics', when some plates come towards each other, which of
the following is formed?
a. Convergent boundary b. Divergent boundary
c. Transform boundary d. None of the above
iii. This plain is formed of alluvial soil. The deposition of alluvium in a vast basin lying at the foothills
of the Himalaya over millions of years, formed this fertile plain. Identify the plain.
a. The Northern Plains b. The Coromandel Plain
c. The Coastal Plains d. The Southern Plains
iv. Which of the following is TRUE with respect to the Peninsular Plateau?
(i) The Peninsular plateau is a tableland composed of the old crystalline, igneous and metamorphic
rocks.
(ii) The plateau has broad and shallow valleys and rounded hills.
v. Which of the following physiographic divisions of India was formed out of accumulations in the
tethyas geosyncline?
a. The Himalayas b. The Peninsular plateau
c. The Northern plains d. The Coastal plains

Read the statements and choose the appropriate option
i. Assertion (A): Although only the southern part of India lies in tropical region, the whole area has
tropical climate.
Reason(R): Himalayan mountain ranges protect it from the northerly cold winds.
ii. Assertion (A): The Indian desert receives very low rainfall below 150 mm per year.
Reason (R): It has arid climate with low vegetation cover.

The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats mark the Western and the Eastern edges of the Deccan
Plateau respectively. Western Ghats lie parallel to the Western coast. They are continuous and can be
crossed through passes only. Locate the Bhor and Pal Ghats in the Physical map of India. The
Western Ghats are higher than the Eastern Ghats. Their average elevation is 900-1,600 metres as
against 600 metres of the Eastern Ghats. The Eastern Ghats stretch from the Mahanadi Valley to the
Nigiris in the south. The Eastern Ghats are discontinuous and irregular and dissected by rivers
draining into the Bay of Bengal. The Western Ghats cause orographic rain by facing the rain bearing
moist winds to rise along the western slopes of the Ghats. The Western Ghats are known by different
local names. The height of the Western Ghats progressively increases from north to south. The
highest peaks include the Anai Mudi (2,695 metres) and the Doda Betta (2,637 metres).
Mahendragiri (1,501 metres) is the highest peak in the Eastern Ghats. Shevroy Hills and the Javadi
Hills are located to the southeast of the Eastern Ghats. Locate the famous hill stations of
Udagamandalam, popularly known as Ooty and the Kodaikanal.
i. What is the stretch of Eastern Ghats?
ii. Which of the two is having a higher average height the Eastern Ghats or the Western Ghats?
iii. Give the difference between the Eastern Ghats Western Ghats on the basis of their location.

i. What was Gondwana land?
ii. What is a Dun? Give examples from the Himalayan region.
iii. What are the three types of plate movements on the earth?
iv. Describe the three parallel ranges of the Himalayas.
v. Give a brief account on the importance of the Ganga plain.
vi. Differentiate between The Himalayan region and The Peninsular plateau.
vii. What is a delta? Name some deltas of the Indian subcontinent.
viii. Why are northern plains agriculturally productive parts of India? Explain.
ix. Distinguish between Bhabar and Terai.
x. “The land of India displays great physical variations.” Justify the statement with five examples.

On the Online Political Map of India locate and label the following.
i. Mountain Ranges: The Karakoram, The Aravalli
ii. Mountain Peaks- K2, Kanchan Junga
iii. Plateau- Deccan Plateau, Chota Nagpur Plateau
iv. Coastal Plains- Konkan, Malabar
CHAPTER-3 DRAINAGE
i. Which type of lakes contain water only during the rainy season?
a. Oxbow lakes b. Lagoons
c. Lakes in basins of inland drainage d. Glacial lakes
ii. The river flows eastwards parallel to the Himalayas. On reaching the Namcha Barwa (7757 m), it
takes a 'U' turn and enters India in Arunachal Pradesh through a gorge. Identify the river.
a. Narmada b. Brahmaputra
c. Indus d. Godavari
iii. Which of the following is responsible for the formation of lakes?
(i) Action of glaciers and ice sheets.
(ii) Action of wind, river and humans.
iv. Which of the following is the result of concern over rising pollution in our rivers?
a. Banning hydroelectric projects b. Various river action plans
c. Rainwater harvesting d. None of the above
v. Which of the following lakes is formed as a result of tectonic activity?
a. Wular Lake b. Kolleru Lake
c. Loktak Lake d. Dal Lake
Statement (I): The Ganga is joined by many tributaries from the Himalayas, a few of them being
major rivers such as the Yamuna, the Ghaghara, the Gandak and the Kosi.
Statement (II): The river Yamuna rises from the Gangotri Glacier in the Himalayas. It flows parallel
to the Ganga and as a right bank tributary, meets the Ganga at Allahabad.

i. Assertion (A): Most of the Himalayan rivers are perennial.
Reason (R): These rivers receive water from rain as well as from melted snow from the high
mountains and have water throughout the year.
ii. Assertion (A): River pollution is increasing day by day.
Reason (R): Sewage and industrial effluents are emptied into the rivers.

Apart from originating from the two major physiographic regions of India, the Himalayan and the
Peninsular rivers are different from each other in many ways. Most of the Himalayan rivers are
perennial. It means that they have water throughout the year. These rivers receive water from rain as
well as from melted snow from the lofty mountains. The two major Himalayan rivers, the Indus and
the Brahmaputra originate from the North of the mountain ranges. They have cut through the
mountains making gorges. The Himalayan rivers have long courses from their source to the sea.
They perform intensive erosional activity in their upper courses and carry huge loads of silt and sand.
In the middle and the lower courses, these rivers form meanders, ox-bow lakes, and many other
depositional features in their floodplains. They also have well-developed deltas.
i. Mention any two features of the Himalayan rivers.

ii. How do the Himalayan rivers form depositional features?

i. What do you understand by the term ‘drainage basin’?
ii. Why are Peninsular rivers seasonal in nature? Give any three reasons.
iii. Mention ant three similarities between the Himalayan rivers and Peninsular rivers.
iv. Write a short note on the Krishna Basin.
v. What are the major sources of river pollution?
vi. Write a short note on the Sunderban delta.
vii. How do urbanization and industrialization cause river pollution? Suggest three measures to
control river pollution.
viii. Explain the term water divide with example.
xi. What types of lakes are found in India? Give suitable examples.
x. Study the picture given below and answer the question that follow:
What does the above picture depicts?

On the Online Political Map of India locate and label the following.
Rivers: (Identification only)
i. The Himalayan River Systems- The Indus, The Ganges, and The Sutlej
ii. The Peninsular Rivers- The Narmada, The Tapi, The Kaveri,
iii. Lakes- Wular, Pulicat, Sambhar
CHAPTER-4 CLIMATE
i. Which one of the following places receives the highest rainfall in the world?
a. Silchar b. Mawsynram
c. Cherrapunji d. Guwahati
ii. Which one of the following causes rainfall during winters in north-western part of India?
a. Cyclonic depression b. Retreating monsoon
c. Western disturbances d. Southwest monsoon
iii. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Statement (I): About seventy five percent of the working population of the Aravalli mountain
region is engaged in agriculture.
Statement (II): The greater parts of Aravalis receive scanty rainfall.
iv. Which of the following is 'TRUE' with reference to Trade winds?
(i) Trade winds are strong winds that blow towards the equator from the north-east or south-east.
(ii) They can be defined as Planetary winds blowing constantly from the subtropical high pressure
zones towards the equatorial low pressure zones.
c. Neither (i), Nor (ii) d. Both (i) and (ii)
v. In which month the transition season changes the hot rainy season to dry winter season?
a. December to February b. February to March
c. June to July d. October to November
vi. Analyse the information and identify the term: It starts in October and November and causes
rainfall in South India. It is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature. While day temperatures
are high, nights are cool and pleasant. The land is moist. Owing to the conditions of high
temperature and humidity, the weather becomes rather oppressive during the day. This is
commonly known as October heat.
Which season is described here?
a. Cold weather season b. Advancing monsoon
c. Hot weather season d. Retreating monsoon

i. Assertion (A): India has a tropical monsoon type climate.
Reason(R): India is located exactly between the tropical latitudes.
ii. Assertion (A): Himalayas act as a barrier to cold winds that blow from central Asia.
Reason(R): It prevents the northern India from becoming freezing cold.

The cold weather season begins from mid-November in northern India and stays till February.
December and January are the coldest months in the northern part of India. The temperature
decreases from south to the north. The average temperature of Chennai, on the eastern coast, is
between 24° - 25° Celsius, while in the northern plains, it ranges between 10°-15° Celsius. Days are
warm and nights are cold. Frost is common in the north and the higher slopes of the Himalayas
experience snowfall.
During this season, the northeast trade winds prevail over the country. They blow from
land to sea and hence, for most part of the country, it is a dry season. Some amount of rainfall occurs
on the Tamil Nadu coast from these winds as, here they blow from sea to land.
In the northern part of the country, a feeble high-pressure region develops, with light
winds moving outwards from this area. Influenced by the relief, these winds blow through the Ganga
valley from the west and the northwest. The weather is normally marked by clear sky, low
temperatures and low humidity and feeble, variable winds. A characteristic feature of the cold
weather season over the northern plains is the inflow of cyclonic disturbances from the west and the
northwest. These low-pressure systems, originate over the Mediterranean Sea and western Asia and
move into India, along with the westerly flow. They cause the much-needed winter rains over the
plains and snowfall in the mountains. Although the total amount of winter rainfall locally known as
‘mahawat’ is small, they are of immense importance for the cultivation of ‘rabi’ crops.
i. What do you understand by Mahawat?

ii. Name the winds that prevail over the country during winter season.
iii. What type of weather is seen in this season?

i. Why do the Monsoon winds change their direction?
ii. Mention any two features of Indian Monsoon.
iii. "Hilly areas are cooler than the plains". Give reason.
iv. What does the word ‘monsoon’ imply?
v. Which town, out of Jaisalmer, Leh, Shillong and Thiruvananthapuram, will be the hottest during
daytime in June?
vi. “India’s climate has characteristics of tropical as well as sub-tropical climates.” Discuss.
vii. What do you know about rainfall distribution in India?
viii. How do pressure and surface winds affect the climatic conditions of a particular place?
xi. “India has diverse climatic conditions.” Elaborate using suitable examples.
x. What are the major controls of the climate? Explain them.

Annual rainfall in India, Monsoon wind directions
CHAPTER-5 NATURAL VEGETATION AND WILDLIFE

i. Vegetation Type: Tropical Evergreen Forest, Tropical Deciduous Forest, Thorn Forest,
Montane Forests and Mangrove (For identification only)
ii. National Parks: Corbett, Kaziranga, Ranthambor, Shivpuri, Kanha, Simlipal & Manas
iii. Bird Sanctuaries: Bharatpur and Ranganthitto
iv. Wild life Sanctuaries: Sariska, Mudumalai, Rajaji, Dachigam (Location and Labelling)
CHAPTER-6 POPULATION
i. Which is least densely populated state of India?
a. Madhya Pradesh b. Andhra Pradesh
c. Arunachal Pradesh d. Karnataka
ii. What is NPP?
a. Nation Population Policy b. National Population Policy
c. National Pollution Policy d. National Pharmacy Policy
iii. Which of the following is TRUE with respect to India's population?
(i) Since 1981 rate of growth of population has declined.
(ii) Birth rate have always been higher than the death rate.
c. Both (i) and (ii) d. Neither (i) and (ii)
iv. Which is the most populated state of India?
a. Uttar Pradesh b. Madhya Pradesh
c. Gujarat d. Haryana
v. Almost half of India's population lives in just five states. Choose the correct states.
a. Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh
b. Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Punjab, West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh
c. BiharUttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, Punjab, West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh
d. Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal and Gujarat
Statement (I): Population density is calculated as the number of persons living per unit area.
Statement (II): Density of population is not uniform in our country.
i. Assertion (A): Population of a region does not change.
Reason (R): Birth rate, death rate and migration affect the population of a region.
ii. Assertion (A): Northern Indian Plain is thickly populated.
Reason (R): Northern Plains are having suitability of soils, economic activity and favorable
climatic conditions.

Primary activities include agriculture, animal husbandry, forestry, mining, and quarrying etc.
Secondary activities include manufacturing industries, building and construction work etc. Tertiary
activities include transport, communications, commerce, administrations and other services.
The proportion of people working in different activities varies in developed and developing
countries. Developed nations have a high proportion of people in secondary and tertiary activities.
Developing countries tend to have a higher proportion of their workforce engage in primary
activities. In India about 64 percent of the population is engaged only in agriculture. The proportion
of population dependent on secondary and tertiary sectors is about 13 to 20 percent respectively.
There has been an occupational shift in favour of secondary and tertiary sectors because of growing
industrialization and urbanization in recent times.
i. In which activities do the maximum proportion of people of developing countries work?

ii. Why there has been an occupational shift in favour of secondary and tertiary sectors?
Q4. Answer the following questions.

i. What is the distribution of population according to different types of occupation is referred?
ii. What is defined as the number of females per thousand males in the population?
iii. What is the number of deaths per thousand persons in a year?
iv. Which activities include transport, communications, commerce, administration and other services?
v. What is migration? What are its types?
vi. What is age composition? Name three broad categories of population.
vii. What are the factors responsible for the uneven population distribution of India?
viii. What is Sex Ratio? Give reasons responsible for unfavorable sex ratio in India.
ix. Write a short note on National Population Policy.
x. What are the features of population change?
xi. Write short note on Adolescent population of India. Explain the problems faced by them.

The state having highest and lowest density of population.
POLITICAL SCIENCE
CHAPTER-1 WHAT IS DEMOCRACY? WHY DEMOCRACY?
i. Which body in Indian political system is an example of direct democracy?
a. Zila Parishad b. Panchayat Samiti
c. Gram Sabha d. Vidhan Sabha
ii. Identify the reason(s) which does/do not establish China as a democratic country.
(i) Before contesting elections, a candidate needs the approval of the Chinese Communist Party.
(ii) Elections are regularly held after five years.
a. Only (i) b. Both (i) and (ii)
c. Only (ii) d. Neither (i) Nor (ii)
iii. Identify the incorrect statement(s).
a. In China, elections are regularly held after five-years for electing the country' Parliament.
b. In China, the government is always formed by the every
Chinese Communist Party.
c. In Mexico, until 2000, every election was won b PRI.
vi. A democratic government has to respect some rules after winning the elections. Which of
these points is not a part of those rules?
a. Respecting guarantees given to the minorities.
b. Every major decision has to go through a series of consultations.
c. Office-bearers are not accountable.
d. Office-bearers have some responsibilities.
v. Study the picture given below and answer the question that follow.
What neighbouring country of India can the above cartoon be related to?
a. Pakistan b. Nepal c. Bhutan d. Bangladesh
Statement (I): Democracy is a form of government in which the power is vested in a few
individuals.
Statement (II): Democracy is a form of government in which the power is vested in the hands of
the people.

i. Assertion (A): Democracy is not a legitimate government.
Reason (R): Regular, free and fair elections are the spirit of democracy.
ii. Assertion (A): A democratic government is not a magical solution for all the problems.
Reason (R): Democracy as a form of government only ensures that people take their decisions.

In Pakistan, General Pervez Musharraf led a military coup in October 1999. In August 2002 he issued
a ‘Legal Framework Order’ that amended the Constitution of Pakistan. According to this Order, the
President can dismiss the national and provincial assemblies. The work of the civilian cabinet is
supervised by a National Security Council which is dominated by military officers. So Pakistan has
had elections, elected representatives have some powers. But the final power rested with military
officers and General Musharraf himself. Clearly, there are many reasons why Pakistan under General
Musharraf should not be called a democracy. But let us focus on one of these. Can we say that the
rulers are elected by the people in Pakistan? Not quite. People may have elected their representatives
to the national and provincial assemblies but those elected representatives were not really the rulers.
They cannot take the final decisions. The power to take final decision rested with army officials and
with General Musharraf and none of them were elected by the people. This happens in many
dictatorships and monarchies. The National People’s Congress has the power to appoint the
President of the country. It has nearly 3,000 members elected from all over China. Some members
are elected by the army. Before contesting elections, a candidate needs the approval of the Chinese
Communist Party. Only those who are members of the Chinese Communist Party or eight smaller
parties allied to it were allowed to contest elections held in 2002-03. The government is always
formed by the Communist Party.
i. Why can the Chinese government not be called a democratic government even though
elections are held there?
ii. The work of the civilian cabinet is supervised by the National Security Council. Who dominates it?
iii. What was the effect of Legal Framework order that was issued by President Musharraf in August
2002?

i. Which is the most common form of democracy? Why is this form of democracy necessary?
ii. Distinguish between democratic and non democratic elections.
iii. “Democracy is better than other forms of government because it allows us to correct its own
mistakes.” Do you agree with it or not?
iv. How does democracy provide a platform to deal with differences and conflicts?
v. “Democracy is the most popular form of government emerging in modern times.” Justify the
statement.
vi. What is democracy? Give examples of non-democratic countries.
vii. Write down the three features of democracy.
viii. Why was every election won by the party called PRI in China? Explain any three reasons.
ix. Explain the major features of democracy.
x. ‘‘Democracy improves the power of decision making.” Explain.
CHAPTER-2 CONSTITUTIONAL DESIGN

i. Every document presented and every word spoken in the Constituent Assembly has been
recorded and preserved. These are called______.
a. Constituent Assembly Debates b. Constituent Assembly Minutes
c. Constituent Assembly Agenda d. Constituent Assembly Daily
ii. The drafting of the document called the constitution was done by an assembly of elected
representatives. What was that assembly called?
a. Constitutional Assembly b. Constituent Assembly
c. Electoral Assembly d. None of these
iii. 'I have fought against white domination and I have fought against black domination. I have
cherished the ideal of a democratic and free society in which all persons live together in harmony
and with equal opportunities.' Identify the speaker.
a. Nelson Mandela b. Robert Mugabe
c. Frank Anthony d. Mahatma Gandhi
iv. Which of these positions is correct in relation to the ‘Sovereign’ status of India?
a. USA can decide India’s foreign policy.
b. USSR can support the CPI (M) in setting up its government here.
c. The Indian government only can decide its internal and external policies.
d. Pakistan can control India’s Armed Forces.
Statement (I): The Indian Constitution was heavily influenced by the US Constitution.
Statement (II): The framers of the Indian Constitution were inspired by the ideas of liberty,
equality and democracy enshrined in the US Constitution.
vi. Who gave this statement-"I have cherished the ideal of a democratic and free society in which all
persons live together in harmony and with equal opportunities"?
a. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar b. Nelson Mandela
c. Aung San Suu Kyi d. Nkrumah

i. Assertion (A): Constitution lays down how different organs of the government will be formed.
Reason (R): A constitution is about institutions, not about values.
a. Both and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
ii. Assertion (A): A Constitution embodies the values and philosophy into institutional arrangements.
Reason (R): The makers of the Constitution made a provision for making amendments to the
Constitution from time to time.
a. Both and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

A Constitution is not merely a statement of values and philosophy. As we noted above, a Constitution
is mainly about embodying these values into institutional arrangements. Much of the document
called Constitution of India is about these arrangements. It is a very long and detailed document.
Therefore, it needs to be amended quite regularly to keep it updated. Those who crafted the Indian
Constitution felt that it has to be in accordance with people's aspirations and changes in society. They
did not see it as a sacred, static and unalterable law. So, they made provisions to incorporate changes
from time to time. These changes are called Constitutional amendments. The Constitution describes
the institutional arrangements in a very legal language. If you read the Constitution for the first time,
it can be quite difficult to understand. Yet the basic institutional design is not very difficult to
derstand.
i. What are constitutional amendments?
ii. Mention the two major aspects in the working of institutional design.

i. What do you mean by secular state?
ii. Study the picture and answer the question that follows:
Which in human system does the above picture depict?

iii. Explain the ideals of the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
iv. Why do we need a constitution?
v. Why Preamble is called the preface of the Indian Constitution?
vi. “India emerged as an independent country amidst heavy turmoil”. Justify the statement
by explaining the challenges before the constitution makers of India.
vii. What is Preamble? Explain any four guiding principles enshrined in Preamble to the Indian
Constitution.
viii. What does the term ‘liberty’ signify as given in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
ix. What is meant by Constituent Assembly Debates’?
x. What is meant by apartheid? How was it oppressive for the blacks?
CHAPTER-3 ELECTORAL POLITICS

i. Which of these is not a feature of Indian democracy?
a. India has the largest number of voters in the world.
b. India’s Election Commission is very powerful.
c. In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote.
d. In India, the losing parties refuse to accept the electoral verdict.
ii. Which one of the following is not a factor that makes an election democratic?
a. There should be something to choose from.
b. Parties and candidates should be free to contest elections.
c. The choice should not be offered at regular intervals.
d. The candidate preferred by the people should get elected.
iii. What is an election held for only one constituency to fill the vacancy caused due to the death or
resignation of a member called?
a. By-election b. Mid-term election
c. General election d. None of these
iv. What are the details the candidates have to give in the legal declaration before contesting
the elections?
a. Serious criminal cases pending against them
b. Details of assets and liabilities of the candidate and his or her family
c. Educational qualification of the candidate
d. All of the above
Statement (I): An open electoral competition might be unfair to weaker sections.
Statement (II): The weaker sections of the society lack what their influential counterparts have in
terms of resources, education and political connections.
vi. What do we mean when we say that a constituency is reserved for the Scheduled Castes (SCs)?
a. Any candidate can fight the election but only the SC candidate will be declared winner.
b. Any candidate can fight the election but only women candidate will be declared winner.
c. Only SC candidate can fight the election.

i. Assertion (A): The interest of voters in election related activities has been increasing over the
years.
Reason (R): Common people in India attach a lot of importance of elections. They feel that their
vote matters in the way that affairs are managed in the country.
ii. Assertion (A): Elections give the voters the right to elect their representatives or rulers.
Reason (R): Through elections, voters can't choose who will form the government and take major
decisions.
The main purpose of election is to give people a chance to choose the representatives, the
government and the policies they prefer. Therefore, it is necessary to have a free and open discussion
about who is a better representative, which party will make a better government or what is a good
policy. This is what happens during election campaigns.
In our country such campaigns take place for a two-week period between the
announcement of the final list of candidates and the date of polling. During this period the candidates
contact their voters, political leaders address election meetings and political parties mobilise their
supporters. This is also the period when newspapers and television news are full of election related
stories and debates. But election campaign is not limited to these two weeks only. Political parties
start preparing for elections months before they actually take place.
i. What is meant by election campaign?

ii. Mention the period of election campaigning in India, what happens during this period?

i. What are electoral constituencies?
ii. What choice do the voters make in an election?
iii. What are the two merits of electoral competition?
iv. What is the ‘Model Code of Conduct’ for election campaign?
v. In what manner does the Election Commission monitor the election campaign?
vi. Write any three successful slogans given by different political parties in various elections?
vii. What legal declaration is required to be submitted by each candidate who wishes to contest
an election?
viii. List the ways to regulate and ensure free and fair elections.
ix. How was the system of reserved constituencies introduced for the SCs and STs?
x. What is the importance of Election Manifesto?
CHAPTER-4 WORKING OF INSTITUTIONS

i. What is ‘Parliament’?
a. Assembly of elected representatives at the national level
b. A body consisting of appointed ministers
c. Body comprising judges
d. Assembly of only appointed members
ii. Apart from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, who else constitutes the Parliament?
a. The Prime Minister b. The Chief Minister
c. The Governor d. The President
iii. Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts?
a. The President, according to his own wishes
b. The President, on the advice of the PM
c. The President on the advice of the PM in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
d. None of these
Statement (I): The Parliament can remove the Council of Ministers by passing a vote of no-
confidence against them.
Statement (II): The Parliament can exercise control over the Council of Ministers by rejecting any
government bill.
v. Why do the political executives have more powers than the permanent executive?
a. Because hardly any expertise is required in taking policy decisions.
b. Because political executives consist of the direct representatives of the people.
c. Political leaders are more educated.
vi. Study the picture and answer the question that follows.
Who is administering the oath of the office of Prime Minister to Shri Narendra Modi?
a. Shri Ram Nath Kovind b. Shri Pranab Mukherjee
c. Shri Jaipal Reddy d. None of the above

i. Assertion (A): The President is the head of the state and is the highest formal authority in the
country.
Reason(R): The President can make any law and people have to follow it.
ii. Assertion (A): Political executives are appointed for a specific period.
Reason(R): They remain in office even when the the ruling party changes.

The President is not elected directly by the people. The elected Members of Parliament (MPs) and the
elected Members of the Legislative Assemblies (MLAs) elect her. A candidate standing for President's
post has to get a majority of votes to win the election. This ensures that the President can be seen to
represent the entire nation. At the same time the President can never claim the kind of direct popular
mandate that the Prime Minister can. This ensures that she remains only a nominal executive.
The same is true of the powers of the President If you casually read the Constitution you would think
that there is nothing that she cannot do. All governmental activities take place in the name of the
President.
i. Who elects the President?
ii. How can it be said that the President remains only a nominal executive?
iii. What are the activities performed in the name of the President?
Q4. Answer the following questions.
i. How is the President of India elected?
ii. "Working with institutions is not easy". Give any two reasons to support the statement.
iii. How does judiciary act as guardian of the Fundamental Rights?
iv. Why is there a need for political institutions?
v. Study the picture and answer the question that follows.
What does the above picture depicts?

vi. What do integration of judiciary mean?
vii. Why had the Mandal Commission become a debatable issue in India?
viii. What do you mean by PIL?
ix. “Lok Sabha is more powerful than the Rajya Sabha”. Elaborate.
x. What is job reservation? What is its importance?
CHAPTER-5 DEMOCRATIC RIGHTS

i. About 600 hundred people from all over the world were put in a prison in Guantanamo Bay by the
a. US forces b. Japanese forces
c. German forces d. British forces
ii. The National Human Rights Commission of India was set up in
a. 1993 b. 1994
c. 1995 d. 1996
iii. The direction or orders issued by the Supreme Court and High Courts for the enforcement of the
Fundamental Right is called
a. Summon b. Writ
c. Claim d. Ordinance
iv. Which of the following statements is wrong?
a. We have freedom to travel to any part of the country.
b. We have freedom of speech and expression.
c. Untouchability is not a punishable offence.
d. Everyone is equal before the law.
v. Which of the Fundamental Rights is called ‘the heart and soul’ of the Indian Constitution?
a. Right to Equality b. Right to Freedom of Religion
c. Right to Constitutional Remedies d. Cultural and Educational Rights
Statement (I): Democracy improve the quality of decision making.
Statement (II): Democracy provide method to deal with differences and conflicts.

i. Assertion (A): Rights are necessary for the sustenance of a democracy.
Reason(R): Rights protect minorities from the oppression of majority.
ii. Assertion (A): People of India have been given the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression.
Reason(R): People are not free to defame others by saying false and mean things.

Rights are claims of a person over other fellow beings, over the society and over the government. All
of us want to live happily, without fear and without being subjected to degraded treatment. For this,
we expect others to behave in such a way that does not harm us or hurt us. Equally, our actions
should not also harm or hurt others. So, a right is possible when you make a claim that is equally
possible for others.
You cannot have a right that harms or hurts others. You cannot have a right to play a
game in such a way that it breaks the neighbour's window. The Serbs in Yugoslavia could not have
claimed the whole country for themselves. The claims we make should be reasonable. They should be
such that can be made available to others in an equal measure. Thus, a right comes with an obligation
to respect other rights.
i. What are rights?

ii. Why are rights reasonable claims? Give reasons.
iii. Why is it said that right comes with an obligation to respect others rights?

i. Mention any two freedoms which you might be enjoying in India but which are
not enjoyed by Saudi Arabian people?
ii. Explain the reason for calling some rights as fundamental rights.
iii. Mention any two limitations of freedom of speech and expression.
iv. Enumerate the restrictions imposed on the citizens of Saudi Arabia by their king.
v. Why did Dr. Ambedkar call the Right to Constitutional Remedies ‘the heart and soul’ of our
constitution?
vi. Write a short note on the National Human Rights Commission.
vii. “Rights are claims of person over other fellow beings, over the society and over the government.”
Explain the statement.
viii. Mention the restrictions that can be imposed on various forms of freedoms granted by the
Constitution.
ix. What are Fundamental Rights? Name the Fundamental Rights provided in the Indian
Constitution. Which Fundamental Right protects the rest of the Fundamental Rights?
x. What was the Amnesty International’s report regarding the prisoners in Guantanamo Bay? State
the condition of prisoners according to the report of Amnesty International in Guantanamo Bay.
ECONOMICS
CHAPTER-1 THE STORY OF VILLAGE PALAMPUR
i. The Green Revolution introduced the farmers to
a. Cultivation of wheat and rice using HYV seeds b. Cultivation of green vegetables
c. Cultivation of sugar cane d. Cultivation of forests
ii. Which of the following in fixed capital?
a. Tools and machines b. Fertilizers and pesticides
c. Soil d. Seeds
iii. Which one of the following is not an effect of the modern farming?
a. Soil degradation b. Deforestation
c. Decrease in groundwater d. Water pollution
iv. Where do most of the small farmers borrow money to arrange for the capital in Palampur?
a. Banks b. Co-operative Societies
c. Village money lenders d. Friends and relatives
v. Identify the incorrect statement.
a. In Palampur, the SCs comprise one-third of the population
b. Palampur has one Primary school and one High school
c. Since 1960, there has been no expansion in area under cultivation in Palampur
vi. Consider the picture given below:
What does the picture convey about the distribution of land in Palampur village?
a. Land is distributed equitably
b. Land is not distributed equitably
c. It tells us nothing about the distribution of land

i. Assertion (A): Till the mid 1960’s the seeds used in cultivation were traditional ones with
relatively low yields.
Reason (R): Traditional seeds needed less irrigation. Farmers used cow dung and the other
natural manure as fertilizers.
ii. Assertion (A): To grow more than one crop on a piece of land during the year is known as Green
Revolution.
Reason (R): Multiple cropping is the most common way of increasing production on a given piece
of land.

Farm labourers come either from landless families or families cultivating small plots of land. Unlike
farmers, farm labourers do not have a right over the crops grown on the land. Instead they are paid
wages by the farmer for whom they work. Wages can be in cash or in kind eg, crop. Sometimes
labourers get meals also. Wages vary widely from region to region, from crop to crop, from one farm
activity to another (like sowing and harvesting). There is also a wide variation in the duration of
employment. A farm labourer might be employed on a daily basis, or for one particular farm activity
like harvesting, or for the whole year.
i. Mention any two problems faced by farm labourers in terms of employment.

ii. What are the variations seen in the duration of employment in Palampur?

i. What is the main production activity in villages across India?
ii. What is multiple cropping?
iii. Who are the small farmers?
iv. How can you say that the use of modern farming methods is beneficial for Indian farmers?
v. Differentiate between physical capital and human capital.
vi. Distinguish between traditional and modern farming methods.
vii. What are the essential four requirements for production?
viii. What was the major disadvantages associated with HYV seeds? Explain.
ix. What do you mean by Green Revolution? What are its ill effects?
x. a. The distribution of farmers in India and the amount of land they cultivate is given in the
following graph.
Graph Distribution of Farmers and the Cultivated Area.

b. Would you agree that the distribution of cultivated land is unequal in Palampur ? Do you
find a similar situation for India? Explain.
CHAPTER-2 PEOPLE AS RESOURCE
i. In which category services of housewives are included?
a. National income b. Domestic income
c. House hold income d. None of these
ii. Why are market activities performed?
a. To exchange b. To earn income
c. To earn profit d. All of these
iii. Which one from the following is included in Secondary sector?
a. Trade b. Marketing
c. Manufacturing d. Education
iv. What does tertiary sector provides?
a. Services b. Goods
c. Both goods and services d. None of the above
v. Which one of the following is considered important to create a ‘virtuous cycle’ by the parents?
a. To send their children to the school.
b. To take care of the health and education of their children.
c. To send their children to corporate schools.
d. To provide good food to their children.
Statement (I): People dependent upon agriculture usually face problem of seasonal
unemployment.
Statement (II): Urban areas have mostly educated unemployment.

i. Assertion (A): Educated unemployment is posing a great threat to our country.
Reason (R): In educated unemployment, people appear to be employed but their productivity is
zero.
ii. Assertion (A): Unemployment leads to wastage of manpower resource.
Reason (R): Unemployment turns people into an asset.

Like other resources population also is a resource — a 'human resource'. This is the positive side of a
large population that is often overlooked when we look only at the negative side, considering only
the problems of providing the population with food, education and access to health facilities. When
the existing 'human resource' is further developed by becoming more educated and healthy, we call
it 'human capital formation' that adds to the productive power of the country just like 'physical
capital formation'. Investment in human capital (through education, training, medical care yields a
return just like investment in physical capital. This can be seen directly in the form of higher incomes
earned because of higher productivity of the more educated or the better trained persons, as well as
the higher productivity of healthier people.
i. What kind of resource is population?

ii. What is positive about a large population?
iii. What are the different ways to invest in human capital?

i. When does population become human capital?
ii. What are market activities?
iii. Which investment in human resources should be done for better economic growth?
iv. What kind of unemployment exists in urban areas?
v. ‘Health is wealth’ is it true? Describe the role played by health in an individual’s working life.
vi. What is the main difference between ‘Human Capital’ and ‘Human Capital Formation’?
vii. What are the two types of economic activities? Explain.
viii. What different strategies should be made by the government to solve the unemployment in India?
ix. What is an economic activity? What are the various activities undertaken in the primary sector, b
secondary sector and tertiary sector?
x. “Unemployment has a detrimental impact on the overall growth of an economy.” Justify the
statement.
xi. Study the picture given below and answer the question that follow:
Based on the picture, classify the activities into three sectors.
CHAPTER-3 POVERTY AS A CHALLENGE

i. What does NFWP stand for?
a. National Federation for Work and Progress b. National Forest for Wildlife Protection
c. National Food and Wheat Processing d. National Food for Work Programme
ii. Which of the following is responsible for high poverty rates?
a. Huge income inequalities
b. Unequal distribution of land
c. Lack of effective implementation of land reforms
d. All of the above
iii. Who advocated that India would be truly independent only when the poorest of its people
become free of human suffering?
a. Mahatma Gandhi b. Indira Gandhi
c. Jawahar lal Nehru d. Subhash Chandra Bose
Statement (I): The government has no role to play in poverty reduction.
Statement (II): Poverty is a result of individual choices and cannot be eliminated by government
policies.
v. Choose the correct statement.
a. Every fifth person in India lives in poverty.
b. Every third person in India lives in poverty.
c. Every second person in India lives in poverty.
d. Every fourth person in India lives in poverty.

i. Assertion (A): The amount of poverty line for rural areas is less than the amount for urban areas.
Reason (R): The urban people actually require more calories than the people of rural areas.
ii. Assertion (A): Poverty is an important challenge faced by independent India.
Reason (R): Poverty line may vary with time and place.

Poverty in India also has another aspect or dimension. The proportion of poor people is not the same
in every state. Although state level poverty has witnessed a secular decline from the levels of early
seventies, the success rate of reducing poverty varies from state to state. Recent estimates show
while the all India Head Count Ratio (HCR) was 21.9 per cent in 2011-12 states like Madhya Pradesh,
Assam, Uttar Pardesh, Bihar and Odisha had above all India poverty level. Bihar and Odisha continue
to be the two poorest states with poverty ratios of 33.7 and 32.6 per cent respectively. Along with
rural poverty, urban poverty is also high in Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.
In comparison, there has been a significant decline in poverty in Kerala, Maharashtra, Andhra
Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat and West Bengal. States like Punjab and Haryana have traditionally
succeeded in reducing poverty with the help of high agricultural growth rates. Kerala has focused
more on human resource development. In West Bengal, land reform measures have helped in
reducing poverty. In Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, public distribution of foodgrains could have
been responsible for the improvement.
i. Which are the poorest states in India having low poverty ratios?
ii. In which states, rural as well as urban poverty are high?
iii. Which states have shown a significant decline in poverty?
i. Who is considered as poor?
ii. Give three indicators of poverty.
iii. Which social groups are most vulnerable to poverty?
iv. On which two planks does the current anti-poverty strategy of the government is based upon?
v. Name two special groups which are most vulnerable to poverty?
vi. Explain colonial rule and income inequalities as causes of poverty.
vii. Explain the principle measures taken in Punjab, Kerala and Andhra Pradesh to reduce poverty.
viii. “The proportion of poor people is not the same in every state”. Justify.
ix. There is a strong link between growth and poverty reduction. Explain.
x. Describe the global poverty scenario giving its features.
CHAPTER-4 FOOD SECURITY IN INDIA

i. Since independence, India is aiming at self-sufficiency in
a. Food security b. Food grain
c. Work force d. National security
ii. Antyodaya cards are given to the
a. Poor b. Poorest of the poor
c. Those below poverty line d. People with average income
iii. Which of the following group of people are not affected by food insecurity?
a. Landless people with little or no land b. Traditional artisans
c. Petty self-employed workers d. Shopkeepers
Statement (I): The National Food Security Act (NFSA) aims to provide food security to all people
in India.
Statement (II): The NFSA entitles poor households to receive 6kgs of foodgrains per person per
month subsidised prices under the PDS.
d. Both statements are correct
v. MSP refers to:
a. Minimum Support Price b. Maximum Support Price
c. Marginal Support Price d. Minimum Suggested Price
vi. Study the picture given below and answer the question that follows:
Where are the people queing up?

a. A grocery shop b. A ration shop
c. An NGO distrinuting grains d. None of the above
i. Assertion (A): Food security, credit facilities guarantee social protection to the poor.
Reason (R): Leakages in the administrative system perpetuates poverty.
ii. Assertion (A): Buffer stock is the stock of food grains, namely wheat and rice procured by the
government.
Reason (R): Government procures buffer stock to export grains to other countries.

Ramu works as a casual labourer in agriculture in Raipur village. His eldest son Somu who is 10
years old also works as a pali to look after the cattle of the Sarpanch of the village Satpal Singh. Somu
is employed for the whole year by the Sarpanch and is paid a sum of Rs 1,000 for this work. Ramu
has three more sons and two daughters but they are too young to work on the field. His wife Sunhari
is also (part time) working as house cleaner for the livestock, removing and managing cow dung. She
gets½ litre milk and some cooked food along with vegetables for her daily work. Besides she also
works in the field along with her husband in the busy season and supplements his earnings.
Agriculture being a seasonal activity employs Ramu only during times of sowing, transplanting and
harvesting. He remains unemployed for about 4 months during the period of plant consolidation and
maturing in a year. He looks for work in other activities. Some times he gets employment in brick
laying or in construction activities in the village. By all his efforts, Ramu is able to earn enough either
in cash or kind for him to buy essentials for two secure meals for his family. However, during the
days when he is unable to get some work, he and his family really face difficulties and sometimes his
small kids have to sleep without food. Milk and vegetables are not a regular part of meals in the
family. Ramu is food insecure during 4 months when he remains unemployed because of the
seasonal nature of agriculture work.
i. Examine the circumstances which are responsible for Ramu's condition.
ii. When is Ramu food insecure? Give reason also. State any three steps taken by the Government
for the food security of people like Ramu.
iii. Suggest any two ways to provide regular work to Ramu.

i. Write a short note on the Green Revolution.
ii. Define the term Public Distribution System. Mention any two benefits of the system.
iii. Who were affected the most by the famine of Bangal?
iv. What are the three kinds of ration cards?
v. State the reason why the Food Corporation of India purchases food grains from the farmers.
vi. Write a note on the National Food Security Act, 2013.
vii. Differentiate between seasonal hunger and chronic hunger. Which are the factors that cause
seasonal hunger? Mention any two.
viii. Carefully study the given graph and answer the following questions.
Central Foodgrains (Wheat + Rice) Stock and Minimum Buffer Norm (Million Tonnes)
a. What is buffer stock?
b. Is the difference in Foodgrain stock and stocking norms increasing or decreasing? What does
the trend indicate?
ix. What are the roles of cooperatives with regards to food security in India?
x. Agriculture is considered as a seasonal activity. Why?

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DEHRADUN PUBLIC SCHOOL

Q2. Assertion and Reason Type Questions:

i. What problem did the French people face?

Q4. Answer the following questions:

Q5. Map Based Question:

CHAPTER-2 SOCIALISM IN EUROPE AND THE RUSSIAN REVOLUTION

Who is shown in the above picture?

Q2. Assertion and Reason Type Questions:

Q3. Source Based Questions:

Q4. Answer the following questions:

Q5. Map Based Question:

CHAPTER-3 NAZISM AND THE RISE OF HITLER

What is being depicted in the above picture?

Q2. Assertion and Reason Type Questions:

Q3. Source Based Questions:

i. What was Weimar Republic?

Q4. Answer the following questions:

CHAPTER–5 PASTORALISTS IN THE MODERN WORLD

Q2. Assertion and Reason Type Questions:

Q3. Source Based Questions:

i. Why is the writer feeling being imprisoned?

Q2. Assertion and Reason Type Questions:

Q3. Source Based Questions:

Q4. Answer the following questions:

Q5. Map Based Question:

CHAPTER-2 PHYSICAL FEATURES OF INDIA

Q2. Assertion and Reason Type Questions:

Q3. Source Based Questions:

Q4. Answer the following questions:

Q5. Map Based Question:

Q2. Assertion and Reason Type Questions:

Q3. Source Based Questions:

i. Mention any two features of the Himalayan rivers.

Q4. Answer the following questions:

Q5. Map Based Question:

Q2. Assertion and Reason Type Questions:

Q3. Source Based Questions:

i. What do you understand by Mahawat?

Q4. Answer the following questions:

Q5. Map Based Question:

CHAPTER-5 NATURAL VEGETATION AND WILDLIFE

Q3. Source Based Questions:

i. In which activities do the maximum proportion of people of developing countries work?

Q4. Answer the following questions.

Q5. Map Based Question:

Q2. Assertion and Reason Type Questions:

Q3. Source Based Questions:

Q4. Answer the following questions:

CHAPTER-2 CONSTITUTIONAL DESIGN

Q2. Assertion and Reason Type Questions:

Q3. Source Based Questions:

Q4. Answer the following questions:

Which in human system does the above picture depict?

CHAPTER-3 ELECTORAL POLITICS

Q2. Assertion and Reason Type Questions:

i. What is meant by election campaign?

Q4. Answer the following questions:

CHAPTER-4 WORKING OF INSTITUTIONS

Q2. Assertion and Reason Type Questions: