Question Bank CTA

Question Bank for CTA
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER:

1) Size of V belts used for 25KW Alternator (c)
a. C121 c. C122
b. C123 d. C124
2) Capacity of battery fuse in AC Coaches (a)

a. 315 A & 400 (HRC ) c. 16 A (HRC )
b. 63 A (HRC ) d. 5 A (HRC )
3) The gap between the two halves of axle pulley should be (c)
a. 0.5 – 1.0 mm c. 3.0 – 4.0 mm
b. 2.0 – 3.0 mm d. 5.0 – 5.5 mm
4) What are the AH capacity of cells used in all types of AC coaches (b)
a. 800 Ah Lead Acid & 1100 Ah VRLA c. 1100 Ah
b. 800 & 1100 Ah Lead Acid &1100 Ah VRLA d. 800 Ah
5) Name the Acid used in lead acid cells (a)

a. Sulphuric Acid c. Nitric acid
b. Hydrochloric Acid d. Phosphoric Acid
6) The Specific gravity & Voltage of fully charged cells are (a)
a. 1220 & 2.2 c. 1200 & 2.2
b. 1220 & 2.1 b. 1200 & 2.1
7) Cut in speed for brushless alternator in AC application (b)

a. 21 c. 19
b. 20 d. 18
8) Inverter converts (a)

a. DC to AC c. AC to AC
b. DC to DC d. AC to DC
9) IGBT are used as (a)

a. High frequency switching c. Low frequency switching device
device
b. Illuminating device d. Amplifier
10) Boost charge of VRLA cells is (a)

a. 2.3 V/Cell c. 2.25 V/Cell
b. 110 V/Cell d. 115 V/Cell
11) Trickle charging of VRLA cells is (c)

a. 2.3 V/Cell c. 2.25 V/Cell
b. 110 V/Cell d. 115 V/Cell
12) Rectifier converts (b)
a. DC to AC c. AC to AC
b. AC to DC d. DC to DC
13) Give the half load setting of RRU for AC application at 1500 rpm (a)
a. 97 Amps c. 21 Amps
b. 20 Amps d. 22 Amps
14) Required level of Illumination in corridor of 2-Tier AC coach is (c)

a. 14 Lux c. 40 Lux
b. 22 Lux d. 16 Lux
15) Give the minimum tension length of spring used in Tension rod of25 KW Alternator ( b )
a. 310 mm c. 269 mm
b 265 mm d. 275 mm
16) Why lead acid cells are called as secondary cells (c)
a. Since it can’t be recharge c. Since it can be recharged
b. Since it can’t charge initially d. None
17) Name the method to be used to find out Earth leakage (a)
a. Double test lamp method c. Tong tester method
b. Multi meter method d. Volt meter method
18) If alternator is not generating voltage, the reason could be (d)

a. Field may be open c. Dropping of V-belts
b. Fuse in regulator had blown d. All the above
19) The advantage of ERRU is (d)

a. To obtain pure DC supply c. Produces over voltage
b. Inbuilt Over Voltage protection d. Both (a) & (b)
20) The capacity of Regulators used in AC coaches are (a)

a. 18KW & 25KW c. 4.5KW & 25KW
b. 4.5KW & 15KW d. 4.5KW & 18KW
GENERAL ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

1. For the protection of single-phase 1.5 kW motor, a MCB of rating should be provided
(a) 10 A (b) 16 A
(c) 32 A (d) 63 A
2. The low power factor results in
(a) Increased losses (b) Decreased losses
(c) No effect on losses (d) Better generating efficiency
3. Low power factor

(a) Aids the voltage regulation
(b) Increase the voltage regulation
(c) Decrease the voltage regulation
(d) None of the above
4. The power factor of the AC supply can be improved by using

(a) Synchronous generator (b) Universal motor
(c) Synchronous condenser (d) SCR
5. A distribution line of 440 V is classified as

(a) LV (b) MV
(c) HV (d) EHV
6. Which of the following is not used as a overhead conductor

(a) ACSR (b) Weasel
(b) PILCA (d) Zebra
7. Which of the following reduces the power factor?

(a) Motor on no load (b) Tube lights
(c) Fans (d) All of the above
8. Under high voltage test cable shall withstand an AC voltage of

(a) 1.5 kV (b) 3 kV
(c) 5.2 kV (d) 7.2 Kv
9. Under high voltage test cable shall withstand a DC voltage of

(a) 1.5 kV (b) 3 kV
(c) 5.2 kV (d) 7.2 kV
10. Under water immersion test cable is immersed in a water bath at

(a) 40 deg C (b) 50 deg C
(c) 60 deg C (d) 70 deg C
11. For water immersion test, cable is immersed in hot water at specified temperature,
after 24 hrs the voltage applied between conductor and water for five minutes is
(a) 3 kV (b) 4 kV
(c) 5 kV (d) 6 kV
12. Unit of energy is

a) Kilo volt hours b) Kilo watt hours c) Kilo watt
13. As per Ohm’s law

a) V = IR b) V = I/R c) R = VxI
14. Unit of resistance is
a) Ampere b) Volts c) Ohm
15. In three phase 415 volts 50 Hz supply, the phase to phase voltage is
a) 220 Volts b) 415 volts c) 440 volts
16. In three phase 415 volts 50 Hz supply, the phase to neutral voltage is
a) 220 volts b) 230 volts c) 440 volts
17. In 4 sq. mm PVC wire, 4 sq. mm stand for

a) Thickness of wire
b) Length of wire
c) The area of thickness of wire
18. The instrument to measure the light is called

a) Tong tester b) Lux meter c) Micro meter
19. 10 hours use of 500 watt lamp will consume the energy
a) 10 units b) 20 units c) 5 units
20. No. of poles in MCB/TPN is

a) 2 poles b) 4 poles c) 3 poles
21. A.C. is converted into D.C. by

a) Dynamo b) Motor.
c) Transformer d) Rectifier
22. Farad is a unit of

a) Flux b) Capacitance
c) Mutual inductance d) Resistance of a conductor
23. A kilowatt-hour is a unit of

a) Energy b) Electrical potential
c) Power d) Electric current
24. An electric lamp is marked 100 watt. It is working on 200 Volts. The current through
the lamp is given as
a) 0.5 Amp.
b) 0.2 Amp.
c) 5.0 Amp.
d) 1.0 Amp.
25. Before carrying out O/H maintenance following is due

a) Transformer is switched off
b) DG set is switched off
c) HT panel is switched off
d) Respective O/H feeder is switched off or earthed
26. In house wiring the red wire indicates the

(a) Phase (b) Neutral
(c) Earth wire (d) Dead wire.
27. In house wiring the black wire indicates the

(c) Earth wire (d) Dead wire
28. In house wiring the green wire indicates the
(c) Earth wire (d) Dead wire.
29. In 4 wire electric circuit, the black conductor is used for

(c) Earth wire (d) Armour
30. In cabling system the earth is connected with conductor having colour
(a) Red (b) blue
(c) yellow (d) Armour
31. Unit of current is

(a) Watt (b) Ampere
(c) Volt (d) ohm
32. Heater element is made up of

(a) Tin (b) Nichrome
(c) Silver (d) Any above
33. Filament of incandescent lamp is made of

(a) Tin (b) Nichrome
(c) Tungusten (d) Silver
34. An insulator should have

(a) High resistance (b) High conductance
(c) High conductivity (d) All of the above
35. Which of the following is used to make electric connections

(a) Solder (b) PG clamp
(c) Thimbles (d) All above
36. Instrument used for measuring the speed of rotating machines/ appliances is
(a) Lux meter (b) Tachometer
(c) Micrometer (d) None above
37. Instrument used for measuring the thickness of wire/strip is

(a) Lux meter (b) Tachometer
(c) Micrometer (d) None above
38. Instrument used for measuring the voltage across a circuit is

(a) Ammeter (b) voltmeter
(c) Thermometer (d) None above
39. Instrument used for measuring the current is
40. Instrument used for measuring the temperature is

41. Illumination level is measured in terms of

(a) Lux (b) Volt
(c) Ampere (d) Ohm
42. Insulating resistance is measured by using
(a) Multimeter (b) Megger
(c) Voltmeter (d) Hydrometer
43. Which of the following is used for rectification of AC supply

(a) Diodes (b) Transistors
(c) Capacitor (d) Resistors
44. Which preparation should be done starting a new wiring

(a) Prepare a wiring diagram
(b) Prepare for shock treatment
(c) Both a & b
45 In wiring circuit the fuse will be placed on

(c) Earth (d) Any of the above
46 Which of the following tests should be done before connecting a wiring to the main
line
(a) IR test (b) Continuity test
(c) Polarity test (d) Any above
47 Which of the following is a common wiring fault

(a) Short circuit (b) Open circuit
(c) Fuse blown (d) All above
48 Wattage rating range of electric kettle is

(a) 50-500 W (b) 350-1000 W
(c) 1000-1500 W (d) 1200-1600 W
49 Device used for auto off an electric iron is

(a) Thermostat switch (b) Overload relay
(c) Time delay switch (d) Any of the above
50 Can you repair an immersion rod

(a) No (b) Yes
(c) It depend on condition (d) None above.
51 A wire gauge is used to measure diameter of
(a) Wire (b) cable
(c) OH conductor (d) Any above
52 To improve the power factor, capacitors are connected in the circuit as

(a) Parallel path (b) Series path
(c) Any of a & b (d) None of the above
53 To switch ON or switch OFF the supply in accordance with day light, following is
used
(a) Light dependent resistor (b) Light emitting diode
54 In order to draw more current from the electric source

(a) Resistors are connected in parallel
(b) Resistors are connected in series
(c) Resistors are connected in series and parallel
(d) None of the above.
55 If a 60 W and 100 W lamps in series and are connected to a source of supply, which
lamp will give more light
(a) 100 W (b) 60 W
(c) Both will give same light (d) None of the bulb will glow.
56 Power is defined as
(a) Capacity of doing work (b) Rate of doing work
(c) Product of force and distance (d) Energy dissipated by load.
57 Unit of electric power is

(a) Kilowatt (b) watt
(c) Kilowatt hour (d) watt hour
58 The internal resistance of battery is increased by

(a) Increase in no. of cells
(b) Decrease in no. of cells
(c) None of the above
59 A generators converts
(a) Mechanical energy into light
(b) Electrical energy to mechanical energy
(c) Mechanical energy to electrical energy
60 Power factor of AC circuit is equal to

(a) Tan of phase angle (b) Sine of phase angle
(c) Cosine of phase angle (d) None of the above
61 Resistance of open circuit is equal to

(a) Zero (b) Infinity
(c) Less than 1 ohm (d) None above
62 Laminated core is used to reduce
(a) Hysteresis loss (b) Eddy current loss
(c) Copper loss ` (d) iron loss
63 Which of the following is not a non conventional energy source

(a) Solar (b) Bio gas
(c) Wind (d) Electricity
64 Solar energy is used for

(a) Lighting (b) Cooking
(c) Battery charging (d) All above
65 Solar and wind hybrid system is

(a) Becoming popular (b) Not possible
(c) Conventional energy source (d) None of the above
66 Bio gas depends on

(a) Electrical energy (b) Waste products
(c) Both a and b (d) None of the above
67 Which of the following is not a constituent of a solar lighting system

(a) Photo voltaic cell (b) Back up batteries
(c) Charger (d) Earth wire.
68 Which of the following is not a type of fuse

(a) HRC (b) Rewirable
(c) Ceramic (d) None above.
69 Which of the following is not a type of generating station?

(a) Thermal (b) Nuclear
(c) Hydro (d) Atmospheric
70 Which of the following is not a part of overhead distribution line

(a) Conductor (b) Insulator
(c) Cross arms (d) Thimbles
71 Type of insulator not used in a 3 phase, 440 V overhead distribution line

(a) Pin (b) Shackle
(c) Disc (d) None above
72 Instrument connected in the circuit with the ammeter (in panel) to facilitate the
measurement of current is
(a) Current transformer (b) Potential transformer
(c) Excitation transformer (d) None of the above
73 Capacitor opposes
(a) Instantaneous change of voltage (b) Instantaneous change of current
(c) Instantaneous change in resistance (d) None of the above
74 Inductor opposes
(a) Instantaneous change of voltage
(b) Instantaneous change of current
(c) Instantaneous change in resistance
75 Current is
(a) Rate of flow of charge (b) Gradual change in resistance
(c) Linear change in capacitance (d) None of the above.
76 When resistances are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance

(a) Decreases (b) Increases
(c) No change (d) May increase or decrease
77 When resistances are connected in series, the equivalent resistance

78 Diode allows the flow of the current

(a) In one direction (b) In both the directions
(c) Flow of current not allowed (d) None of the above.
79 When capacitances are connected in parallel, the equivalent capacitance

(c) no change (d) May increase or decrease
80 When capacitances are connected in series, the equivalent capacitance

81 Two lamps of 60 W and one of 100 W are connected in series to a supply 220 V, the
current flowing in the circuit will be
(a) 1A (b) 2A
(c) 3A (d) 4A
82 A 2 x 40 W box type fitting glows for 10 hrs in a day, units consumed per day will
be
(a) 0.72 (b) 0.04
(c) 0.8 (d) 1
83 A 2 x 40 W box type fitting glows for 10 hrs in a day, electric charges for the month
of June @ Rs. 3/- per unit will be Rs.
(a) 18 (b) 3.60
(c) 72 (d) 90
84 One ordinary ceiling fan works for 12 hrs in a day, units consumed per day will be
(a) 0.72 (b) 0.04
(c) 0.8 (d) 1
85 One ordinary ceiling fan works for 12 hrs in a day, electric charges per day @ Rs. 2/-
per unit will be
(a) 0.72 (b) 1.44
(c) 0.8 (d) 1
86 One 20 inch desert cooler (150 W) works for 8 hrs per day, units consumed per day
will be
(a) 1.2 (b) 1.8
(c) 2.1 (d) 2.4
87 One 20 inch desert cooler (150 W) works for 8 hrs per day, electric charges gor the
month of July @ Rs. 3/- per unit will be
(a) 111. 6 (b) 110.2
(c) 90 (d) 115.3
88 A geyser of 25 ltrs., 1500 W remains ON for 2 hrs per day, units consumed for 6
months will be
(a) 540 (b) 480
(c) 620 (d) 700
89 One 60 w lamp and 2 fans works for 10 hrs per day, units consumed per day will be
(a) 1.8 (b) 2.1
(c) 1.7 (d) 3
90 A 10 hp pump works for 10 hrs per day, monthly consumption will be

(a) 223.8 (b) 2.23
(c) 22.38 d) 2238
91 A grinders in a factory, equipped with 1.5 hp motor, works for 6 hrs per day, the
units consumed per day will be
(a) 5.490 (b) 6.714
(c) 2388 (d) 1940
92 Internal resistance of a cell is 0.1 ohm and 10 cells are connected in series to form a
battery supplying a current of 1 A, the power lost in the battery is
(a) 0.5 W (b) 1 W
(c) 5 W (d) 50 W
93 The resistance of human body lies between

(a) 100-200 ohm (b) 5 K ohm-50 K ohm
(c) 1 M ohm-10 M ohm (d) 100 k ohm-500 K ohm
94 Instrument used to measure electric energy consumption is

(a) Galvanometer (b) Potentiometer
(c) Energy meter (d) None of the above
95 Which of the following keeps the poles straight

(a) Stay rod (b) Cross arm
(c) Conductor (d) Insulator
96 Inside the geyser there is a

(a) Filament (b) Immersion rod
97 Which of the following is used for concealed wiring in a house

(a) PVC conduit (b) GI pipe
(c) Spun concrete pipe (d) Any of the above.
98 The size of copper wire used for point wiring in sq mm is

(a) 1.5 (b) 2.5
(c) 4 (d) 10
99 The size of copper wire used for sub main in sq mm is

(a) 1.5 (b) 2.5
(c) 4 (d) 10
100 The size of Aluminium wire used for point wiring in sq mm is

(a) 1.5 (b) 2.5
(c) 4 (d) 10
101 The combined Earth resistance of 33kV/11 kV receiving station should not exceed
(a) 1 ohm (b) 2 ohms
(c) 10 ohms (d) 20 ohms
102 The combined earth resistance of 11 kV/415 V Sub-station should not exceed
(a) 0.5 ohm (b) 2 ohms
(c) 10 ohms (d) 20 ohms
103 The integration time employed by supply authorities for recording M.D. for a 33
kV/415 V, 10 MVA Sub-station is –
(a) 5 minutes
(c) 45 minutes
(b) 15 minutes
(d) 60 minutes
104 While designing a sub-station anticipated future loads in the next … years are taken
(a) 1 year (b) 2 years
(c) 20 years (d) 5-7 years
105 As per the present Tariff the minimum power factor of sub-station should be
(a) 0.8
(c) 0.90
(b) 0.85
(d)0.95
106 The minimum clearance of lowest conductor from the ground of 33 kV lines, across
the load.
(a) 3 M (b) 4 M
(c) 6.1 M (d) 14 M
107 The minimum clearance of lowest conductor from the ground of 33 kV lines, along a
street.
(a) 5.8 M
(b) 4.0 M
(c) 3.0 M
(d) 14 M
108. The minimum vertical clearance from 11 kV line to any part of building.
(a) 2.0 M (b) 10.M
(c) 3.7 M (d) 6.0 M
109. The minimum Horizontal clearance of 11 kV lines from any buildings.

(a) 1.2 M
(c) 6.1 M
(b) 3.7 M
(d) 10 M
110. The Visible, Audible, Partial discharge at the surface of conductor at high
voltage is called –
(a) Skin affect
(c) Creep
(b) Corona
(d) None of these
111. For maintaining power supply quantity the frequency variation of power supply are
restricted to
(a) ± 1 % (b) ± 3 %
(c) ± 0.5% (d) ± 10%
112. The 3 phase voltage unbalance in supply should not exceed

(a) 2.5.% to 5% (b) 20%
(c) 25% (d) 10%
113. For maintaining power supply quality the rate of change of frequency should not
exceed.
(a) 5 Hz/Sec. (b) 10 Hz/Sec
(c) 1 HZ/Sec (d) 3 Hz/ Sec.
114. In Thermal Power plants the generator used are

(a) AC 3 Ø, Induction Generators.
(b) AC 3 Ø, Synchronous Generators.
(c) D.C. Shunt Generators.
(d) AC 1 Ø Synchronous Generators.
115. The highest system voltage of normal 33 kV System for the purpose of design of
equipments is
(a) 30 kV. (b) 36 kV.
(c) 33 kV. (d) 66 kV.
116. The Rod gap on the L.V.side of 11 kV/415, 250 kVA Transformer is
(a) 300 mm. (b) 100 mm.
(c) 50 mm. (d) Rod gap L.A. is not provided for LV side of Transformer.
117. The rated voltage of L.A. for 11 kV/415V Transformer Protection is
(a) 11 kV. (b) 12 kV.
(c) 9 kV. (d) 24 kV.
118. For medium sized 11 kV/415 v, 500 kVA Transformer sub-station, the type of L.A.
used are
(a) Station type. (b) Line type.
(c) Distribution type. (d) None of these.
119. The line type L.A. used for our 11 kV and 33 kV Sub-station are having a standard
normal discharge current (Peak).
(a) 5 KA. (b) 10 KA.
(c) 1.5 KA. (d) 2.5 KA.
120. The span of supports for 11 kV over head lines should not exceed.
(a) 100 m. (b) 65 m.
(c) 30 m. (d) 27 m.
121. The testing of relays should be performed at a interval of

(a) 6 months (b) 12 months
(c) 18 months (d) 24 months
122. If any live conductor in the circuit is entangled with tree branch ______ operates.
(a) EFR (b) OVR
(c) OLR (d) Thermal relay
123. _______ relay operates if there is a heavy increase in load current.

(a) EFR (b) OVR
124. _______ relay indicates the temperature rise of a transformer.

(a) EFR (b) OVR
125. If the relay setting of 60/5 CT is at 3.75, then the tripping will be at
(a) 60 Amp. (b) 45 Amp.
(c) 30 Amp.
126. The normal SPG of electrolyte of lead acid battery should be

(a) 1.160 (b) 1.180 (c) 1.220 (d) 1.240
127. The terminal voltage of a fully charged lead acid cell is

(a) 1.8 V (b) 2.0 V (c) 2.2 V (d) 2.4 V
128. The terminal voltage of a lead acid cell should not fall below
(a) 1.6 V (b) 1.8 V (c) 2.0 V (d) 2.2 V
129. The normal charging rate of 120 AH lead acid battery set is
(a) 4 A (b) 8 A (c) 12 A (d) 16 A
130. The ratio of distil water and acid used to prepare new electrolyte for lead
acid cell is
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 4 : 1
131. Following law is applicable in the working of lead acid cell

(a) Faradays law of self induction.
(b) Faradays law of mutual induction
(c) Faradays law of electrolysis.
(d) Newton’s law of motion.
132. The capacity of storage battery is expressed as

(a) No. of recharges it can take
(b) Time for which it can be used
(c) No. of cells it contain
(d) Ampere hour it can deliver.
133. Sedimentation in lead acid cell occurs due to

(a) Overcharging at high rate.
(b) Slow charging at low rate.
(c) Over discharge at low rate.
(d) Non-utilization for long periods.
134. Even when not in use, a lead acid battery should be recharged once in
(a) Six week (b) Six days
(c) Three months (d) Six months.
135. First step to be carried out before starting work starting work on faulty portion of
overhead line is to
(a) Earth the line on both the ends of the portion
(b) Obtain the permit to work
(c) Bring ladder or crane
(d) Climb on the pole immediately
136. Before starting the work on faulty circuit it should be ensured that
(a) The faulty portion has been isolated from the power supply
(b) The worker is strong enough to climb the pole
(c) The cable is not deep enough to dig
(d) None of the above.
137. The electric overhead line on which work is to be carried out should be necessarily
earthed on both the ends to
(a) Dispense the charge stored between the conductors due to capacitive effect
(b) To bring the line at zero potential
(c) Both a & b
138. One can protect himself from electric shock while working on live circuit by wearing
gloves of good
(a) Conducting material
(b) Insulating material
(c) Semiconductor material
(d) Any of the above.
139. Which of the following are principal safety precautions
(a) Don’t touch live wire or equipment with bare hands
(b) Before switching on supply, see no one is working in the line
(c) Use rubber gloves and meeting.
(d) All of the above.
140. Which of the following is most effective method of artificial respiration

(a) Mouth to mouth air pumping method
(b) To use bicycle air pump
(c) Both a & b
141. Which material is recommended as fire extinguisher in electrical cases

(a) Carbon tetra chloride
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Sulphur hexafluoride
(d) Any of the above
142. Which of the following is to be necessarily kept in a electric substation

(a) First aid box
(b) Stretcher
(c) Earthing rod
(d) All of the above
143. The warning board to be provided, on the switch of the line on which work is going
on
(a) Man working
(b) Danger
(c) Keep away
144. Staff competent to work on overhead line of MV should be

(a) Unskilled
(b) Semi skilled
(c) Highly skilled
(d) Any of the above
145. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?

a) coal b) oil c) Natural gas d) Solar
146. The law of conservation of energy states that energy

a) can be created and destroyed
b) is destroyed in the process of burning
c) cannot be converted from one
d) is neither destroyed nor created form to another
147. Absolute pressure is

a) Gauge Pressure
b) Atmospheric Pressure
c) Gauge pressure + Atmospheric Pressure
d) Gauge Pressure – Atmospheric Pressure
148. 100 kCals expressed as kilojoules would be

a) 418.7 kJ b) 4.187 Joules
c) 4.187 kJ d) 41.87 kJ
149. When heat flows from one place to another by means of a liquid or gas, it is being
transferred by
a) radiation b) conduction
c) sublimation d) convection
150. How many watts are in a hp?

a) 700 b) 725 c) 740 d) 746
151. The characteristic of an electrical circuit that forces current to flow is

a) watts b) amps c) ohms d) volts
152. Voltage and resistance in an electrical circuit are related by Ohm's law and determine
a) resistance b) voltage c) the type of circuit d) current
153. The characteristic of an electrical circuit that opposes current flow is

a) resistance b) voltage c) friction d) power
154. The instrument used to measure RPM is

a) Fyrite b) Pyrometer
c) Ultrasonic flow meter d) Stroboscope
155. Which of the following terms does not refer to specific energy consumption
a) Kwh/ton b) kcal/kL c) kJ/kg d) kg
156. Which of the following will not motivate the employees for energy conservation ?
a) Incentive b) Recognition c) Reward d) Threatening
157. The heat input required for generating ‘one’ kilo watt-hour of electrical output is
called as ___.
a) Efficiency b) Heat Rate c) Calorific Value d) Heat value
158. Which of the voltage is not available for Indian distribution system?
a) 33 kV b) 11 kV c) 280 V d) 433 V
159. The power loss in transmission/distribution line depends on ____.

a) Current in the line b) Resistance of the line c) Length of the line d) All
160. If distribution of power is raised from 11 kV to 66 kV, the voltage drop would lower
by
a) 6 times b) 1/6 times c) 36 times d) 1/36 times
161. If the distribution voltage is raised from 11 kV to 33 kV, the line loss would be:
a) Less by 1/9 b) More by 9 times c) No change d) None of the above
162. The maximum demand of an industry, if trivector motor records 3600 KVA for 15
minutes and 3000 kVA for next 15 minutes over a recording cycle of 30 minutes
is_____.
a) 3600 kVA b) 3000 kVA c) 3300 kVA d) 600 kVA
163. Presenting the load demand of a consumer against time of the day is known as___.
a) Time Curve b) Load curve c) Demand curve d) Energy curve
164. The vector sum of active power and reactive power required is ____.
a) Apparent Power b) Power Factor c) Load Factor d) Maximum Demand
165. Power factor is the ratio of ____ and apparent power.

a) Active power b) Reactive power c) Load Factor d) Maximum Demand
166. The kVAr rating required for improving the power factor of a load operating at 500
kW and 0.85 power factor to 0.95 is ________.
a) 145 kVAr b) 500 kVAr c) 50 kVAr d) 100 kVAr
167. The rating of the capacitor at motor terminals should not be greater than _____ .
a) magnetizing kVAr of the motor at full load
b) magnetizing kVAr of the motor at no load
c) magnetizing kVAr of the motor at half load
d) magnetizing kVAr of the motor at 75% load
168. The percentage reduction in distribution loses when tail end power factor raised from
0.8 to 0.95 is ________.
a) 29% b) 15.8% c) 71% d) 84%
169. If voltage applied to a 415 V rated capacitors drops by 10%, its VAR output drops
by ____.
a) 23% b) 87% c) 19% d) 10%
170. The ratio between the number of turns on the primary to the turns on the secondary
of a transformer is know as:
a) turns ratio b) efficiency
c) winding factor d) power factor
171. The ratio of overall maximum demand of the plant to the sum of individual
maximum demand of various equipments is ______.
a) load factor b) diversity Factor
c) demand Factor d) maximum demand
172. Core losses in transformer are caused by ______.

a) Hysteresis loss b) Eddy current loss c) both a & b d) None
173. The load losses in transformer vary according to ________.

a) Loading of transformer b) Square of loading of transformer
c) Cube of loading of transformer d) None
174. The total losses in a transformer operating at 50% load with designed no load and
load losses at 2 kW and 20 kW respectively are _______.
a) 7 kW b) 12 kW c) 4.5 kW d) 22 kW
175. The total amount of harmonics present in the system is expressed using ___.
a) Total Harmonic Factor b) Total Harmonic Ratio
c) Total Harmonic Distortion d) Crest Factor
176. The 5th and 7th harmonic in a 50 Hz power environment will have:
a) voltage and current distortions with 55 Hz & 57 Hz
b) voltage and current distortions with 500 Hz & 700 Hz
c) voltage and current distortions with 250 Hz & 350 Hz
d) no voltage and current distortion at all
177. The type of energy possessed by the charged capacitor is

a) Kinetic energy b) Electrostatic c) Potential d) Magnetic
178. The energy stored in the bonds of atoms and molecules is called
a) Kinetic energy b) Chemical energy
c) Potential energy d) Magnetic energy
179. Active power consumption of motive drives can be determined by using one of the
following relations.
a) 3 x V x I b) 3 x V2 x I x cos
c) 3 x V x I2 x Cosd) 3 x V x I x Cos
180. The grade of energy can be classified as low, high, extra ordinary. In case of
electrical energy it would fall under ____ category. (EM/EA)
a) low grade b) extra ordinary grade
c) high grade d) none of the above
181. The portion of apparent power that doesn’t do any work is termed as
a) Apparent power b) Active power
c) Reactive Power d) None of the above
182. Power factor (PF) is the ratio of (EM/EA)

a) Apparent power & Active power b) Active power & Reactive power
c) Active Power & Apparent power d) Apparent power & Reactive power
183. kVA is also called as

a) reactive power b) apparent power c) active power d) captive power
184. The energy consumed by a 50 kW motor loaded at 40 kW over a period of 4 hours is

a. 50 kWh b) 160 kWh c) 40 kWh d) 2000 kWh
185. The ratio of maximum demand to the connected load is termed as

a) Load factor b) Demand factor
c) Contract demand d) none of the above
186. A single phase induction motor is drawing 10 amps at 230 volts. If the operating
power factor of the motor is 0.9, then the power drawn by the motor is
a) 2.3 kW b) 3.58 kW c) 2.07 kW d) 2.70 kW
187. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 OC is
termed as
a) Specific heat b) Heat capacity c) One Calorie d) Sensible heat
188. Nameplate kW or HP rating of a motor indicates

a) input kW to the motor b) output kW of the motor
c) minimum input kW to the motor d) maximum input kW to the motor
189. The quantity of heat required to change 1 kg of the substance from liquid to vapor state
without change of temperature is termed as
a) Latent heat of fusion b) Latent heat of vaporization
c) Heat capacity d) Sensible heat
190. The latent heat of condensation of 1 kg of steam at 100 °C to form water at 100 °C, it
gives
out the heat of
a) 580 kCal b) 540 kCal c) 620 kCal d) 2260 kCal
191. The specific heat of ____ is very high compared to other common substances listed
below.
a) Lead b) Mercury c) Water d) Alcohol
192. The property of viscosity of liquid fuels:
a) decreases with decreasing temperature
b) increases with increasing temperature
c) decreases with increasing temperature
d) increases with decreasing temperature
193. The quantity of heat Q, supplied to a substance to increase its temperature depends upon
the
following.
a) sensible heat added b) latent heat of fusion
c) specific heat of the substance d) heat capacity
194. Unit of specific heat in SI system is_________.

a) joule /kg °C b) kg/cm2 c) kcal/m3 d) kcal/cm2
195. The change by which any substance is converted from a gaseous state to liquid state is
termed as -----
a) condensation b) Evaporation c) Fusion d) Phase change
196. The method of producing power by utilizing steam generated for process in the boiler is
termed as -----
a) Extraction b) Cogeneration c) Both a & b d) Neither a nor b
ANSWER
1 - b 2 - a 3 - b 4 - c 5 – b 6 – c 7 - d 8 - b 9 - d 10 - c 11 - d 12 - b
13 - a 14 - c 15 - b 16 - b 17 – c 18 – b 19 - c 20 – b 21 –d 22 - b 23 - a 24 - a
25 - d 26 - a 27 - b 28 - c 29 - b 30 – d 31 - b 32 - b 33 - c 34 - a 35 - d 36 -b
37 - c 38 - b 39 - a 40 - c 41 – a 42 – b 43 - a 44 - a 45 - a 46 - a 47 – d 48 - b
49 - a 50 - a 51 - a 52 - a 53 - a 54 – a 55 - b 56 - b 57 - c 58 - a 59 - c 60 - c
61 - b 62 - b 63 - d 64 - d 65 - a 66 – b 67 – d 68 - c 69 - d 70 - d 71 - c 72 - a
73 - a 74 - b 75 - a 76 – a 77 - b 78 – a 79 - b 80 - a 81 - a 82 - c 83 - c 84 - a
85 - b 86 - a 87 - a 88 - a 89 - a 90 – d 91 - b 92 - b 93 - d 94 - c 95 - a 96 - b
97 - a 98 - a 99 - b 100 - c 101 - a 102 – b 103 - b 104 - d 105 - c 106 - c 107 - a 108 - c
109 - b 110 - b 111 - b 112 - a 113 - c 114 – b 115 - b 116 - d 117 - c 118 - b 119 - a 120 – c
121 - b 122 - a 123 - c 124 - d 125 - b 126 – c 127 - c 128 - b 129 - c 130 - d 131 - c 132 - d
133 - a 134 - a 135 - b 136 - a 137 - c 138 – b 139 - d 140 - a 141 - b 142 - d 143 - a 144 - c
145 - d 146 - d 147 - c 148 - a 149 - d 150 – d 151 - d 152 - d 153 - a 154 - d 155 - d 156 - d
157 - b 158 - c 159 - d 160 - b 161 - a 162 – c 163 - b 164 - a 165 - a 166 - a 167 - b 168 - a
169 - c 170 - c 171 - b 172 - c 173 - b 174 – a 175 - c 176 - c 177 - b 178 - b 179 - d 180 – c
181 - c 182 - c 183 - b 184 - b 185 - b 186 – c 187 - c 188 - b 189 - b 190 - b 191 - c 192 - c
193 - c 194 - a 195 - a 196 - b
EARTHING
1. The code of practice for earthing is governed by

(a) IS: 3043 (b) IS: 4340 (c) IS: 4340 (d) IS: 4430
2. The length of pipe electrode used for earthing should not be less than
(a) 3.5 m (b) 4 m (c) 4.5 m (d) 5 m
3. As per IS, the earthing electrode shall not be within a distance of ______ mtrs from
any building being earthed.
(a) 0.5 m (b) 1 m (c) 1.5 m (d) 2 m
4. Maximum permissible earth resistance at large power stations is

(a) 0.5 ohm (b) 1 ohm (c) 2 ohms (d) 8 ohms
5. Maximum permissible earth resistance at major power stations is

6. Maximum permissible earth resistance at small power stations is

7. Maximum permissible earth resistance for buildings is

8. Earth continuity inside an installation i.e. from plate earth to any point in installation
should be
9 The plate electrode of copper used for earthing should be with minimum size of
(a) 50cm x 50cm x 3.15mm (b) 50cm x 50cm x 6.3mm
(c) 60cm x 60cm x 3.15mm (d) 60cm x 60cm x 6.3mm
10 The plate electrode of GI or steel used for earthing should be with minimum size of
(a) 50cm x 50cm x 3.15mm (b) 50cm x 50cm x 6.3mm
(c) 60cm x 60cm x 3.15mm (d) 60cm x 60cm x 6.3mm
11 In pipe earthing, the minimum internal diameter for GI pipe should be
(a) 30 mm (b) 40 mm (c) 50 mm (d) 60 mm
12 In pipe earthing, the minimum internal diameter for cast iron pipe should be
(a) 80 mm (b) 90 mm (c) 100 mm (d) 60 mm
13 Copper strip electrodes used for earthing should not be less than
(a) 22.5 mm x 1.60 mm (b) 20 mm x 2.5 mm
(c) 25 x 1.60 mm (d) 25 mm x 2.5 mm
14 GI or Steel strip electrodes used for earthing should not be less than
(a) 25 mm x 4mm (b) 20 mm x 3 mm
(c) 25mm x 3mm (d) 20mm x 4mm
15 Earthing arrangement for HT installations, substations and generating stations should

be inspected at an interval of
(a) 3 months (b) 6 months (c) 9 months (c) 12 months
16 Earthing arrangement for low voltage installations such as service builsings, public
buildings should be inspected at an interval of
17 Earthing arrangement for residential buildings should be inspected at an interval of

18 Earthing arrangement for medium voltage installations should be inspected at an

interval of
ANSWER
1-a 2-b 3-c 4-a 5-b 6-c 7-d 8-b 9-c 10-d 11-b 12-c 13-c 14-a 15-d 16-b 17-b 18-d
D.G. SET
1 If a DG set fails to start, the probable cause may be
(a) Dirty clogged air cleaner (b) Fuel tank empty
(c) Nozzle niddle jammed (d) All of the above
2 If a DG set starts but stop after some time, the probable cause may be
(a) Air in fuel (b) Fuel line choke
(c) Fuel filter choked (d) All of the above
3 If a DG set is not gaining full speed, the probable cause may be

(a) Fuel tank empty (b) Governor spring broken
(c) Fuel filter dirty (d) All of the above
4 If a DG set misses during operation, the probable cause may be

(a) Air in fuel line (b) Nozzle damaged
(c) Water mixed with fuel (d) All of the above
5 If a DG set lacks power, the probable cause may be

(a) Pump may inject insufficient quantity of fuel (b) Poor quality of fuel
(c) Dirty cooling system (d) All of the above
6 If a DG set gives excessive smoke at no load, the probable cause may be

(a) Dirty clogged air cleaner (b) choked fuel injection hole
(c) Faulty fuel pump (d) All of the above
7 If a DG set excessive smoke at full load, the probable cause may be

(a) One or more cylinder not working (b) Poor quality of oil
(c) Nozzle jammed (d) All of the above
8 If a DG set gives out blue smoke, the probable cause may be

(a) Worn out liner on piston (b) Wrong graded lubricating oil
(c) Engine used after a long time (d) All of the above
9 If a DG set gives white smoke, the probable cause may be

(a) Water mixed with fuel (b) Engine used after a long time
(c) Worn out liner piston (d) All of the above
10 If a DG set overheats, the probable cause may be

(a) high exhaust back pressure (b) Engine overloaded
(c) Damaged main or connecting bearings (d) All of the above
11 If a DG set consumes excessive fuel, the probable cause may be

(a) Injector adjustment disturbed (b) External/internal fuel leakage
(c) Incorrect value of fuel timing (d) All of the above
12 If the alternator of DG set is overheats, the probable cause may be

(a) Improper ventilation (b) Misalignment
(c) Overloading of machine (d) All of the above
13 If the armature of DG set overheats, the probable cause may be

(a) Overloading (b) Internal short circuit
(c) Both a & b (d) None of the above
14 The maximum rated speed for 125 kVA Cummins make DG set is
(a) 1500 rpm (b) 1800 rpm (c) 2100 rpm (d) 2500 rpm
15 The oil temperature gauge of a DG set should normally read between
(a) 82-116 deg C (b) 90-125 deg C (c) 100-140 deg (d) 122-148 deg C
16 During warming up, the load should be applied gradually on a DG set until the oil
temperature reaches
(a) 40 deg C (b) 60 deg C (c) 80 deg C (d) 100 deg C
17 The water temperature of DG set in operation should normally range between

(a) 60-80 deg C (b) 74-91 deg C (d) 88-98 deg C (d) 95-110 deg C
18 The pH value of the coolant in the radiator of a DG set should be maintained

between
(a) 6.5 to 8.5 (b) 8.5 to 10.5 (c) 10.5 to 12.5 (d) 12.5 to 14.5
19 The diesel engine should not be operated if the pH value in the radiator is less than
(a) 6.5 (b) 8.5 (c) 10.5 (d) 12.5
20 Primary filters in the fuel system of the DG set should be cleaned at every
(a) 150 hrs (b) 200 hrs (c) 250 hrs (d) 300 hrs
21 Primary filters in the fuel system of the DG set should be replaced at every
(a) 500 hrs (b) 800 hrs (c) 1000 hrs (d) 1500 hrs
22 The secondary fuel filter of a DG set should be replaced when the fuel pressure
gauge is below
(a) 10 psi (b) 12 psi (c) 15 psi (d) 20 psi
23 The exciter in a DG set is

(a) Shunt motor (b) Compound generator
(c) Either of a or b (d) None of the above.
24. The compression ratio in diesel engines is in the range of:

a) 10:1 to 15:1 b) 14:1 to 25:1 c) 5:1 to 10:1 d) 1:2 to 3:1
25. Which of the following is the last step in diesel engine operation?
a) Induction stoke b) Compression stroke c) Ignition stroke d) Exhaust stroke
26. The power requirement of the DG set is determined by:

a) base load b) Maximum load c) Partial load d) Zero load
27. Present specific fuel consumption value of DG sets in industries is about ____.
a) 220 g/kWh b) 100 g/kWh c) 160 g/kWh d) 50 g/kWh
28. The efficiency of diesel generating set falls in the region of:
a) 35 – 45% b) 50 – 60% c) 65 – 70% d) Above 80%
29. Auxiliary power consumption of DG set at full load in its operating capacity is about
_____.
a) 1 - 2% b) 5 – 6% c) 10 - 12% d)Above 15%
30. The rating required for a DG set with 500 kW connected load and with diversity factor of
1.5, 80% loading and 0.8 power factor is _____
a) 520 kVA b) 600 kVA c) 625 kVA d) 500 kVA
31. The starting current value of DG set should not exceed__% of full load capacity of DG
set.
a) 100 b) 200 c) 150 d) 300
32. The maximum permissible percentage unbalance in phase loads on DG sets is____
a) 5% b) 15% c) 10% d) 1%
33. The permissible percentage overload on DG sets for 1 hour in every 12 hours of operation
is____
a) 5% b) 15% c) 10% d) 1%
34. Designed power factor of a DG set is generally at:

a) 1.0 b) 0.8 c) 0.9 d) 1.1
35. Lower power factor of a DG set demands_____

a) Lower excitation currents b) Higher excitation currents
c) No change in excitation currents d) None of the above
36. Which of the following losses is the least in DG sets:

a) cooling water loss b) exhaust loss
c) frictional loss d) alternator loss
37. The waste heat potential for a 1100 kVA set at 800 kW loading and with 480 °C exhaust
gas
temperature is ____
a) 4.8 lakh kCal/hr b) 3.5 lakh kCal/hr c) 3 lakh kCal/hr d) 2 lakh kCal/hr
38. Typical exit flue gas temperature of 5 MW DG set operating above 80% load is of the
order
of ____.
a) 550 to 560 °C b) 210 to 240 °C c) 340 to 370 °C d) 400 to 450 °C
39. The maximum back pressure allowed for DG sets is in the range of____.
a) 100 – 200 mm WC b) 250 – 300 mm WC
c) 400 – 500 mm WC d) above 500 mm WC
40. The operating efficiency of DG set also depends on:

a) turbo charger b) Inlet air temperature c) % loading d) all the above
41. For a DG set, the copper losses in the alternator are proportional to the:
a) Current delivered by the alternator
b) Square of the current delivered by the alternator
c) Square root of the current delivered by the alternator
d) None of the above
42. The jacket cooling water temperature for DG sets should be in the range of ________
a) 40 – 50° C b) 30 – 40°C c) 80 – 90°C d) 45 – 60°C
43. The main precaution to be taken care by the waste heat recovery device manufacture to
prevent the problem in DG set during operation is:
a) Temperature raises b) Back pressure
c) Over loading of waste heat recovery tubes d) Turbulence of exhaust gases
ANSWERS
1-d 2-d 3-d 4-d 5-a 6-d 7-d 8-d 9-a 10-d 11-d 12-d 13-c 14-c 15-a 16-b 17-b 18-b 19-b 20-c
21-b 22-b 23-a 24-b 25-d 26-b 27-c 28-a 29-a 30-a 31-b 32-c 33-c 34-b 35-b 36-d 37-a 38-c
39-b 40-d 41-b 42- 43-b
INDIAN ELECTRICITY RULES
1 The maximum variation allowed in voltage of LV & MV AC supply is

(a) ± 2 % (b) ± 3 % (c) ± 4 % (d) ± 5 %
2 The maximum variation allowed in voltage of HV & EHV AC supply is

(a) ± 8.5 % (b) ± 10.5 % (c) ± 12.5 % (d) ± 14.5 %
3 The maximum variation allowed in frequency of AC supply is

(a) ± 2 % (b) ± 3 % (c) ± 4 % (d) ± 5 %
4 Clearance of the lowest conductor (across the street) from the ground for LT and MT
lines should be
(a) 17 ft. (b) 18 ft. (c) 19 ft. (d) 20 ft.
5 Clearance of the lowest conductor (across the street) from the ground for HT lines
should be
(a) 17 ft. (b) 18 ft. (c) 19 ft. (d) 20 ft.
6 Clearance of the lowest conductor (along the street) from the ground for LT and MT
lines should be
(a) 17 ft. (b) 18 ft. (c) 19 ft. (d) 20 ft.
7 Clearance of the lowest conductor (along the street) from the ground for HT lines
should be
(a) 17 ft. (b) 18 ft. (c) 19 ft. (d) 20 ft.
8 Clearance of the lowest conductor vertical above the building for LT and MT lines
should be
(a) 4 ft. (b) 6 ft. (c) 8 ft. (d) 12 ft.
9 Clearance of the lowest conductor vertical above the building for HT lines should be
(a) 4 ft. (b) 6 ft. (c) 8 ft. (d) 12 ft.
10 Clearance of the conductor Horizontal from the building for LT and MT lines should
be
(a) 4 ft. (b) 6 ft. (c) 8 ft. (d) 12 ft.
11 Clearance of the conductor Horizontal from the building for HT lines should be
(a) 4 ft. (b) 6 ft. (c) 8 ft. (d) 12 ft.
12 The on line vertical spacing between the conductors for 400/230 V, 150 ft. span lines
should be
(a) 1’3” (b) 1’6” (c) 2’ (d) 2’6”
13 The on line vertical spacing between the conductors for 400/230 V, 150-250 ft. span
lines should be
(a) 1’3” (b) 1’6” (c) 2’ (d) 2’6”
14 The on line vertical spacing between the conductors for 11 kV lines should be
(a) 1’3” (b) 1’6” (c) 2’ (d) 2’6”
15 The on line horizontal spacing between the conductors for 400/230 V, 150 ft. span
lines should be
(a) 1’3” (b) 1’6” (c) 2’ (d) 2’6”
16 The on line horizontal spacing between the conductors for 400/230 V, 150-250 ft.
span lines should be
(a) 1’3” (b) 1’6” (c) 2’ (d) 2’6”
17 The on line horizontal spacing between the conductors for 11 kV lines should be
(a) 1’3” (b) 1’6” (c) 2’6” (d) 3’9”
18 The clearance between the conductor and pole for 400/230 V, 150 ft span lines,
should be
(a) 6” (b) 9” (c) 12” (d) 1’3”
19 The clearance between the conductor and pole for 400/230 V, 150-250 ft span lines,
should be
(a) 6” (b) 9” (c) 12” (d) 1’3”
20 The clearance between the conductor and pole for 11 kV lines, should be
(a) 6” (b) 9” (c) 12” (d) 1’3”
ANSWERS
1-d 2-c 3-b 4-c 5-d 6-b 7-c 8-c 9-d 10-a 11-b 12-b 13-c 14-c 15-a 16-b 17-d 18-a 19-b 20-c
POLICY
1 Provision of rebate by state electricity authority is applicable if the power factor is
kept above
(a) 0.9 (b) 0.92 (c) 0.95 (d) 0.98
2. Penalty is imposed by state electricity authority if the power factor is below

(a) 0.9 (b) 0.92 (c) 0.95 (d) 0.98
3 Electric energy charges from the railway employees residing in railway colonies are
at
(a) Flat rate
(b) Fixed rate
(c) Average consumption
(d) The rate that of local supply authority
4 Electric energy charges from the staff/ teachers of Kendriya Vidhyalaya residing in
railway colonies is at
(a) Flat rate
(b) Fixed rate
(d) The rate applicable to railway employees
5 Electric energy charges from the social welfare organizations such as railway
institute, community halls, clubs, etc. is at
(a) Flat rate
(b) Fixed rate
(d) The rate applicable to railway employee subject to maximum limit of
consumption.
6 Electric energy charges from the religious buildings (electric supply fed by railway)
such as temples. Mosque etc is at
(a) Flat rate
(b) Fixed rate
(d) The rate that of local supply authority
7 Per day charges from officers on duty (entitled to 1st class AC travel) for occupation
of air conditioned accommodation on railway rest house is Rs.
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
8 Per day charges from officers on leave (entitled to 1st class AC travel) for occupation
of air conditioned accommodation on railway rest house is prescribed room rent plus
Rs.
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
9 Per day charges from officers on duty (entitled to 1st class AC travel) for occupation
of air conditioned accommodation on railway rest house during winter season is Rs.
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) No charges
10 The firms dealing with coin operated person weighing machines has to deposit
security money equivalent to
(a) One month electric charges
(b) Two month electric charges
(c) Three month electric charges
(d) No charges.
11 The private parties applying for electric connection from railways has to deposit
security money equivalent to
(a) One month electric charges
(b) Two month electric charges
(c) Three month electric charges
(d) No charges.
12 As per Railway Board recommendations, following are to be connected with DG set

supply
(a) Vacuum testing plants
(b) Water coolers on platforms
(c) Hospital with operation theatre
(d) All of the above.
13 As per Railway Board recommendations, the stations/ halts should be electrified,

where the electric supply is available within
(a) 1 km (b) 1.5 km (c) 2 km (d) 2.5 km
14 The porters rest centres are treated as
(a) Service building (b) Private building
(c) Passenger amenity (d) None of the above
15 As per Indian Electricity Act, penalty against unauthorised electricity connection is

(a) Imprisonment up to 3 yrs and fine up to Rs. 1000/-
(b) Imprisonment up to 2 yrs and fine up to Rs. 1000/-
(c) Imprisonment up to 3 yrs and fine up to Rs. 1500/-
(d) Imprisonment up to 2 yrs and fine up to Rs. 1500/-
16 Number of geysers that can be provided in officer’s flat (on special request)
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
17 Number of geysers that can be provided in the GM’s bungalow is

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
18 The railway stations at zonal headquarters and state capitals are classified as of
category
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
19 The railway stations at divisional headquarters and district headquarters are

classified as of category
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
20 As per Railway Board recommendations, the light fittings for platform on category
A and B stations are
(a) 1 x 36 W FL tube (b) 2 x 36 W HPSV
(c) 1 x 70 W HPSV (d) 2 x 36 W HPSV
21 As per Railway Board recommendations, the light fittings for platform on category C
stations are
(a) 1 x 36 W FL tube (b) 2 x 36 W HPSV
(c) 1 x 70 W HPSV (d) 2 x 36 W HPSV
22 As per Railway Board recommendations, the light fittings for ASM office, SM
office, enquiry and PRS on category A and B stations are
(a) 2 x 36 W mirror optic FL tube (b) 4 x 36 W mirror optic FL tube
(c) 2 x 36 W box type FL tube (d) 4 x 36 W box type FL tube
23 As per Railway Boards recommendations, the light fittings in station approach and
car parks are
(a) 1 x 70 W HPSV (b) 2 x 70 W HPSV
(c) 1 x 40 W Box type (d) 2 x 40 W box type
24 As per Railway Board recommendations, on platform having width of 9-6 m,

fannage should be provided in
(a) 1 row (b) 2 rows (c) 3 rows (d) 4 rows
25 As per Railway Board recommendations, on platform having width more than 9 m,

fannage should be provided in
(a) 1 row (b) 2 rows (c) 3 rows (d) 4 rows
26 As per Railway Board recommendations, the sweep of fans provided on platforms

should be
(a) 800 mm (b) 1200 mm (c) 1500 mm (d) 1800 mm
27 As per Railway Board recommendations, the sweep of fans provided in offices,

waiting hall etc. should be
(a) 800 mm (b) 1200 mm (c) 1500 mm (d) 1800 mm
28 As per Railway Board recommendations, the sweep of fans provided in retiring

rooms on each bed should be
(a) 800 mm (b) 1200 mm (c) 1500 mm (d) 1800 mm
29 At stations where neither electrical supervisor nor engineering supervisor is

headquartered, the upkeep of pumps in water supply system is under
(a) S & T supervisor (b) Station Master (c) Gangman (d) Pointsman
30 State Electricity Board charges Electricity Duty against selling electricity to railways
amounting Rs.
(a) 10,000/- (b) 50,000/- (c) 75,000/- (d) No charges
31 Railway Board has recommended that locations where HPSV lamps affect the colour
light signalling should be replaced by
(a) Mercury Vapour Lamps
(b) FL tube fittings
(c) Any of A & B
(d) No such recommendation has been made.
32 The maintenance of water coolers donated by private parties is to be done by

(a) The donating party
(b) Railways
(c) On contract
(d) Any of the above.
33 The electrical energy consumption on water coolers donated by private parties are to
be borne by
(a) The donating party
(b) Railways
(c) SEB
(d) Through collection from public
34 The Railway Board has recommended to provide water coolers at stations with
_____ passengers (inward & outward) per day
(a) 500 (b) 1000 (c) 1500 (d) 2000
ANSWERS
1-c 2-a 3-d 4-d 5-d 6-d 7-c 8-c 9-d 10-a 11-c 12-d 13-a 14-a 15-a 16-a 17-b 18-a 19-b 20-c
21-a 22-a 23-a 24-a 25-b 26-d 27-c 28-b 29-b 30-d 31-c 32-b 33-b 34-b
ELECTRICAL UNITS: EQUIVALENTS & FORMULAE
1. One HP =
(a) 756 watts (b) 746 watts (c) 860 watts (d) 856 wats
2. Torque in ft. lbs. =

(a) HP x 33000 / (RPM x 2) (b) HP x 2 / (RPM x 33000)
(b) HP x RPM / (2 x 33000) (d) RPM x 2 / (HP x 33000)
3. Current =
(a) Watts/Volts (b) Volts/Watts
(c) Kilowatt/Volts (d) Kilovolt/watt
4. Motor output in HP=

(a) KW input x efficiency/0.746 (b) KW input x 0.746/efficiency
(c) Efficiency x 0.746/KW input (d) 0.746/(KW input x efficiency)
5. kVA equal to
(a) 1000 x Amps/ volts (b) volts x Amps x 1000
(c) Volts x 1000/Amps (d) Amps x volts/1000
6. Power factor =
(a) True Power/Apparent power (b) Apparent power/True power
(c) Average power/True power (d) Apparent power/Average power
7. True power in three-phase circuit in Kilowatt is

(a) 1.414 x volts x amperes x pf/1000 (b) 1.73 x volts x amperes x pf/1000
(c) Volts x Amperes x pf/1000 (d) Volts x Amperes x 1000/pf
8. Amperes drawn by single-phase motor are equal to

(a) Efficiency x Volts x pf / (HP x 746) (b) Efficiency x pf/(volt x HP x 746)
(c) HP x 746 / (Efficiency x volts x pf) (d) HP x746 x volts/(Efficiency x pf)
9. Amperes drawn by three phase motor are equal to

(a) Efficiency x Volts x pf / (HP x 746) (b) Efficiency x pf/(volt x HP x 746)
(c) HP x 746/(Efficiency x volts x pf x 1.73) (d) HP x 746 x volts/(Efficiency x pf)
10. One Kilowatt =

(a) 1.314 HP (b) 13.41 HP (c) 134.1 HP (d) 1341 HP
11. One Kilowatt =

(a) 1360 Metric HP (b) 136 Metric HP
(c) 13.60 Metric HP (d) 1.360 Metric HP
12. One Kwh =

(a) 34.13 BTU (b) 44.13 BTU
(c) 3.413 BTU (d) 4.413 BTU
13. One Kwh =

(a) 1000 calories (b) 860 calories (c) 740 calories (d) 970 calories
14. One BTU =

(a) 0.2520 calories (b) 2.520 calories (c) 25.20 calories (d) 252.0 calories
15. One Calorie =

(a) 39.68 BTU (b) 4.968 BTU (c) 49.68 BTU (d) 3.968 BTU
16. One foot pound =

(a) 0.1383 M Kg (b) 1.383 M Kg (c) 13.83 M Kg (d) 138.3 M Kg
17. One BTU =

(a) 0.1076 M Kg (b) 1.076 M Kg (c) 10.76 M Kg (d) 107.6 M Kg
18. One Kilowatt =

(a) 202 M Kg/sec (b) 102 M Kg /sec (c) 20.2 M Kg/sec (d) 10.2 M Kg/sec
19. One Electrical Unit =

(a) 1 Kwh (b) 1 Kw (c) 1 kVA (d) Watt
20. Power factor =
(a) R/Z (b) Z/R (c) V/I (d) I/V
21. The current rating of PVC insulated and PVC sheathed four core , armoured
aluminium cable of size 120 sq mm (laid direct in ground) is approximately
(a) 80 amps (b) 185 amps (c) 290 amps (d) 320 amps
aluminium cable of size 70 sq mm (laid in duct) is approximately
aluminium cable of size 50 sq mm (laid in air) is approximately
24 The current rating of PVC insulated and PVC sheathed four core , armoured
25 The current rating of PVC insulated and PVC sheathed four core , armoured
(a) 55 amps (b) 76 amps (c) 90 amps (d) 150 amp
ANSWERS
1-b 2-a 3-a 4-a 5-d 6-a 7-b 8-c 9-c 10-a 11-d 2-c 13-b
14-a 15-d 16-a 17-d 18-b 19-a 20-a 21-b 22-a 23-b 24-a 25-b
CABLES
1. The insulating material for a cable should have

a. low cost b. high dielectric strength
c. high mechanical strength d. all of the above
2. Which of the following protects a cable against mechanical injury

a. bedding b. sheath
c. armouring d. none of he above
3. Which of the following insulation is used in cables?

a. Varnished cambric b. rubber
c. paper d. any of the above
4. Empire tape is
a. varnished cambric b. vulcanized rubber
c. impregnated paper d. none of the above
5. The thickness of the layer on insulation on the conductor, in cables, depends upon
a. bedding b. sheath
c. armouring d. none of he above
6. The bedding on a cable consists of

a. Hessian cloth b. jute
c. any of the above d. none of the above
7. The insulating material for cables should

a. be acid proof b. be non-inflammable
c. be non-hygroscopic d. have all above properties
8. In a cable immediately above metallic sheath……….. is provided

a. earthing connection b. bedding
c. armouring d. none of the above
9. In case of three core flexible cable the colour of the neutral is

a. blue b. black
c. brown d. none of the above
10. Low tension cables are generally used upto

a. 200 V b. 500 V
c. 700 V d. 1000 V
11. PVC stands for

a. polyvinyl chloride b. post varnish conductor
c. pressed and varnished cloth d. positive voltage conductor
e. all above parameters
12 In the cables, the location of fault is usually found out by comparing

a. the resistance of the conductor b. the inductance of conductors
c. the capacitances of insulated
conductors
d. all above parameters
13. The material for armouring on cable is usually

a. steel tape b. galvanized steel wire
c. any of the above d. none of the above
14. In the cables, sheaths are used to
a. prevent the moisture from entering the cable b. provide enough strength
c. provide proper insulation d. none of the above
15. Underground cables are laid at sufficient depth

a. to minimize temperature stresses
b. to avoid being unearthed easily due to removal of soil
c. to minimize the effect of shocks and vibrations due to passing vehicles, etc.
d. for all of the above reasons
16. The advantage of cable over overhead transmission lines is

a. easy maintenance b. low cost
c. can be used in congested areas d. can be used in high voltage circuits
17. The insulating material should have

a. low permittivity b. high resistivity
c. high dielectric strength d. all of the above
18. The disadvantage with paper as insulating material is

a. it is hygroscopic b. it has high capacitance
c. it is an organic material d. none of the above
ANSWERS
1-d 2-c 3-d 4-a 5-c 6-c 7-d 8-b 9-a 10-d 11-a 12-c 13-c
14-a 15-c 16-c 17-d 18-a
1) The process of removing heat from low temperature level and rejecting at high
temperature is called. REFRIGERATION.
2) Any substances for change of its state at constant temperature absorbs/give up
heat is called LATENT HEAT.
3) The sum of sensible heat and latent heat of substance in process is called
ENTHALPY.
4) The latent heat of fusing ice is 144 BTU/LB.
5) The unit of refrigeration is TON OF REFREGIRATION – 12000 Btu/Hr or 3023.98
K.Cal/Hr.
6) The temperature measured by ordinary thermometer is called SENSIBLE HEAT.
7) What is the boiling point of water 100 C .
8) AT what temperature water starts freezing_ 0 C.
9) One watt is 3.412 BTU.
10) One BTU is 0.252 K.calaries.
11) The unit of heat is BTU OR K.CAL
12) RMPU means ROOF MOUNTED PACKAGE UNIT
13) The setting of HP cutout in RMPU coaches is 415 psi.
14) The setting of LP cutout in under slung coaches is 35 psi.
15) The boiling point of refrigerant R22_ -40.8 C.
16) The boiling point of refrigerant R12. – 29.8 C .
17) Artificial respiration is required to the person met with electrical accident.
18) R12 is being replaced with R-134a in latest Refrigeration system.
19) The latent heat of evaporation
IS THE HEAT REQUIRED TO CHANGE THE LIQUIDINTO VAPOUR.
20) The temperature maintained in the refrigerator is LESS then 0 C .
21) The dry bulb and vet bulb temperatures equals then the RH is 100%
22) The moisture absorption in refrigeration circuit is done by DEHYDRATOR CUM FILTER.
23) The commonly used refrigerants are R 12 & R 22
24) The lubrication of system in the sealed compressors is done by FREEZOL
25) The 3-phase voltage unbalance in supply should not exceed 2.5. % To 5%
26) For maintaining power supply quality the rate of change of frequency should not
exceed.1 HZ/Sec.
27) The voltage of 11 KV supply is 11000V
28) Tender Notice is to be published for. Open tender
29) Copper is the good conductor of electricity.
30) Completion estimate is not required for calling tender.
31) Contingencies charges mean Transportation charges.
32) Detailed estimate is to be prepared for sanctioned works.
33) Detailed estimate needs sanction of HOD.
34) The fire extinguisher used for Electrical fire is CO2
35) Fire is the combination of material and temperature & Oxygen.
36) B Type of fire extinguisher used to nullify the oil fires.
37) Electric type of fire is clarified as D type.
38) CO2 type fire extinguisher is used for electrical fires.
39) Ordinary fire can be extinguished by water.
40) RUBBER HAND GLOVES are to be used while operating isolator handle in ubstations.
41) Ordinary fire can be extinguished by WATER OR SAND.
42) Artificial respiration is required to the person met with ELECTRICAL accident.
43) Abbreviation for IOD is INJURED ON DUTY
44) The accident causes with loss of human life is called fatal accident.
45) If a man touches a live wire, he gets shock/electrocuted.
46) CTC type extinguisher is used for ELECTRICAL fire.
47) If a transformer catches fire FOAM type of fire.
48) The fire extinguisher used for Electrical fire is CO2 TYPE.
49) Fire is the combination of Material, temperature and oxygen.
50) B type of fire extinguisher used to nullify the oil fires.
51) Electric type of fire is clarified as D type.
52) CO2 type fire extinguisher is used for ELECTRICAL fires.
53) Soda ash type fire extinguisher is used for GENERAL fires.
54) CTC OR FOAM type of fire extinguishers will be used to extinguisher chemical fires.
55) Axle Driven system working on 110 V DC supply.
1) Without EMD the tender offer is valid. False

2) Amps is the unit of current True
3) Tinned copper conductor of 14SWG is used as earth continuity wire in the
4) Internal Wiring system. True
5) Wood is the bad conductor of electricity. True
6) Oil is used as a insulation in the power transformers. False
7) The minimum capacity of power transformer on electrical General Services is 100KVA
True
8) Finance vetting is required, if the cost of NS item exceeds Rs. 50,000/- while
9) Procuring through COS. True
10) The open tenders are to be opened in presence of a Accounts Officer. True
11) The codal life of VLRA batteries is 04 years. True
12) If a cell voltage is found less than 1.9 Volts, it should be weed out. False
13) The SPG of sulphuric acid which is used to make electrolyte is 1.835. True
14) The L1, L2 and Fan Circuit fuse rating is 16 A in Roof Junction Box. True
15) The bulk inverter capacity in AC 2 tier for cell phone charging is 6KVA. False
16) Single-phase preventer should be used to protect the motor from single phasing. True
17) The minimum safe value of insulation resistance of motor is 20 MΩ. False
18) Multi meter is used to measure insulation resistance and megger is used to measure the
winding resistance of the motor. False
19) If a motor is getting unduly hot, the reason may be overloaded or bearing may be
defective. True
20) Compressor works like a pump by drawing refrigerant vapor from the evaporator and
sends to condenser. True
21) The change of liquid state into vapour state is called condensation. False
22) OL is provided to trip the condenser motor incase of over voltage and single phasing.
False
23) Due point is the temperature of air at which the moisture present in air starts
condensing. True
24) The purpose of contactor provided in the control panel of RMPU is to switch ON
supply to condenser motors. True
25) The purpose of TDR 1 provided in control panel of RMPU to delay compressor II
operation for 2 minutes. False

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SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER:

2) Capacity of battery fuse in AC Coaches (a)

5) Name the Acid used in lead acid cells (a)

7) Cut in speed for brushless alternator in AC application (b)

8) Inverter converts (a)

9) IGBT are used as (a)

10) Boost charge of VRLA cells is (a)

11) Trickle charging of VRLA cells is (c)

14) Required level of Illumination in corridor of 2-Tier AC coach is (c)

18) If alternator is not generating voltage, the reason could be (d)

19) The advantage of ERRU is (d)

20) The capacity of Regulators used in AC coaches are (a)

GENERAL ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

3. Low power factor

4. The power factor of the AC supply can be improved by using

5. A distribution line of 440 V is classified as

6. Which of the following is not used as a overhead conductor

7. Which of the following reduces the power factor?

8. Under high voltage test cable shall withstand an AC voltage of

9. Under high voltage test cable shall withstand a DC voltage of

10. Under water immersion test cable is immersed in a water bath at

12. Unit of energy is

13. As per Ohm’s law

17. In 4 sq. mm PVC wire, 4 sq. mm stand for

18. The instrument to measure the light is called

20. No. of poles in MCB/TPN is

21. A.C. is converted into D.C. by

22. Farad is a unit of

23. A kilowatt-hour is a unit of

25. Before carrying out O/H maintenance following is due

26. In house wiring the red wire indicates the

27. In house wiring the black wire indicates the

29. In 4 wire electric circuit, the black conductor is used for

31. Unit of current is

32. Heater element is made up of

33. Filament of incandescent lamp is made of

34. An insulator should have

35. Which of the following is used to make electric connections

37. Instrument used for measuring the thickness of wire/strip is

38. Instrument used for measuring the voltage across a circuit is

40. Instrument used for measuring the temperature is

41. Illumination level is measured in terms of

43. Which of the following is used for rectification of AC supply

44. Which preparation should be done starting a new wiring

45 In wiring circuit the fuse will be placed on

47 Which of the following is a common wiring fault

48 Wattage rating range of electric kettle is

49 Device used for auto off an electric iron is

50 Can you repair an immersion rod

52 To improve the power factor, capacitors are connected in the circuit as

54 In order to draw more current from the electric source

57 Unit of electric power is

58 The internal resistance of battery is increased by

60 Power factor of AC circuit is equal to

61 Resistance of open circuit is equal to

63 Which of the following is not a non conventional energy source

64 Solar energy is used for

65 Solar and wind hybrid system is

66 Bio gas depends on

67 Which of the following is not a constituent of a solar lighting system

68 Which of the following is not a type of fuse

69 Which of the following is not a type of generating station?