X

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN, AHMEDABAD REGION
COMPETENCY FOCUSED QUESTIONS

SUBJECT- SOCIAL SCIENCE
CLASS- X
HISTORY CHAPTER 1 – THE RISE OF NATIONALISM IN EUROPE
Q.1 Arrange the following in correct chronological order 1

A) Frankfurt Parliament
B) Treaty of Viena
C) Treaty of Constantinople
D) Napoleonic Code
A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) B) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
C) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
A) Defeat of Napoleon
B) Unification of Italy
C) Napoleon invades Italy
D)Greek struggle for Independence begins
A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) B) (I) (ii) (iii) (iv)
C) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Q.3 You can see the map of Europe after the congress of Vienna, 1815. A series 1
of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French
expansion in future, these were
A) Prussia B) Austria
C) Netherland D) All of the above
Q.4. You can see the painting of Germania. Germania wears a crown of oak 1
leaves, as the German oak stands for______________.
A) Kindness B) Heroism
C) Greatness D) All of the above
Q.5. Which of the following is not correctly matched 1
a. Absolutist I. A form of monarchial government
b. Utopian II. Ideal Society
c. Plebiscite III. A direct vote to accept or reject proposal
d. la patrie IV. the citizen
Q.6. Identify the correct option that describes the code/treaty given below 1
i) removed all privileges based on birth
ii) established equality before the law
iii) secured the right to property
A) Napoleonic Code
B) Civil Code of 1804
C) Treaty of Vienna
D) Treaty of Constantinpole
Q.7. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer 1
Statement I: Modern state was one in which a centralised power exercised
sovereign control over a clearly defined territory.
Statement II: Nation-state was one in which the majority of its citizens, and not
only its rulers, came to develop a sense of common identity and shared history
or descent.
A) Statement (I) is correct and (II) is incorrect
B) Statement (I) is incorrect and (II) is correct
C) Both (I) & (II) are incorrect
D) Both (I) & (II) are correct
Statement I: In January 1871, the Prussian king, William I, was proclaimed
German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles.
Statement II: s. In 1861 Victor Emmanuel I was proclaimed king of united Italy.
A) Statement (I) is correct and (II) is incorrect
B) Statement (I) is incorrect and (II) is correct
C) Both (I) & (II) are incorrect
D) Both (I) & (II) are correct
Q.9. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your 1
answer as per the codes provided below:
Assertion (A): Liberalism stood for freedom for the individual and equality of all
before the law.
Reason(R): Liberalism had stood for the end of autocracy and clerical
privileges, a constitution and representative government through parliament.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R ) is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
D. (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
Q.10. How can you say that nationalism developed through culture in Europe? 2
Evaluate in two points.
Q.11. Elucidate the statement,” If France sneezes, rest of Europe Catches cold”. 3
Q.12. Substantiate any three economic hardships faced by Europe in the 1830s. 3
Q.13. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
In 1848, Frédéric Sorrieu, a French artist, prepared a series of four prints 4
visualising his dream of a world made up of ‘democratic and social Republics’, (1+2
as he called them. The first print of the series shows the peoples of Europe +1)
and America – men and women of all ages and social classes – marching in a
long train, and offering homage to the statue of Liberty as they pass by it. As
you would recall, artists of the time of the French Revolution personified
Liberty as a female figure – here you can recognise the torch of Enlightenment
she bears torch in one hand and the Charter of the Rights of Man in the other.
On the earth in the foreground of the image lie the shattered remains of the
symbols of absolutist institutions. In Sorrieu’s utopian vision, the peoples of the
world are grouped as distinct nations, identified through their flags and national
costume.
1. What was the theme of painting made by French artist?
2. What was the Utopian vision of French artist Frédéric Sorrieu?
3. French Revolution personified Liberty as a female figure, she bears
torch in one hand and ___________________in the other.
Q.14. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow: 4
Economists began to think in terms of the national economy. They talked of (1+2
how the nation could develop and what economic measures could help forge +1)
this nation together. Friedrich List, Professor of Economics at the University of
Tübingen in Germany, wrote in 1834: ‘The aim of the zollverein is to bind the
Germans economically into a nation. It will strengthen the nation materially as
much by protecting its interests externally as by stimulating its internal
productivity. It ought to awaken and raise national sentiment through a fusion
of individual and provincial interests. The German people have realised that a
free economic system is the only means to engender national feeling.’
1. State the aim of the Zollverein in Germany.
2. What German people have realised about new economic system?
3. How does a country become stronger?
Q.15. Substantiate the process of unification of Italy. 5
Or
Elucidate the role of Bismarck in unification of Germany.
HISTORY CHAPTER 2– NATIONALISM IN INDIA

i) Rowlett Act
ii) Chauri-Chaura
iii) Non-Cooperation and Khilafat movement
iv) Civil Disobedience Movement
a. (i)-(ii)-(iii)-(iv)
b. (ii)-(i)-(iii)-(iv)
c. (i)-(iii)-(ii)-(iv)
d. (ii)-(iii)-(iv)-(i)
Q.2 Identify the correct option that describes the act given below. 1
i. The Act was passed by the Imperial Legislative Council.
ii. It gave power to the government to repress political activities.
iii. It empowered the government to detain political prisoners without trial.
Options:
a. Rowlett Act
b. Vernacular Press Act
c. Government of India Act
d. Inland Emigration Act
Q.3 You can see the image of Bharat Mata. What do a lion and an elephant signify in 1
this picture?
a. Power and Authority

b. Freedom and Equality
c. Liberty and Fraternity
d. Dignity and Respect
Q.4. Observe the image given below and choose the correct option. It is related 1
to______________.
a. Round Table Conference

b. Meeting of Congress leaders at Allahabad, 1931.
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
Q.5. Which of the following is not correctly matched 1
a. 1919 Rowlett Act
b. 1930 Depressed Classes Association
c. 1930 Civil Disobedience Movement
d. 1931 First Round Table Conference
Assertion (A): When Simon Commission arrived in India, it was greeted with the
slogan ‘Go back Simon’.
Reason(R): This happened as Mahatma Gandhi was on Dandi March during that
time.
Statement I: Lord Irwin, announced in October 1929, a vague offer of ‘dominion
status’ for India in an unspecified future, and a Round Table Conference to
discuss a future constitution.
Statement II: e. In December 1928, under the presidency of Jawaharlal Nehru,
the Lahore Congress formalised the demand of ‘Purna Swaraj’ or full
independence for India.
A. Statement (I) is correct and (II) is incorrect
B. Statement (I) is incorrect and (II) is correct
C. Both (I) & (II) are incorrect
D. Both (I) & (II) are correct
Statement I: In Madras, Natesa Sastri published a massive four-volume
collection of Tamil folk tales, The Folklore of Southern India.
Statement II: He believed that folklore was national literature; it was ‘the most
trustworthy manifestation of people’s real thoughts and characteristics’.
A. Statement (I) is correct and (II) is incorrect
B. Statement (I) is incorrect and (II) is correct
C. Both (I) & (II) are incorrect
D. Both (I) & (II) are correct
Assertion (A): In Awadh the movement here was against talukdars and
landlords.
Reason(R): They demanded from peasants exorbitantly high rents and a variety
of other cesses. Peasants had to do begar and work at landlords’ farms without
any payment.
Q.10. How can you say that ‘Non-Cooperation Movement’ spread in cities across the 2
country? Evaluate in two points.
Q.11. Elucidate the main features of ‘Poona Pact’. 3
Q.12. Substantiate any three features of ‘Civil Disobedience Movement’. 3
The Independence Day Pledge, 26 January 1930 ‘We believe that it is the (1+1
inalienable right of the Indian people, as of any other people, to have freedom +1
and to enjoy the fruits of their toil and have the necessities of life, so that they +1)
may have full opportunities of growth. We believe also that if any government
deprives a people of these rights and oppresses them, the people have a further
right to alter it or to abolish it. The British Government in India has not only
deprived the Indian people of their freedom but has based itself on the
exploitation of the masses, and has ruined India economically, politically,
culturally, and spiritually. We believe, therefore, that India must sever the British
connection and attain Purna Swaraj or Complete Independence.’
1. Under whose presidency was this pledge taken?
2. What was the importance of the date 26th January,1930?
3. ‘Poorna Swaraj’ refers to__________?
4. In What ways was the British rule in India oppressive?
Mahatma Gandhi found in salt a powerful symbol that could unite the nation. On (1+1
31 January 1930, he sent a letter to Viceroy Irwin stating eleven demands. +2)
Some of these were of general interest; others were specific demands of
different classes, from industrialists to peasants. The idea was to make the
demands wide-ranging, so that all classes within Indian society could identify
with them and everyone could be brought together in a united campaign. The
most stirring of all was the demand to abolish the salt tax. Salt was something
consumed by the rich and the poor alike, and it was one of the most essential
items of food. The tax on salt and the government monopoly over its production,
Mahatma Gandhi declared, revealed the most oppressive face of British rule.
4. Which thing was found powerful symbol to unite the nation?
5. Which movement started after Salt March?
6. Which were the two types of demands mentioned by Gandhji in his letter
to Viceroy Irwin?
Q.15. How can you say cultural processes help in creating a sense of collective 5
belongingness in India? Substantiate in five points.
HISTORY CHAPTER 3– MAKING OF GLOBAL WORLD

Q Mks
No
1. What helped in the colonisation of Asian and African countries? Identify the correct 1
statement from the following options.
A. Intergovernmental policies for the expansion of trade
B. Governmental invite to the mother countries for expansion
C. Technology, investments and improvement in transport
D. Capitalists of these regions wanted trade with colonial powers
2 Read the given statements in context of ‘globalization’ and choose the correct option 1
A. It is the only way for economic development of the country
B. Interlinks only production based activities in dispersed locations in the world
C. It has always given only positive results in all the countries
D. Leads to spread of technology, cultures and diseases from a region to another
3 There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your 1
Assertion (A): Pre-modern trade and cultural exchange existed between
distant regions .
Reason (R) Chinese silk was transported through silk routes to western world.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
Assertion(A): Discovery of America resulted in transformation of trade, life
and abundance of wealth for Europeans.
Reason(R): The Americas had vast lands, minerals, silver and gold which
enhanced European trade.
5 Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the imigration of Europeans to 1
America in the 18th Century?
(i) European cities were crowded and deadly diseases were wide spread.
(ii) Europeans were being persecuted for not accepting established beliefs.
(a) Only (i)
(b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) Only (ii)
(d) Neither
6 Which of the following is TRUE with respect to ‘Silk Routes’ 1
(i) They are known to have existed since before the Christian Era and
thrived almost till the fifteenth century.
(ii) These routes over land and by sea knitted together vast regions of
Asia and linked Asia with Europe and northern Africa.
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
7 It had made huge sacrifices to defeat Nazi Germany, and transformed itself 1
from a backward agricultural country into a world power during the very years
when the capitalist world was trapped in the Great Depression. Which country
is being mentioned here?
A. France
B. Soviet Union
C. USA
D. Britain
8 Read the source carefully to answer the questions that follow- 1+1
Until the nineteenth century, poverty and hunger were common in Europe. Cities +2
were crowded and deadly diseases were widespread. Religious conflicts were
common, and religious dissenters were persecuted. Thousands therefore fled
Europe for America. Here, by the eighteenth century, plantations worked by slaves
captured in Africa were growing cotton and sugar for European markets.
(i) Why did people flee to America from Europe?

Ans __________________________________________
(ii) Depict the condition of cities in nineteenth century Europe?
Ans_______________________________
(iii) Why was America colonised by the Europeans ?
Ans_____________________________________________________________
The Bretton Woods conference established the International Monetary Fund (IMF) +2
to deal with external surpluses and deficits of its member nations. The International
Bank for Reconstruction and Development (popularly known as the World Bank)
was set up to finance postwar reconstruction. The IMF and the World Bank are
referred to as the Bretton Woods institutions or sometimes the Bretton Woods twins.
The post-war international economic system is also often described as the Bretton
Woods system.
(i) Why did Bretton Woods conference establish the International
Monetary Fund?
Ans____________________________________________________________
(ii) Name the Bretton Woods twins

Ans_____________________________________________________________
(iii) Why was the Breton Woods system established?

Ans____________________________________________________________
10 Identify the picture from the options given below. 1
(a) Workers in a munition factory

(b) Workers in an Automobile factory
(c) T-model industry
(d) None of above
11 Silk routes are_________________________________________ 1
a) Mostly export silk from china.
b) Mostly import silk to China.
c) Only over the land and not found over the sea.
d) Mainly used by Indians to export rubber.
12 Till late-nineteenth-century meat was an expensive luxury product to European 1
poor’s due to
a) The higher cost of transport for Meat.
b) Animals mainly transported alive.
c) Scarcity of slaughterhouse.
d) Low animal reproduction rate.
13 Inheritance law was changed in Africa by the colonial power to 1
a) Get control on land area.
b) Force peasants’ family members to do mining.
c) Control inflation on agricultural products.
d) Get low-cost labour for household works.
14 Nineteenth-century “indenture” has been described as 1
a) Forced description.
b) A new system of slavery.
c) Serfdom.
d) None of these
15 Which of the following options represent the reason during the first World war the 1
European women stepped in the jobs that earlier men were supposed to do?
a) Men went for War
b) Men went to other countries in search for work
c) Liberalisation of women
d) Change in the attitude of society.
HISTORY CHAPTER 4 – THE AGE OF INDUSTRIALISATION

Q.1 Identify the term ‘Orient’ refer to?
(A) England (B) Asia
(C) Russia (D) America
Q.2 Where was the first cotton mill set up in India?
(A) Surat (B) Bombay
(C) Calcutta (D) Kerala
Q.3 The most popular means for creating new consumer is:
(A) Branding (B) Advertisement
(C) Pricing (D) Promotion
Q.4 India had few important pre-colonial sea ports. Which of these is correct for it?
(A) Surat & Masulispatnam (B) Madras & Hooghly
(C) Madras & Bombay (D) Bombay & Hooghly
Q.5 I am the person who got people from village, ensured them jobs, helped them settle in
the cities and provided them money in times of need. Who am I?
(A) Stapler (B) Fuller
(C) Gomasthas (D) Jobber
Q: 6. Koshtis were?
(A) A community of Weavers (B) Weavers
(C) Cotton Weavers (D) Landless Labourer
Q.7 Arrange the following in the correct chronological sequence:
(i) J. N. Tata set up the First Iron and Steel Plant in Jamshedpur.
(ii) Dwarkanath Tagore set up six joint stock companies in Bengal.
(iii) Seth Hukumchand set up the First Jute Mill in Calcutta.
Options:
(A) (i) - (ii) - (iii) (B) (iii) - (ii) - (i) (C) (ii) - (iii) - (i)
Q. 8. Look at the picture of the famous Indian Entrepreneur and answer the question that
follows
Who is this entrepreneur?

(A) Seth Hukumchand (B) Jamsetjee Jeejeebhoy.
(C) Dinshaw Petit (D) Dwarkanath Tagore
Q.9 Look at the picture and answer the question that follows:
What is this ‘Dawn of the century’ produced by E.T. Paull?

(A) A music Album (B) A music card
(C) A music book (D) A music record
Q.10. Read the source given below and answer the question that follows: [4]
Will Thorne is one of those who went in search of seasonal work, loading bricks and doing
odd jobs. He describes how job-seekers walked to London in search of work:
‘I had always wanted to go to London, and my desire … was stimulated by letters from an
old workmate … who was now working at the Old Kent Road Gas Works … I finally
decided to go … in November 1881. With two friends I started out to walk the journey,
filled with the hope that we would be able to obtain employment, when we get there, with
the kind assistance of my friend … we had little money when we started, not enough to
pay for our food and lodgings each night until we arrived in London. Some days we walked
as much as 20 miles, and other days less. Our money was gone at the end of the third day
… For two nights we slept out – once under a haystack, and once in an old farm shed …
On arrival in London we tried to find … my friend … but … were unsuccessful. Our money
was gone, so there was nothing for us to do but to walk around until late at night, and then
tried to find some place to sleep. We found an old building and slept in it that night. The
next day, Sunday, late in the afternoon, we got to the Old Kent Gas Works, and applied for
work. To my great surprise, the man we had been looking for was working at the time. He
spoke to the foreman and I was given a job.’
Quoted in Raphael Samuel, ‘Comers and Goers’, in H.J. Dyos and Michael Wolff, eds, The
Victorian City: Images and Realities, 1973.
10. 1. Analyse the major factor which led London to become an attractive place for job
seekers.
10. 2. Analyse the reason for the appointment of Will Thorne by the Old Kent Gas works.
10. 3. Examine the preference of hand labour over machines by the industrialists of the
Victorian Britain.
Q. 11 Analyse the major features of Indian textiles before the age of machine industries.
Q. 12 Imagine that you are an Indian weavers of the early 19th century . Which problems
are faced by you?
Q.13 ‘Industrialization gave birth to imperialism’. Justify the statement with three
arguments.
Q.14 How can you say that the ‘fly shuttle’ helped in improving the handloom production?
HISTORY-LESSON-5 (PRINT CULTURE AND MODERN WORLD)

Q.1 Who said, "Printing is the ultimate gift of God and the greatest one."
(a) Charles Dickens (b) J.V. Schely
(c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Martin Luther
Q.2 I am the oldest printed book of Japan. Can you identify my name?
(A) Bible (B) Diamond Sutra
(C) Mahabharat (D) Kuran
Q.3 ‘Gita Govinda’ is a famous book. Can you identify the name of its author?
(A) Jayadeva (B) Mahatma Gandhi
C) Munshi Premchand (D) Rousseau
Q.4 Which of the following is the meaning of Biliotheque Bleue?
(A) An Author (B) Low Price books
(C) Monuments (D) Arabic Traders
Q.5 Who was the author of ‘Punjab Kesari”
(A) Bal Gangadhar tilak (B) Mahatma gandhi
(C) bhagat Singh (D) B.R. Ambedkar
Q.6 Look at the given picture. Identify the name of the painter of this painting from the
following options.
(A) Abanindranath Tagore
(B) Rabindranath Tagore
(C) Raja Ravi Verma
(D) Samant Das Gupta
Q.7 Arrange the following in chronological order:
(i) Print culture created the conditions for the French Revolution
(ii) Martin Luther’s writings led to the beginning of the Protestant Reformation
(iii) Menocchio reinterpreted the message of the Bible
(iv) Johann Gutenberg invented the Printing Press
Options:
(A) iii, ii, i & iv (B) i, ii, iii & iv
(C) iv, iii, ii & i (D) iv, ii, iii & i
Q.8 Look at the given picture. Identify the invention invented by this personality.
(A) Radio (B) Television

(C) Motor car (D) Printing press
Q. 9 Define the term Calligraphy.
Q.10 In what ways the Vernacular press act of 1878 was a repressive step by the
government? Justify
Q.11 Analyse the steps which were taken by the British government or the colonial
government to control the freedom of press.
Q.12 “By the end of the 19th century a new Visual culture was taking shape”. Write any
three features of this new visual culture.
Q.13 “Print culture led to women empowerment.” Analyse the statement by giving
example.
Q.14 Trace the growth and development of print technology.
GEOGRAPHY CHAPTER-1- RESOURCE AND DEVELOPMENT

Q1. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R ) .Mark your
ASSERTION (A)- Laterite has been derived from the Latin word ‘Later’ which means brick.
Reason (R) – The Laterite soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall
in the eastern and southern parts of the Deccan plateau.
a .Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A .
b . Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c . A is true but R is false.
d .A is false but R is true.
Q2. If strategy for judicious use of resources is to be made, which of the following method
will you suggest ?
a. Resources Development
b. Resources Management
c. Resources Conservation
d- Resources Planning.
Q3. Identify the picture given below and write the type of soil erosion.
Q.4 Choose the correct option on the basis of the observation of given image.
Transformation of things available in our environment involves an interactive relationship

between ………………………………………… ?
a. Nature and technology
b. Nature, technology and institutions
c. Nature and institutions
d. Environment and human beings
Q5. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer.
Statement I: Red and yellow soils develop a reddish colour due to diffusion of iron in
crystalline and metamorphic rocks .
Statement II: It looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form.
a. Statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.
b. Statement (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct
c. Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect
d. Both (i) & (ii) are correct
Q6 . Choose the correct option to fill in the blank:
The Bangar soil has ________ of kankar nodules than the Khadar .
a . higher concentration
b . lower concentration
c . Both a and b
d .only b
Q.7 Mention any two purpose of land utilization in India.
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Q8. “There is enough for everybody’s need and not for any body’s greed.” Substantiate
this statements in 20 words.
Q9. States like Maharashtra and Gujarat are having black soil. Analyze any three features
of this type of soil.
Q.10 “Non-conventional resources are the best option to conserve the natural resources”
Substantiate this statement with Examples.
Q11. Analyse the impact of mining activities on the local environment and the health of the
surrounding communities.
Q12. “M” gave his friend clues about a type of soil that suits for growing paddy, wheat and
pulses. Which of the following clues provided by “M” would be most useful in identifying
the ideal type of soil?
Clues: i. It is well-known for its capacity to hold moisture.
ii. It turns yellow when it is hydrated.
iii. It contain adequate proportion of potash ,phosphoric acid and lime.
iv. It is a well-drained loamy soil.
a. Clue I
b. Clue I and iii
c. Clue I and ii
d. Clue iii
Q13. Evaluate the differences between Khadar and Bangar. Mention any three.
Q14 .’Irrational consumption and over-utilisation of resources may lead to socio-economic
and environmental problems.’ Substantiate this with Examples.
Q15. Identify the main reason for land degradation in Gujarat.
a . Mining
b. Overgrazing
c . Both A and B
d . Only B
GEOGRAPHY CHAPTER-2- FOREST AND WILDLIFE RESOURCES
Q 1 . Which of the following options represent potential measures that can be taken to
mitigate the threats posed on the tiger population and biodiversity?
i. Banning hunting, giving legal protection to their habitats, and restricting trade in wildlife
ii. Prohibiting the visit of public into forest area.
iii. Establishing wildlife sanctuaries and National Parks
iv. Converting forests into Reserved and Protected forests
Options:
a. Statement i and ii are correct.
b. Statement ii, iii & iv are correct
c. Statement ii is correct.
d. Statement (i), (iii) & (iv) are correct.
Q.2 Which of the following categories of forests and wastelands belongs to government,
private individuals’ communities?
(a) Protected Forests
(b) Reserved Forests
(c) Unclassed Forests
(d) Open Forests
Q 3. Which one of the following is NOT correctly paired?
Column - A Column – B
1. Corbett National Park A .Uttrakhand
2. Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary B .Rajasthan
3. Manas Tiger Reserve C .Madhya Pradesh
4. Periyar Tiger Reserve D .Kerala
Options:
a .1-A
b .2-B
c .3 -C
d. 4-D
Q 4 .What do you mean by Biodiversity?
Q5. Evaluate factors responsible for depleting our forests and wildlife. Mention any three.
Q6. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R ). Mark your
Assertion(A): Destruction of forests and wildlife resulted into the loss of cultural diversity .
Reason (R): The conservation of forests and wildlife is essential to provide a better
quality of life.
d. A is false and R is true .
Q7. Elucidate any three movements which were launched by local communities for the
protection of forests or wildlife .
Q8. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Nature worship is an age old tribal belief based on the premise that all creations of nature
have to be protected. Such beliefs have preserved several virgin forests in pristine form
called Sacred Groves (the forests of God and Goddesses). These patches of forest or
parts of large forests have been left untouched by the local people and any interference
with them is banned. Certain societies revere a particular tree which they have preserved
from time immemorial. The Mundas and the Santhal of Chota Nagpur region worship
mahua (Bassia latifolia) and kadamba (Anthocaphalus cadamba) trees, and the tribals of
Odisha and Bihar worship the tamarind (Tamarindus indica) and mango (Mangifera indica)
trees during weddings. To many of us, peepal and banyan trees are considered sacred.
8.1 “Nature worship is an age-old tribal belief based on the premise that all
creations of nature have to be protected” Which values does it promote?’’
8.2 What do you understand by Sacred Groves?
8.3 List out the two tribal groups mentioned in the above source.
Q 9. Mention any four major threats to the population of tiger? Evaluate the efforts made
by the government to protect them.
Q 10.’’N” gave his friend clues about a type of forest which is almost one third of the total
forest area. Which of the following clues provided by “N” would be most useful in
identifying the ideal type of forest?
Clue I – These forest land are protected from any further depletion.
Clues II – All North- eastern states and parts of Gujarat have a very high percentage of
these forests.
a. Clue I
b. Clue I and iii
c. Clue I and ii
d. Clue iii
Q 11. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R ) .Mark your
Assertion (A) - In Sariska Tiger Reserve , Gujarat ,villagers have fought against mining by
citing the Wildlife Protection Act.
Reason (R) - In many areas ,villagers themselves are protecting habitats and explicitly
rejecting government involvement .
Q12 . Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer.
Statement I –In India Joint Forest Management (JFM) programme furnishes a good
example for involving communities in the management and restoration of degraded
forests.
Statement II – The state of Odisha passed the first resolution for joint forest management .
Q13 . Assess the classification of forest into different categories managed by the
government of India .
Q14. “Conservation in the background of rapid decline in wildlife population and forestry
has become essential”. Substantiate the statement with examples.
Q15 . List out names of few species which are protected under several projects
announced by the Indian government.
GEOGRAPHY CHAPTER-3- WATER RESOURCES

Q1 . Which place in India has an artificial lake to conserve water that dates to 11th
century?
a. Delhi
b. Bhopal
c. Mumbai
d. Kolhapur
Q 2. Multi-purpose River Valley Projects are called the ‘temples of modern India?
Substantiate the statement with suitable examples .
Q 3 . Do you think it is necessary to conserve water resources in India? Give three
reasons .
Q 4. Read the following source and answer the questions-

Irrigation has also changed the cropping pattern of many regions with farmers shifting to
water intensive and commercial crops. This has great ecological consequences like
Stalinization of soil. At the same time, it has transformed the social landscape for e.g.;
increasing the social gap between the richer land owners and landless poor. As a result,
we can see, the dams did create conflicts between people wanting different uses and
benefits from the same water resources. In Gujarat, the Sabarmati basin farmers were
agitated and almost caused a riot over the higher priority given to water supply in Urban
areas, particularly during droughts. Inter-state water disputes were also becoming
common with regard to sharing the costs and benefits of multi-purpose projects.
4.1 How did cropping pattern change by irrigation? Explain
4.2 Analyse the statement “Dams created conflict between people.”
4.3 What are the consequences of irrigation on soil and social landscape ?
Q 5. What can be the reasons responsible for water scarcity in India? Evaluate any three
reasons .
Q 6 . ‘The need of the hour is to conserve and manage our water resources’. Elucidate the
statement.
Q 7. Read the statement and choose the correct option-
Assertion (A): Rainwater harvesting is to collect and store rain water.
Reason (R): Rooftop rainwater harvesting was commonly practiced to store drinking water.
Q 8 . Read the statement and choose the correct option .
Assertion (A): Sardar Sarovar Dam has been built over the Narmada River in Gujarat.
Reason (R): This is one of the largest water resource projects of India covering Three
states.
Q 9. On the outline map of India locate the following items :
a . A dam built on river Chenab in India .
b. A dam built on river Narmada in India.
c .A dam built on river Mahanadi in India.
d .A dam built on river Satluj in India.
Q10 . Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer Statement I:
Irrigation had changed the cropping pattern of many regions with farmers shifting to water
intensive and commercial crops .
Statement II : It has great ecological consequences like salinization of the soil.
Q 11. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer Statement I:
The rain water can be stored in the tankas.
Statement II : Khara pani is considered the purest form of natural water.
Q12. MR. “J” is travelling the North Eastern part of India where Bamboo Drip Irrigation
system is practised. Identify the state –
a . Manipur
b . Meghalaya
c .Nagaland
d .Assam
Q 13 . Mention any two disadvantages of multi-purpose river projects .
---------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------
Q14 . “The floods have not only devastated life and property but also caused extensive soil
erosion”. Substantiate this statement with illustrations.
Q15 . Choose the right option to fill in the blank.
_________is the first state in India which has made rooftop rainwater harvesting structure
compulsory to all the houses across the state .
a . Rajasthan
b .Andra Pradesh
c .Tamil Nadu
d .Karnataka
GEOGRAPHY CHAPTER-4- AGRICULTURE

1. This is a crop known as Rabi crop. Can you identify it from the given options?
a. Wheat
b. Paddy
c. Maize
d. Jowar
2. Mr ‘X’ is talking about the crops that are grown in a short season of April and May.
They are also known as zaid crop. Which of the following does not belong to that group.
a. Sugarcane
b. Vegetables
c. Muskmelon
d. Peas
3. The type of farming which is practiced in areas of high population pressure on land,
where high dose of bio-chemical inputs and irrigation are used for obtaining higher
production is known as ________________________________
a. Jhumming
b. Primitive Subsistence
c. Intensive Subsistence
d. Commercial
4. In plantation agriculture, a single crop is grown on a large area. Which of the
following is not a plantation crop?
a. Bamboo
b. Mustard
c. Coffee
d. Banana
5. An important millet which is rich in iron, calcium, micro-nutrients and roughage is
________________
a. Jowar
b. Bajra
c. Ragi
d. None of these
6. Based on the image and question given below, choose the correct option:
What is the temperature and rainfall required to grow it?
a. Temperature above 25° C and rainfall above 100 cm
b. Temperature 21° to 27° C and rainfall 75 cm to 100 cm
c. Temperature 25° to 35° C and rainfall above 100 cm
7. I am a fiber crop. I am known as the ‘Golden Fiber’. Can you identify my name?
a. Silk
b. Jute
c. Coir
d. Cotton
8. You can use this crop as both food and fodder. Please name the crop.
a. Wheat
b. Rice
c. Sugarcane
d. Maize
9. Rabi crop is grown in the season of
_______________________________________
a. Winter
b. Summer
c. Rainy
d. Autumn
10. The term ‘Masole’ is used for jhum cultivation in _________________________
a. Venezuela
b. Brazil
c. Vietnam
d. Central Africa
11. Complete the sentence
The state where the green Revolution has been an important factor in the growth of Rabi
crops are ______________________________________________________________\
12. Name the three crops of paddy grown in a year in Assam & West Bengal.
13. Complete the following table:

Type of Crop Temperature Soil
Maize
Rabi ___________________
14. Fill in the blanks with correct option:

Rubber is a temperate crop, but under special conditions, it is also grown in tropical and
sub-tropical areas. It requires dry climate with rainfall _____ than 200 cm and temperature
_____ 25°C.
e. Less__ above
f. More___below
g. More__above
h. Less___below
15. Agriculture has been practiced in India for thousands of years. Sustained uses of
land without compatible techno-institutional changes have hindered the pace of agricultural
development. Inspite of development of sources of irrigation most of the farmers in large
parts of the country still depend upon monsoon and natural fertility in order to carry on their
agriculture. For a growing population, this poses a serious challenge. Agriculture which
provides livelihood for more than 60 per cent of its population needs some serious
technical and institutional reforms. Thus, collectivisation, consolidation of holdings,
cooperation and abolition of zamindari, etc. were given priority to bring about institutional
reforms in the country after Independence. ‘Land reform’ was the main focus of our First
Five Year Plan. The right of inheritance had already lead to fragmentation of land holdings
necessitating consolidation of holdings.
A. What was the main focus of the First Five Year Plan?
B. What do you mean by the term ‘ agricultural development’?
C. Infer the importance of green revolution in India.
D. How do technological changes in agriculture strengthen the agriculture of India?
GEOGRAPHY CHAPTER-5- MINERALS AND ENERGY RESOURCES

1. You are on a trip to Ladakh and visited PUGA VALLEY which has a non-
conventional source of energy. Choose the correct source from the given list-
a) tidal
b) solar
c) geothermal
d) wind
2. Mr ‘X’ brought a piece of coal to class and asked his friends to guess its variety
based on the following clues-
i) low carbon content
ii) formed in swamps
iii) high moisture content
a) peat b) lignite c) bituminous d) anthracite
3. While walking along Western Ghats, you observed an iron ore mine resembling the face
of a horse. The mine we are talking about is-
a) Bailadila b) Kudremukh c) Badampahar d)Noamundi
4. Assertion (A): There is an urgent need to develop a sustainable path of energy
development.
Reason (R): Every sector of the national economy needs inputs of energy
Based on the above Reasoning(R) and Assertion(A),choose the correct option- (1)
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false. d) both A and R are false.
5. “Minerals are an indispensable part of our lives”. Substantiate the statement with three
examples from your day to day life. (3)
ANS.____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________
6. look at the given pie diagram based on limestone producing states and answer the
questions given below-(3)
Based on the data given above, answer the following questions:

a) State having lowest share in limestone production-__________________
b) Share of Madhya Pradesh in limestone productionis ____________________
c) Give one example of industry where limestone is the basic raw material
_________________
7. Distinguish between hydroelectricity and thermal electricity (two points for each)(5)
ANS.____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________
8. Map Work
Mark the following places on the given map of India-(3)
a.) iron and steel plant in Chhatisgarh
b) nuclear power plant in Karnataka
c) thermal power plant in Assam
9.) Minerals need to be conserved because-
(i) they are renewable
(ii) they are depleting rapidly
(iii) they are needed for country’s development
Choose the correct option-
a.) i and ii are correct
b.) ii and iii are correct
c.) I and iii are correct
d.) All are correct
10.) Kalpakkam is the nuclear power plant located in Tamil Nadu. TRUE/FALSE?
______________________
11.) The plant using cow dung is known as Gobar Gas Plant. TRUE/FALSE?
__________
12.) Which of the following is a non-metallic mineral?
a.) lead
b.) copper
c.) tin
d.) limestone
13.) Identify an off-shore oil field?
a.)Ankaleshwar b.)Digboi c.)Kalol d.) Mumbai High
14.) Which of the following mineral is the basic raw material of electrical industries?
a.) manganese b.) limestone c.)mica d.) coal
15.) ________ in India has ideal conditions for utilizing tidal energy-(1)
a.) Gulf of Kuchchh b.) Mumbai High c.) Parvati Valley d.)Eastern Ghats
GEOGRAPHY CHAPTER-6- MANUFATURING INDUSTRIES

1. Based on the above Reasoning(R) and Assertion(A),choose the correct option- (1)
Assertion (A): Industries are the backbone of a country’s economy.
Reason (R): Agriculture and industries go hand in hand.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) both A and R are false.
2. Based on the source given below, answer the following questions:
a) Name any two factors of production.

b) Name any two inputs of production.
c) Who is an entrepreneur?
3. I am an ore. I am used as a raw material in aluminium industry. Can you guess my
name?
4. Based on the detail given below, choose the correct option:
_______________ region has the maximum concentration of iron and steel industries.
It is largely, because of the relative advantages this region has for the development of
this industry.
a. Chhotanagpur plateau
b. Malwa plateau
c. Deccan Plateau
5. Map based questions (Carrying 1 mark EACH)
On the given outline political map of India Locate the following –
i.) Software technology park in Gujarat
ii.) State in which Bokaro iron and steel plant is situated
iii.) Cotton textile industry of Maharashtra
v.) Cotton textile industry of Uttar Pradesh
vi.) Jamshedpur iron and steel plant
vii.) Software technology park of Karnataka
viii.) Chennai software technology park
ix.) Salem iron and steel plant
x.) Software technology park of Uttar Pradesh
Note: The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No.15
i) name the software technology park in Gujarat
ii) name the state in which Bokaro iron and steel plant is located
iii) city in which Chhatrapati Shivaji international airport is located
GEOGRAPHY CHAPTER-7 - LIFELINES OF NATIONAL ECONOMY
1.The golden quadrilateral connects which four cities?-
ANS._______________________________________________________________
2. National Highway no.1 connects the cities of _______ and ___________.
3. State the objective behind launching the Super Highways.
ANS._______________________________________________________________
4. Which organization built the’ Atal Tunnel’?
a)BRO b)CPWD c) PWD d) NHAI
5. Classify roads on the basis of the type of material used for their construction.
ANS.____________________________________________________________________
__________
6. Consider the following statements about roadways and identify the INCORRECT one
from the following- (1)
a) construction cost of roads is much higher than that of railway lines.
b) roads can transverse comparatively more dissected and undulating topography.
c) roads can negotiate higher gradients of slopes.
d) road transport provides door-to-door service
7. “The distribution pattern of the railway network in the country has been largely
influenced by physiographic, economic and administrative factors”. (5)
Substantiate the statement using three examples.
ANS.____________________________________________________________________
_____________
8. Which pair is incorrectly matched-
CITY/STATE PORT
a. Goa Marmagao
b.Gujarat Kandla
c.Kerala Tuticorin
d. West Bengal Haldia
ANS.
9. The eastern most point of East-West Corridor is-
a. Srinagar b. Silchar c.Kanniyakumari d.Porbander
10. The northern most point of North-South corridor is-
a. Srinagar b.Silchar c. Kanniyakumari d. Porbander
11. Rural roads receive special impetus under which government scheme?
12. Name the three types of gauge operations on which Indian Railway Network runs-
13. Atal Tunnel is built in which Himalayan mountain range?

a. Pir Panjal b. Zaskar c. Karakoram d. Garo Hills
14. State Highways are constructed and maintained by which department?
ANS._______________________
15.’ Today, India is well-linked with the rest of the world despite its vast size, diversity and
linguistic and socio-cultural plurality.’ Elaborate the statement with three suitable
examples. (3)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
1. Map Work
On the given map of India, mark the following places:
a. Marmagao sea port
b. Tuticorin sea port
c. Haldia sea port
d. Paradip sea port
e. Place where Meenam Bakkam international airport is located
f. International airport of Punjab
g. International airport in Maharashtra
h. Rajiv Gandhi international airport
POLITICAL SCIENCE-1- POWER SHARING

1. Consider the following two statements on power sharing and
Select the correct option:
A. Power sharing is good for democracy.
B. It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.
Which of these statements are true and false?
(a) A is true but B is false
(b) Both A and B are true
(c) Both A and B are false
(d) A is false but B is true
2. Match List I (forms of power sharing) with List II (forms of government)
and select the correct answer using the codes given below in the lists:
5. Read the given statements carefully and choose the correct option-
I. Belgium amended its constitution 5 times between 1970 and 1993.
II. Belgium was successful in accommodating its social diversity.
Options-
a. Statements I and II both are correct.

b. Statement I is correct and statement II is false.
c. Statement II is correct and statement I is false.
Both I and II are incorrect.
4. Consider the following two statement on Power sharing and select the answer using the
codes given below:
Which statements are true and False-
(a) A is true but B is False

(b) Both A and B are true
(c) Both A and B are false
(d) A is false but B is true
5. When many countries of Europe came together to form the European Union,
was chosen as its headquarters.
a. Brussels
b. Paris
c. London
Zurich
6.Why is power sharing desirable? Give two reasons.

7. State two differences between horizontal division of power and vertical division of
power.
8.How is the ethnic composition of Belgium very complex. explain it.
9. Study the map thoroughly and mention the languages that are dominantly
present in Belgium.
10. Is Power sharing good or bad in democracy? Can't the power be concentrated with
one authority?
11.Can we ensure better power sharing by just giving better representation in

government?
12. Why should majority share power with minority as well? Why can't majority rule alone?
13. Describe any three demands of the Sri Lankan Tamils. How did they struggle for their
independence?
14.How is power shared among the different organs of the government ? Explain.
15. Describe the elements of Belgian mode for accommodation.
POLITICAL SCIENCE- 2- FEDERALISM
1. . Consider the following two statements.
A. In a federation, the powers of the federal and provincial governments are clearly
demarcated.
B. India is a federation because the powers of the Union and State Governments are
specified in the Constitution and they have exclusive jurisdiction on their respective
subjects.
C. Sri Lanka is a federation because the country is divided into provinces.
D. India is no longer a federation because some powers of the States have been devolved
to the local government bodies.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) A, B and C (b) A, C and D (c) A and B only (d) B and C only
2. Examine the following pairs that give the level of government in India
and the powers of the government at that level to make laws on the
subjects mentioned against each. Which of the following pairs is not
correctly matched?
3.When was States reorganization Commission formed?

a)1951 b)1997 c)1953 d)1963
4.Study the given cartoon and answer the following:
Which one of the following leaders is shown in this cartoon?

A) Rajiv Gandhi
B) I K Gujral
C) H.D Deve Gowda
D) A.B. Vajpayee
6. Match the column A with column B. Choose the correct option.
.
(A) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(B) (i)-(A), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(D)
(C)(i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(D) (i)-(B), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(D)
6.Describe any two features of Indian federalism.

7.What status has been given to Hindi by the constitution of India.
8.Explain any two features of Panchayati Raj system in India.
9. What is the main difference between a federal form of government
and a unitary one? Explain with an example
10.State any three major steps taken by the Indian government towards the
decentralization in 1992.
11.Describe the three-tier system of Indian federation.
12. Read the given extract and answer the questions that follow:
A second test for Indian federation is the language policy. Our Constitution did not give
the status of national language to any one language. Hindi was identified as the official
language. But Hindi is the mother tongue of only about 40 per cent of Indians. Therefore,
there were many safeguards to protect other languages. Besides Hindi, there are 21
other languages recognised as Scheduled Languages by the Constitution. A candidate
in an examination conducted for the Central Government positions may opt to take the
examination in any of these languages. States too have their own official languages. Much
of the government work takes place in the official language of the concerned State. Unlike
Sri Lanka, the leaders of our country adopted a very cautious attitude in spreading the use
of Hindi. According to the Constitution, the use of English for official purposes was stopped
in 1965. However, many non-Hindi speaking States demanded that the use of English
should continue. In Tamil Nadu, this movement took a violent form. The Central
Government responded by agreeing to continue the use of English along with Hindi for
official purposes. Many critics think that this solution favoured the English-speaking elites.
Promotion of Hindi continues to be the official policy of the Government of India. Promotion
does not mean that the Central Government can impose Hindi on States where people
speak a different language. The flexibility shown by Indian political leaders helped our
country avoid the kind of situation that Sri Lanka finds itself in.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.
Q. 1. What was the first and major test for democratic politics in our country?
(A) The creation of linguistic states

(B) The creation of the language policy
(C) The creation of new federal states
(D) The creation of new federal territories
2. A candidate in an examination conducted for the Central Government positions has to

opt for which language?
(A) Hindi
(B) English
(C) Both Hindi and English
(D) Any of the 22 languages recognized as Scheduled Languages by the Constitution.
3. Which non- Hindi speaking State demanded that the use of English should continue
after 1965?
(A) Hyderabad (C) Tamil Nadu
(B) Chennai (D) Kerala
4. How many languages are included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
(A) 25 languages
(B) 22 languages
(C) 21 languages
(D) 20 languages
13. Which five provisions of the constitutional amendment of 1992 really strengthened the
third tier of democracy in India? Explain.
14. Why has federalism succeeded in India? Which are the policies adopted by India that
have ensured it? Explain.
15. Describe the three forms of power sharing among different organs of government in
India.
POLITICAL SCIENCE-3- GENDER, CASTE AND RELIGION

1.What is the percentage of seats reserved for women in local bodies?
2.When we speak of gender divisions, we usually refer to:
A) biological difference between men and women
B) unequal roles assigned by the society to men and women
C)unequal child sex ratio
D)absence of voting rights for women in democracies
3.In India seats are reserved for women in:
A) Lok Sabha
B) State legislative assembly
C) Cabinets
D) Panchayati Raj Bodies
4. Which of the following in the world has least participation of women in National
Parliaments?
(A) Asia (B) Arab States (C) India (D) Europe

5. Which of the following option best signifies this cartoon?
(A) The leaders assure women organisations that they will pass the bill.
(B) There is no consensus over this among all the political parties.
(C) The Parliament doesn't want to pass the bill.
(D) None of the above.
6. Mention any two constitutional provisions that make India a Secular State.[2]
7.Suppose a politician seeks your vote on the religious ground. Why is his act considered
against the norms of democracy? Explain.[2]
8. Explain the status of women’s representation in India’s legislative bodies.[2]
9. How does religion influence the political set up in our country? Explain.[2]
10. “Gender division is not based on biology but on social expectations and stereotypes’.
Support the statement.[3]
11. State how caste inequalities are still continuing in India.[3]
12. What factors have brought about a change in the Indian Caste system in modern
times? Explain.[3]
13. Explain the factors that have led to the weakening of the caste system in India.[5]
14. How far is it correct to say that it is not politics that gets caste ridden but it is the caste
that gets politicised? Explain.[5]
15. What was the Feminist Movement? Explain the political demands of the Feminist
Movement in India.[5]
POLITICAL SCIENCE – 4- POLITICAL PARTIES
Q Mks
No
1. Choose the right option to fill in the blank. 1
The emergence of _______ is directly connected to the rise of political parties.
(a) Monitory democracies
(b) Direct democracies
(c) Representative democracies
(d) Constitutional democracies
2 Which of the following statements is correct keeping the requirement of formation of 1
government in view.
Statement (i): It is possible for independent candidates to form a government.
Statement (ii): Government formation is exclusively reserved for political parties.
Statement (iii): The formation of government is limited to only elected political
parties.
Statement (iv): Government can only be formed by political parties that are elected and
hold a majority.
Options:
(a) Statement (i) and (ii)
(b) Statement (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) Only Statement (iii)
(d) Only statement (iv)
Assertion(A): Only those parties that are recognized as national parties can
contest in elections for Parliament.
Reason(R) Recognition to a political party as a national party is accorded by the
Election Commission.
Assertion(A): Political Parties play a major role in making laws for the country.
Reason(R): No law can become a bill unless majority parties support it.
5 Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the Political parties? 1
(i) Political parties do not enjoy much trust among the people
(ii) Parties are often rocked by scandals involving top-party leaders.
(iii) Parties are not necessary to run governments.
(a) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(b) only (i) and (ii)
(c) Only (ii) and (iii)
(d) Only (i) and (iii)
6 Which of the following is not a function of a political party?(a) To articulate 1
the will of the people
(b) To form and run government
(c) To recruit and train leaders
(d) To provide social services
7 Select the statement related to the advantages of multiparty system 1
(a) Multi-party system provides limited choice to voters.
(b) There is a chance of conflict.
(c) Provides choice to the voters.
(d) In Multi-party system regional parties get the representation.
If several parties compete for power, and more than two parties have a reasonable +2
chance of coming to power either on their own strength or in alliance with others,
we call it a multiparty system. Thus in India, we have a multiparty system. In this
system, the government is formed by various parties coming together in a coalition.
When several parties in a multi-party system join hands for the purpose of
contesting elections and winning power, it is called an alliance or a front. For
example, in India there were three such major alliances in 2004 parliamentary
elections– the National Democratic Alliance, the United Progressive Alliance and
the Left Front. The multiparty system often appears very messy and leads to
political instability. At the same time, this system allows a variety of interests and
opinions to enjoy political representation
(iv) Give any one advantage of multiparty system.
Ans____________________________________________________________
(v) Name any two multiparty alliances of India.
Ans_________________________________________________________
(vi) What is multiparty system? Write any one drawback of this system.
Ans____________________________________________________________
+2
Democracies that follow a federal system all over the world tend to have two kinds
of political parties: parties that are present in only one of the federal units and
parties that are present in several or all units of the federation. This is the case in
India as well. There are some country-wide parties, which are called ‘national
parties’. These parties have their units in various states. But by and large, all these
units follow the same policies, programmes and strategy that is decided at the
national level. Every party in the country has to register with the Election
Commission. While the Commission treats all parties equally, it offers some special
facilities to large and established parties. These parties are given a unique symbol
– only the official candidates of that party can use that election symbol. Parties that
get this privilege and some other special facilities are ‘recognised’ by the Election
Commission for this purpose. That is why these parties are called, ‘recognised
political parties’. The Election Commission has laid down detailed criteria of the
proportion of votes and seats that a party must get in order to be a recognised
party. A party that secures at least six per cent of the total votes in an election to
the Legislative Assembly of a State and wins at least two seats is recognised as a
State party. A party that secures at least six per cent of the total votes in Lok
Sabha elections or Assembly elections in four States and wins at least four seats in
the Lok Sabha is recognised as a national party.
(iv) Which two kind of political parties do federal systems have?
Ans____________________________________________________________
(v) Name the institution that registers all the political parties in India.
Ans____________________________________________________________
(vi) State the conditions for a political party to become a National Party.
Ans
____________________________________________________________
10 Which of the options best signifies the cartoon? 1
(e) Lack of internal democracy

(f) Money and muscle power
(g) Control of corporates on major institutions
(h) Major political parties do not practice transparency.
11 Which one among the following pairs is correctly matched? 1
List I List II
(a) Bharatiya Janata Party National Democratic Alliance
(b) Congress Party Left Front
(c) Communist Party of India Regional Party
(d) Mizo National Front United Progressive Alliance
12 Which one of the following is true regarding a coalition government ? 1

(a) Only two parties form an alliance and contest elections.
(b) Several parties compete for power.
(c) The government is formed by two or more parties coming together.
(d) Several parties form an alliance and compete for power.
13 Which one of the following is a better way of carrying out political reforms in 1
a democratic country?
(a) The legal changes
(b) The constitutional changes
(c) The empowerment of people
(d) The legislation for reforms
14 Which one of the following is not true regarding the government order that 1
makes it mandatory for an election candidate to declare his details in an
affidavit ?
(a) It aims at reducing the influence of criminals in politics.
(b) It gives details of existing property and criminal cases pending against a
candidate.
(c) It aims at reducing the influence of money in politics.
(d) The Election Commission checks these details and cancels the nomination
papers of suspected criminals or if the information is false.
15 Which of the following pairs is not correct? 1
e) Multiparty system – The USA and the UK
f) Anti-defection law- Reformation of political parties
g) Role of Money and muscle power- Challenge to political parties
h) Indian National Congress- United Progressive Alliance
POLITICAL SCIENCE – 5- OUTCOMES OF DEMOCRACY

Q Mks
No
1. Choose the correction option to complete the statement. 1
If a government provides its citizens the rights and means to examine the process of
decision, it is ______________.
(a) An accountable government.
(b) A responsible government.
(c) A transparent government.
(d) A stable government.
2 Which one of the following is an example of outcomes of a democracy that 1

produces an accountable government?
(a) Open to public debates on major policies and legislation
(b) Open in promoting economic development
(c) Open in reducing economic inequalities
(d) Open to rulers elected by the people
Assertion(A): Democracies are based on political equality
Reason(R): All individuals have equal say in electing representatives
Assertion(A): Democracy is an accountable, responsive, and legitimate
government.
Reason(R): Democracies have regular, free, and fair elections and decision-
making is based on norms and procedures.
5 Social outcomes of democracy includes- 1
(i) Dignity and freedom of its citizens
(ii) Disparity and discrimination.
(iii) Gender specific bias.
(b) Only (i)
6 Which of the following is not true about democracy? 1
(а) It always worries about majorities and public opinion.
(b) It improves the quality of decision making.
(c) Decision making is faster and quicker.
(d) It allows a room to correct mistakes.
7 Consider the following statements. Which of these do not hold true for non- 1
democratic regimes?
(a) These do not have to bother about public opinion.
(b) These take less time at arriving at a decision.
(c) Principle of individual dignity has legal force.
(d) These often suppress internal social differences.
There are some things that democracy must provide. In a democracy, we are most +2
concerned with ensuring that people will have the right to choose their rulers and
people will have control over the rulers. Whenever possible and necessary, citizens
should be able to participate in decision making, that affects them all. Therefore, the
most basic outcome of democracy should be that it produces a government that is
accountable to the citizens, and responsive to the needs and expectations of the
citizens.
(vii) What can a democracy ensure its citizens?
Ans_____________________________________________________________
(viii) Why should citizens participate in decision making?
Ans_____________________________________________________________
__
(ix) Enlist any two outcomes of a democracy.
Ans________________________________________________________
Democracies are based on political equality. All individuals have equal weight in +2
electing representatives. Parallel to the process of bringing individuals into the
political arena on an equal footing, we find growing economic inequalities. A small
number of ultra-rich enjoy a highly disproportionate share of wealth and incomes.
Not only that, their share in the total income of the country has been increasing.
Those at the bottom of the society have very little to depend upon. Their incomes
have been declining. Sometimes they find it difficult to meet their basic needs of life,
such as food, clothing, house, education and health.
(vii) What is democracy based on?
Ans
_____________________________________________________________
(viii) How are the few ultra-rich different from others in the society?
Ans________________________________________________________
(ix) State the challenges faced by those at the bottom of the society.
Ans __________________________________________________
(a) Demand for a separate state from Democratic government

(b) Democratic government is facing territorial issues with the bordering
states
(c) Democratic government is coping with multiple pressures through
accommodation
(d) Democratic government accepts demands based on separate state
11 Which one among the following options is correctly matched? 1
List I List II
(A) A democratic government is a (i) idea of political inequality
(B) A democracy is attentive to the needs of (ii) improves the quality of decision making
(C) Democracies have successfully eliminated (iii) legitimate government
(D) Democracy is considered a better form of (iv) all citizens
government as it
(a) A-(iii); B-(iv); C-(i); D-(ii)
(b) A- (iii); B-(ii); C-(i); D- (iv)
(c) A-(ii); B-(iii); C-(iv); D-(i)
(d) A-(i); B-(ii); C-(iii); D-(iv)
12 A Country ‘P’ has recently adopted democracy after a long struggle. Which of 1
the following outcomes can the citizens of this country DEFINITELY expect
due to this change?
(a) Sharp decrease in poverty in all communities
(b) More accountability on part of the government
(c) A drastic rise in the national income due to sharp economic growth
(d) Rules and laws to be drafted according to the needs of the majority groups
13 Complete the following sentence: 1

Democracy remains a democracy as long as every citizen has a chance of
_____.
(a) Casting their vote in the elections

(b) Have free and fair elections
(c) Being in a majority at some point of time
(d) None of the above
14 More than economic development, it is reasonable to expect democracies to 1
reduce economic _____.
(a) Disparities
(b) Opportunities
(c) Equalities
(d) All of the above
15 Some delay in decision-making is bound to take place in a democracy 1
T because it is based on the idea of _____.
(a) Universal adult franchise

(b) Accountable government
(c) Deliberation and negotiation
(d) Power sharing
ECONOMICS LESSON-1- DEVELOPMENT
Multiple Choice Questions:

Look at the image given below.
Q1. Which of the following goals of development should be prioritized in this region?
(a) Reducing income disparities
(b) Combatting climate change
(c) Ending gender violence
(d) Ensuring caste equality
Q2. Which age group of children is included in calculating Net Attendance Ratio?
(a) 14-15
(b) 6-10
(c) 7-11
(d) 5-9
Q3. Which one of the following is the correct meaning of ‘Average Income’?
(a) The total income of the country divided by its earning population.
(b) The total income of the country divided by its total population.
(c) The total income of all the residents of the country.
(d) The total income from domestic and foreign sources.
Q4. Which of the following measures the population of the literate population in the seven
and above age group?
(a) Net attendance ratio
(b) Enrolment ratio
(c) Literacy rate
(d) Drop out ratio
Q5. Which one of the following best describes the Human Development Index (HDI)?
(a) Improvement in science, information, and technology
(b) Improvement in health, education, and income
(c) Improvement in information and communication
(d) Improvement in investment, finance, and technology
Q6. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.
Assertion (A): Human Development mentions how much socio-economic development has
happened in a country.
Reason (R): Comparison of the national income of two countries explains the Human
Development Index.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Assertion (A): Different people have different development goals.
Reason (R): People want freedom, equality, security, and respect.
Q8. Read the following data and information carefully and select the most appropriate
answer from the given options:
Rita is an employee of a multinational company who gets transferred to different countries

after every three years of service. She has been given an opportunity to choose any one
out of the three countries mentioned in the table above as her next job location. She
calculates the average income of all these countries as per the given data and chooses to
be transferred to Country A.
Q9. Identify the reason why Rita has chosen country A.

(a) Most of its citizens are rich and stable.
(b) Has the most equitable distribution of income.
(c) National income of its citizens is higher.
(d) Average income of its citizens is lower.
Q10. Given below is the income distribution of two fictional countries, each with a
population of 5 persons. Which of them would have a wide gap between the rich and
poor?
(a) Country P
(b) Country Q
(c) Both P and Q
(d) Neither P nor Q
Q11. Assume there are four families in a country. The average per capita income of these
families is Rs 5000. If the income of three families is Rs 4000, Rs 7000, and Rs 3000
respectively, what is the income of the fourth family?
(a) Rs 7500
(b) Rs 3000
(c) Rs 2000
(d) Rs 6000
03 Marks Question
Q12. “People have conflicting development goals”. Support the statement with suitable
example.
Q12. Describe any three possible development goals of landless rural labourers.
Q13. “Money cannot buy all the goods and services that one needs to live well” Do you
agree with this statement? Justify your answer with any three suitable arguments.
Q14. Why does Kerala have a better Human Development Index ranking in comparison to
Punjab? Explain with three reasons.
Q15. Explain how the development goals and aspirations of landless rural laborers,
prosperous farmers, and poor farmers who depend only on rain are
ECONOMICS LESSON -2- SECTORS OF INDIAN ECONOMY
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Q1. Arrange the following in the correct sequence:
i. Transporting cloth to the workshops
ii. Sale in shops and showrooms
iii. Spinning the yarn
iv. The weaving of the fabric
Options
(a) i → iv → iii → ii
(b) iii → iv → i → ii
(c) iv → i → ii → iii
(d) iii → iv → ii → I
Q2. Which one of the following belongs to the service sector?
(a) Multiple cropping
(b) Sericulture
(c) Information technology
(d) Aluminium smelting
Q3. Which of the following is an example of the dependency of the primary sector on the
tertiary sector?
(a) Weavers made less money because the shops did not want to sell handloom products.
(b) The bank employees could not reach on time due to a transportation strike.
(c) Dairy and poultry producers suffered a loss when the shops went on strike.
(d) Farmers suffered a loss when there was not enough water to grow cotton.
Q4. Which of the following gives the CORRECT explanation of Gross Domestic Product?
(a) The value of final goods and services is added for secondary and tertiary sectors for
one year.
(b) The value of every good and service is added up for all three sectors for one year.
(c) The value of final goods and services is added up for all three sectors for one year.
(d) The value of goods is added for the primary sector for one year.
Q5. Observe the graph given below:
Which of the following statements BEST explains the graph?

(a) The production in all three sectors has decreased and it has decreased the most in the
primary sector.
(b) The production in all three sectors has increased and it has increased the most in the
primary sector.
(c) The production in all three sectors has increased and it has increased the most in the
tertiary sector.
(d) The production in all three sectors has increased and all three sectors have similar
growth.
Q6. The share of the tertiary sector to the GDP has increased but the contribution of which
sector to employment is highest at present?
(a) Primary
(b) Tertiary
(c) Secondary
(d) None of these
Q7. Which was the largest sector in 1973 in India in terms of employment?
(a) Public sector
(b) Private sector
(c) Primary sector
(d) Tertiary sector
Q8. According to 2017-18 data, the share of different sectors in employment (percentage)
in India was
 Primary sector – 44%
 Secondary sector – 25%
 Tertiary sector – 31%
Out of the three sectors, why did the ratio of employment in the Primary sector high?
Select the most suitable option from the following:
(a) Workers in the primary sector are underemployed.
(b) Low job opportunities in the secondary sector.
(c) Efforts of labor are not equivalent in all the sectors.
(d) Outsourcing of job opportunities in the secondary sector.
Q9. The type of unemployment in which more people work than actually needed is known
as _____.
(a) Disguised unemployment
(b) Seasonal unemployment
(c) Underemployed
(d) Over employed
Q10. A man is employed on a food processing farm where he has to do a lot of manual
work. His wife and daughter also help him with his work on the farm every day. Which type
of employment is this an example?
(a) Under employment
(b) Seasonal employment
(c) Over employment
(d) Cyclical employment
Q11. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005 (MGNREGA)
states a guarantee of a minimum of 100 days of employment per year. If the government is
unable to fulfill these 100 days of employment, the government would have to _____.
(a) Pay the compensation in lieu of these days
(b) Provide another scheme for the same
(c) Pay at least 1/3 percent allowance
(d) Provide health care as compensation
Q12. A woman works at a sweet shop in her village on a contract basis and gets a meagre
salary after working the entire day. She doesn’t get any holidays or paid leave, rather her
employer deducts her salary whenever she is absent from work. Find out in which of the
following sectors she is working.
(a) Primary sector
(b) Service sector
(c) Organized sector
(d) Unorganized sector
Q13. The sectors are classified into public and private sectors on the basis of:
(a) Employment conditions
(b) The nature of economic activity
(c) Ownership of enterprises
(d) Number of workers employed in the enterprise
Q14. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Not every good or service that is produced and sold needs to be counted to
know the total production in each sector.
Reason (R): The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate
goods.
Options:
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Q15.“Tertiary sector is playing a significant role in the development of the Indian

Economy’. Justify the statement.
Q16. Rohan works in a bank as a clerk while Sumit works on a construction site as a
labourer. Find out the difference in their conditions of work and judge the benefits and
drawbacks of working in the respective sectors.
Or,
Compare the employment conditions prevailing in the organized and unorganized sectors.
Or,
Explain the working condition of workers in the unorganized sector.
Q17. Though the public and private sectors exist side by side in the Indian economy, the
public sector plays a leading role. Explain the statement with reasons.
Or,
‘Public sector contributes to the economic development of India.’ Justify the statement.
ECONOMICS LESSON -3- MONEY AND CREDIT

Q1. A porter making pots, wants to exchange pots for wheat. Luckily, he meets a farmer
who has wheat and is willing to exchange it for pots. What is this situation known as?
(a) Incidence of wants
(b) Double incidence of wants
(c) Barter system of wants
Q2. What is the primary function of money?

(a) Medium of exchange
(b) Standard of deferred payments
(c) Credit creation
Q3. Find the Incorrect option

(a) Demand deposit share the essential features of money
(b) With demand deposit payments can be made without cash
(c) Demand deposits are a safe way of money transformation
(d) Demand deposit facility is like a cheque
Q4. Credit (loan) refers to an agreement in which the lender supplies the borrower with
money, goods, or services in return for the promise of _____.
(a) Future payment
(b) Payment made
(c) No payment
(d) Collateral
Q5. Which one of the following options describes ‘Collateral’?

(a) Double coincidence of wants
(b) Certain products for barter
(c) Trade in barter
(d) Asset as a guarantee for a loan
Q6. Rohan has taken a loan of Rs.5 lakhs from the bank to purchase a house at a 12%
rate of interest. He has to submit papers about the new house and salary records to the
bank. What is this process called?
(a) Interest Rate
(b) Collateral
(c) Terms of credit
(d) Installments
Q7. Rita has taken a loan of Rs.7 lakhs from the bank to purchase a car. The annual
interest rate on the loan is 14.5 percent and the loan is to be repaid in 3 years in monthly
installments. The bank retained the papers of the new car as collateral, which will be
returned to Rita only when she repays the entire loan with interest.
Analyze the loan information given above, considering one of the following correct options.
(a) Mode of re-payment
(b) Terms of credit
(c) Interest on loan
(d) Deposit criteria
Q8. Mohan is an agricultural laborer. There are several months in a year when he has no
work and needs credit to meet his daily expenses. He depends upon his employer, the
landowner for credit who charges an interest rate of 5 percent per month. Mohan repays
the money by working physically for the landowner on his farmland. Over the years his
debt will –
(a)Increase – because of increasing interest and non-payment of the monthly amount
(b) Remain constant – as he is working for the employer but is repaying less
(c) Reduce – as the amount equivalent to his salary is being counted as monthly
repayment
(d) Be totally repaid – as he is repaying the debt in the form of physical labor
Q9. Most agricultural laborers like Mohan depend upon loans from the informal sector.
Which of the following statements about this sector is correct –
(a) There are government bodies to supervise the informal sector
(b) Money lenders ask for a reasonable rate of interest
(c) Cost of informal loans to the borrower is quite high
(d) Money lenders use fair means to get their money back
Q10. In India, who issues the currency notes on behalf of the central government?
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) State Bank of India
(c) Finance Minister of India
(d) None
Q11. In SHGs most of the decisions regarding savings and loan activities are taken by
_____.
(a) Bank
(b) Members
(c) Government organization
(d) LIC
Q12. a. What is money? How does money eliminate the need for a double coincidence of
wants?
b. Why is money called a medium of exchange?
Q13. How do the deposits with the banks become their source of income?
Or,
‘Business is all about solving people’s problems – at a profit.’
Explain how banks function like a business with respect to the above statement.
Q14. ‘A bank is a place that will lend you money if you can prove that you do not need it.’
Justify the above statement in relation to the banks’ requirements to ensure the security of
the funds they lend.
Q15. “The credit activities of the informal sector should be discouraged.” Support the
statement with arguments.
ECONOMICS – 4 – GLOBALISATION AND THE INDIAN ECONOMY
1. Globalisation is a process of rapid integration of interconnection of markets of different

countries. It has led to improvement in living conditions of ________
a. People in the developed countries
b. People in the developing countries
c. People in the backward countries
d. All of the people
2. WTO in an international umbrella organization. WTO stands for _________
a. World Trade Organisation
b. World Transaction Organisation
c. World Tsunami Organisation
d. Wealth Trade Organisation
3. Ranbaxy is associated with ____________________
a. Automobiles
b. Infosys
c. Shoes
d. Medicines
4. Mr ‘A’ wishes to know the meaning of the term ‘Investment’ ? Can you tell which is the
most suitable answer.
a. Money Spent on clothes
b. Money spent on buying land, house, machine etc.
c. Money spent buying vehicles
d. Money spent on buying furniture
5. Suppose your company owns or controls production in more than one nation. Your
company will be called_____ .
a. SEZ
b. MNC
c. WTO
d. None of these
6. The term which means giving relaxation in trade and labour law is
_________________________
a. Trade Barriers
b. Globalisation
c. Liberalisation
d. Flexibility
7. Indian buyers have a great choice of goods than they had two decades back. This is
closely associated with the process of
____________________________________________________
a. Cooperation
b. Competition
c. Foreign trade
d. Globalisation
8. An MNC can invest in many ways in different countries. Can you tell the most common
route for investment by MNC in countries around the world ?
a. Set up new factories
b. Form partnership with local companies
c. Buy existing local companies
d. Produce in a small scale
9. Which one of the following is not an MNC?
a. SAIL
b. Reebok Shoes
c. Infosys
d. Tata Motors
10. Complete the sentence:
a. Investment made by MNCs are
called________________________________________________________________
b. Foreign trade results in connecting the markets or

_________________________________________________
11. These are the regions to have world class facilities: electricity, water, roads, transport,
storage, recreational and educational facilities. Companies who set up production units
in the SEZs do not have to pay taxes for an initial period of five years. Can you name?
a. Special Economic Zone
b. Social Economic Zone
c. Special Ecological Zone
12. When did Ford come in India ?
13. What is a trade barrier?
12. Read the source given below and answer the follow.
Tax on imports is an example of trade barrier. It is called a barrier because some

restriction has been set up. Governments can use trade barriers to increase or decrease
(regulate) foreign trade and to decide what kinds of goods and how much of each, should
come into the country. The Indian government, after Independence, had put barriers to
foreign trade and foreign investment. This was considered necessary to protect the
producers within the country from foreign competition. Industries were just coming up in
the 1950s and 1960s, and competition from imports at that stage would not have allowed
these industries to come up. Thus, India allowed imports of only essential items such as
machinery, fertilisers, petroleum etc. Note that all developed countries, during the early
stages of development, have given protection to domestic producers through a variety of
means.
A. Define the term ‘TAX BARRIER’.
B. Why do government use trade barriers?
C. Why did Indian government put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment
after independence?
D. The import of which items was allowed by India
___________________________________________________________________
13. Read the source given below and answer the follow.
Rapid improvement in technology has been one major factor that has stimulated the
globalisation process. For instance, the past fifty years have seen several improvements
in transportation technology. This has made much faster delivery of goods across long
distances possible at lower costs. Even more remarkable have been the developments in
information and communication technology. In recent times, technology in the areas of
telecommunications, computers, Internet has been changing rapidly. Telecommunication
facilities (telegraph, telephone including mobile phones, fax) are used to contact one
another around the world, to access information instantly, and to communicate from
remote areas. This has been facilitated by satellite communication devices. As you would
be aware, computers have now entered almost every field of activity. You might have
also ventured into the amazing world of internet, where you can obtain and share
information on almost anything you want to know. Internet also allows us to send instant
electronic mail (e-mail) and talk (voice-mail) across the world at negligible costs.
A. How has technology stimulated the Globalisation process?
B. Which telecommunication facilities are used to contact one another around the
world?
C. How do internet facilities help to share information?
D. Complete the sentence:
E.
Telecommunication facility has been facilitated by
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN, AHMEDABAD REGION
COMPETENCY FOCUSED WORK SHEETS
SUBJECT- SOCIAL SCIENCE
CLASS- X
HISTORY CHAPTER 1 – THE RISE OF NATIONALISM IN EUROPE

Q (1): Who was Frederic Sorrieu? 1
(a) Teacher (b) Artist (c) King (d) Politician
Q (2): State if True or False: From 1848, Prussia took on the leadership of the
movement of national unification. 1
(a) True (b) False
Q (3): Choose the correct option:German philosopher, Johann Gottfried claimed that
true German culture was to be discovered among the____________ 1
(a) Common people (b) Aristocratic
(c) Middle-class elite (d) The elite
Q (4): Figure of Liberty carries torch of enlightenment and charter of the Rights of man
in her both hand. 1
(a) True (b) False
Q (5): What does Plebiscite means? 1

(a) A direct vote by which all the people of a region are asked to accept or reject a
proposal
(b) A vision of a society that is so ideal that it is unlikely to actually exist
(c) Nation state
(d) Democracy
Q (6): Civil Code was made in year 1805. 1

(a) True (b) False
Q (7): Complete the sentence:Jacobin club was a _______. 1

(a) Monastery (b) Club (c) Front (d) Party
Q (8): Estate General was renamed to what? 1

(a) State Assembly (b) People Assembly (c) National Assembly (d) None of the
above
Q (9): Complete the sentence:______ was proclaimed king of United Italy in 1861.1
(a) King Victor Emmanuel I of Sardinia (b) King Victor Emmanuel II of Sardinia
(c) Giuseppe Maria Garibaldi (d) King Ferdinand I of Naples

Q (10): State if True or False:Mazzini was a great revolutionary leader of Romanian.1
( a ) True ( b ) False
Q (11): Explain any two ways in which nationalist feelings were kept alive in Poland in
the 18th and 19th centuries. 2
Q (12): Explain any three beliefs of the conservatism that emerged after 1815. 3
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
Q (13): Describe the process of unification of Germany. 5
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
HISTORY CHAPTER 2 – NATIONALISM IN INDIA
Q (1): Which cloth was more expensive than mass-produced mill cloth. 1
(a) Mil cloth (b) Cotton cloth (c) Khadi (d) Silk
Q(2): What kind of movement was launched by the tribal peasants of Gudem Hills in
Andhra Pradesh? 1
(a) Dandi March (b) Satyagraha Movement
(c) Militant guerrilla movement (d) Militant Gudem Hill movement
Q (3): Agricultural prices collapsed after which year? 1

(a) 1931 (b) 1930 (c) 1924 (d) 1940
Q (4): Rowlatt Act was passed in_____. 1

(a) 1914 (b ) 1920 (c) 1919 (d) 1916
Q (5): How did plantation workers of Assam react to Non-Cooperation Movement call?
1
(a) Most of the workers did not participate fearing loss of income
(b) Thousands of workers defied the authorities, refused to pay revenue, and
harvested crops without permission
(c) Thousands of workers defied the authorities, left the plantations and headed
home
(d) Most of the workers did not participate fearing arrest.
Q (6): Who were the two main leaders of the Khilafat Movement? 1
(a) Shaukat Ali,Muhammad Ali Jinnah
(b) Bakht Khan,Mohammed Ali Jinnah
(c) MaulanaAzad, Ghaffar Khan
(d) Mohammed Ali, Shaukat Ali
Q (7): Find the incorrect option: 1

(a) Against this background the new Tory government in Britain constituted a Statutory
Commission under Sir John Simon
(b) Set up in response to the nationalist movement, the Commission was to look into the
functioning of the constitutional system in India and suggest changes.
(c) The problem was that the Commission did not have a single Indian member
(d) They were all Americans
Q (8): The main problem with the Simon Commission was that: 1
(a) It was an all British commission (b) It was formed in Britain
(c) It was formed in India (d) All the above
Q (9): How was Simon Commission greeted in India? 1
Q (10): How had the First World War created a new economic situation in India?
Explain with two examples. 2
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
Q (11): Explain any three effects of the Non-cooperation Movement on the economy
of India. 3
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
Q(12): Analyze the ways through which people of different communities developed a
sense of collective belonging in India. 5
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
HISTORY CHAPTER - 3- THE MAKING OF GLOBAL WORLD
Q M
No ks
1. What helped in the colonisation of Asian and African countries? Identify the 1
correct statement from the following options.
A. Intergovernmental policies for the expansion of trade
B. Governmental invite to the mother countries for expansion
C. Technology, investments and improvement in transport
D. Capitalists of these regions wanted trade with colonial powers
2 Read the given statements in context of ‘globalization’ and choose the correct 1
option –
A. It is the only way for economic development of the country
B. Interlinks only production based activities in dispersed locations in the world
C. It has always given only positive results in all the countries
D. Leads to spread of technology, cultures and diseases from a region to

another
3 There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R ) .Mark your 1
Assertion(A): Pre-modern trade and cultural exchange existed between
distant regions .
Reason(R) Chinese silk was transported through silk routes to western world.
4 There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R ) .Mark your 1
Assertion(A): Discovery of America resulted in transformation of trade, life
and abundance of wealth for Europeans.
Reason(R): The Americas had vast lands, minerals, silver and gold which
enhanced European trade.
5 Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the imigration of Europeans to 1
America in the 18th Century?
(i) European cities were crowded and deadly diseases were wide spread.
(ii) Europeans were being persecuted for not accepting established beliefs.
(a) Only (i)
(b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) Only (ii)
(d) Neither
6 Which of the following is TRUE with respect to ‘Silk Routes’ 1
(i) They are known to have existed since before the Christian Era and
thrived almost till the fifteenth century.
(ii) These routes over land and by sea knitted together vast regions of
Asia and linked Asia with Europe and northern Africa.
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
7 It had made huge sacrifices to defeat Nazi Germany, and transformed itself 1
from a backward agricultural country into a world power during the very years
when the capitalist world was trapped in the Great Depression. Which country
is being mentioned here?
A. France
B. Soviet Union
C. USA
D. Britain
8 Read the source carefully to answer the questions that follow- 1+

1+
Until the nineteenth century, poverty and hunger were common in Europe.
2
Cities were crowded and deadly diseases were widespread. Religious conflicts
were common, and religious dissenters were persecuted. Thousands therefore
fled Europe for America. Here, by the eighteenth century, plantations worked
by slaves captured in Africa were growing cotton and sugar for European
markets.
(i) Why did people flee to America from Europe?

Ans
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
(ii) Depict the condition of cities in nineteenth century Europe?

Ans___________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
(iii) Why was America colonised by the Europeans ?

Ans
______________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________

1+
The Bretton Woods conference established the International Monetary Fund
2
(IMF) to deal with external surpluses and deficits of its member nations. The
International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (popularly known as
the World Bank) was set up to finance postwar reconstruction. The IMF and the
World Bank are referred to as the Bretton Woods institutions or sometimes the
Bretton Woods twins. The post-war international economic system is also often
described as the Bretton Woods system.
(i) Why did Bretton Woods conference establish the International

Monetary Fund?
Ans
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
(ii) Name the Bretton Woods twins.

Ans___________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
(iii) Why was the Bretton Woods system established?

Ans
______________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
10 Identify the picture from the options given below. 1
(a) Workers in a munitions factory

(b) Workers in an Automobile factory
(c) T-model industry
(d) None of above
11 Silk routes are_________________________________________ 1
a) Mostly export silk from china.
b) Mostly import silk to China.
c) Only over the land and not found over the sea.
d) Mainly used by Indians to export rubber.
12 Till late-nineteenth-century meat was an expensive luxury product to European 1
poor’s due to
a) The higher cost of transport for Meat.
b) Animals mainly transported alive.
c) Scarcity of slaughterhouse.
d) Low animal reproduction rate.
13 Inheritance law was changed in Africa by the colonial power to 1
a) Get control on land area.
b) Force peasants’ family members to do mining.
c) Control inflation on agricultural products.
d) Get low-cost labour for household works.
14 Nineteenth-century “indenture” has been described as 1
a) Forced description. b) A new system of slavery.
c) Serfdom. d) None of these
15 Which of the following options represent the reason during the first World war 1
the European women stepped in the jobs that earlier men were supposed to
do?
a) Men went for War b) Men went to other countries in search for work
c) Liberalisation of women d) Change in the attitude of society.
HISTORY CHAPTER - 4- THE AGE OF THE INDUSTRIALISATION
Q.1 Which is associated with Gomasthas?
(a) Traders (b) Servant
(c) Businessman (d) Supervisor appointed by company
Q.2. When did the exports of British cotton increase dramatically?

(a) In the early 17th century (b) In the early 18 century
(c) In early 19 century (d) In early 20 century
Q: 3. In 1911, 67 of the large industries were located in one of the following places in
India?
(a) Surat & Ahmedabad (b) Bengal & Bombay
(c) Patna & Lucknow (d) Delhi & Bombay
Q: 4. The Nationalist message of Swadeshi was spread through?

(a) Tariffs
(b) Advertisements
(c) Force
(d) Low prices
Q.5 Who invented the steam engine?

(A) James Watt
(B) New Comen
(C) Richard Arkwright
(D) E.T. Paul
Q.6 Who among the following set up the first Jute mill in Calcutta (1917)?
(A) Dinshaw Petit
(B) J.N. Tata
(C) Seth Hukumchand
(D) Dwarkanath Tagore
Q 7. List two reasons for increase in demand for goods in the world.
Ans………….………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Q: 8. How do urban producers control production?
Ans…………..………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Q 9. Why were many industrialists reluctant to use machines?
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Q 10. What is meant by ‘Proto-Industrialisation’?
Ans….………………………………………………………………...................................................................
................................ ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Q 11 What do you understand by the term Orient?
Ans….………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Q.12 ‘Industrialisation brought a big change in social structure’. Do you agree? Justify.
Ans…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Q. 13 Mention any three social causes of the clashes between Gomasthas and villagers.
Ans…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Q. 14 Anyalyse any four benefits of the first world war to India.
Ans…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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HISTORY CHAPTER - 5- THE PRINT CLTURE AND MODERN WORLD
Choose and write the correct answer for each of the following.
Q. 1 The Indian who published 'kesari' was: [1]
(a) Rammohan Roy (b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Gangadhar Bhattacharya (d) Krishnaji Trimbuck
Q. 2 The newspaper Shamsul Akbar was published in: [1]
(a) Hindi (b) Persian (c) Arabic (d) Urdu
Q. 3 Rashsundari Debi wrote her autobiography: [1]
(a) Amar Jiban (b) Istri Dharm Vichar
(c) Sacchi Kavitayan (d) Ghulamgiri
Q. 4 The book Chotte Aur Bade Ka Sawal is about: [1]
(a) religion (b) philosophy
(c) science (d) links between caste and class exploitation
Q. 5 Penny chapbook were sold by chapmen cheaply mainly for: [1]
(a) children (b) poor (c) women (d) men
Q. 6 Who wrote about the injustices of the caste system in 'Gulamgiri'? [1]
(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (b) Jyotiba Phule
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (d) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
Q. 7 What was Protestant Reformation movement? [2]
Ans.____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
Q.8 Martin Luther was in favour of print and spoke out in praise of it.Give two reasons. 2
Ans.____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
Q. 9 Write a short note on The Gutenberg Press'. [3]
Ans.____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
Q. 10 Describe in brief how printing developed in Japan. [3]
Ans.____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
Q. 11. What was the Portuguese influence on printing? [3]
Ans.____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
Q. 12. How did print technology enhance the production of books? [3]
Ans.____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
Q.13. How did the hearing public and the reading public becomes intermingled?
Examine. [5]
Ans.____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
11. "Printing technology gave women a chance to share their feelings with the world
outside." Support the statement with any five suitable examples. [5]
Ans.____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
GEOGRAPHY LESSON-1- RESOURCE AND DEVELOPMENT
Q1. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R ) .Mark your
ASSERTION (A)- Laterite has been derived from the Latin word ‘Later’ which means
brick.
Reason (R) – The Laterite soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low
rainfall in the eastern and southern parts of the Deccan plateau.
a .Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
d .A is false but R is true.
Q2. If strategy for judicious use of resources is to be made, which of the following
method will you suggest?
a. Resources Development b. Resources Management
c. Resources Conservation d- Resources Planning.
Q3. Identify the picture given below and write the type of soil erosion.
ANS- -----------------------------------------
Q.4 Choose the correct option on the basis of the observation of given image.
Transformation of things available in our environment involves an interactive

relationship between ………………………………………… ?
a. Nature and technology b. Nature, technology and institutions
c. Nature and institutions d. Environment and human beings
Q5.Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer
Statement I: Red and yellow soils develop a reddish colour due to diffusion of iron in
crystalline and metamorphic rocks .
Statement II: It looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form.
Q6 . Choose the right option to fill in the blank:
The Bangar soil has ________ of kanker nodules than the Khadar .
a . higher concentration b . lower concentration
c . Both a and b d .only b
Q.7 Mention any two purpose of land utilisation in India .
-----------------------------------------------------
-----------------------------------------------------
Q8. “There is enough for everybody’s need and not for any body’s greed.” Substantiate
this statement in 20 words.
Q9. States like Maharashtra and Gujarat are having black soil. Analyze any three
features of this type of soil.
Q.10 “Non-conventional resources are the best option to conserve the natural
resources” Substantiate this statement with Examples.
Q11.Analyse the impact of mining activities on the local environment and the health of
the surrounding communities.
Q12.“M” gave his friend clues about a type of soil that suits for growing paddy, wheat
and pulses. Which of the following clues provided by “M” would be most useful in
identifying the ideal type of soil?
Clues: i. It is well-known for its capacity to hold moisture.
ii. It turns yellow when it is hydrated.
iii. It contain adequate proportion of potash ,phosphoric acid and lime.
iv. It is a well-drained loamy soil.
a. Clue I b. Clue I and iii c. Clue I and ii d. Clue iii
Q13. Evaluate the differences between Khadar and Bangar. Any three
Q14 .’Irrational consumption and over-utilisation of resources may lead to socio-
economic and environmental problems.’Substantiate this with Examples.
Q15. Identify the main reason for land degradation in Gujarat.
a .Mining b. Overgrazing c .Both A and B d .Only B
GEOGRAPHY CHAPTER 2-FOREST AND WILD LIFE RESOURCES
Q 1 . Which of the following options represent potential measures that can be taken to
mitigate the threats posed on the tiger population and biodiversity?
i. Banning hunting, giving legal protection to their habitats, and restricting trade in
wildlife
ii. Prohibiting the visit of public into forest area.
iii. Establishing wildlife sanctuaries and National Parks
iv. Converting forests into Reserved and Protected forests
Options:
a. Statement i and ii are correct. b. Statement ii, iii & iv are correct
c. Statement ii is correct. d. Statement (i), (iii) & (iv) are correct.
Q.2Which of the following categories of forests and wastelands belongs to government,
private individuals’ communities?
(a) Protected Forests (b) Reserved Forests
(c) Unclassed Forests (d) Open Forests
Q 3. Which one of the following is NOT correctly paired?

Column - A Column – B
1. Corbett National Park A .Uttrakhand
2. Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary B .Rajasthan
3. Manas Tiger Reserve C .Madhya Pradesh
4. Periyar Tiger Reserve D .Kerala
Options:
a .1-A b .2-B c .3 –C d. 4-D
Q 4 .What do you mean by Biodiversity?
Q5. Evaluate the factors responsible for depleting our forests and wildlife. Any three.
Q6.There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R ) .Mark your
Assertion: Destruction of forests and wildlife resulted into the loss of cultural diversity .
Reason: The conservation of forests and wildlife is essential to provide a better
quality of life.
Q7.Elucidateany three movements which were launched by local communities for the
protection of forests or wildlife .
Q8.Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Nature worship is an age old tribal belief based on the premise that all creations of
nature have to be protected. Such beliefs have preserved several virgin forests in
pristine form called Sacred Groves (the forests of God and Goddesses). These patches of
forest or parts of large forests have been left untouched by the local people and any
interference with them is banned. Certain societies revere a particular tree which they
have preserved from time immemorial. The Mundas and the Santhal of Chota Nagpur
region worship mahua (Bassia latifolia) and kadamba (Anthocaphalus cadamba) trees,
and the tribals of Odisha and Bihar worship the tamarind (Tamarindus indica) and
mango (Mangifera indica) trees during weddings. To many of us, peepal and banyan
trees are considered sacred.
8.1 “Nature worship is an age-old tribal belief based on the premise that all
creations of nature have to be protected” Which values does it promote?’’
8.2 What do you understand by Sacred Groves?
8.3 List out the two tribal groups mentioned in the above source.
Q 9. Mention any four major threats to the population of tiger? Evaluate the efforts
made by the government to protect them.
Q 10.’’N” gave his friend clues about a type of forest which is almost one third of the
total forest area. Which of the following clues provided by “N” would be most useful in
identifying the ideal type of forest?
Clue I – These forest lands are protected from any further depletion.
Clues II – All North- eastern states and parts of Gujarat have a very high percentage of
these forests.
a. Clue I b. Clue I and iii
c. Clue I and ii d. Clue iii
Q 11.There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R ) .Mark your
Assertion (A) - In Sariska Tiger Reserve, Gujarat, villagers have fought against mining by
citing the Wildlife Protection Act.
Reason (R) - in many areas, villagers themselves are protecting habitats and explicitly
rejecting government involvement.
Q12 .Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer.
Statement I –In India Joint Forest Management (JFM) programme furnishes a good
example for involving communities in the management and restoration of degraded
forests.
Statement II – The state of Odisha passed the first resolution for joint forest
management .
Q13. Assess the classification of forest into different categories managed by the
government of India.
Q14. “Conservation in the background of rapid decline in wildlife population and
forestry has become essential .”Substantiate the statement with examples.
Q15. List out names of few species which are protected under several projects
announced by the Indian government.
GEOGRAPHY CHAPTER- 3- WATER RESOURCES
Q1 .Which place in India has an artificial lake to conserve water that dates to 11th
century?
a. Delhi
b. Bhopal
c. Mumbai
d. Kolhapur
Q 2. Multi-purpose River Valley Projects arecalled the ‘temples of modern India?
Substantiate the statement with suitable examples.
Q 3. Do you think it is necessary to conserve water resources in India? Give three
reasons.
Q 4.Read the following source and answer the questions-
Irrigation has also changed the cropping pattern of many regions with farmers shifting
to water intensive and commercial crops. This has great ecological consequences like
Stalinization of soil. At the same time, it has transformed the social landscape for e.g.;
increasing the social gap between the richer land owners and landless poor. As a result,
we can see, the dams did create conflicts between people wanting different uses and
benefits from the same water resources. In Gujarat, the Sabarmati basin farmers were
agitated and almost caused a riot over the higher priority given to water supply in Urban
areas, particularly during droughts. Inter-state water disputes were also becoming
common with regard to sharing the costs and benefits of multi-purpose projects.
4.1 How did cropping pattern change by irrigation? Explain
4.2Analyse the statement “Dams created conflict between people.”
4.3 What are the consequences of irrigation on Soil and social landscape ?
Q 5.What can be the reasons responsible for water scarcity in India? Evaluate any three
reasons.
Q 6.‘The need of the hour is to conserve and manage our water resources’. Elucidate
the statement.
Q 7. Read the statement and choose the correct option-
Assertion (A): Rainwater harvesting is to collect and store rain water.
Reason (R): Rooftop rainwater harvesting was commonly practiced to store drinking
water.
Q 8 .Read the statement and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Sardar Sarovar Dam has been built over the Narmada River in Gujarat.
Reason (R): This is one of the largest water resource projects of India covering Three
states.
d. A is false and R is true.
Q 9. On the outline map of India locate the following items :

a . A dam built on river Chenab in India .
b.A dam built on river Narmada in India.
c .A dam built on river Mahanadi in India.
d .A dam built on river Satluj in India.
Q10 .Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer Statement I:
Irrigation has changed the cropping pattern of many regions with farmers shifting to
water intensive and commercial crops.
Statement II: This has great ecological consequences like salinization of the soil.

Q 11. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer Statement I:
The rain water can be stored in the tankas.
Statement II: Khara pani is considered the purest form of natural water.
Q12. MR. “J” is travelling the North Eastern part of India where Bamboo Drip Irrigation
system is practised. Identify the state –
a . Manipur
b . Meghalaya
c .Nagaland
d .Assam
Q 13 . Mention any two disadvantages of multi-purpose river projects.

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Q14 .“The foods have not only devastated life and property but also caused extensive
soil erosion.” Substantiate this statement with illustrations.
Q15 . Choose the right option to fill in the blank.

_________is the first state in India which has made rooftop rainwater harvesting
structure compulsory to all the houses across the state.
a . Rajasthan
b .Andra Pradesh
c .Tamil Nadu
d .Karnataka
GEOGRAPHY CHAPTER – 4 – AGRICULTURE
1. Which one of the following is Rabi crop?
a. Wheat
b. Paddy
c. Maize
d. Jowar
2. Which one of the following is not a zaid crop?
a. Sugarcane
b. Vegetables
c. Muskmelon
d. Peas
3. The type of farming which is practiced in areas of high population pressure on
land, where high dose of bio-chemical inputs and irrigation are used for obtaining
higher production is known as ________________________________
a. Jhumming
b. Primitive Subsistence
c. Intensive Subsistence
d. Commercial
4. Which of the following is not a plantation crop?
a. Bamboo
b. Mustard
c. Coffee
d. Banana
5. An important millet which is rich in iron, calcium, micro-nutrients and roughage is
________________
a. Jowar
b. Bajra
c. Ragi
d. None of these
6. The largest rice producing Indian state is _________________________________
a. Rajasthan
b. Uttar Pradesh
c. West Bengal
d. Punjab
7. Which of the following crops is known as the ‘Golden Fiber’?
a. Silk
b. Jute
c. Coir
d. Cotton
8. Which crop is used as both food and fodder?
a. Wheat
b. Rice
c. Sugarcane
d. Maize
9. Rabi crop is grown in the season of
_______________________________________
a. Winter
b. Summer
c. Rainy
d. Autumn
10.The term ‘Masole’ is used for jhum cultivation in _________________________
a. Venezuela
b. Brazil
c. Vietnam
d. Central Africa
11.Complete the sentence
The state where the green Revolution has been an important factor in the growth
of Rabi crops are
___________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________
12.Name the three crops of paddy grown in a year in Assam & West Bengal.
Ans._______________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
13.Which is the rain-fed crop? Name the state which is the largest producer of this
crop.
Ans._______________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
14.In which parts of India is rice grown?
Ans._______________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
15.Complete the following table:
Type of Crop Temperature Soil
Maize
Rabi ____________________ ____________________
16.Correct the following sentence and rewrite:
Rubber is a temperate crop, but under special conditions, it is also grown in
tropical and sub-tropical areas. It requires dry climate with rainfall less than 200
cm and temperature below -25*C
Ans._______________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
17.What is plantation agriculture? Write some of its features.
Ans._______________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________
18.How does agriculture contribute to the national income and employment.
Ans._______________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
19.Why has the agriculture sector in India got a major setback inspite of increasing in
GDP growth rate?
Ans._______________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
20.What do you understand by the term ‘GDP’? Describe the steps taken by the
government to control the declining share of agriculture in the GDP.
Ans._______________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
21. Agriculture has been practiced in India for thousands of years. Sustained uses of
land without compatible techno-institutional changes have hindered the pace of
agricultural development. Inspite of development of sources of irrigation most of
the farmers in large parts of the country still depend upon monsoon and natural
fertility in order to carry on their agriculture. For a growing population, this poses
a serious challenge. Agriculture which provides livelihood for more than 60 per
cent of its population needs some serious technical and institutional reforms.
Thus, collectivisation, consolidation of holdings, cooperation and abolition of
zamindari, etc. were given priority to bring about institutional reforms in the
country after Independence. ‘Land reform’ was the main focus of our First Five
Year Plan. The right of inheritance had already lead to fragmentation of land
holdings necessitating consolidation of holdings.
A. What was the main focus of the First Five Year Plan?
Ans._______________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________
B. What do you mean by the term ‘ Agricultural Development’?
Ans._______________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
C. Illustrate the importance of green revolution in India.
Ans._______________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________
D. How do technological changes in agriculture strengthen the agriculture of India?
Ans.
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
GEOGRAPHY LESSON- 5- MINERALS AND ENERGY RESOURCES
1. A _____________________(geographer/geologist) is interested in the formation
of minerals, their age and composition.
2. What is a mineral?
___________________________________________________________________
___________
3. What are gobar gas plants? State one advantage of it.
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
______________________
4. Being a tropical country, India has enormous possibilities of tapping solar energy.
Suggest any one way to popularize its maximum use.
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
______________________
5. State three impacts of mining on the health of miners
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
______________________
6. Suggest ant three ways of conservation of energy resources.
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
_________________________________
7. ‘Natural gas is an important source of clean energy’. Support this statement with
three examples.
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
_________________________________
8. ‘There is a pressing need to use non-conventional sources of energy in India’.
Elaborate the given statement taking the example of solar energy.
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________
9. State five forms in which minerals generally occurs?
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
10.On the given map of India, mark the following-
a) iron and steel plant in Chhatisgarh
b) nuclear power plant in Karnataka
c) thermal power plant in Assam
Note: The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of
Q. No.10
Name the following-
a) iron and steel plant in Chhatisgarh___________________
b) nuclear power plant in Karnataka____________________
c) thermal power plant in Assam_______________________
GEOGRAPHY LESSON- 6- MANUFACTURING INDUSTRIES
1. Based on the above Reasoning(R) and Assertion(A),choose the correct option- (1)
Assertion (A): Industries are the backbone of a country’s economy.
Reason (R): Agriculture and industries go hand in hand.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) both A and R are false.
2. Based on the source given below, answer the following questions:
a) Name any two factors of production.

b) Name any two inputs of production.
c) Who is an entrepreneur?
3. I am an ore. I am used as a raw material in aluminium industry. Can you guess my

name?
4. Based on the detail given below, choose the correct option:
_______________region has the maximum concentration of iron and steel
industries. It is largely, because of the relative advantages this region has for the
development of this industry.
a. Chhotanagpur plateau
b. Malwa plateau
c. Deccan Plateau
5) On the given map of India, mark the following items:
1. Cotton textile industry of Gujarat

2. Iron and steel plant of Bokaro
3. Iron and steel plant of Salem
4. Iron and steel plant of Bhilai
5. Software technology park of Noida
6. Software technology park of Karnataka
7. Software technology park of Chennai
GEOGRAPHY LESSON- 7- LIFELINES OF NATIONAL ECONOMY
(ONLY ROADWAYS and RAILWAYS)
1. The 1st train steamed off between which two cities?

_____________________________
2. ________________ is the world’s longest Highway tunnel.
3. The national highwaysare maintained by which body? _________
4. The highway projects are implemented by which authority?
_________________
5. “Roadways have an edge over railways”. Justify the statement giving three
examples.
_____________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
________________
6. Explain different means of transport.
_____________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________
7. Analyse the physiographic and economic factors that have influenced the
distribution pattern of the railway network of India.
_____________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_______________________________
8. Map Work
On the given map of India, mark the following places:
a. Marmagao sea port

b. Tuticorin sea port
c. Haldia sea port
d. Paradip sea port
e. Place where Meenam Bakkam international airport is located
f. International airport of Punjab
g. International airport in Maharashtra
h. Rajiv Gandhi international airport
Note: The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q.
No 8-
a. Marmagao sea port is located in which state_____________

b. Tuticorin sea port is located in which state__________________
c. Haldia sea port is located in which state_____________________
d. Paradip sea port is located in which state______________________
e. Place where Meenam Bakkam international airport is located ___________
f. International airport of Punjab __________________________
g. International airport in Maharashtra_________________________
h. Rajiv Gandhi international airport is located in which city
_____________________
POLITICAL SCIENCE LESSON-1- POWER SHARING
1. Consider the following two statements on power sharing and
select the correct option:
Which of these statements are true and false?
(a) A is true but B is false (b) Both A and B are true
(c) Both A and B are false (d) A is false but B is true
_________________________________
2. Match List I (forms of power sharing) with List II (forms of government)
and select the correct answer using the codes given below in the lists:
[1]
______________________________________
3.What is civil war?[1]
________________________________________________________
4.What is the state religion of Sri Lanka?[1]
____________________________________________________________
5.How is community government elected in Belgium?[1]
___________________________________________________________
6.Why is power sharing desirable? Give two reasons.[2]
__________________________________________________________
8. State two differences between horizontal division of power and vertical division
of power.[2]
____________________________________________________
9. How is the ethnic composition of Belgium very complex. explain.[2]
________________________________________________________
10. Study the map thoroughly and mention the languages that are dominantly
present in Belgium.[2]
__________________________________________________________
11. Is Power sharing good or bad in democracy? Why can't the power be
concentrated with one authority?[3]
_____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________
12.Can we ensure better power sharing by just giving better representation in
government?[3]___________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
13. Why should majority share power with minority as well? Why can't majority rule
alone?[3]
________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________
14.Describe any three demands of the Sri Lankan Tamils. How did they struggle for their
independence?[5]
________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________
14.How is power shared among the different organs of the government ? Explain.[5]
________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
15. Describe the elements of Belgian mode for accommodation.[5]
________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
POLITICAL SCIENCE LESSON-2- FEDERALISM
1. What is the government at block level called?
a) Gram Sabha b) Gram Panchayat
c) Panchayat Samiti d) Nyay Panchayat
2. How many scheduled languages are recognized by the constitution?

a) Besides Hindi, there are 18 scheduled languages.
b) Besides Hindi, there are 21 scheduled languages.
c) Besides Hindi there are 22 scheduled languages.
d) Besides Hindi there are 19 scheduled languages.
3. Which are the basic objectives of a federal system?

a. To safeguard and promote unity of the country
b. To accommodate regional diversity
c. To share powers among different communities
d. Both a and b
4. Which of the following is incorrect regarding a unitary government?

a. There is either only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to the
central government.
b. The central government can pass on orders to the provincial government.
c. A state government is conservable to central government.
d. The powers of state governments are guaranteed by the Constitution.
5. What is true regarding sources of revenue in a federal system?

a. States have no financial powers or independent sources of revenue.
b. States are dependent on revenue or funds on the central government.
c. Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its
financial autonomy.
d. States have no financial autonomy.
6. In which Schedule of the Indian Constitution are the 22 scheduled languages

included?
a. 10th schedule b. 08th schedule
c. 12thschedule d. 09th schedule
7. When was a major step towards decentralisation taken?

ANS.___________________________________________________________________
______________
8. Subjects included in concurrent list are
_________________________________________________
09. What is decentralization?
ANS.___________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________
10. What makes India a federal country?
ANS.___________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________
11. What was the main objective of the Constitutional Amendment made in 1992 in
India?
ANS.___________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________
12. Differentiate between the Unitary Government and Federal Government.
_______________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
13. How is the Federal government better than other forms of Government? Explain
with the example of Belgium and Sri Lanka.
ANS.___________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________
____________________________
14. What are the works of legislature and executive.
ANS.___________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
POLITICAL SCIENCE LESSON-3- GENDER, CASTE AND RELIGION
1. How much representation do local governments provide for women in India?

2. Name the group of countries in which participation of women in public life is very
high.3.
“Gender division is not based on biology but on social expectations and stereotypes.”
Support thestatement.
4. What do we call a person who does not discriminate against other on the basis of
religious beliefs?
5. Suggest any two measures to check communalism in India
6.How can communalism pose a great threat to Indian democracy?
OR
How can religion be a source of danger to democratic politics? Explain your view points.
7.How can the relationship between the politics and religion be beneficial and
problematic at thesame time? Explain.
8. Describe the advantages of the political expressions of caste differences.
9. Describe the adverse effects of caste in politics in India.
10. How does caste gets politicised? Give three points.
11. Why are caste barriers breaking down in India?
12.The focus on caste in politics can sometimes give an impression that elections are all
about casteand nothing else. Do you agree? Explain
13.“Caste has not still disappeared from contemporary India”. Support the statement
with suitablearguments.
14. Describe any three constitutional provisions that make India a secular state.
POLITICAL SCIENCE LESSON-4- POLITICAL PARTIES
Q M
1. Choose the right option to fill in the blank. 1

The emergence of _______ is directly connected to the rise of political parties.
(a)Monitory democracies
(b)Direct democracies
(c)Representative democracies
(d)Constitutional democracies
2 Which of the following statements Is correct keeping the requirement of 1
formation of government in view.
Statement (i): It is possible for independent candidates to form a government.
Statement (ii): Government formation is exclusively reserved for political
parties.
Statement (iii): The formation of government is limited to only elected political
parties.
Statement (iv): Government can only be formed by political parties that are
elected and hold a majority.
Options:
(a)Statement (i) and (ii)
(b)Statement (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c)Only Statement (iii)
(d)Only statement (iv)
Assertion(A): Only those parties that are recognized as national parties can
contest in elections for Parliament.
Reason(R) Recognition to a political party as a national party is accorded by the
Election Commission.
Assertion(A): Political Parties play a major role in making laws for the country.
Reason(R): No law can become a bill unless majority parties support it.
5 Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the Political parties? 1
(i) Political parties do not enjoy much trust among the people
(ii) Parties are often rocked by scandals involving top-party leaders.
(iii)Parties are not necessary to run governments.
(b) only (i) and (ii)
6 Which of the following is not a function of a political party? 1
(a) To articulate the will of the people

(b) To form and run government
(c) To recruit and train leaders
(d) To provide social services
7 Select the statement related to the advantages of multiparty system 1
(a) Multi-party system provides limited choice to voters.

(b) There is a chance of conflict.
(c) Provides choice to the voters.
(d) In Multi-party system regional parties get the representation.

1+
If several parties compete for power, and more than two parties have a
2
reasonable chance of coming to power either on their own strength or in
alliance with others, we call it a multiparty system. Thus in India, we have a
multiparty system. In this system, the government is formed by various parties
coming together in a coalition. When several parties in a multi-party system join
hands for the purpose of contesting elections and winning power, it is called an
alliance or a front. For example, in India there were three such major alliances
in 2004 parliamentary elections– the National Democratic Alliance, the United
Progressive Alliance and the Left Front. The multiparty system often appears
very messy and leads to political instability. At the same time, this system allows
a variety of interests and opinions to enjoy political representation
(iv) Give any one advantage of multiparty system.

Ans___________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
(v) Name any two multiparty alliances of India.
Ans___________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
_______________________
(vi) What is multiparty system? Write any one drawback of this system.
Ans
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
________________________

1+
Democracies that follow a federal system all over the world tend to have two
2
kinds of political parties: parties that are present in only one of the federal units
and parties that are present in several or all units of the federation. This is the
case in India as well. There are some country-wide parties, which are called
‘national parties’. These parties have their units in various states. But by and
large, all these units follow the same policies, programmes and strategy that is
decided at the national level. Every party in the country has to register with the
Election Commission. While the Commission treats all parties equally, it offers
some special facilities to large and established parties. These parties are given a
unique symbol – only the official candidates of that party can use that election
symbol. Parties that get this privilege and some other special facilities are
‘recognised’ by the Election Commission for this purpose. That is why these
parties are called, ‘recognised political parties’. The Election Commission has
laid down detailed criteria of the proportion of votes and seats that a party
must get in order to be a recognised party. A party that secures at least six per
cent of the total votes in an election to the Legislative Assembly of a State and
wins at least two seats is recognised as a State party. A party that secures at
least six per cent of the total votes in Lok Sabha elections or Assembly elections
in four States and wins at least four seats in the Lok Sabha is recognised as a
national party.
(iv) Which two kind of political parties do federal systems have?

Ans___________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
(v) Name the institution that registers all the political parties in India.
Ans___________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
(vi) State the conditions for a political party to become a National Party.
Ans
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
(e) Lack of internal democracy

(f) Money and muscle power
(g) Control of corporates on major institutions
(h) Major political parties do not practice transparency.
11 Which one among the following pairs is correctly matched? 1
List I List II
(a) Bharatiya Janata Party National Democratic Alliance
(b) Congress Party Left Front
(c) Communist Party of India Regional Party
(d) Mizo National Front United Progressive Alliance
12 Which one of the following is true regarding a coalition government ? 1
(a) Only two parties form an alliance and contest elections.
(b) Several parties compete for power.
(c) The government is formed by two or more parties coming together.
(d) Several parties form an alliance and compete for power.
13 Which one of the following is a better way of carrying out political reforms in 1
a democratic country?
(a) The legal changes
(b) The constitutional changes
(c) The empowerment of people
(d) The legislation for reforms
14 Which one of the following is not true regarding the government order that 1
makes it mandatory for an election candidate to declare his details in an
affidavit ?
(a) It aims at reducing the influence of criminals in politics.
(b) It gives details of existing property and criminal cases pending against a
candidate.
(c) It aims at reducing the influence of money in politics.
(d) The Election Commission checks these details and cancels the nomination
papers of suspected criminals or if the information is false.
15 Which of the following pairs is not correct? 1
d) Multiparty system – The USA and the UK
e) Anti-defection law- Reformation of political parties
f) Role of Money and muscle power- Challenge to political parties
g) Indian National Congress- United Progressive Alliance
POLITICAL SCIENCE LESSON-5- OUTCOMES OF DEMOCRACY
Q Mks
1. Choose the correction option to complete the statement. 1

If a government provides its citizens a right and means to examine the process
of decision, it is ______________.
(a)An accountable government.
(b)A responsible government.
(c)A transparent government.
(d)A stable government.
2 Which one of the following is an example of outcomes of a democracy that 1
produces an accountable government?
(a) Open to public debates on major policies and legislation
(b) Open in promoting economic development
(c) Open in reducing economic inequalities
(d) Open to rulers elected by the people
Assertion(A): Democracies are based on political equality
Reason(R):All individuals have equal say in electing representatives
Assertion(A): Democracy is an accountable, responsive, and legitimate
government.
Reason(R): Democracies have regular, free, and fair elections and decision-
making is based on norms and procedures.
5 Social outcomes of democracy includes- 1
(i) Dignity and freedom of its citizens
(ii) Disparity and discrimination.
(iii)Gender specific bias.
(b) Only (i)
(c) Only (ii) and (iii) (d) Only (i) and (iii)
6 Which of the following is not true about democracy? 1
(а) It always worries about majorities and public opinion.
(b) It improves the quality of decision making.
(c) Decision making is faster and quicker.
(d) It allows a room to correct mistakes.
7 Consider the following statements. Which of these do not hold true for non- 1
democratic regimes?
(a) These do not have to bother about public opinion.
(b) These take less time at arriving at a decision.
(c) Principle of individual dignity has legal force.
(d) These often suppress internal social differences.
There are some things that democracy must provide. In a democracy, we are +2
most concerned with ensuring that people will have the right to choose their
rulers and people will have control over the rulers. Whenever possible and
necessary, citizens should be able to participate in decision making, that affects
them all. Therefore, the most basic outcome of democracy should be that it
produces a government that is accountable to the citizens, and responsive to
the needs and expectations of the citizens.
i. What can a democracy ensure its citizens?
Ans___________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
ii. Why should citizens participate in decision making?
Ans______________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
iii. Enlist any two outcomes of a democracy.
Ans
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
Democracies are based on political equality. All individuals have equal weight in +2
electing representatives. Parallel to the process of bringing individuals into the
political arena on an equal footing, we find growing economic inequalities. A
small number of ultra-rich enjoy a highly disproportionate share of wealth and
incomes. Not only that, their share in the total income of the country has been
increasing. Those at the bottom of the society have very little to depend upon.
Their incomes have been declining. Sometimes they find it difficult to meet their
basic needs of life, such as food, clothing, house, education and health.
i. What is democracy based on?
Ans
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
ii. How are the few ultra-rich different from others in the society?
Ans___________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
iii. State the challenges faced by those at the bottom of the society.
Ans
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
(a) Demand for a separate state from Democratic government

(b) Democratic government is facing territorial issues with the bordering
states
(c) Democratic government is coping with multiple pressures through
accommodation
(d) Democratic government accepts demands based on separate state
11 Which one among the following options is correctly matched?
List I List II 1
(A) A democratic government is a (i) idea of political inequality
(B) A democracy is attentive to the (ii) improves the quality of decision
needs of making
(C) Democracies have successfully (iii) legitimate government
eliminated
(D) Democracy is considered a better (iv) all citizens
form of government as it
(a) A-(iii); B-(iv); C-(i); D-(ii)
(b) A- (iii); B-(ii); C-(i); D- (iv)
(c) A-(ii); B-(iii); C-(iv); D-(i)
(d) A-(i); B-(ii); C-(iii); D-(iv)
12 A Country ‘P’ has recently adopted democracy after a long struggle. Which of 1
the following outcomes can the citizens of this country DEFINITELY expect due
to this change?
(a) Sharp decrease in poverty in all communities
(b) More accountability on part of the government
(c) A drastic rise in the national income due to sharp economic growth
(d) Rules and laws to be drafted according to the needs of the majority groups
13 Complete the following sentence: 1
Democracy remains a democracy as long as every citizen has a chance of ____.
(a) Casting their vote in the elections
(b) Have free and fair elections
(c) Being in a majority at some point of time
14 More than economic development, it is reasonable to expect democracies to 1
reduce economic _____.
(a) Disparities
(b) Opportunities
(c) Equalities
15 Some delay in decision-making is bound to take place in a democracy because 1
it is based on the idea of _____.
(a) Universal adult franchise
(b) Accountable government
(c) Deliberation and negotiation
(d) Power sharing
ECONOMICS LESSON-1- DEVELOPMENT
Multiple Choice Questions:
Look at the image given below.
Q1. Which of the following goals of development should be prioritized in this region?
(a) Reducing income disparities
(b) Combatting climate change
(c) Ending gender violence
(d) Ensuring caste equality
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
Q2. Which age group of children is included in calculating Net Attendance Ratio?
(a) 14-15
(b) 6-10
(c) 7-11
(d) 5-9
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
Q3. Which one of the following is the correct meaning of ‘Average Income’?
(a) The total income of the country divided by its earning population.
(b) The total income of the country divided by its total population.
(c) The total income of all the residents of the country.
(d) The total income from domestic and foreign sources.
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
Q4. Which of the following measures the population of the literate population in the
seven and above age group?
(a) Net attendance ratio
(b) Enrolment ratio
(c) Literacy rate
(d) Drop out ratio
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
Q5. Which one of the following best describes the Human Development Index (HDI)?
(a) Improvement in science, information, and technology
(b) Improvement in health, education, and income
(c) Improvement in information and communication
(d) Improvement in investment, finance, and technology
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
Assertion (A): Human Development mentions how much socioeconomic development
has happened in a country.
Reason (R): Comparison of the national income of two countries explains the Human
Development Index.
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
Assertion (A): Different people have different development goals.
Reason (R): People want freedom, equality, security, and respect.
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
Read the following data and information carefully and select the most appropriate
answer from the given options:
Rita is an employee of a multinational company who gets transferred to different

countries after every three years of service. She has been given an opportunity to
choose any one out of the three countries mentioned in the table above as her next
job location. She calculates the average income of all these countries as per the given
data and chooses to be transferred to Country A.
Q8. Identify the reason why Rita has chosen country A.
(a) Most of its citizens are rich and stable.
(b) Has the most equitable distribution of income.
(c) National income of its citizens is higher.
(d) Average income of its citizens is lower.
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
Q9. Given below is the income distribution of two fictional countries, each with a
population of 5 persons. Which of them would have a wide gap between the rich and
poor?
(a) Country P (b) Country Q

(c) Both P and Q (d) Neither P nor Q
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
Q10. Assume there are four families in a country. The average per capita income of
these families is Rs 5000. If the income of three families is Rs 4000, Rs 7000, and Rs
3000 respectively, what is the income of the fourth family?
(a) Rs 7500 (b) Rs 3000
(c) Rs 2000 (d) Rs 6000
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
03 Marks Question
Q11. “People have conflicting development goals”. Support the statement with suitable
example.
Answer:_________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
Q12.Describe any three possible development goals of landless rural labourers.
Answer:_________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
Q13. “Money cannot buy all the goods and services that one needs to live well” Do you
agree with this statement? Justify your answer with any three suitable arguments.
Answer:_________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
Q14. Why does Kerala have a better Human Development Index ranking in comparison
to Punjab? Explain with three reasons.
Answer:_________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
Q15. Explain how the development goals and aspirations of landless rural laborers,
prosperous farmers, and poor farmers who depend only on rain are.
Answer:_________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
ECONOMICS LESSON -2- SECTORS OF INDIAN ECONOMY

Q1. Arrange the following in the correct sequence:
i. Transporting cloth to the workshops
ii. Sale in shops and showrooms
iii. Spinning the yarn
iv. The weaving of the fabric
Options
(a) i → iv → iii → ii
(b) iii → iv → i → ii
(c) iv → i → ii → iii
(d) iii → iv → ii → I
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
Q2. Which one of the following belongs to the service sector?
(a) Multiple cropping
(b) Sericulture
(c) Information technology
(d) Aluminium smelting
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
Q3. Which of the following is an example of the dependency of the primary sector on
the tertiary sector?
(a) Weavers made less money because the shops did not want to sell handloom
products.
(b) The bank employees could not reach on time due to a transportation strike.
(c) Diary and poultry producers suffered a loss when the shops went on strike.
(d) Farmers suffered a loss when there was not enough water to grow cotton.
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
Q4. Which of the following gives the CORRECT explanation of Gross Domestic
Product?
(a) The value of final goods and services is added for secondary and tertiary sectors for
one year.
(b) The value of every good and service is added up for all three sectors for one year.
(c) The value of final goods and services is added up for all three sectors for one year.
(d) The value of goods is added for the primary sector for one year.
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
Q5. Observe the graph given below:
Which of the following statements BEST explains the graph?

(a) The production in all three sectors has decreased and it has decreased the most in
the primary sector.
(b) The production in all three sectors has increased and it has increased the most in
the primary sector.
(c) The production in all three sectors has increased and it has increased the most in
the tertiary sector.
(d) The production in all three sectors has increased and all three sectors have similar
growth.
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
Q6. The share of the tertiary sector to the GDP has increased but the contribution of
which sector to employment is highest at present?
(a) Primary
(b) Tertiary
(c) Secondary
(d) None of these
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
Q7. Which was the largest sector in 1973 in India in terms of employment?
(a) Public sector
(b) Private sector
(c) Primary sector
(d) Tertiary sector
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
Q8. According to 2017-18 data, the share of different sectors in employment
(percentage) in India was
 Primary sector – 44%
 Secondary sector – 25%
 Tertiary sector – 31%
Out of the three sectors, why did the ratio of employment in the Primary sector high?
Select the most suitable option from the following:
(a) Workers in the primary sector are underemployed.
(b) Low job opportunities in the secondary sector.
(c) Efforts of labor are not equivalent in all the sectors.
(d) Outsourcing of job opportunities in the secondary sector.
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
Q9. The type of unemployment in which more people work than actually needed is
known as _____.
(a) Disguised unemployment
(b) Seasonal unemployment
(c) Underemployed
(d) Over employed
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
Q10. A man is employed on a food processing farm where he has to do a lot of manual
work. His wife and daughter also help him with his work on the farm every day. Which
type of employment is this an example?
(a) Under employment
(b) Seasonal employment
(c) Over employment
(d) Cyclical employment
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
Q11. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005 (MGNREGA)
states a guarantee of a minimum of 100 days of employment per year. If the
government is unable to fulfill these 100 days of employment, the government would
have to _____.
(a) Pay the compensation in lieu of these days
(b) Provide another scheme for the same
(c) Pay at least 1/3 percent allowance
(d) Provide health care as compensation
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
Q12. A woman works at a sweet shop in her village on a contract basis and gets a
meager salary after working the entire day. She doesn’t get any holidays or paid leave,
rather her employer deducts her salary whenever she is absent from work. Find out in
which of the following sectors she is working.
(a) Primary sector
(b) Service sector
(c) Organized sector
(d) Unorganized sector
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
Q13. The sectors are classified into public and private sectors on the basis of:
(a) Employment conditions
(b) The nature of economic activity
(c) Ownership of enterprises
(d) Number of workers employed in the enterprise
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
Q14. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A)
and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Not every good or service that is produced and sold needs to be counted
to know the total production in each sector.
Reason (R): The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate
goods.
Options:
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
Q15.“Tertiary sector is playing a significant role in the development of the Indian
Economy’. Justify the statement.
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
Q16. Why has the entire tertiary sector not grown in importance? Explain.
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
Q17. Name the sector that is the largest employer in India. Why does this sector
produce only a quarter of the National GDP?
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
Q18. How can more job opportunities be created in rural areas?
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
Q19. In what ways can employment be increased in urban areas?
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
Q20. Explain NREGA 2005.
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
Q21. Rohan works in a bank as a clerk while Sumit works on a construction site as a
laborer. Find out the difference in their conditions of work and judge the benefits and
drawbacks of working in the respective sectors.
Or,
Compare the employment conditions prevailing in the organized and unorganized
sectors.
Or,
Explain the working condition of workers in the unorganized sector.
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
ECONOMICS LESSON -3- MONEY AND CREDIT
Q1. A porter making pots, wants to exchange pots for wheat. Luckily, he meets a
farmer who has wheat and is willing to exchange it for pots. What is this situation
known as?
(a) Incidence of wants
(b) Double incidence of wants
(c) Barter system of wants
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
Q2. What is the primary function of money?
(a) Medium of exchange
(b) Standard of deferred payments
(c) Credit creation
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
Q3. Find the Incorrect option
(a) Demand deposit share the essential features of money
(b) With demand deposit payments can be made without cash
(c) Demand deposits are a safe way of money transformation
(d) Demand deposit facility is like a cheque
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
Q4. Credit (loan) refers to an agreement in which the lender supplies the borrower
with money, goods, or services in return for the promise of _____.
(a) Future payment
(b) Payment made
(c) No payment
(d) Collateral
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
Q5. Which one of the following options describes ‘Collateral’?
(a) Double coincidence of wants
(b) Certain products for barter
(c) Trade in barter
(d) Asset as a guarantee for a loan
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
Q6. Rohan has taken a loan of Rs.5 lakhs from the bank to purchase a house at a 12%
rate of interest. He has to submit papers about the new house and salary records to
the bank. What is this process called?
(a) Interest Rate
(b) Collateral
(c) Principal Amount
(d) Installments
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
Q7. Rita has taken a loan of Rs.7 lakhs from the bank to purchase a car. The annual
interest rate on the loan is 14.5 percent and the loan is to be repaid in 3 years in
monthly installments. The bank retained the papers of the new car as collateral, which
will be returned to Rita only when she repays the entire loan with interest.
Analyze the loan information given above, considering one of the following correct
options.
(a) Mode of re-payment
(b) Terms of credit
(c) Interest on loan
(d) Deposit criteria
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
Q8. Mohan is an agricultural laborer. There are several months in a year when he has
no work and needs credit to meet his daily expenses. He depends upon his employer,
the landowner for credit who charges an interest rate of 5 percent per month. Mohan
repays the money by working physically for the landowner on his farmland. Over the
years his debt will –
(a)Increase – because of increasing interest and non-payment of the monthly amount
(b) Remain constant – as he is working for the employer but is repaying less
(c) Reduce – as the amount equivalent to his salary is being counted as monthly
repayment
(d) Be totally repaid – as he is repaying the debt in the form of physical labor
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
Q9. Most agricultural laborers like Mohan depend upon loans from the informal
sector. Which of the following statements about this sector is correct –
(a) There are government bodies to supervise the informal sector
(b) Money lenders ask for a reasonable rate of interest
(c) Cost of informal loans to the borrower is quite high
(d) Money lenders use fair means to get their money back
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
Q10. In India, who issues the currency notes on behalf of the central government?
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) State Bank of India
(c) Finance Minister of India
(d) None
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
Q11. In SHGs most of the decisions regarding savings and loan activities are taken by
_____.
(a) Bank
(b) Members
(c) Government organization
(d) LIC
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
Q12. What do you understand by the Double Coincidence of Wants?
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________
Q13. What is the Barter system? What are the limitations of the Barter system?
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________
Q14. a. What is money? How does money eliminate the need for a double
coincidence of wants?
b. Why is money called a medium of exchange?
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________
Q15. What are the two forms of modern currency? Why is the modern currency
accepted as a medium of exchange?
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
_________
Q16. What are Demand Deposits? How is money safe in banks? Explain.
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________
Q17. How are deposits with the banks beneficial for an individual as well as for the
nation? Explain with examples.
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
_________________
Q18. What is a cheque?
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
_________________
Q19. How do the deposits with the banks become their source of income?
Or,
‘Business is all about solving people’s problems – at a profit.’
Explain how banks function like a business with respect to the above statement.
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
_________________
Q20. Why is credit a crucial element in economic development?
Or,
Why is cheap and affordable credit is important for a country?
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
_________________
Q21. Explain the meaning of the Debt Trap by giving an example.
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
_________________
Q22. What do you mean by the term ‘collateral’? Why do banks ask for collateral
while giving loans?
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
_________________
Q23. What are the main terms of credit?
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
_________________
Q24. ‘A bank is a place that will lend you money if you can prove that you do not need
it.’ Justify the above statement in relation to the banks’ requirements to ensure the
security of the funds they lend.
Ans. ____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
ECONOMICS – 4 – GLOBALISATION AND THE INDIAN ECONOMY
1. Globalisation has led to improvement in living conditions of _____________
a. People in the developed countries
b. People in the developing countries
c. People in the backward countries
d. All of the people
2. WTO stands for ________________________
a. World Trade Organisation
b. World Transaction Organisation
c. World Tsunami Organisation
d. Wealth Trade Organisation
3. Ranbaxy is associated with ____________________
a. Automobiles
b. Infosys
c. Shoes
d. Medicines
4. The term ‘Investment’ means _____________________
a. Money Spent on clothes
b. Money spent on buying land, house, machine etc.
c. Money spent buying vehicles
d. Money spent on buying furniture
5. A company that owns or controls production in more than one nation is called
a. SEZ
b. MNC
c. WTO
d. None of these
6. The term which means giving relaxation in trade and labour law is
_________________________
a. Trade Barriers
b. Globalisation
c. Liberalisation
d. Flexibility
7. Indian buyers have a great choice of goods than they did two decades back. This is
closely associated with the process of
____________________________________________________
a. Cooperation
b. Competition
c. Foreign trade
d. Globalisation
8. The most common route for investment by MNC in countries around the world is
to _______________
a. Set up new factories
b. Form partnership with local companies
c. Buy existing local companies
d. Produce in a small scale
9. Which one of the following is not an MNC?
a. SAIL
b. Reebok Shoes
c. Infosys
d. Tata Motors
10.Complete the sentence:
a. Investment made by MNCs are
called___________________________________________________________
______
b. Foreign trade results in connecting the markets or
_________________________________________________
11.How do MNCs control production across globe? Mention any one way.
Ans:
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
____________________________
12.When dis Ford come in India ?
Ans:
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________
13.What is a trade barrier?
Ans:
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
_________________
14.What attracts the foreign investment?
Ans:
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
__________________
15.For which purpose can the government use trade barriers?
Ans:
___________________________________________________________________
________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________-
________________________________________
16.How Can the Globalisation be made more fair? Write two steps and what will be
its effect?
Ans:
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
______
_______________________________________________________________
17.What are the benefits of foreign trade?
Ans:
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
______
18.“Foreign trade is an important component of globalisation.” Discuss.
Ans:
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
_________
19.Describe the role of MNCs in promoting globalisation process.
Ans:
___________________________________________________________________
________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
_________________________________
20.Read the source given below and answer the follow.

Tax on imports is an example of trade barrier. It is called a barrier because some
restriction has been set up. Governments can use trade barriers to increase or
decrease (regulate) foreign trade and to decide what kinds of goods and how
much of each, should come into the country. The Indian government, after
Independence, had put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment. This was
considered necessary to protect the producers within the country from foreign
competition. Industries were just coming up in the 1950s and 1960s, and
competition from imports at that stage would not have allowed these industries
to come up. Thus, India allowed imports of only essential items such as
machinery, fertilisers, petroleum etc. Note that all developed countries, during
the early stages of development, have given protection to domestic producers
through a variety of means.
A. Define the term ‘TAX BARRIER’.
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
_________________________
B. Why do government use trade barriers?
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
_________________________
C. Why did Indian government put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment
after independence?
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
_________________________
D. The import of which items was allowed by India
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
_________________________
21.Read the source given below and answer the follow.
Rapid improvement in technology has been one major factor that has stimulated
the globalisation process. For instance, the past fifty years have seen several
improvements in transportation technology. This has made much faster delivery
of goods across long distances possible at lower costs. Even more remarkable
have been the developments in information and communication technology. In
recent times, technology in the areas of telecommunications, computers, Internet
has been changing rapidly. Telecommunication facilities (telegraph, telephone
including mobile phones, fax) are used to contact one another around the world,
to access information instantly, and to communicate from remote areas. This has
been facilitated by satellite communication devices. As you would be aware,
computers have now entered almost every field of activity. You might have also
ventured into the amazing world of internet, where you can obtain and share
information on almost anything you want to know. Internet also allows us to send
instant electronic mail (e-mail) and talk (voice-mail) across the world at negligible
costs.
A. How has technology stimulated the Globalisation process?
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
_________________________
B. Which telecommunication facilities are used to contact one another around the
world?
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
_________________________
C. How do internet facilities help to share information?
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
_________________________
D. Complete the sentence:
Telecommunication facility has been facilitated by
_______________________________________________________

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KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN, AHMEDABAD REGION

COMPETENCY FOCUSED QUESTIONS

Q.1 Arrange the following in correct chronological order 1

HISTORY CHAPTER 2– NATIONALISM IN INDIA

a. Power and Authority

a. Round Table Conference

HISTORY CHAPTER 3– MAKING OF GLOBAL WORLD

(i) Why did people flee to America from Europe?

(ii) Name the Bretton Woods twins

(iii) Why was the Breton Woods system established?

10 Identify the picture from the options given below. 1

(a) Workers in a munition factory

HISTORY CHAPTER 4 – THE AGE OF INDUSTRIALISATION

Who is this entrepreneur?

What is this ‘Dawn of the century’ produced by E.T. Paull?

HISTORY-LESSON-5 (PRINT CULTURE AND MODERN WORLD)

(A) Radio (B) Television

GEOGRAPHY CHAPTER-1- RESOURCE AND DEVELOPMENT

Transformation of things available in our environment involves an interactive relationship

GEOGRAPHY CHAPTER-2- FOREST AND WILDLIFE RESOURCES

GEOGRAPHY CHAPTER-3- WATER RESOURCES

Q 4. Read the following source and answer the questions-

GEOGRAPHY CHAPTER-4- AGRICULTURE

13. Complete the following table:

14. Fill in the blanks with correct option:

GEOGRAPHY CHAPTER-5- MINERALS AND ENERGY RESOURCES

Based on the data given above, answer the following questions:

GEOGRAPHY CHAPTER-6- MANUFATURING INDUSTRIES

a) Name any two factors of production.

a. Srinagar b.Silchar c. Kanniyakumari d. Porbander

13. Atal Tunnel is built in which Himalayan mountain range?

POLITICAL SCIENCE-1- POWER SHARING

a. Statements I and II both are correct.

(a) A is true but B is False

6.Why is power sharing desirable? Give two reasons.

11.Can we ensure better power sharing by just giving better representation in

3.When was States reorganization Commission formed?

Which one of the following leaders is shown in this cartoon?

6.Describe any two features of Indian federalism.

(A) The creation of linguistic states

2. A candidate in an examination conducted for the Central Government positions has to

POLITICAL SCIENCE-3- GENDER, CASTE AND RELIGION

(A) Asia (B) Arab States (C) India (D) Europe

10 Which of the options best signifies the cartoon? 1

(e) Lack of internal democracy

12 Which one of the following is true regarding a coalition government ? 1

POLITICAL SCIENCE – 5- OUTCOMES OF DEMOCRACY

2 Which one of the following is an example of outcomes of a democracy that 1

(a) Demand for a separate state from Democratic government

13 Complete the following sentence: 1

(a) Casting their vote in the elections

(a) Universal adult franchise

ECONOMICS LESSON-1- DEVELOPMENT

Multiple Choice Questions:

Rita is an employee of a multinational company who gets transferred to different countries

Q9. Identify the reason why Rita has chosen country A.

ECONOMICS LESSON -2- SECTORS OF INDIAN ECONOMY

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Q5. Observe the graph given below:

Which of the following statements BEST explains the graph?