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Đề chính thức Mã đề 703

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SỞ GD & ĐT THANH HÓA ĐỀ THI KSCL VÀ CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG LẦN

TRƯỜNG THPT ………. NĂM HỌC 2023 – 2024


Môn: Tiếng Anh
Đề chính thức Thời gian: 90 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
Gồm có ... trang
Mã đề 703
SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (70 points)
SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (70 points)
PART I: LISTENING
Part 1: You will hear a conversation between a man and his wife. Listen and choose the option which best
fits according to what you hear. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
Question 1. The man wants to ______.
A. try out for the company basketball team
B. run a mountain marathon
C. join a soccer club
D. take up swimming
Question 2. The woman is worried that ______.
A. her husband's health isn't good
B. her husband is becoming a fitness freak
C. the man works too much
D. he's not enjoying his hobbies
Question 3. First, the woman suggests that her husband _____.
A. see a doctor
B. start with light workouts
C. visit with a fitness trainer
D. try yoga classes
Question 4. Her husband should ____.
A. eat more protein
B. eat less fatty foods
C. consume less salt
D. try a vegan diet
Question 5: Why does the man's wife recommend cycling?
A. It helps develop mental toughness.
B. It is good for improving muscle tone.
C. It helps strengthen the heart.
D. It improves coordination.

Part 1: Listen and choose the option which best fits according to what you hear. Mark the letter A, B, C or
D on your answer sheet.

Question 6: what does Brad have to do before he eats breakfast.


A. feed the rooster and the other animals
B. go to the stream to get water
C. clean his sleeping quarters
D. gather firewood
Question 7: What happened to Brad when he went fishing?
A. He lost his fishing pole.
B. A tree branch fell on him.
C. He lost one of his shoes.
D. He caught a big fish.
Question 8: What did Brad eat for dinner?
A. hot dogs
B. steak
C. beans
D. grilled vegetables
Question 9: What was Brad doing when he got lost in the forest?
A. searching for wood
B. looking for the cabin
C. running away from a bear
D. picking berries
Question 10: How did Brad like summer camp?
A. It was okay.
B. He didn't have fun.
C. He had a great time.
D. He wished he never went.
Part 3. You will hear a radio interview with the gardening experts Jed and Helena Stone. For questions
11-15, choose the answer (А, В, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. (10 pts)
Question 11: How does Helena feel about the use of Jed’s name for their joint business?
A. occasionally frustrated that her contribution goes unnoticed
B. amused that they have a name people tend to remember
C. appreciative of the respect that the name has brought her
D. irritated by the fact that Jed is more of a celebrity than she is
Question 12: What is Jed’s attitude to his public profile?
A. He likes the fact that complete strangers often want to talk to him
B. He’s unhappy that it prevents him doing everyday activities
C. He enjoys it more now than he did when he was younger
D. He’s proud of the way it reflects his achievements
Question 13: How did Helena feel about her work on The Travel Show?
A. She would have enjoyed it more in different circumstances
B. It was convenient for her to be away from the house then
C. It was a welcome alternative to manual work
D. She felt obliged to do it at that particular time
Question 14: What gave Jed the incentive to make a jewel garden?
A. He wanted to realise a long-held ambition
B. He had led people to believe that it already existed
C. He wanted to show pictures of it at a gardening event
D. He was inspired by the illustrations at a talk he attended
Question 15: Jed says that, for him, the name ‘jewel garden’ is
A. a reminder of the value of creativity
B. an appropriate one for something so beautiful
C. a positive way of combining both past and present D. a way of explaining his philosophy of design to
people
Interviewer: Jed Stone’s best known now for his talents as a garden designer – but he and his wife Helena ran
a highly successful jewellery business in the nineteen nineties, which brought them fame and high living.
Then they lost it all and, some years later, bought a derelict house which they renovated and now together
they’ve created a garden. They join me in the studio today. You do seem to do most things in partnership, like
the jewellery business, but using Jed’s name. Why’s that? Helena?
Helena: Well, this is a bit of a bone of contention, actually. We have a friend in PR who said, “You have a
great name, Jed Stone. People would pay a fortune for such a good name.’ But, sadly, at the time, it never
crossed my mind that I wouldn’t get the credit for what we do, and that does get to me sometimes [15] – but,
there again, I’m very bad at putting myself forward. People see Jed as a figurehead, which is fine, actually,
because I don’t enjoy being recognised or get any thrill out of that, whereas Jed loves it.
Interviewer: Is that right, Jed?
Jed: Obviously, I’d love to say, ‘No, I don’t,’ but yeah, I do. Even as a child, I thought it must be marvellous
to walk down a street and have people know who you were. Ironically, that’s the worst of it now. It would be
nice just to go and buy a paper without somebody saying something. But I suppose I do like being a public
figure. It gives me a sense that I’ve done something people appreciate [16]. It doesn’t stop me doing anything,
but it does modify how I do it.
Interviewer: But Helena, you did appear on our television screens briefly as a presenter on The Travel Show.
That must have been a dream job, travelling around the world?
Helena: Actually, I thought I was being heroic taking that job. I’d actually rather have gone down a coal mine.
It was ironic really, because Jed adores travelling, whilst I hate it. The timing was critical though; I mean, we
were living in this derelict house. We’d knocked huge holes in the walls to make windows and we could
hardly afford to get the job finished and I wanted to be there when it was done. So I genuinely didn’t want to
do the job they were offering, but I felt I had no choice [17] because, apart from anything else, it would
provide us with a reasonable income.
Interviewer: So what about this jewel garden? Did you have a clear idea of what you wanted to do when you
bought the house?
Jed: Not at all. In fact, we were provoked into action. I was giving a lecture on gardening and I was including
some snaps of our own wilderness to show what certain plants looked like. But these photos hadn’t loaded
onto my laptop properly, and you couldn’t see a thing. So I started to make it all up – describing this jewel
garden with magical colours – it came straight out of my imagination, it hadn’t been a long-term plan or
anything. Anyway, as soon as I’d finished, these journalists came rushing up saying, ‘We must come and take
pictures of your jewel garden.’ And I heard myself replying, ‘Fine, but come when the colours are good, don’t
come now.’ To cut a long story short, we had to make the jewel garden before they came, and actually, we did
ninety per cent of the work that summer [18]. That was our incentive!
Interviewer: And why did you call it a ‘jewel garden’? Having read about the disasters with the jewellery
business, one would have thought you wouldn’t want the word
‘jewel’ in your house at all.
Helena: Well, I like to work on projects and if you have a project where you’re thinking only of jewel colours
then that starts to limit you, and design is all about reduction. Really it was just a good, positive way of
tackling what plants we were putting in, and the way we were going to design the garden [19], wasn’t it, Jed?
Jed: Yeah. But for me it was also partly a metaphor, it’s making something worthwhile out of a failure. We
did spend years doing the jewellery and it wasn’t all disastrous; there were good things about it too and we
wanted to salvage them and treasure them. It seemed a waste not to take that bit of our lives and to somehow
incorporate it into our new design venture [20] – to take the bad experience and use it in a creative way. Jed
and Helena, thank you for telling us about it today.

PART 2. PHONETICS
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
that of the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 16. A. rejection B. regardless C. represent D. religious
Question 17. A. bank B. monk C. function D. monster
Question 18. A. dough B. cough C. tough D. rough

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 19. A. disastrous B. humorous C. nutrious D. tremendous
Question 20. A. appetite B. apparent C. apartheid D. apartment
PART 3. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 21. Jennifer wishes she had not refused that company's proposal, __________ ?
A. does she B. had she C. doesn’t she D. may she
Question 22. __________ appears at night is a fundamental aspect of Earth's celestial mechanics, shaping
nocturnal landscapes and inspiring countless poets throughout history.
A. The Moon B. That the Moon C. When the Moon D. The Moon which
Question 23. By the time you arrive, the preparations for the party __________.
A. will be completed B. had been completed
C. will have been completed. D. will have been completing
Question 24. With a view to __________ employee morale, the company implemented a flexible work-
from-home policy.
A. increasing B. raising C. rising D. improving
Question 25. The spelling mistake on the document was easily__________ because it was a simple typo
that could be fixed with a quick edit.
A. correct B. correctable C. incorrect D. corrective
Question 26. Shakespeare’s plays have stood the __________ of time, remaining popular and admired by
audiences worldwide for centuries.
A. test B. quiz C. exam D. road
Question 27. After studying for hours, he finally hit the nail on the _________ and solved the challenging
math problem.
A. shoulder B. hand C. neck D. head
Question 28. It took me a while to learn the __________ when I started my new job.
A. paths B. laws C. ladders D. ropes
Question 29. __________ the supplier in advance, I had to scramble to find an alternative solution to meet
the project deadline.
A. Not to be contacting B. Not to have contacted
C. Because of not being contacted D. Not having contacted
Question 30.The signing of the peace treaty was a __________ moment that marked the end of years of
conflict between the two nations.
A. historically B. historic C. historical D. history
Question 31. In a stunning display of athleticism and determination, the underdog athlete __________ the
medal, leaving the crowd in awe of her remarkable achievement.
A. took off B. went off C. ran off D. carried off
Question 32. He promised to meet me at the cafe at 7 o'clock ________, and true to his word, he arrived
exactly on time.
A. on the dot B. in detail C.on the edge D. at the moment
Question 33. Although we had hoped for an open discussion, it seemed that the outcome had been_______-
___ by those in authority.
A. predisposed B. predetermined
C. predicted D. prearranged

Read the following advertisement/ announcement and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

📢 Join Our Cause: Calling for Dedicated Volunteers!

Dear esteemed members of our community,

We are excited to unveil (34)___________ transformative opportunity for active engagement. Our
organization is seeking committed individuals to serve as volunteers, contributing their expertise and
passion to our initiatives. Together, let's embark (35)_____________a journey of collaboration and impact,
shaping a brighter future for our community. Your invaluable support will be (36)____________ in
achieving our shared goals.

Warm regards,
Question 34. A. a B. an C. the D. 0 (no article)
Question 35. A. to B. for C. in D. on
Question 36. A. Integral B. Auxiliary C. Superfluous D. Instrumental

Discover Bali: Where Paradise Awaits

Unwind in Nature's Embrace

Experience the (37) _______ of Bali, where lush greenery and pristine beaches await your arrival. Let
yourself be transported to a world of tranquility as you explore hidden waterfalls, pristine rice terraces, and
breathtaking volcanic landscapes.
Indulge in Exotic Delights

Savor the flavors of Bali with our exquisite culinary offerings. From traditional Balinese cuisine to
international delights, our talented chefs will tantalize your taste buds with every bite.

Immerse Yourself in Cultural Splendor

Delve into the rich tapestry of Balinese culture and traditions. Witness vibrant ceremonies, intricate
dances, and masterful craftsmanship that (38)__________ through generations.

Relax and Rejuvenate in Luxury

Escape to luxurious resorts and villas, where every comfort is catered to. Let the soothing touch of
Balinese spa treatments (39) ____________ melt away your stresses, leaving you refreshed and
revitalized.

Your Bali Adventure Awaits

Embark on a journey of a lifetime in Bali, where every moment is filled with wonder and enchantment.
Book your escape today and discover the magic of this tropical paradise.
Question 37. A. allure B. temptation C. enticement D. hypnotism
Question 38. A. have passed B. have been passed down
C. passed D. was passed
Question 39. A. melt away B. pick up C. bring on D. run out

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of
the numbered blanks .

Major Structures and Functions of the Brain


Outside the specialized world of neuroanatomy and for most of the uses of daily life, (40) ________. We do
not experience our brain as an assembly of physical structures (nor would we wish to, perhaps); if we envision
it at all, we are likely (41) ________.
This schematic image refers mainly to the cerebral cortex, the outermost layer(42) ________ like a
fantastically wrinkled tissue wrapped around an orange. The preponderance of the cerebral cortex (which,
with its supporting structures, makes up approximately 80 percent of the brain's total volume) is actually a
recent development in the course of evolution. The cortex contains the physical structures responsible for (43)
________: cognition, mental imagery, the highly sophisticated processing of visual information, and the
ability to produce and (44) ________. But underneath this layer reside many other specialized structures that
are essential for movement, consciousness, sexuality, the action of our five senses, and more—all equally
valuable to human existence. Indeed, in strictly biological terms, these structures can claim priority over the
cerebral cortex. In the growth of the individual embryo, as well as in evolutionary history, the brain develops
roughly from the base of the skull up and outward. (45) ________, in the four-week-old embryo, as a simple
series of bulges at one end of the neural tube.
Question 40. A. the brain is an abstract more or less entity.
B. the brain more or less is an abstract entity.
C. the brain is an abstract more or less entity.
D. the brain is more or less an abstract entity.
Question 41. A. to see it as a large, rounded walnut, grayish in color.
B. to seeing it as a large, rounded walnut, grayish in color
C. seeing it as a large, rounded walnut, grayish in color
D. see it as a large, rounded walnut, grayish in color
Question 42. A. when overlying most of the other brain structures
B. to overlie most of the other brain structures
C. that overlies most of the other brain structures
D. this overlies most of the other brain structures
Question 43. A. most of them we call “brainwork”
B. most of those we call “brainwork”
C. most of that we call “ brainwork”
D. most of what we call ''brainwork"
Question 44. A. to understand language.
B. understand language
C. to be understood language
D. to understanding language
Question 45. A. The human brain actually has our beginnings
B. The human brain actually has his beginnings
C. The human brain actually has their beginnings
D. The human brain actually has its beginnings

PART 4. READING
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Since the Paris Agreement was signed in 2015, a small number of fossil fuel entities just 57 corporate and
state producers have been responsible for 80 percent of planet-warming carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions. And
a majority of those actors have only expanded production in the (46) _______ years.That’s according to a
new report released today by InfluenceMap detailing its Carbon Majors project, an influential database of
fossil fuel production data.The database analyzes the individual carbon emissions of 122 “carbon majors”
publicly owned corporations, nation states, and state-owned entities that, (47) _______, are responsible for
more than 70 percent of fossil fuel and cement emissions since the start of the Industrial Revolution. “The
Carbon Majors research shows us exactly (48) _______ is responsible for the lethal heat, extreme weather,
and air pollution that is threatening lives and wreaking havoc on our oceans and forests,” said Tzeporah
Berman, (49) _______ program director at the grassroots environmental organization Stand.earth, in a press
release. The database which academics, lawyers, and advocates often rely (50) _______ for research and legal
cases had only included information through 2017. Today’s update brings the numbers current through 2022,
providing a granular and timely portrait of the world’s (51) _______ climate polluters. Their ranks have
become even more intensely consolidated: In 2017, the rankings showed that 100 entities were responsible for
71 percent of the sector’s emissions between 1988 and 2015. The 36 largest producers alone (52) _______ up
that same share today. Just five modern-day companies ExxonMobil, Shell, BP, Chevron, and ConocoPhillips
are responsible for 11.1 percent of fossil CO2 emissions between 1854 and 2022. Of those companies, only
Chevron has expanded oil and gas production in the years after the Paris Agreement; emissions from the other
four entities have held roughly (53) _______ or declined. But Chevron’s approach is much more characteristic
of the (54) _______ majors listed in the report. In its analysis of the new data, InfluenceMap, a London-based
nonprofit think tank, found that two-thirds of investor- and state-owned fossil fuel companies outside of North
America expanded oil and gas operations between 2016 and 2022. In Asia, the difference was even starker: 87
percent of companies are polluting faster than they did in the seven years before Paris. Only in North America
were a slim (55) _______ of carbon majors 16 of 37 linked to rising emissions.
Question 46. A. interacting B. intermediate C. intervening D. interceding
Question 47. A. collectively B. jointly C. unitedly D. together
Question 48. A. which B. who C. that D. whom
Question 49. A. regional B. continental C. intercontinental D. international
Question 50. A. upon B. on C. about D. with
Question 51. A. biggest B. highest C. greatest D. widest
Question 52. A. take B. set C. make D. come
Question 53. A. balanced B. regular C. steady D. solid
Question 54. A. another B. others C.more D. other
Question 55. A. minority B. popularity C. variety D. quantity

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.

In recent years, the digital nomad lifestyle has emerged as a fascinating and increasingly popular
phenomenon. Digital nomads are individuals who use telecommunications technologies to earn a living and
conduct their life in a nomadic manner. They rely on the internet and mobile devices to work remotely from
various locations around the world, allowing them to explore new destinations while maintaining a steady
income.

One of the main reasons behind the rise of the digital nomad lifestyle is the evolution of technology. With the
advent of high-speed internet, cloud computing, and communication tools like video conferencing and
collaboration platforms, it has become easier than ever for people to work from anywhere with an internet
connection. This technological advancement has enabled individuals to break free from the constraints of
traditional office environments and embrace a more flexible and independent way of working.

Another factor contributing to the popularity of the digital nomad lifestyle is the desire for freedom and
autonomy. Many people are drawn to the idea of being their own boss, setting their own schedules, and having
the freedom to travel and explore the world at their own pace. The digital nomad lifestyle offers individuals
the opportunity to live life on their own terms, without being tied down to a single location or employer.

However, being a digital nomad is not without its challenges. Remote work requires a high level of self-
discipline, time management skills, and the ability to stay productive in unfamiliar environments. Digital
nomads must also navigate logistical challenges such as visa regulations, tax considerations, and access to
healthcare services while living and working abroad. Additionally, the lack of stability and routine can be
challenging for some individuals, requiring them to adapt quickly to changing circumstances and
environments.

Despite these challenges, many digital nomads find the lifestyle to be incredibly rewarding. They enjoy the
freedom to explore new places, meet people from diverse backgrounds, and pursue their passions while
maintaining a fulfilling career. For them, the digital nomad lifestyle represents a departure from the traditional
nine-to-five grind and a path to greater personal and professional fulfillment.

In conclusion, the digital nomad lifestyle offers a unique blend of freedom, adventure, and autonomy. It
enables individuals to break free from the constraints of traditional office jobs and embrace a more flexible
and independent way of living and working. As technology continues to evolve and connectivity improves,
the digital nomad phenomenon is likely to grow and evolve, offering new opportunities and challenges for
those willing to embrace it.

(Adapted from Essential words for the JELTS by Dr. Lin Lougheed)
Question 56: What topic does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The challenges of remote work
B. The benefits of traditional office jobs
C. The digital nomad lifestyle
D. Technological advancements
Question 57: The word "contraints” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. advantages B. limitations
C. enhancements D. opportunities
Question 58: According to the passage, what are some challenges faced by digital nomads?
A. Lack of access to technology B. Limited opportunities for cultural exchange
C. Difficulty managing time and productivity D. Familiarity with local customs and languages
Question 59: The word “adapt” in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by ______.
A. adjust B. resist C. maintain D. modify
Question 60: What does the word "it" in the last paragraph refer to?
A. digital nomad lifestyle B. traditional office jobs C. nine-to-five grind D. technology
Question 61: Which of the following is NOT true about digital nomad?
A. Digital nomads prioritize freedom and autonomy in their lifestyle.
B. Remote work requires minimal self-discipline or time management.
C. The digital nomad lifestyle offers opportunities for personal and professional growth.
D. Technology plays a significant role in enabling the digital nomad phenomenon.
Question 62: Based on the passage, what can be inferred about the future of the digital nomad lifestyle?
A. It is likely to decline in popularity as technology advances.
B. It will continue to evolve and offer new opportunities and challenges.
C. It will become more restrictive due to increased regulation.
D. It will become mainstream and replace traditional office jobs.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
MUSICAL TALENT
Among all the abilities with which an individual may be endowed, musical talent appears earliest in
life. Very young children can exhibit musical precocity for different reasons. Some develop exceptional skill
as a result of a well- designed instructional regime, such as the Suzuki method for the violin. Some have the
good fortune to be born into a musical family in a household filled with music. In a number of interesting
cases, musical talent is part of an otherwise disabling condition such as autism or mental retardation. A
musically gifted child has an inborn talent; however, the extent to which the talent is expressed publicly will
depend upon the environment in which the child lives.
Musically gifted children master at an early age the principal elements of music, including pitch and
rhythm. Pitch – or melody –is more central in certain cultures, for example, in Eastern societies that make use
of tiny quarter – tone intervals. Rhythm, sounds produced at certain auditory frequencies and grouped
according to a prescribed system, is emphasized in sub – Saharan Africa, where the rhythmic ratios can be
very complex.
All children have some aptitude for making music. During infancy, normal children sing as well as
babble, and they can produce individual sounds and sound patterns. Infants as young as two months can match
their mother’s songs in pitch, loudness, and melodic shape, and infants at four months can match rythmic
structure as well. Infants are especially predisposed to acquire these core aspects of music, and they can also
engage in sound play that clearly exhibits creativity.
Individual differences begin to emerge in young children as they learn to sing. Some children can
match large segments of a song by the age of two or three. Many others can only approximate pitch at this age
and may still have difficulty in producing accurate melodies by the age of five or six. However, by the time
they reach school age, most children in any culture have a schema of what a song should be like and can
produce a reasonably accurate imitation of the songs commonly heard in their environment.
The early appearance of superior musical ability in some children provides evidence that musical talent
may be a separate and unique form of intelligence. There are numerous tales of young artists who have a
remarkable “ear” or extraordinary memory for music and natural understanding of musical structure. In many
of these cases, the child is average in every other way but displays an exceptional ability in music. Even the
most gifted child, however, takes about ten years to achieve the levels of performance or composition that
would constitute mastery of the musical sphere.
Every generation in music history has had its famous prodigies – individuals with exceptional musical
powers that emerge at a young age. In the eighteenth century, Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart began composing
and performing at the age of six. As a child, Mozart could play the piano like an adult. He had perfect pitch,
and at age nine he was also a master of the art of modulation – transitions from one key to another – which
became one of the hallmarks of his style. By the age of eleven, he had composed three symphonies and 30
other major works. Mozart’s well- developed talent was preserved into adulthood.
Unusual musical ability is a regular characteristic of certain anomalies such as autism. In one case, an
autistic girl was able to play “Happy birthday” in the style of various composers, including Mozart,
Beethoven, Verdi, and Schubert. When the girl was three, her mother called her by playing incomplete
melodies, which the child would complete with the appropriate tone in the proper octave. For the autistic
child, music may be the primary mode of communication, and the child may cling to music because it
represents a haven in a world that is largely confusing and frightening.

Question 63: What is the main idea of the reading passage?


A. Musical talent in children is primarily influenced by genetics.
B. The Suzuki method is the most effective way to develop musical talent in children.
C. Musical precocity in children can arise from various factors, including genetics, environment, and certain
conditions like autism.
D. Mozart's musical abilities as a child were unparalleled in history.
Question 64: The word “precocity” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. strong interest B. good luck C. advanced skill D. personal style
Question 65: The word “predisposed” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. inclined B. gifted C. pushed D. amused
Question 66: According to the passage, which of the following suggests that musical talent is a separate form
of intelligent?
A. exceptional musical ability in an otherwise average child
B. recognition of the emotional power of music
C. the ability of all babies to acquire core elements of music
D. differences between learning music and learning language
Question 67: Why does the author discuss Mozart in paragraph 6?
A. To compare past and present views of musical talent
B. To give an example of a well-known musical prodigy
C. To list musical accomplishments of the eighteenth century
D. To describe the development of individual musical skill
Question 68: In music, the change from one key to another is known as __________.
A. rhythm B. prodigy C. perfect pitch D. modulation
Question 69: All of the following are given as examples of exceptional musical talent EXCEPT __________.
A. a remarkable “ear” or perfect memory for music
B. ability to compose major works at a young age
C. appreciation for a wide variety of musical styles
D. playing a single song in the style of various composers
Question 70: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about exceptional musical ability?
A. It occurs more frequently in some cultures than in others.
B. It is evidence of a superior level of intelligence in other areas.
C. It has been documented and studied but is little understood.
D. It is the result of natural talent and a supportive environment.

------------------------------- HẾT --------------------------------

SỞ GD & ĐT THANH HÓA ĐỀ THI KHẢO SÁT HỌC SINH GIỎI


TRƯỜNG THPT ………. DÀNH CHO NĂM NĂM HỌC 2024 – 2025
Đề thi gồm … trang MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút ( Không kể thời gian phát đề)
Ngày
thi…./…./2024 Mã đề thi
Họ và tên: 101
……………………………………………………….SBD…………………
Lưu ý: HS làm phần trắc nghiệm vào phiếu thời gian 90 phút. Sau khi nộp phiếu trắc
nghiệm, làm bài tự luận vào giấy thi thời gian 60 phút.
Phần Listening, HS được nghe mỗi phần 2 lần liên tục theo file nghe đã sắp xếp thứ
tự.

PHẦN TỰ LUẬN

SECTION E: WRITING (30 pts)


PART 1: Letter writing (10 points)
Your next-door neighbour likes to listen to music late at night. Because of the loud music, you often lose
sleep.
Write a letter to the building manager. In your letter
 describe the situation
 explain the problems it is causing you
 offer at least one solution
Write about 120- 150 words.
You do NOT need to write any addresses.

PART 2: Essay writing (20 pts)


Some people think that children should begin their formal education at a very early age. Some think they
should begin at at least 7 years old.
Discuss both views and give your own opinion.
Write an essay of about 250 -300 words to give your reasons and exemplify."

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