1 INTRODUCTION

1.1 Which of the following industries are classified as secondary industries (three correct answers): (a)
beverages (b) financial services, (c) fishing, (d) mining, (e) power utilities, (f) publishing, and (g)
transportation?
Answer. (a), (e), and (f).
1.2 Mining is classified in which one of the following industry categories: (a) agricultural industry, (b)
manufacturing industry, (c) primary industry, (d) secondary industry, (e) service industry, or (f)
tertiary industry? Answer. (c).
1.3 Inventions of the Industrial Revolution include which one of the following: (a) automobile, (b)
cannon, (c) printing press, (d) steam engine, or (e) sword? Answer. (d).
1.4 Ferrous metals include which of the following (two correct answers): (a) aluminum, (b) cast
iron, (c) copper, (d) gold, and (e) steel? Answer. (c) and (e).
1.5 Which one of the following engineering materials is defined as a compound containing
metallic and nonmetallic elements: (a) ceramic, (b) composite, (c) metal, or (d) polymer?
Answer. (a).
1.6 Which of the following processes start with a material that is in a fluid or semifluid state and
solidifies the material in a cavity (two best answers): (a) casting, (b) forging, (c) machining, (d)
molding, (e) pressing, and (f) turning?
Answer. (a) and (d).
1.7 Particulate processing of metals and ceramics involves which of the following steps (two best
answers): (a) adhesive bonding, (b) deformation, (c) forging, (d) material removal, (e) melting, (f)
pressing, and (g) sintering? Answer. (f) and (g).
1.8 Deformation processes include which of the following (two correct answers): (a) casting, (b)
drilling, (c) extrusion, (d) forging, (e) milling, (f) painting, and (g) sintering? Answer. (c) and
(d).
1.9 Which one of the following is a machine used to perform extrusion: (a) forge hammer, (b) milling
machine, (c) rolling mill, (d) press, (e) torch? Answer. (d).
1.10 High-volume production of assembled products is most closely associated with which one of the
following layout types: (a) cellular layout, (b) fixed position layout, (c) process layout, or (d)
product layout? Answer. (d).
1.11 A production planning and control department accomplishes which of the following functions in its
role of providing manufacturing support (two best answers): (a) designs and orders machine tools,
(b) develops corporate strategic plans, (c) orders materials and purchased parts, (d) performs
quality inspections, and (e) schedules the order of products on a machine? Answer. (c) and (e).
2 THE NATURE OF MATERIALS
2.1 The basic structural unit of matter is which one of the following: (a) atom, (b) electron, (c) element,
(d) molecule, or (e) nucleus? Answer. (a).
2.2 Approximately how many different elements have been identified (one best answer): (a) 10, (b)
50, (c) 100, (d) 200, or (e) 500? Answer. (c).
2.3 In the Periodic Table, the elements can be divided into which of the following categories (three
best answers): (a) ceramics, (b) gases, (c) liquids, (d) metals, (e) nonmetals, (f) polymers, (g) semi-
metals, and (h) solids?
Answer. (d), (e), and (g).
2.4 The element with the lowest density and smallest atomic weight is which one of the following: (a)
aluminum, (b) argon, (c) helium, (d) hydrogen, or (e) magnesium? Answer. (d).
2.5 Which of the following bond types are classified as primary bonds (three correct answers): (a)
covalent bonding, (b) hydrogen bonding, (c) ionic bonding, (d) metallic bonding, and (e) van der
Waals forces?
Answer. (a), (c), and (d).
2.6 How many atoms are there in the face-centered cubic (FCC) unit cell (one correct answer): (a) 8, (b)
9, (c) 10, (d) 12, or (e) 14? Answer. (e).
2.7 Which of the following are not point defects in a crystal lattice structure (three correct answers): (a)
edge dislocation, (b) grain boundaries, (c) interstitialcy, (d) Schottky defect, (e) screw dislocation,
or (f) vacancy?
Answer. (c), (d), and (f).
2.8 Which one of the following crystal structures has the fewest slip directions and therefore the metals
with this structure are generally more difficult to deform at room temperature: (a) BCC, (b) FCC,
or (c) HCP?
Answer. (c).
2.9 Grain boundaries are an example of which one of the following types of crystal structure defects: (a)
dislocation, (b) Frenkel defect, (c) line defects, (d) point defects, or (e) surface defects? Answer.
(e).
2.10 Twinning is which of the following (three best answers): (a) elastic deformation, (b) mechanism
of plastic deformation, (c) more likely at high deformation rates, (d) more likely in metals with
HCP structure, (e) slip mechanism, and (f) type of dislocation? Answer. (b), (c), and (d).
2.11 Polymers are characterized by which of the following bonding types (two correct answers):
(a) adhesive, (b) covalent, (c) hydrogen, (d) ionic, (e) metallic, and (f) van der Waals?
Answer. (b) and (f).
3 MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF MATERIALS
3.1 Which of the following are the three basic types of static stresses to which a material can be
subjected (three correct answers): (a) compression, (b) hardness, (c) reduction in area, (d) shear, (e)
tensile, (f) true stress, and (f) yield?
Answer. (a), (d), and (e).
3.2 Which one of the following is the correct definition of ultimate tensile strength, as derived from
the results of a tensile test on a metal specimen: (a) the stress encountered when the stress-strain
curve transforms from elastic to plastic behavior, (b) the maximum load divided by the final area
of the specimen, (c) the maximum load divided by the original area of the specimen, or (d) the
stress observed when the specimen finally fails? Answer. (c).
3.3 If stress values were measured during a tensile test, which of the following would have the
higher value: (a) engineering stress or (b) true stress? Answer. (b).
3.4 If strain measurements were made during a tensile test, which of the following would have the higher
value: (a) engineering strain, or (b) true strain? Answer. (a).
3.5 The plastic region of the stress-strain curve for a metal is characterized by a proportional
relationship between stress and strain: (a) true or (b) false?
Answer. (b). It is the elastic region that is characterized by a proportional relationship between
stress and strain. The plastic region is characterized by a power function - the flow curve.
3.6 Which one of the following types of stress strain relationship best describes the behavior of brittle
materials such as ceramics and thermosetting plastics: (a) elastic and perfectly plastic, (b) elastic
and strain hardening, (c) perfectly elastic, or (d) none of the above? Answer. (c).
3.7 Which one of the following types of stress strain relationship best describes the behavior of most
metals at room temperature: (a) elastic and perfectly plastic, (b) elastic and strain hardening, (c)
perfectly elastic, or (d) none of the above? Answer. (b).
3.8 Which one of the following types of stress strain relationship best describes the behavior of metals
at temperatures above their respective recrystallization points: (a) elastic and perfectly plastic, (b)
elastic and strain hardening, (c) perfectly elastic, or (d) none of the above? Answer. (a).
3.9 Which one of the following materials has the highest modulus of elasticity: (a) aluminum,
(b) diamond, (c) steel, (d) titanium, or (e) tungsten? Answer. (b).
3.10 The shear strength of a metal is usually (a) greater than or (b) less than its tensile strength?
Answer. (b).
3.11 Most hardness tests involve pressing a hard object into the surface of a test specimen and measuring
the indentation (or its effect) that results: (a) true or (b) false? Answer. (a).
3.12 Which one of the following materials has the highest hardness: (a) alumina ceramic, (b) gray
cast iron, (c) hardened tool steel, (d) high carbon steel, or (e) polystyrene? Answer. (a).
3.13 Viscosity can be defined as the ease with which a fluid flows: (a) true or (b) false?
Answer. (b). Viscosity is the resistance to flow.

1
4 PHYSICAL PROPERTIES OF MATERIALS
4.1 Which one of the following metals has the lowest density: (a) aluminum, (b) copper, (c) magnesium,
or (d) tin?
Answer. (c).
4.2 The thermal expansion properties of polymers are generally (a) greater than, (b) less than, or (c) the
same as those of metals? Answer. (a).
4.3 In the heating of most metal alloys, melting begins at a certain temperature and concludes at a higher
temperature. In these cases, which of the following temperatures marks the beginning of melting:
(a) liquidus or (b) solidus? Answer. (b).
4.4 Which one of the following materials has the highest specific heat: (a) aluminum, (b) concrete, (c)
polyethylene, or (d) water? Answer. (d).
4.5 Copper is generally considered easy to weld because of its high thermal conductivity: (a) true or (b)
false?
Answer. (b). The high thermal conductivity of copper makes it difficult to weld because the heat
flows away from the joint rather than being concentrated to permit melting of the metal.
4.6 The mass diffusion rate dm/dt across a boundary between two different metals is a function of
which of the following variables (four best answers): (a) concentration gradient dc/dx, (b) contact
area, (c) density, (d) melting point, (e) thermal expansion, (f) temperature, and (g) time?
Answer. (a), (b), (f), and (g). This is perhaps a tricky question. Choices (a) and (b) are included in
Eq. (4.5). Temperature (f) has a strong influence on the diffusion coefficient. Time (g) figures into
the process because it affects the concentration gradient; as time elapses, the concentration gradient
is reduced so that the rate of diffusion is reduced.
4.7 Which of the following pure metals is the best conductor of electricity: (a) aluminum, (b) copper, (c)
gold, or (d) silver? Answer. (d).
4.8 A superconductor is characterized by which of the following (one best answer): (a) high conductivity,
(b) resistivity properties between those of conductors and semiconductors, (c) very low resistivity,
or (d) zero resistivity? Answer. (d).
4.9 In an electrolytic cell, the anode is the electrode that is (a) positive or (b) negative. Answer.
(a).
5 DIMENSIONS, SURFACES, AND THEIR
MEASUREMENT
5.1 A tolerance is which one of the following: (a) clearance between a shaft and a mating hole, (b)
measurement error, (c) total permissible variation from a specified dimension, or (d) variation
in manufacturing? Answer. (c).
5.2 Which of the following two geometric terms have the same meaning: (a) circularity, (b)
concentricity, (c) cylindricity, and (d) roundness? Answer. (a) and (d).
5.3 A surface plate is most typically made of which one of the following materials: (a) aluminum oxide
ceramic, (b) cast iron, (c) granite, (d) hard polymers, or (e) stainless steel? Answer. (c).
5.4 An outside micrometer would be appropriate for measuring which of the following (two correct
answers): (a) hole depth, (b) hole diameter, (c) part length, (d) shaft diameter, and (e) surface
roughness?
Answer. (c) and (d).
5.5 In a GO/NO-GO gage, which one of the following best describes the function of the GO gage: (a)
checks limit of maximum tolerance, (b) checks maximum material condition, (c) checks
maximum size, (d) checks minimum material condition, or (e) checks minimum size? Answer.
(b).
5.6 Which of the following are likely to be GO/NO-GO gages (three correct answers): (a) gage blocks, (b)
limit gage, (c) master gage, (d) plug gage, and (e) snap gage? Answer. (b), (d), and (e).
5.7 Surface texture includes which of the following characteristics of a surface (three correct
answers): (a) deviations from the nominal surface, (b) feed marks of the tool that produced the
surface, (c) hardness variations, (d) oil films, and (e) surface cracks? Answer. (a), (b), and (e).
5.8 Surface texture is included within the scope of surface integrity: (a) true or (b) false?
Answer. (a).
5.9 Thermal energy is normally associated with which of the following changes in the altered layer
(three best answers): (a) cracks, (b) hardness variations, (c) heat affected zone, (d) plastic
deformation, (e) recrystallization, or (f) voids? Answer. (b), (c), and (e).
5.10 Which one of the following manufacturing processes will likely result in the best surface finish:
(a) arc welding, (b) grinding, (c) machining, (d) sand casting, or (e) sawing? Answer. (b).
5.11 Which one of the following manufacturing processes will likely result in the worst surface finish: (a)
cold rolling, (b) grinding, (c) machining, (d) sand casting, or (e) sawing?
Answer. (d). Also, sawing (e) will yield a poor finish. Either answer is acceptable.
6 METALS
6.1 Which of the following properties or characteristics are inconsistent with the metals (two correct
answers): (a) good thermal conductivity, (b) high strength, (c) high electrical resistivity, (d) high
stiffness, and (e) ionic bonding?
Answer. (c) and (e).
6.2 Which one of the metallic elements is the most abundant on the earth: (a) aluminum, (b) copper, (c)
iron, (d) magnesium, or (e) silicon?
Answer. (a).
6.3 The predominant phase in the iron-carbon alloy system for a composition with 99% Fe at room
temperature is which one of the following: (a) austenite, (b) cementite, (c) delta, (d) ferrite, or (e)
gamma?
Answer. (d).
6.4 A steel with 1.0% carbon is known as which one of the following: (a) eutectoid, (b) hypoeutectoid, (c)
hypereutectoid, or (d) wrought iron?
Answer. (c).
6.5 The strength and hardness of steel increases as carbon content (a) increases or (b) decreases?
Answer. (a).
6.6 Plain carbon steels are designated in the AISI code system by which of the following: (a) 01XX, (b)
10XX, (c) 11XX, (d) 12XX, or (e) 30XX?
Answer. (b).
6.7 Which one of the following elements is the most important alloying ingredient in steel: (a) carbon, (b)
chromium, (c) nickel, (d) molybdenum, or (e) vanadium?
Answer. (a).
6.8 Which one of the following is not a common alloying ingredient in steel: (a) chromium, (b)
manganese, (c) nickel, (d) vanadium, (e) zinc?
Answer. (e).
6.9 Solid solution alloying is the principal strengthening mechanism in high-strength low-alloy
(HSLA) steels: (a) true or (b) false?
Answer. (a).
6.10 Which of the following alloying elements are most commonly associated with stainless steel (two
best answers): (a) chromium, (b) manganese, (c) molybdenum, (d) nickel, and (e) tungsten?
Answer. (a) and (d).
6.11 Which of the following is the most important cast iron commercially: (a) ductile cast iron, (b) gray
cast iron, (c) malleable iron, or (d) white cast iron?
Answer. (b).
6.12 Which one of the following metals has the lowest density: (a) aluminum, (b) magnesium, (c) tin, or
(d) titanium.?
 Answer. (b).
6.13 Which of the following metals has the highest density: (a) gold, (b) lead, (c) platinum, (d) silver, or
(e) tungsten?
Answer. (c).
6.14 From which of the following ores is aluminum derived: (a) alumina, (b) bauxite, (c) cementite, (d)
hematite, or (e) scheelite?
Answer. (b).
6.15 Which of the following metals is noted for its good electrical conductivity (one best answer): (a)
copper, (b) gold, (c) iron, (d) nickel, or (e) tungsten?
Answer. (a).
6.16 Traditional brass is an alloy of which of the following metallic elements (two correct answers): (a)
aluminum, (b) copper, (c) gold, (d) tin, and (e) zinc?
Answer. (b) and (e).
6.17 Which one of the following metals has the lowest melting point: (a) aluminum, (b) lead,
(c) magnesium, (d) tin, or (e) zinc? Answer. (d).
7 CERAMICS
7.1 Which one of the following is the most common element in the earth's crust: (a) aluminum,
(b) calcium, (c) iron, (d) oxygen, or (e) silicon? Answer. (d).
7.2 Glass products are based primarily on which one of the following minerals: (a) alumina,
(b) corundum, (c) feldspar, (d) kaolinite, or (e) silica? Answer. (e).
7.3 Which of the following contains significant amounts of aluminum oxide (three correct answers): (a)
alumina, (b) bauxite, (c) corundum, (d) feldspar, (e) kaolinite, (f) quartz, (g) sandstone, and (h) silica?
Answer. (a), (b), and (c).
7.4 Which of the following ceramics are commonly used as abrasives in grinding wheels (two best
answers): (a) aluminum oxide, (b) calcium oxide, (c) carbon monoxide, (d) silicon carbide, and (e)
silicon dioxide?
Answer. (a) and (d).
7.5 Which one of the following is generally the most porous of the clay-based pottery ware: (a) china,
(b) earthenware, (c) porcelain, or (d) stoneware? Answer. (b).
7.6 Which one of the following is fired at the highest temperatures: (a) china, (b) earthenware,
(c) porcelain, or (d) stoneware? Answer. (c).
7.7 Which one of the following comes closest to expressing the chemical composition of clay: (a)
Al2O3, (b) Al2(Si2O5)(OH)4, (c) 3AL2O3-2SiO2, (d) MgO, or (e) SiO2? Answer. (b).
7.8 Glass ceramics are polycrystalline ceramic structures that have been transformed into the glassy
state: (a) true or (b) false?
Answer. (b). Glass ceramics are glasses that have been transformed into a mostly crystalline form
through heat treatment.
7.9 Which one of the following materials is closest to diamond in hardness: (a) aluminum oxide,
(b) carbon dioxide, (c) cubic boron nitride, (d) silicon dioxide, or (e) tungsten carbide?
Answer. (c).
7.10 Which of the following best characterizes the structure of glass-ceramics: (a) 95% polycrystalline, (b)
95% vitreous, or (b) 50% polycrystalline? Answer. (a).
7.11 Properties and characteristics of the glass-ceramics include which of the following (two best
answers): (a) efficiency in processing, (b) electrical conductor, (c) high thermal expansion, and
(d) strong, relative to other glasses? Answer. (a) and (d).
7.12 Diamond is the hardest material known: (a) true or (b) false?
Answer. (a).
7.13 Synthetic diamonds date to (a) ancient times, (b) 1800s, (c) 1950s, or (d) 1980.
Answer. (c).
8 POLYMERS
8.1 Of the three polymer types, which one is the most important commercially: (a) thermoplastics,
(b) thermosets, or (c) elastomers? Answer. (a).
8.2 Which one of the three polymer types is not normally considered to be a plastic: (a)
thermoplastics, (b) thermosets, or (c) elastomers? Answer. (c).
8.3 Which one of the three polymer types does not involve cross-linking: (a) thermoplastics,
(b) thermosets, or (c) elastomers? Answer. (a).
8.4 As the degree of crystallinity in a given polymer increases, the polymer becomes denser and stiffer,
and its melting temperature decreases: (a) true or (b) false?
Answer. (b). Melting temperature increases with higher degree of crystallinity.
8.5 Which one of the following is the chemical formula for the repeating unit in polyethylene: (a)
CH2, (b) C2H4, (c) C3H6, (d) C5H8, or (e) C8H8? Answer. (b).
8.6 Degree of polymerization is which one of the following: (a) average number of mers in the
molecule chain; (b) proportion of the monomer that has been polymerized; (c) sum of the
molecule weights of the mers in the molecule; or (d) none of the above? Answer. (a).
8.7 A branched molecular structure is stronger in the solid state and more viscous in the molten state than
a linear structure for the same polymer: (a) true or (b) false? Answer. (a).
8.8 A copolymer is a mixture of the macromolecules of two different homopolymers: (a) true or (b)
false?
Answer. (b).
8.9 As the temperature of a polymer increases, its density (a) increases, (b) decreases, or (c) remains
fairly constant?
Answer. (b).
8.10 Which of the following plastics has the highest market share: (a) phenolics, (b) polyethylene,
(c) polypropylene, (d) polystyrene, or (e) polyvinylchloride? Answer. (b).
8.11 Which of the following polymers are normally thermoplastic (four best answers): (a) acrylics, (b)
cellulose acetate, (c) nylon, (d) phenolics, (e) polychloroprene, (f) polyesters, (g) polyethylene,
(h) polyisoprene, and (i) polyurethane? Answer. (a), (b), (c), and (g).
8.12 Polystyrene (without plasticizers) is amorphous, transparent, and brittle: (a) true or (b) false?
Answer. (a).
8.13 The fiber rayon used in textiles is based on which one of the following polymers: (a) cellulose,
(b) nylon, (c) polyester, (d) polyethylene, or (e) polypropylene? Answer. (a).
8.14 The basic difference between low-density polyethylene and high-density polyethylene is that
the latter has a much higher degree of crystallinity: (a) true or (b) false? Answer. (a).
8.15 Among the thermosetting polymers, the most widely used commercially is which one of
the following: (a) epoxies, (b) phenolics, (c) silicones, or (d) urethanes? Answer. (b).
8.16 The chemical formula for polyisoprene in natural rubber is which of the following: (a) CH2, (b)
C2H4, (c) C3H6, (d) C5H8, or (e) C8H8? Answer. (d).
8.17 The leading commercial synthetic rubber is which one of the following: (a) butyl rubber, (b) isoprene
rubber, (c) polybutadiene, (d) polyurethane, (e) styrene-butadiene rubber, or (f) thermoplastic
elastomers?
Answer. (e).
9 COMPOSITE MATERIALS
9.1 Anisotropic means which one of the following: (a) composite materials with composition
consisting of more than two materials, (b) properties are the same in every direction, (c) properties
vary depending on the direction in which they are measured, or (d) strength and other properties
are a function of curing temperature?
Answer. (c).
9.2 The reinforcing phase is the matrix within which the secondary phase is imbedded: (a) true or (b)
false?
Answer. (b).
9.3 Which one of the following reinforcing geometries offers the greatest potential for strength and
stiffness improvement in the resulting composite material: (a) fibers, (b) flakes, (c) particles, or
(d) infiltrated phase? Answer. (a).
9.4 Wood is which one of the following composite types: (a) CMC, (b) MMC, or (c) PMC? Answer.
(c).
9.5 Which of the following materials are used as fibers in fiber-reinforced plastics (four best answers): (a)
aluminum oxide, (b) boron, (c) cast iron, (d) E-glass, (e) epoxy, (f) Kevlar 49, (g) polyester, and (h)
silicon?
Answer. (a), (b), (d), and (f).
9.6 Which of the following metals are used as the matrix material in fiber-reinforced MMCs (two
best answers): (a) aluminum, (b) copper, (c) iron, (d) magnesium, and (e) zinc? Answer. (a) and
(d).
9.7 Which of the following metals are used as the matrix metals in nearly all WC cemented carbides
and TiC cermets (two correct answers): (a) aluminum, (b) chromium, (c) cobalt, (d) lead, (e)
nickel, (f) tungsten, and (g) tungsten carbide? Answer. (c) and (e).
9.8 Ceramic matrix composites are designed to overcome which of the following weaknesses of
ceramics (two best answers): (a) compressive strength, (b) hardness, (c) hot hardness, (d) modulus
of elasticity, (e) tensile strength, and (f) toughness? Answer. (e) and (f).
9.9 Which one of the following polymer types are most commonly used in polymer matrix composites:
(a) elastomers, (b) thermoplastics, or (c) thermosets? Answer. (c).
9.10 Which of the following materials are not composites (two correct answers): (a) cemented carbide,
(b) phenolic molding compound, (c) plywood, (d) Portland cement, (e) rubber in automobile tires,
(f) wood, and (g) 1020 steel? Answer. (d) and (g).
In the Boeing 787 Dreamliner, what percentage of the aircraft consist of composite materials (two
correct answers): (a) 12% be volume, (b) 20% by volume, (c) 50% by volume, (d) 80% by volume, (e)
12% by weight, (f) 20% by weight, (g) 50% by weight, and (h) 80% by weight? Answer. (d) and (g).
10 FUNDAMENTALS OF METAL CASTING
10.1 Sand casting is which of the following types: (a) expendable mold or (b) permanent mold? Answer.
(a).
10.2 The upper half of a sand-casting mold is called which of the following: (a) cope or (b) drag?
Answer. (a).
10.3 In casting, a flask is which one of the following: (a) beverage bottle for foundrymen, (b) box
which holds the cope and drag, (c) container for holding liquid metal, or (d) metal which extrudes
between the mold halves? Answer. (b).
10.4 In foundry work, a runner is which one of the following: (a) channel in the mold leading from the
downsprue to the main mold cavity, (b) foundryman who moves the molten metal to the mold, or
(c) vertical channel into which molten metal is poured into the mold?
Answer. (a).
10.5 Turbulence during pouring of the molten metal is undesirable for which of the following
reasons (two best answers): (a) it causes discoloration of the mold surfaces, (b) it dissolves the
binder used to hold together the sand mold, (c) it increases erosion of the mold surfaces, (d) it
increases the formation of metallic oxides that can become entrapped during solidification, (e) it
increases the mold filling time, and (f) it increases total solidification time? Answer: (c) and
(d).
10.6 Total solidification time is defined as which one of the following: (a) time between pouring and
complete solidification, (b) time between pouring and cooling to room temperature, (c) time
between solidification and cooling to room temperature, or (d) time to give up the heat of fusion?
Answer. (a).
10.7 During solidification of an alloy when a mixture of solid and liquid metals is present, the solid-liquid
mixture is referred to as which one of the following: (a) eutectic composition, (b) ingot
segregation, (c) liquidus, (d) mushy zone, or (e) solidus? Answer. (d).
10.8 Chvorinov's rule states that total solidification time is proportional to which one of the
following quantities: (a) (A/V)n, (b) Hf, (c) Tm, (d) V, (e) V/A, or (f) (V/A)2; where A = surface
area of casting, Hf = heat of fusion, Tm = melting temperature, and V = volume of casting?
Answer. (f).
10.9 A riser in casting is described by which of the following (three correct answers): (a) an insert in
the casting that inhibits buoyancy of the core, (b) gating system in which the sprue feeds directly
into the cavity, (c) metal that is not part of the casting, (d) source of molten metal to feed the
casting and compensate for shrinkage during solidification, and (e) waste metal that is usually
recycled? Answer. (c), (d), and (e).
10.10 In a sand-casting mold, the V/A ratio of the riser should be (a) equal to, (b) greater than, or (c)
smaller than the V/A ratio of the casting itself? Answer. (b).
10.11 Which of the following riser types are completely enclosed within the sand mold and connected to
the main cavity by a channel to feed the molten metal (two correct answers): (a) blind riser, (b)
open riser, (c) side riser, and (d) top riser? Answer. (a) and (c).
11 METAL CASTING PROCESSES
11.1 Which one of the following casting processes is the most widely used: (a) centrifugal casting, (b)
die casting, (c) investment casting, (d) sand casting, or (e) shell casting? Answer. (d).
11.2 In sand casting, the volumetric size of the pattern is (a) bigger than, (b) same size as, or (c) smaller
than the cast part? Answer. (a).
11.3 Silica sand has which one of the following compositions: (a) Al2O3, (b) SiO, (c) SiO2, or (d) SiSO4?
Answer. (c).
11.4 For which one of the following reasons is a green mold named: (a) green is the color of the mold,
(b) moisture is contained in the mold, (c) mold is cured, or (d) mold is dry? Answer. (b).
11.5 Given that Wm = weight of the molten metal displaced by a core and Wc = weight of the core, the
buoyancy force is which one of the following: (a) downward force = Wm + Wc, (b) downward
force = Wm - Wc, (c) upward force = Wm + Wc, or (d) upward force = Wm - Wc? Answer. (d).
11.6 Which of the following casting processes are expendable mold operations (four correct answers):
(a) centrifugal casting, (b) die casting, (c) investment casting, (d) low pressure casting, (e) sand
casting, (f) shell molding, (g) slush casting, and (h) vacuum molding? Answer. (c), (e), (f), and
(h).
11.7 Shell molding is best described by which one of the following: (a) casting operation in which
the molten metal has been poured out after a thin shell has been solidified in the mold, (b)
casting process in which the mold is a thin shell of sand bonded by a thermosetting resin, (c)
sand-casting operation in which the pattern is a shell rather than a solid form, or (d) casting
operation used to make artificial sea shells? Answer. (b).
11.8 Investment casting is also known by which one of the following names: (a) fast-payback molding,
(b) full-mold process, (c) lost-foam process, (d) lost-pattern process, or (e) lost-wax process?
Answer. (e).
11.9 In plaster mold casting, the mold is made of which one of the following materials: (a) Al2O3,
(b) CaSO4-H2O, (c) SiC, or (d) SiO2? Answer. (b).
11.10 Which of the following qualifies as a precision-casting process (two correct answers): (a) ingot
casting, (b) investment casting, (c) plaster-mold casting, (d) sand casting, and (e) shell molding?
Answer. (b) and (c).
11.11 Which of the following casting processes are permanent mold operations (three correct answers):
(a) centrifugal casting, (b) die casting, (c) expanded polystyrene process, (d) sand casting, (e) shell
molding, (f) slush casting, and (g) vacuum molding.
Answer. (a), (b), and (f).
11.12 Which of the following metals would typically be used in die casting (three best answers): (a)
aluminum, (b) cast iron, (c) steel, (d) tin, (e) tungsten, and (f) zinc? Answer. (a), (d), and (f).
11.13 Which of the following are advantages of die casting over sand casting (four best answers): (a)
better surface finish, (b) closer tolerances, (c) higher melting temperature metals, (d) higher
production rates, (e) larger parts can be cast, and (f) mold can be reused? Answer. (a), (b), (d),
and (f).
11.14 Cupolas are furnaces used to melt which of the following metals (one best answer): (a) aluminum,
(b) cast iron, (c) steel, or (d) zinc? Answer. (b).
11.15 A misrun is which one of the following defects in casting: (a) globules of metal becoming
entrapped in the casting, (b) metal is not properly poured into the downsprue, (c) metal solidifies
before filling the cavity, (d) microporosity, and (e) "pipe" formation? Answer. (c).
11.16 Which one of the following casting metals is most important commercially: (a) aluminum and
its alloys, (b) bronze, (c) cast iron, (d) cast steel, or (e) zinc alloys? Answer. (c).
12 GLASSWORKING
12.1 Which one of the following terms refers to the glassy state of a material: (a) crystalline, (b)
devitrified, (c) polycrystalline, (d) vitiated, or (e) vitreous? Answer. (e).
12.2 Besides helping to preserve the environment, the use of recycled glass as an ingredient of the starting
material in glassmaking serves what other useful purpose (one answer): (a) adds coloring variations
to the glass for aesthetic value, (b) makes the glass easier to melt, (c) makes the glass stronger, or
(d) reduces odors in the plant? Answer. (b).
12.3 The charge in glassworking is which one of the following: (a) the duration of the melting cycle,
(b) the electric energy required to melt the glass, (c) the name given to the melting furnace, or
(d) the starting materials in melting? Answer. (d).

12.4 Typical glass melting temperatures are in which of the following ranges: (a) 400°C to 500°C, (b)
900°C to 1000°C, (c) 1500°C to 1600°C, or (d) 2000°C to 2200°C? Answer. (c).
12.5 Casting is a glassworking process used for (a) high production, (b) low production, or (c) medium
production?
Answer. (b). Casting is used in glassworking for large components like giant telescope lenses in
small lot sizes. It is a slow process for these large products.
12.6 Which one of the following processes or processing steps is not applicable in glassworking: (a)
annealing, (b) pressing, (c) quenching, (d) sintering, and (e) spinning?
Answer. (d). Sintering is used to cause bonding of particulate materials such as metal and
ceramic powders.
12.7 The press-and-blow process is best suited to the production of (narrow-necked) beverage bottles,
while the blow-and-blow process is more appropriate for producing (wide-mouthed) jars: (a) true,
or (b) false?
Answer. (b). It's the reverse.
12.8 Which one of the following processes is used to produce glass tubing: (a) Danner process,
(b) pressing, (c) rolling, or (d) spinning? Answer. (a).
12.9 If a glass part with a wall thickness of 5 mm (0.20 in) takes 10 minutes to anneal, how much time
would a glass part of similar geometry but with a wall thickness of 7.5 mm (0.30 in) take to anneal
(choose the one closest answer): (a) 10 minutes, (b) 15 minutes, (c) 20 minutes, or (c) 30 minutes?
Answer. (c). The rule is that annealing time varies as the square of the wall thickness. That would
indicate an annealing time of (0.30/0.20)2 = 2.25 times 10 minutes or 22.5 minutes. 20 minutes is
closest.
12.10 A lehr is which of the following: (a) a lion's den, (b) a melting furnace, (c) a sintering furnace, (d)
an annealing furnace, or (e) none of the above? Answer. (d).
13 SHAPING PROCESSES FOR PLASTICS
13.1 The forward movement of polymer melt in an extruder barrel is resisted by drag flow, which is
caused by the resistance to flow through the die orifice: (a) true or (b) false?
Answer. (b). Drag flow is the forward motion of the melt caused by the Archimedian screw
principle in the barrel. The resistance to forward flow is called back pressure flow.
13.2 Which of the following are sections of a conventional extruder barrel for thermoplastics (three
best answers): (a) compression section, (b) die section, (c) feed section, (d) heating section, (e)
metering section, and (f) shaping section? Answer. (a), (c), and (e).
13.3 Which of the following processes are associated with the production of plastic sheet and film
(three correct answers): (a) blown-film extrusion process, (b) calendering, (c) chill-roll
extrusion, (d) doctor blade method, (e) spinning, (f) thermoforming, and (g) transfer molding?
Answer. (a), (b), and (c).
13.4 The principal components of an injection molding machine are which two of the following:
(a) clamping unit, (b) hopper, (c) injection unit, (d) mold, and (e) part ejection unit?
Answer. (a) and (c).
13.5 The parting line in injection molding is which one of the following: (a) the lines formed where
polymer melt meets after flowing around a core in the mold, (b) the narrow gate sections where
the parts are separated from the runner, (c) where the clamping unit is joined to the injection unit
in the molding machine, or (d) where the two mold halves come together? Answer. (d).
13.6 The function of the ejection system is which one of the following: (a) move polymer melt into the
mold cavity, (b) open the mold halves after the cavity is filled, (c) remove the molded parts from
the runner system after molding, or (d) separate the part from the cavity after molding? Answer.
(d).
13.7 A three-plate mold offers which of the following advantages when compared to a two-plate mold
(two best answers): (a) automatic separation of parts from runners, (b) gating is usually at the base
of the part to reduce weld lines, (c) sprue does not solidify, and (d) stronger molded parts?
Answer. (a) and (b).
13.8 Which of the following defects or problems is associated with injection molding (three correct
answers): (a) bambooing, (b) die swell, (c) drag flow, (d) flash, (e) melt fracture, (f) short shots,
or (g) sink marks?
Answer. (d), (f), and (g).
13.9 In rotational molding, centrifugal force is used to force the polymer melt against the surfaces of
the mold cavity where solidification occurs: (a) true or (b) false?
Answer. (b). It is the force of gravity in the doubly rotating mold that forces the polymer against
the mold surfaces.
13.10 Use of a parison is associated with which one of the following plastic shaping processes: (a) bi-
injection molding, (b) blow molding, (c) compression molding, (d) pressure thermoforming, or (e)
sandwich molding?
Answer. (b).
13.11 A thermoforming mold with a convex form is called which one of the following: (a) a die, (b)
a negative mold, (c) a positive mold, or (d) a three-plate mold? Answer. (c).
13.12 The term encapsulation refers to which one of the following plastics shaping processes: (a)
casting, (b) compression molding, (c) extrusion of hollow forms, (d) injection molding in which
a metal insert is encased in the molded part, or (e) vacuum thermoforming using a positive
mold? Answer. (a).
13.13 The two most common polymer foams are which of the following: (a) polyacetal, (b)
polyethylene, (c) polystyrene, (d) polyurethane, and (e) polyvinylchloride? Answer. (c) and (d).
13.14 In which of the following properties do plastic parts often compare favorably with metals (two
best answers): (a) impact resistance, (b) resistance to ultraviolet radiation, (c) stiffness, (d)
strength, (e) strength-to-weight ratio, and (f) temperature resistance? Answer. (a) and (e).
13.15 Which of the following processes are generally limited to thermoplastic polymers (two
best answers): (a) blow molding, (b) compression molding, (c) reaction injection
molding, (d) thermoforming, (e) transfer molding, and (f) wire coating? Answer. (a) and
(d).
13.16 Which of the following processes would be applicable to produce hulls for small boats (three best
answers): (a) blow molding, (b) compression molding, (c) injection molding, (d) rotational
molding, and (e) vacuum thermoforming?
Answer. (a), (d), and (e).
04-30-09, 05-01-09

14 RUBBER PROCESSING TECHNOLOGY

14.1 The most important rubber product is which one of the following: (a) footwear, (b) conveyor
belts, (c) pneumatic tires, or (d) tennis balls? Answer. (c).
14.2 The chemical name of the ingredient recovered from the latex of the rubber tree is which one of the
following: (a) polybutadiene, (b) polyisobutylene, (c) polyisoprene, or (d) polystyrene? Answer.
(c).
14.3 Of the following rubber additives, which one would rank as the single most important: (a)
antioxidants, (b) carbon black, (c) clays and other hydrous aluminum silicates, (d) plasticizers
and softening oils, or (e) reclaimed rubber? Answer. (b).
14.4 Which one of the following molding processes is the most important in the production of products
made of conventional rubber: (a) compression molding, (b) injection molding, (c) thermoforming,
or (d) transfer molding? Answer. (a).
14.5 Which of the following ingredients do not contribute to the vulcanizing process (two correct
answers): (a) calcium carbonate, (b) carbon black, (c) stearic acid, (d) sulfur, and (e) zinc oxide?
Answer. (a) and (b).
14.6 How many minutes are required to cure (vulcanize) a modern passenger car tire: (a) 5, (b) 15, (c) 25,
or (d) 45?
Answer. (b).
14.7 When is the tread pattern imprinted onto the circumference of the tire: (a) during preforming,
(b) while building the carcass, (c) during molding, or (d) during curing? Answer. (c).
14.8 Which of the following are not normally used in the processing of thermoplastic elastomers (two
correct answers): (a) blow molding, (b) compression molding, (c) extrusion, (d) injection molding,
or (e) vulcanization?
Answer. (b) and (e).

2
15 SHAPING PROCESSES FOR POLYMER MATRIX
COMPOSITES
15.1 Which one of the following is the most common polymer type in fiber-reinforced
polymer composites: (a) elastomers, (b) thermoplastics, or (c) thermosets? Answer. (c).
15.2 Most rubber products are properly classified into which of the following categories (three best
answers): (a) elastomer reinforced with carbon black, (b) fiber-reinforced composite, (c) particle-
reinforced composite, (d) polymer matrix composite, (e) pure elastomer, and (f) pure polymer?
Answer. (a), (c), and (d).
15.3 Other names for open mold processes include which of the following (two best answers): (a)
compression molding, (b) contact lamination, (c) contact molding, (d) filament winding, (e)
matched die molding, (f) preform molding, and (g) pultrusion? Answer. (b) and (c).
15.4 Hand lay-up is classified in which of the following general categories of PMC shaping
processes (two best answers): (a) closed mold process, (b) compression molding, (c) contact
molding, (d) filament winding, or (e) open mold process? Answer. (c) and (e).
15.5 A positive mold with a smooth surface will produce a good finish on which surface of the laminated
product in the hand lay-up method: (a) inside surface or (b) outside surface? Answer. (a).
15.6 A molding operation that uses sheet-molding compound (SMC) is a form of which one of
the following: (a) compression molding, (b) contact molding, (c) injection molding, (d)
open mold processing, (e) pultrusion, or (f) transfer molding? Answer. (a).
15.7 Filament winding involves the use of which one of the following fiber reinforcements: (a)
continuous filaments, (b) fabrics, (c) mats, (d) prepregs, (e) short fibers, or (f) woven rovings?
Answer. (a).
15.8 In filament winding, when the continuous filament is wound around the cylindrical mandrel at a
helix angle close to 90°, it is called which of the following (one best answer): (a) bi-axial winding,
(b) helical winding, (c) hoop winding, (d) perpendicular winding, (e) polar winding, or (f) radial
winding?
Answer. (c).
15.9 Pultrusion is most similar to which one of the following plastic shaping processes: (a) blow-
molding, (b) extrusion, (c) injection molding, or (d) thermoforming?
Answer. (b).
15.10 Water jet cutting is one of several ways of cutting or trimming uncured or cured FRPs; in the case
of cured FRPs, the process is noted for its reduction of dust and noise: (a) true or (b) false?
Answer. (a).
16 POWDER METALLURGY
16.1 The particle size that can pass through a screen is obtained by taking the reciprocal of the mesh
count of the screen: (a) true or (b) false?
Answer. (b). The given description neglects consideration of the screen wire thickness.
16.2 For a given weight of metallic powders, the total surface area of the powders is increased by
which of the following (two best answers): (a) larger particle size, (b) smaller particle size, (c)
higher shape factor, and (d) smaller shape factor? Answer. (b) and (c).
16.3 As particle size increases, interparticle friction (a) decreases, (b) increases, or (c) remains the same?
Answer. (a).
16.4 Which of the following powder shapes would tend to have the lowest interparticle friction: (a)
acicular, (b) cubic, (c) flakey, (d) spherical, and (e) rounded? Answer. (d).
16.5 Which of the following statements is correct in the context of metallic powders (three correct
answers): (a) porosity + packing factor = 1.0, (b) packing factor = 1/porosity, (c) packing factor =
1.0 - porosity, (d) packing factor = - porosity, (e) packing factor = bulk density/true density?
Answer. (a), (c), and (e).
16.22 Which of the following most closely typifies the sintering temperatures in PM? (a) 0.5 Tm, (b) 0.8 Tm,
(c) Tm, where Tm = melting temperature of the metal? Answer. (b).
16.6 Repressing refers to a pressworking operation used to compress a sintered part in a closed die to
achieve closer sizing and better surface finish: (a) true or (b) false? Answer. (a).
16.7 Impregnation refers to which of the following (two best answers): (a) filling the pores of the PM
part with a molten metal, (b) putting polymers into the pores of a PM part, (c) soaking oil by
capillary action into the pores of a PM part, and (d) something that should not happen in a
factory? Answer. (b) and (c).
16.8 In cold isostatic pressing, the mold is most typically made of which one of the following: (a) rubber,
(b) sheetmetal, (c) textile, (d) thermosetting polymer, or (e) tool steel?
Answer. (a).
16.9 Which of the following processes combines pressing and sintering of the metal powders (three
best answers): (a) hot isostatic pressing, (b) hot pressing, (c) metal injection molding, (d)
pressing and sintering, and (e) spark sintering? Answer. (a), (b), and (e).
16.10 Which of the following design features would be difficult or impossible to achieve by
conventional pressing and sintering (three best answers): (a) outside rounded corners, (b) side
holes, (c) threaded holes, (d) vertical stepped holes, and (e) vertical wall thickness of 1/8 inch (3
mm)? Answer. (a), (b), and (c).
17 PROCESSING OF CERAMICS AND CERMETS
17.1 The following equipment is used for crushing and grinding of minerals in the preparation of
traditional ceramics raw materials. Which of the pieces listed is used for grinding (two correct
answers): (a) ball mill, (b) hammer mill, (c) jaw crusher, (d) roll crusher, and (e) roller mill?
Answer. (a) and (e).
17.2 Which one of the following compounds becomes a plastic and formable material when mixed with
suitable proportions of water: (a) aluminum oxide, (b) hydrogen oxide, (c) hydrous aluminum
silicate, or (d) silicon dioxide? Answer. (c).
17.3 At which one of the following water contents does clay become a suitably plastic material for the
traditional ceramics plastic forming processes: (a) 5%, (b) 10%, (c) 20%, or (d) 40%?
Answer. (c).
17.4 Which of the following processes are not plastic forming methods used in the shaping of
traditional ceramics (three correct answers): (a) dry pressing, (b) extrusion, (c) jangling, (d)
jiggering, (e) jolleying, (f) slip casting, and (g) spinning? Answer. (b), (d), and (e).
17.5 The term green piece in ceramics refers to a part that has been shaped but not yet fired: (a) true or
(b) false?
Answer. (a).
17.6 In the final product made of a polycrystalline new ceramic material, strength increases with grain
size: (a) true or (b) false? Answer. (b).
17.7 Which one of the following processes for the new ceramic materials accomplishes shaping and
sintering simultaneously: (a) doctor-blade process, (b) freeze drying, (c) hot pressing, (d)
injection molding, or (e) isostatic pressing? Answer. (c).
17.8 Which of the following are the purposes of finishing operations used for parts made of the
new ceramics (two best answers): (a) apply a surface coating, (b) electroplate the surface, (c)
improve surface finish, (d) increase dimensional accuracy, and (e) work harden the surface?
Answer. (c) and (d).
17.9 Which of the following terms describes what a cemented carbide is (one best answer): (a) ceramic,
(b) cermet, (c) composite, (d) metal, (e) new ceramic, or (f) traditional ceramic? Answer. (b).
17.10 Which of the following geometric features should be avoided if possible in the design of
structural components made of new ceramics (three best answers): (a) deep holes, (b) rounded
inside corners, (c) rounded outside corners, (d) sharp edges, (e) thick sections, and (f) threads?
Answer. (a), (d), and (f).
18 FUNDAMENTALS OF METAL FORMING
18.1 Which of the following are bulk deformation processes (three correct answers): (a) bending, (b)
deep drawing, (c) extrusion, (d) forging, (e) rolling, and (f) shearing? Answer. (c), (d), and (e).
18.2 Which of the following is typical of the starting work geometry in sheet metal processes: (a) high
volume-to-area ratio or (b) low volume-to-area ratio? Answer. (b).
18.3 The flow curve expresses the behavior of a metal in which of the following regions of the
stress-strain curve: (a) elastic region or (b) plastic region? Answer. (b).
18.4 The average flow stress is the flow stress multiplied by which of the following factors: (a) n, (b)
(1+n), (c) 1/n, or (d) 1/(1+n), where n is the strain-hardening exponent? Answer. (d).
18.5 Hot working of metals refers to which one of the following temperature regions relative to the
melting point of the given metal on an absolute temperature scale: (a) room temperature, (b) 0.2Tm,
(c) 0.4Tm, or (d) 0.6Tm? Answer. (d).
18.6 Which of the following are advantages and characteristics of hot working relative to cold working
(four correct answers): (a) fracture of workpart is less likely, (b) friction is reduced, (c) increased
strength properties, (d) isotropic mechanical properties, (e) less overall energy is required, (f)
lower deformation forces is required, (g) more significant shape changes are possible, and (h)
strain-rate sensitivity is reduced?
Answer. (a), (d), (f), and (g).
18.7 Increasing strain rate tends to have which one of the following effects on flow stress during hot
forming of metal: (a) decreases flow stress, (b) has no effect, or (c) increases flow stress?
Answer. (c).
18.8 The coefficient of friction between the part and the tool in cold working tends to be (a) higher,
(b) lower, or (c) no different relative to its value in hot working? Answer. (b).
19 BULK DEFORMATION PROCESSES IN
METALWORKING
19.1 The starting workpiece in steel hot rolling of plate and sheet stock is which of the following
(one best answer): (a) bar stock, (b) billet, (c) bloom, (d) slab, or (e) wire stock? Answer. (d).
19.2 The maximum possible draft in a rolling operation depends on which of the following
parameters (two correct answers): (a) coefficient of friction between roll and work, (b) roll
diameter, (c) roll velocity, (d) stock thickness, (e) strain, and (f) strength coefficient of the
work metal? Answer. (a) and (b).
19.3 Which of the following stress or strength parameters is used in the computation of rolling force
(one best answer): (a) average flow stress, (b) compression strength, (c) final flow stress, (d)
tensile strength, or (e) yield strength? Answer. (a).
19.4 Which of the following rolling mill types are associated with relatively small diameter rolls
in contact with the work (two correct answers): (a) cluster mill, (b) continuous rolling mill,
(c) four-high mill, (d) reversing mill, and (e) three-high configuration? Answer. (a) and (c).
19.5 Production of pipes and tubes is associated with which of the following bulk deformation
processes (three correct answers): (a) extrusion, (b) hobbing, (c) ring rolling, (d) roll forging, (e)
roll piercing, (f) tube sinking, and (g) upsetting? Answer. (a), (e), and (f).
19.6 Which of the following stress or strength parameters is used in the computation of the maximum
force in a forging operation (one best answer): (a) average flow stress, (b) compression strength,
(c) final flow stress, (d) tensile strength, or (e) yield strength? Answer. (c).
19.7 Which of the following operations are closely related to open-die forging (three best answers): (a)
cogging, (b) flashless forging, (c) fullering, (d) impression-die forging, (e) Mannesmann process,
(f) precision forging, (g) soaking, and (h) upsetting? Answer. (a), (c), and (h).
19.8 Flash in impression die forging serves no useful purpose and is undesirable because it must be
trimmed from the part after forming: (a) true or (b) false?
Answer. (b). Flash causes build-up of pressure inside the die, which forces the work metal to fill
the die cavity.
19.9 Which of the following are classified as forging operations (four correct answers): (a) coining, (b)
fullering, (c) impact extrusion, (d) roll piercing, (e) swaging, (f) thread rolling, (g) trimming, and
(h) upsetting?
Answer. (a), (b), (e), and (h). Trimming, answer (g), although associated with forging, is a cutting
operation.
19.10 Which of the following are alternative names for indirect extrusion (two correct answers): (a)
backward extrusion, (b) direct extrusion, (c) forward extrusion, (d) impact extrusion, and (e)
reverse extrusion?
Answer. (a) and (e).
19.11 The production of tubing is possible in indirect extrusion but not in direct extrusion: (a) true or (b)
false?
Answer. (b). Tube and pipe cross sections can be produced by either direct or indirect extrusion.
19.12 Which of the following stress or strength parameters is used in the computation of the force in
an extrusion operation (one best answer): (a) average flow stress, (b) compression strength, (c)
final flow stress, (d) tensile strength, or (e) yield strength? Answer. (a).
19.13 In which of the following extrusion operations is friction a factor in determining the extrusion force
(one best answer): (a) direct extrusion or (b) indirect extrusion?
Answer. (a).
19.14 Theoretically, the maximum reduction possible in a wire drawing operation, under the
assumptions of a perfectly plastic metal, no friction, and no redundant work, is which of the
following (one answer): (a) zero, (b) 0.63, (c) 1.0, or (d) 2.72? Answer. (b).
19.15 Which of the following bulk deformation processes are involved in the production of nails for
lumber construction (three best answers): (a) bar and wire drawing, (b) extrusion, (c) flashless
forging, (d) impression die forging, (e) rolling, and (f) upsetting?
Answer. (a), (c), and (d). Bar stock is rolled, and then drawn into wire stock. Upset forged is used
to form the nail head.
19.16 Johnson's formula is associated with which one of the four bulk deformation processes: (a) bar
and wire drawing, (b) extrusion, (c) forging, and (d) rolling? Answer. (b).
20 SHEET METALWORKING
20.1 Most sheet metalworking operations are performed as which one of the following: (a) cold
working, (b) hot working, or (c) warm working? Answer. (a).
20.2 In a sheet-metal-cutting operation used to produce a flat part with a hole in the center, the part itself is
called a blank, and the scrap piece that was cut out to make the hole is called a slug: (a) true or (b)
false?
Answer. (a).
20.3 As sheet-metal stock hardness increases in a blanking operation, the clearance between punch and
die should be (a) decreased, (b) increased, or (c) remain the same? Answer. (b).
20.4 A circular sheet-metal slug produced in a hole punching operation will have the same diameter as (a)
the die opening or (b) the punch?
Answer. (a).
20.5 The cutting force in a sheet-metal blanking operation depends on which mechanical property of
the metal (one correct answer): (a) compressive strength, (b) modulus of elasticity, (c) shear
strength, (d) strain rate, (e) tensile strength, or (f) yield strength? Answer. (d).
20.6 Which of the following descriptions applies to a V-bending operation as compared to an edge-
bending operation (two best answers): (a) costly tooling, (b) inexpensive tooling, (c) limited to
90° bends or less, (d) used for high production, (e) used for low production, and (f) uses a
pressure pad to hold down the sheet metal? Answer. (b) and (e).
20.7 Sheet-metal bending involves which of the following stresses and strains (two correct answers):
(a) compressive, (b) shear, and (c) tensile? Answer. (a) and (c).
20.8 Which one of the following is the best definition of bend allowance: (a) amount by which the die is
larger than the punch, (b) amount of elastic recovery experienced by the metal after bending, (c)
safety factor used in calculating bending force, or (d) length before bending of the straight
sheetmetal section to be bent? Answer. (d).
20.9 Springback in a sheet-metal-bending operation is the result of which one of the following: (a)
elastic modulus of the metal, (b) elastic recovery of the metal, (c) overbending, (d) overstraining,
or (e) yield strength of the metal? Answer. (b).
20.10 Which of the following are variations of sheet-metal-bending operations (two best answers): (a)
coining, (b) flanging, (c) hemming, (d) ironing, (e) notching, (f) shear spinning, (g) trimming,
and (h) tube bending?
Answer. (b) and (c).
20.11 The following are measures of feasibility for several proposed cup-drawing operations; which of
the operations are likely to be feasible (three best answers): (a) DR = 1.7, (b) DR = 2.7, (c) r =
0.35, (d) r = 0.65, and (e) t/D = 2%? Answer. (a), (c), and (e).
20.12 The holding force in drawing is most likely to be (a) greater than, (b) equal to, or (c) less than
the maximum drawing force? Answer. (c).
20.13 Which one of the following stamping dies is the most complicated: (a) blanking die, (b)
combination die, (c) compound die, (d) edge-bending die, (e) progressive die, or (f) V-bending
die? Answer. (e).
20.14 Which one of the following press types is usually associated with the highest production rates in
sheet-metal-stamping operations: (a) adjustable bed, (b) open back inclinable, (c) press brake,
(d) solid gap, or (e) straight-sided? Answer. (b).
20.15 Which of the following processes are classified as high-energy-rate forming processes (two best
answers): (a) electrochemical machining, (b) electromagnetic forming, (c) electron beam cutting,
(d) explosive forming, (e) Guerin process, (f) hydroforming, (g) redrawing, and (h) shear spinning?
Answer. (b) and (d).
21 THEORY OF METAL MACHINING
21.1 Which of the following manufacturing processes are classified as material removal processes (two
correct answers): (a) casting, (b) drawing, (c) extrusion, (d) forging, (e) grinding, (f) machining,
(g) molding, (h) pressworking, and (i) spinning?
Answer. (e) and (f).
21.2 A lathe is used to perform which one of the following manufacturing operations: (a) broaching,
(b) drilling, (c) lapping, (d) milling, or (e) turning? Answer. (e).
21.3 With which one of the following geometric forms is the drilling operation most closely
associated: (a) external cylinder, (b) flat plane, (c) round hole, (d) screw threads, or (e) sphere?
Answer. (c).
21.4 If the cutting conditions in a turning operation are cutting speed = 300 ft/min, feed = 0.010
in/rev, and depth of cut = 0.100 inch, which one of the following is the material removal rate:
(a) 0.025 in3/min, (b) 0.3 in3/min, (c) 3.0 in3/min, or (d) 3.6 in3/min? Answer. (d).
21.5 A roughing operation generally involves which one of the following combinations of cutting
conditions: (a) high v, f, and d; (b) high v, low f and d; (c) low v, high f and d; or (d) low v, f, and
d, where v = cutting speed, f = feed, and d = depth?
Answer. (c).

21.6 Which of the following are characteristics of the orthogonal cutting model (three best answers):
(a) a circular cutting edge is used, (b) a multiple-cutting-edge tool is used, (c) a single-point tool
is used, (d) only two dimensions play an active role in the analysis, (e) the cutting edge is parallel
to the direction of cutting speed, (f) the cutting edge is perpendicular to the direction of cutting
speed, and (g) the two elements of tool geometry are rake and relief angle?
Answer. (d), (f), and (g).

21.7 The chip thickness ratio is which one of the following: (a) tc/to, (b) to/tc, (c) f/d, or (d) to/w, where
tc = chip thickness after the cut, to = chip thickness before the cut, f = feed, d = depth, and w =
width of cut?
Answer. (b).
21.8 Which one of the four types of chip would be expected in a turning operation conducted at
low cutting speed on a brittle work material: (a) continuous, (b) continuous with built-up
edge, (c) discontinuous, or (d) serrated? Answer. (c).
21.9 According to the Merchant equation, an increase in rake angle would have which of the following
results, all other factors remaining the same (two best answers): (a) decrease in friction angle,
(b) decrease in power requirements, (c) decrease in shear plane angle, (d) increase in cutting
temperature, and (e) increase in shear plane angle? Answer. (b) and (e).
21.10 In using the orthogonal cutting model to approximate a turning operation, the chip thickness before
the cut to corresponds to which one of the following cutting conditions in turning: (a) depth of cut
d, (b) feed f, or (c) speed v? Answer. (b).
21.11 Which one of the following metals would usually have the lowest unit horsepower in a machining
operation: (a) aluminum, (b) brass, (c) cast iron, or (d) steel?
Answer. (a).
21.12 For which one of the following values of chip thickness before the cut to would you expect the
specific energy in machining to be the greatest: (a) 0.010 inch, (b) 0.025 inch, (c) 0.12 mm, or (d)
0.50 mm?
Answer. (c).
21.13 Which of the following cutting conditions has the strongest effect on cutting temperature: (a) feed
or (b) speed? Answer. (b).
22 MACHINING OPERATIONS AND MACHINE
TOOLS
22.1 Which of the following are examples of generating the workpart geometry in machining, as
opposed to forming the geometry (two best answers): (a) broaching, (b) contour turning, (c)
drilling, (d) profile milling, and (e) thread cutting? Answer. (b) and (d).
22.2 In a turning operation, the change in diameter of the workpart is equal to which one of
the following: (a) 1 x depth of cut, (b) 2 x depth of cut, (c) 1 x feed, or (d) 2 x feed?
Answer. (b).
22.3 A lathe can be used to perform which of the following machining operations (three correct
answers): (a) boring, (b) broaching, (c) drilling, (d) milling, (e) planing, and (f) turning?
Answer. (a), (c), and (f).
22.4 A facing operation is normally performed on which one of the following machine tools: (a) drill
press, (b) lathe, (c) milling machine, (d) planer, or (e) shaper?
Answer. (b).
22.5 Knurling is performed on a lathe, but it is not a metal cutting operation: (a) true or (b) false?
Answer. (a). It is a metal forming operation.
22.6 Which one of the following cutting tools cannot be used on a turret lathe: (a) broach, (b) cutoff
tool, (c) drill bit, (d) single-point turning tool, or (e) threading tool? Answer. (a).
22.7 Which one of the following turning machines permits very long bar stock to be used: (a)
chucking machine, (b) engine lathe, (c) screw machine, (d) speed lathe, or (e) turret lathe?
Answer. (c).
22.8 The twist drill is the most common type of drill bit: (a) true or (b) false?
Answer. (a).
22.9 A tap is a cutting tool used to create which one of the following geometries: (a) external threads,
(b) flat planar surfaces, (c) holes used in beer kegs, (d) internal threads, or (e) square holes?
Answer. (d).
22.10 Reaming is used for which of the following functions (three correct answers): (a) accurately locate
a hole position, (b) enlarge a drilled hole, (c) improve surface finish on a hole, (d) improve
tolerance on hole diameter, and (e) provide an internal thread? Answer. (b), (c), and (d).
22.11 End milling is most similar to which one of the following: (a) face milling, (b) peripheral
milling, (c) plain milling, or (d) slab milling? Answer. (a).
22.12 The basic milling machine is which one of the following: (a) bed type, (b) knee-and-column,
(c) profiling mill, (d) ram mill, or (e) universal milling machine? Answer. (b).
22.13 A planing operation is best described by which one of the following: (a) a single-point tool moves
linearly past a stationary workpart, (b) a tool with multiple teeth moves linearly past a stationary
workpart, (c) a workpart is fed linearly past a rotating cutting tool, or (d) a workpart moves linearly
past a single-point tool? Answer. (d).
22.14 A broaching operation is best described by which one of the following: (a) a rotating tool moves
past a stationary workpart, (b) a tool with multiple teeth moves linearly past a stationary
 workpart, (c) a workpart is fed past a rotating cutting tool, or (d) a workpart moves linearly past
a stationary single-point tool? Answer. (b).
22.15 The three basic types of sawing, according to type of blade motion involved, are (a) abrasive cutoff,
(b) bandsawing, (c) circular sawing, (d) contouring, (e) friction sawing, (f) hacksawing, and (g)
slotting?
Answer. (b), (c), and (f).
22.16 Gear hobbing is a special form of which one of the following machining operations: (a) grinding,
(b) milling, (c) planing, (d) shaping, or (e) turning?
Answer. (b).
23 CUTTING TOOL TECHNOLOGY
23.1 Of the following cutting conditions, which one has the greatest effect on tool wear: (a) cutting
speed, (b) depth of cut, or (c) feed? Answer. (a).
23.2 As an alloying ingredient in high-speed steel, tungsten serves which of the following functions
(two best answers): (a) forms hard carbides to resist abrasion, (b) improves strength and hardness,
(c) increases corrosion resistance, (d) increases hot hardness, and (e) increases toughness?
Answer. (a) and (d).
23.3 Cast cobalt alloys typically contain which of the following main ingredients (three best
answers): (a) aluminum, (b) cobalt, (c) chromium, (d) iron, (e) nickel, (f) steel, and (g)
tungsten? Answer. (b), (c), and (g).
23.4 Which of the following is not a common ingredient in cemented carbide cutting tools (two correct
answers): (a) Al2O3, (b) Co, (c) CrC, (d) TiC, and (e) WC?
Answer. (a) and (c).
23.5 An increase in cobalt content has which of the following effects on WC-Co cemented carbides
(two best answers): (a) decreases hardness, (b) decreases transverse rupture strength, (c) increases
hardness, (d) increases toughness, and (e) increases wear resistance? Answer. (a) and (d).
23.6 Steel-cutting grades of cemented carbide are typically characterized by which of the following
ingredients (three correct answers): (a) Co, (b) Fe, (c) Mo, (d) Ni, (e) TiC, and (f) WC?
Answer. (a), (e), and (f).
23.7 If you had to select a cemented carbide for an application involving finish turning of steel,
which C-grade would you select (one best answer): (a) C1, (b) C3, (c) C5, or (d) C7? Answer.
(d).
23.8 Which of the following processes are used to provide the thin coatings on the surface of
coated carbide inserts (two best answers): (a) chemical vapor deposition, (b) electroplating,
(c) physical vapor deposition, (d) pressing and sintering, and (e) spray painting? Answer. (a)
and (c).
23.9 Which one of the following materials has the highest hardness: (a) aluminum oxide, (b) cubic
boron nitride, (c) high-speed steel, (d) titanium carbide, or (e) tungsten carbide? Answer. (b).
23.10 Which of the following are the two main functions of a cutting fluid in machining (two best
answers): (a) improve surface finish on the workpiece, (b) reduce forces and power, (c) reduce
friction at the tool-chip interface, (d) remove heat from the process, and (e) wash away chips?
Answer. (c) and (d).
24 ECONOMIC AND PRODUCT DESIGN
CONSIDERATIONS IN MACHINING
24.1 Which of the following criteria are generally recognized to indicate good machinability (four
best answers): (a) ease of chip disposal, (b) high cutting temperatures, (c) high power
requirements, (d) high value of Ra, (e) long tool life, (f) low cutting forces, and (g) zero shear
plane angle? Answer. (a), (d), (e), and (f).
24.2 Of the various methods for testing machinability, which one of the following is the most
important: (a) cutting forces, (b) cutting temperature, (c) horsepower consumed in the operation,
(d) surface roughness, (e) tool life, or (f) tool wear? Answer. (e).
24.3 A machinability rating greater than 1.0 indicates that the work material is (a) easier to machine than
the base metal or (b) more difficult to machine than the base metal, where the base metal has a rating
= 1.0?
Answer. (a).
24.4 In general, which one of the following materials has the highest machinability: (a) aluminum, (b)
cast iron, (c) copper, (d) low carbon steel, (e) stainless steel, (f) titanium alloys, or (g) unhardened
tool steel?
Answer. (a).
24.5 Which one of the following operations is generally capable of the closest tolerances: (a)
broaching, (b) drilling, (c) end milling, (d) planing, or (e) sawing? Answer. (a).
24.6 When cutting a ductile work material, an increase in cutting speed will generally (a) degrade surface
finish, which means a higher value of Ra or (b) improve surface finish, which means a lower value
of Ra?
Answer. (b).
24.7 Which one of the following operations is generally capable of the best surface finishes (lowest
value of Ra): (a) broaching, (b) drilling, (c) end milling, (d) planing, or (e) turning? Answer. (a).
24.8 Which of the following time components in the average production machining cycle is affected by
cutting speed (two correct answers): (a) part loading and unloading time, and (b) setup time for the
machine tool, (c) time the tool is engaged in cutting, and (d) average tool change time per piece?
Answer. (c) and (d).
24.9 Which cutting speed is always lower for a given machining operation: (a) cutting speed
for maximum production rate, or (b) cutting speed for minimum cost? Answer. (b).
24.10 A high tooling cost and/or tool change time will tend to (a) decrease, (b) have no effect on, or (c)
increase the cutting speed for minimum cost? Answer. (a).
25 GRINDING AND OTHER ABRASIVE PROCESSES
25.1 Which one of the following conventional machining processes is closest to grinding: (a) drilling,
(b) milling, (c) shaping, or (d) turning? Answer. (b).
25.2 Of the following abrasive materials, which one has the highest hardness: (a) aluminum oxide,
(b) cubic boron nitride, or (c) silicon carbide? Answer. (b).
25.3 Smaller grain size in a grinding wheel tends to (a) degrade surface finish, (b) have no effect on
surface finish, or (c) improve surface finish? Answer. (c).
25.4 Which of the following would tend to give higher material removal rates: (a) larger grain size, or (b)
smaller grain size? Answer. (a).
25.5 Which of the following will improve surface finish in grinding (three best answers): (a) denser
wheel structure, (b) higher wheel speed, (c) higher workspeeds, (d) larger infeed, (e) lower
infeed, (f) lower wheel speed, (g) lower workspeed, and (h) more open wheel structure?
Answer. (a), (b), and (g).
25.6 Which one of the following abrasive materials is most appropriate for grinding steel and cast
iron: (a) aluminum oxide, (b) cubic boron nitride, (c) diamond, or (d) silicon carbide? Answer.
(a).
25.7 Which one of the following abrasive materials is most appropriate for grinding hardened tool
steel: (a) aluminum oxide, (b) cubic boron nitride, (c) diamond, or (d) silicon carbide? Answer.
(b).
25.8 Which one of the following abrasive materials is most appropriate for grinding nonferrous
metals: (a) aluminum oxide, (b) cubic boron nitride, (c) diamond, or (d) silicon carbide?
Answer. (d).
25.9 Which of the following will help to reduce the incidence of heat damage to the work surface in
grinding (four correct answers): (a) frequent dressing or truing of the wheel, (b) higher infeeds,
(c) higher wheel speeds, (d) higher workspeeds, (e) lower infeeds, (f) lower wheel speeds, and
(g) lower workspeeds?
Answer. (a), (d), (e), and (g).
25.10 Which one of the following abrasive processes achieves the best surface finish: (a)
centerless grinding, (b) honing, (c) lapping, or (d) superfinishing? Answer. (d).
25.11 The term deep grinding refers to which one of the following: (a) alternative name for any creep
feed
grinding operation, (b) external cylindrical creep feed grinding, (c) grinding operation performed
at the bottom of a hole, (d) surface grinding that uses a large crossfeed, or (e) surface grinding
that uses a large infeed?
Answer. (b).
26 NONTRADITIONAL MACHINING AND THERMAL
CUTTING PROCESSES
26.1 Which of the following processes use mechanical energy as the principal energy source (three
correct answers): (a) electrochemical grinding, (b) laser beam machining, (c) conventional
milling, (d) ultrasonic machining, (e) water jet cutting, and (f) wire EDM? Answer. (c), (d), and
(e).
26.2 Ultrasonic machining can be used to machine both metallic and nonmetallic materials: (a) true or
(b) false?
Answer. (a).
26.3 Applications of electron beam machining are limited to metallic work materials due to the need for
the work to be electrically conductive: (a) true or (b) false? Answer. (b).

26.4 Which one of the following is closest to the temperatures used in plasma arc cutting: (a) 2750°C
(5000°F), (b) 5500°C (10,000°F), (c) 8300°C (15,000°F), (d) 11,000°C (20,000°F), or (e)
16,500°C (30,000°F)?
Answer. (d).
26.5 Chemical milling is used in which of the following applications (two best answers): (a) drilling
holes with high depth-to-diameter ratio, (b) making intricate patterns in thin sheet metal, (c)
removing material to make shallow pockets in metal, (d) removing metal from aircraft wing
panels, and (e) cutting of plastic sheets? Answer. (c) and (d).
26.6 Etch factor is equal to which of the following in chemical machining (more than one): (a)
anisotropy, (b) CIt, (c) d/u, and (d) u/d; where C = specific removal rate, d = depth of cut, I
= current, t = time, and u = undercut? Answer. (a) and (c).
26.7 Of the following processes, which one is noted for the highest material removal rates: (a) electric
discharge machining, (b) electrochemical machining, (c) laser beam machining, (d) oxyfuel
cutting, (e) plasma arc cutting, (f) ultrasonic machining, or (g) water jet cutting? Answer. (e).
26.8 Which one of the following processes would be appropriate to drill a hole with a square cross
section, 0.25 inch on a side and 1-inch deep in a steel workpiece: (a) abrasive jet machining, (b)
chemical milling, (c) EDM, (d) laser beam machining, (e) oxyfuel cutting, (f) water jet cutting,
or (g) wire EDM? Answer. (c).
26.9 Which of the following processes would be appropriate for cutting a narrow slot, less than 0.015
inch wide, in a 3/8-in-thick sheet of fiber-reinforced plastic (two best answers): (a) abrasive jet
machining, (b) chemical milling, (c) EDM, (d) laser beam machining, (e) oxyfuel cutting, (f)
water jet cutting, and (g) wire EDM? Answer. (d) and (f).
26.10 Which one of the following processes would be appropriate for cutting a hole of 0.003 inch
diameter through a plate of aluminum that is 1/16 in thick: (a) abrasive jet machining, (b)
chemical milling, (c) EDM, (d) laser beam machining, (e) oxyfuel cutting, (f) water jet cutting,
and (g) wire
EDM?
Answer. (d).
26.11 Which of the following processes could be used to cut a large piece of 1/2-inch plate steel into two
sections (two best answers): (a) abrasive jet machining, (b) chemical milling, (c) EDM, (d) laser
beam machining, (e) oxyfuel cutting, (f) water jet cutting, and (g) wire EDM?
Answer. (e) and (g).
27 HEAT TREATMENT OF METALS
27.1 Which of the following are the usual objectives of heat treatment (three best answers): (a)
increase hardness, (b) increase melting temperature, (c) increase recrystallization temperature,
(d) reduce brittleness, (e) reduce density, and (f) relieve stresses? Answer. (a), (d), and (f).
27.2 Of the following quenching media, which one produces the most rapid cooling rate: (a) air,
(b) brine, (c) oil, or (d) pure water? Answer. (b).
27.3 On which one of the following metals is the treatment called austenitizing be performed: (a)
aluminum alloys, (b) brass, (c) copper alloys, or (d) steel? Answer. (d).
27.4 The treatment in which the brittleness of martensite is reduced is called which one of the
following: (a) aging, (b) annealing, (c) austenitizing, (d) normalizing, (e) quenching, or (f)
tempering? Answer. (f).
27.5 The Jominy end-quench test is designed to indicate which one of the following: (a) cooling rate, (b)
ductility, (c) hardenability, (d) hardness, or (e) strength?
Answer. (c). The reader might be tempted to select (d) because the Jominy test plots hardness as
a function of distance from the quenched surface of the test specimen. However, the reason for
measuring hardness in the Jominy test is to indicate hardenability.
27.6 In precipitation hardening, the hardening and strengthening of the metal occurs in which one of
the following steps: (a) aging, (b) quenching, or (c) solution treatment? Answer. (a).
27.7 Which one of the following surface-hardening treatments is the most common: (a) boronizing, (b)
carbonitriding, (c) carburizing, (d) chromizing, or (e) nitriding?
Answer. (c).
27.8 Which of the following are selective surface-hardening methods (three correct answers): (a)
austenitizing, (b) electron beam heating, (c) fluidized bed furnaces, (d) induction heating, (e)
laser beam heating, and (f) vacuum furnaces? Answer. (b), (d), and (e).