1563519208153-Question Bank (Electrical-Emu Deptt.)

QUESTION BANK ELECT.
EMU/HOWRAH
Sl No Question Multiple choice answer Answer

1 DDU stands for a) Driver display unit a
b) Driving Desk unit
c) Double display unit
d) Desk display unit
2 Full form of TTR a) Transformer temperature relay b
b) Transformer thermostat relay
c) Temporary thermostat relay
d) Temperature thermostat relay
3 Safety relay a) ELR d
b) CR
c) SR
d) BIR
4 HMI a) Human machine interface a
b) Hard Machine Interface
c) High Machine interface
d) Human Motor interface
5 LED a) Light emitting diode a
b) Low energy diode
c) Light energy diode
d) Lateral energy diode
6 DC-DC a) 30 v d
convertor b) 25 v
output voltage c) 24 v
d) 25.5 v
7 Flasher output a) 12V a
voltage b) 25V
c) 30V
d) 110V
8 Type of Medha a) MAE 675 a

make 3PH AC b) MAE 670
EMU rake c) MEE 675
d) MAA 670
9 No of Zone in a) 10 d
Indian Railway b) 11
c) 15
d) 17
10 Full Form of BL a) Black Lever Box b
Box b) Bench Lever Box
c) Best Lever Box
d) Bend Lever Box
11 Transformer a) 1100 KVA a

rating in Medha b) 1000 KVA
make AC EMU c) 1110 KVA
d) 1010 KVA
12 MP in EMU a) Major Power c
stands for b) Minimum Power
c) Master Controller
d) Brake Controller
13 Train line ckt. a) 37,38,40 c
no of EP brake b) 25,26,40
supply in EMU c) 36,37,38,40,
conventional d) 38,39,40
rake
14 Type of a) WAG 4 c
conventional b) WAU 5
EMU c) WAU 4
(DC Motor) d) WAU 7
15 Paralleling of BL a) To reduce current d
Box limit switch b) To reduce flashing
interlocks are c) To reduce crushing load at contact
done point
d) To increase crushing load at contact
point
16 Function of a) Storing speed, energy , OHE data per d
ESMON second interval
b) Storing energy data per 2 second
interval
c) Storing braking & coasting data per
5 second interval
d) Storing all the above data in per
second & 20 second interval
17 Full form of a) Energy cum speed monitoring d
ESMON system
b) Speed monitoring system
c) Energy monitoring system
d) Energy and speed monitoring system
18 Function of a) To give indication when rake is trip b
panto breakage b) To give indication when OHE is not
indication ckt available & rake is closed
board c) To give indication when Panto is
raised & rake is closed
d) None of these
19 Shunt notch a) Only 2 step of notch a
b) Only 3step of notch
c) Only 4 step of notch
d) Only 1 step of notch
20 Signal bell code a) Single bit a

to stop a train b) Double bit
c) No bit
d) Triple bit
21 MCCB a) Miniature case circuit breaker d
b) Multi case circuit breaker
c) Main case circuit breaker
d) Molded case circuit breaker
22 Rating of signal a) 5 amp DC d
bell MCB b) 10 amp DC
c) 2.5 amp AC
d) 2.5 amp DC
23 Full electric a) Regenerating brake a
brake in 3 b) EP
phase EMU rake c) Emergency brake
d) auto
24 Rating of light & a) 100 amp c
fan HRC fuse in b) 125 amp
driving cab c) 63 amp
d) 50 amp
25 T6 tap changing a) Traction changes shunt to half power c
set works b) Traction changes shunt to full power
c) Traction changes half to full power
d) Traction goes off
26 WGR a) Winding general relay b

b) Winding group relay
c) Ending governor relay
d) Winding groove relay
27 LTR energized a) Power Supply available in TFP output c
ensures b) Power is not available in TFP input
c) Power Supply available in TFP aux II
output
d) Power Supply available in TFP aux I
output
28 Rating of Twin a) 90/100 watt, 24 v DC a
beam Halogen b) 110/100 watt, 25 v DC
lamp head light c) 110/90 watt, 25 v DC
d) 90/110 watt, 25 v DC
29 Rating of DC-DC a) 110 v, 10 amps d
convertor main b) 110 v,5 amps
MCB c) 100 v,10 amps
d) 110 v, 15 amps
30 Minimum BA a) 50 v d
voltage to b) 55 v
energize a rake c) 110 v
d) 85 v
31 Type of a) DPST a
headlight b) DPDT
ON/OFF toggle c) SPDT
switch d) SPST
32 Type of Head a) DPST c
Light b) DPDT
dim/bright c) SPDT
toggle switch d) SPST
33 Requirement of a) For driver & guard access c
two flasher b) For parallel working
switch c) a&b
d) No specific cause
34 No of switch for a) 1 b
flasher b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
35 Tail lamp given a) Train in line c
to indicate b) Train is moving
c) Last vehicle of train
d) Train is stable
36 Rating of MCP a) 100 amps c
fuse b) 50 amps
c) 125 amps
d) 160 amps
37 Role of UFL to a) Unit is trip b
show b) Unit is faulty
c) Unit is ready
d) Rake is faulty
38 Control change a) BA voltage from one rake to other b
over switch rake
ensure b) BA voltage from one to other unit of
same rake
c) BA voltage from one unit to other
rake
d) OHE voltage from one to other unit of
same rake
39 Rectifier do a) Convert DC to AC voltage b
b) Convert AC to DC voltage
c) Convert DC to DC voltage
d) Convert AC to AC voltage
40 No of fuse for a) 1 b
KV meter b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
41 Location of a) Under driving desk c
Panto isolating b) LT compartment
cock c) HT compartment
d) Trailer coach
42 Rating of MCB a) 2.5 amp DC a
for tail light b) 5 amp DC
c) 10 amp DC
d) 2.5 amp AC
43 Rating of flasher a) 5 A DC c
light MCB b) 6 A DC
c) 2.5 A DC
d) 2.5 AC
44 Trip Indicator a) ARTL d

fuse indicates b) MSTL
c) BCFL
d) RFBL
45 Center earth a) M1 and M8 a
capacitor b) M1 and M15
connected c) M15 and M27
between d) M1 and M27
46 AC Surge a) Before tap changer d
arrestor b) After rectifier
connected c) Before rectifier
d) Between tap changer and rectifier
47 Rating of Trip a) TI600 & TI1200 a
indicator fuse b) TI800 & TI1200
c) TI700 & TI1200
d) TI400 & TI600
48 Rating of Tr. a) 10A DC c
Control MCB for b) 6A DC
individual motor c) 5A DC
coach d) 5A AC
49 Function of a) Rake will trip when panto lowered a&c
Blocking diode b) Rake wil not trip when panto lowered
between panto c) Rake will trip but panto will not
lower & ABB lowered
trip d) No of these
50 Function of AUX a) Ensure AC supply MCP c
rectifier b) Rectify AC supply from AC to DC in
AUX II OL 3&4
c) Ensure DC supply to MCP & LTR
d) B&C
51 Minimum pick a) 50V d
up voltage b) 80V
require to c) 110V
ensure a light / d) 55V
fan set coil
52 How many reset a) 12 c
coils for b) 13
overload reset c) 16
are there in a 12 d) 15
car EMU
53 Colour of LED a) Blue d
for ABB off in b) Green
Driver c) Orange
indication box d) Red
54 Colour of LED a) Red c
for ARTL in b) Green
Driver c) White
indication box d) Orange
55 Required voltage a) 141V AC c
for rectifier b) 110V DC
blower motor in c) 266V AC
EMU rake d) 266V DC
56 Required voltage a) 141V AC a
for normal light b) 110V DC
and fan in EMU c) 266V AC
rake d) 266V DC
57 Indication for a) ARTL b
battery charger b) BCFL
failed in dr. c) MSTL
desk d) RFBL
58 Indication for a) ARTL c
not responding b) BCFL
as SR not pick c) MSTL
up d) RFBL
59 Rating of a) 6A d
matsushi make b) 10A
DC – DC c) 15A
Converter (for d) 7A
headlight) input
glass fuse
60 Energizing of a) AUX I output voltage available a
NVR relay b) AUX II output available
confirms c) BA voltage available
d) None of these
61 Rating of per a) 32A AC a
unit one ckt fan b) 15A AC
phase MCB c) 10A AC
d) 10A DC
62 No. of terminals a) 50 c
for connection b) 30
in one motor c) 32
cutout switch d) 16
63 No. of terminals a) 6 a
in ammeter b) 8
selector switch c) 9
d) 10
in battery b) 8
cutout rotary c) 4
switch d) 2
65 No. of terminals a) 10 b
in Test switch b) 8
c) 6
d) 4
in BA change b) 8
over switch c) 4
d) 2
67 No. of indication a) 10 c
in old type Dr. b) 12
Indication box c) 8
d) 4
68 Break supply a) A jumper a
train line is in b) B jumper
jumper c) C jumper
d) D jumper
69 Output voltage a) 1500V DC c
of DC link in 3 b) 2000V DC
phase AC EMU c) 1800V DC
rake d) 2100V DC
70 Input voltage of a) 25KV AC c
DC link in 3 b) 22KV AC
phase AC EMU c) 1800V DC
rake d) 11KV AC
71 Full form of a) Insulated gate bypolar transistor a
IGBT b) Insulated guard bypolar transistor
c) Insulated gate bypass transistor
d) Insulated guard bypass transistor
72 Full name of a) Line & Traction Convertor a
LTC b) Loco & Traction Convertor
c) Loco & Tractive Convertor
d) No of these
73 In 3 phase AC a) MC on/off c
rake all panto b) Emergency brake bypass
can be lowered c) Emergency off
by pressing one d) None of these
switch apart
from panto
lower which
one?
74 With out BIVS a) EMR off b
key which b) BAL off
switch is to be c) ICS
bypass to d) EMR BRAKE off
occupy cab
75 To test 10A AC a) 5A c
MCB (in MCB b) 10A
test bench) what c) 20A
should be the d) 30A
current setting
in 200%
capacity?
76 To measure a a) Megger d
value of 10µfd b) Clamp meter
Capacitor what c) Volt meter
measuring d) Multimeter
equipment we
need?
77 To measure a) Clampmeter a
current what b) Voltmeter
instrument do c) Lux meter
we require? d) Thermo meter
78 W hat is unit of a) Nm c
air pressure in b) KV
RFR? c) PSI
d) V
79 What is the a) HT Compartment b
location of BA b) LT Compartment
charger in EMU c) Dr. Cab
Motor coach d) None of these
80 What is the a) LT Compartment b
location of b) HT Compartment
Conservator in c) Under frame
EMU Motor d) Driving Cab
coach
81 What is the role a) To absorve surge from Tap changer c
of AC surge b) To absorve surge from Tr. Motor
arrester c) To absorve surge from Transformer
in Rectifire output
d) None of these
82 Twin beam light a) AC Supply b
works in b) Dc Supply
c) Both
d) None of these
83 Rating of Air a) 2.5A DC c
dryer MCB as b) 2.5A AC
per RDSO c) 1A DC
d) None of these
84 What is the a) Dr. desk d
location of AWL b) LT Cab
switch in HWH c) HT Cab
division EMU d) B.L Box
motor coach?
85 What will a) BA voltage will be zero when BIS b
happen if guard opatated
supply rotary is b) BA voltage will not be zero when BIS
on in both operated
leading cab of c) BA voltage will not be full when BIS
EMU rake? operated
d) None of these
86 Rating of BL box a) 500V AC 5A b
limit for b) 500V AC 10A
2NO+1NC c) 500V AC 15A
d) 500V AC 2.5A
87 Tripping time of a) Within 30 sec a
5A MCB in MCB b) With in 10 sec
test bench in c) With in 5 sec
200% current d) With in 60 sec
load
88 Type of BL limit a) 1NO+1NC b
switch in panto b) 2NO+ 1NC
lower BL switch c) 2NO+2NC
d) 1NO+ 2NC
89 Type of guard a) Rotary type b
bell push switch b) Gang type
c) Contact type
d) Flat type
90 Notch can be a) Shunt notch b
achieved in b) Half power notch
brake apply c) Full power notch
condition d) None of these
91 Full form of MT a) Material terminal relay a
relay (SR, BIR, b) Multi terminal relay
CBAR, etc) c) Major trip relay
d) No of these
92 When any a) Sequence hampered c
contact between b) Sequence happen normally
(T1 to T6) seize c) SR not pick up
following occurs d) None of these
93 MCB open ckt a) MCB internally trip a
means b) MCB internally short
c) MCB broken
d) None of these
94 Output voltage a) Multi meter a
of DC-DC b) Ohm meter
Convertor can be c) LED test lamp
checked and d) 110V DC screw cap lamp fitted test
measured with lamp
95 Meaning of MCB a) Supply available in both side of MCB c
short ckt when trip
b) Supply available in both side of MCB
when set
c) Supply available either side of MCB
always in trip and set condition
d) None of these
96 RFAR relay a) Rectifier blower motor not working b
chattering b) Motor working but air leakage in air
probable cause pipe line
c) Rectifier blower capacitor value 0
d) None of these
97 No. of cables in a a) 20 b
Jumper and b) 19
Recever c) 18
d) 21
98 Full form of PIS a) Public information system b
in EMU rake b) Passenger information system
c) Protection information system
d) None of these
99 Full form of a) Roof mounted Vertical Unit c
RMVU b) Roof mounted Various Unit
c) Roof Mounted Ventilation Unit
d) None of these
100 Role of a) Rectification of AC voltage to DC b
supervisor voltage
circuit in EMU b) Supervision of rectifier functioning
rectifier c) Supervision of tap changer
functioning
d) Supervision of Transform functioning
101 BIR Relay a) Transformer Transformer
concerned with b) Tap Changer
c) Switch Group
102 TTR Relay a) Tap Changer box Transformer
concerned with b) Transformer Switch
c) Group box
103 Location of a) Switch II box Switch I box
AOVR b) Switch I box
c) Tap Changer box
104 Location of OVR a) Switch II box Switch II box
b) Switch I box
c) Tap Changer box
105 Location of OL6 a) Tap Changer Ckt. Tap Changer
b) Rectifier Ckt. Ckt.
c) ABB cling Ckt.
106 BIR Relay a) at 150-200 ml gas accumulation 250-300 ml
tripped when b) at 200-250 ml gas accumulation accumulation
c) at 250-300 ml gas accumulation
107 Motor contactor a) AC supply DC supply
handle b) DC supply
c) AC & DC supply
108 Tap changing a) AC supply DC supply
contactor handle b) DC supply
c) AC & DC supply
109 OL5 relay protect a) Rectifier Ckt. Rectifier Ckt.
b) Tap Changer Ckt.
c) VCB closing Ckt.
110 BOSCO-3 & 4 a) Tap changer magnet valve Reverser &
valve stem & b) Motor contactor magnet valve WCO magnet
pope pin used in c) Reverser & WCO magnet valve valve
111 EFR relay a) Current failure Voltage
protects the b) Voltage failure failure
power circuit c) Current & Voltage failure
from
112 PRV acted when a) Instantaneous pressure inside Instantaneou
transformer due to internal firing of s pressure
TFP oil. inside
b) Intelarpaser builds up inside TFP due transformer
to internal overheating of TFP oil. due to
c) Internal temperature builds up due internal firing
to TFP oil cooling system failure. of TFP oil.
113 MCB rating for a) 10 Amp. DC 15 Amp. AC
oil pump b) 15 Amp. DC
c) 15 Amp. AC
114 Total volume of a) 800 liter. 1300 liter.
oil in TFP oil b) 1300 liter.
circuit in AC c) 1000 liter.
EMU
115 KVA of TFP of AC a) 1300 KVA 1000 KVA
EMU b) 1000 KVA
c) 1050 KVA
116 KVA of TFP of 3 a) 1300 KVA 1300 KVA
PHASE AC EMU b) 1000 KVA
c) 1050 KVA
117 a) W1, T1, & T8 magnet coils are W1, T1, & T8
In Tap changer energized condition. magnet coils
ckt. for shunt- b) W1, T1, T7, T9 & NR magnet coils are are energized
power. energized condition. condition.
c) Only W1 magnet coil energized
condition.
118 In Tap changer a) W1, WGR, T6, T7 & NR magnet coils W1, WGR,
ckt. for half- are full energized condition. T6, T7 & NR
power. b) W1, T6, T8, NR1 & NR2 magnet coils magnet coils
are full energized condition. are full
c) W1, T5 & T8 magnet coils are full energized
energized condition. condition.
119 In Tap changer a) W2, T5, T8 magnets coils are W2, T5, T8
ckt. for full- energized condition magnets coils
power. b) W1, T5, T7, T9 & NR2 magnets coils are energized
are energized condition condition
c) W2, T4, T7 & NR1 magnets coils are
energized condition
120 DGA is required a) SL, DL & TL TFP

to monitor the b) ASL
condition of c) TFP
121 DGA stands for a) Differential gas analysis Dissolve gas
b) Dissolve gas analysis analysis
c) Different gas analysis
122 In AC EMU TFP a) Naturalcooling Forced
oil coolingsystem b) Forcedcooling cooling
c) Natural& forced cooling
123 Bosco 2p & 1p a) Tapchanger magnet valve Tap changer
poppet pin used b) Motor contactormagnate valve & motor
in c) Tapchanger &motormagnate valve magnate
valve
124 Air bolt used in a) 1.3 mm. bore 1.3 mm. bore
tapchanger ckt. b) 2.4 mm. bore
c) 6.3 mm. bore
125 Air bolt used in a) 6.3 mm. bore 6.3 mm. bore
motorcontactckt. b) 2.4 mm. bore
c) 1.3 mm. bore
126 Resistive valve of a) 0.0202Ω 0.0202 Ω
TR Element b) 0.05Ω
c) 0.202Ω
127 Master controller a) 280 to 400 grams 280 to 400
interlock b) 150 to 250 grams grams
pressure c) 250 to 300 grams
required for
smooth
operation
128 WCO &Reverser a) 600 Amps& 1500 Volt 600 Amps &
power contact b) 11V DC& 1 amps 1500 Volt
rated current c) 55V DC main & 15 amps
129 Resistance value a) 0.2020 Ω 0.2020 Ω
of PFD element b) 0.0505 Ω
c) 0.5050 Ω
130 As per TSO a) 80 Amps 440 V 80 Amps 440
rating of PFD b) 63 Amps 440 V V
HRC fuse c) 50Amps 440V
131 In the event of a) Both traction ckt.made off and train Both traction
dead man electrical braking applied. ckt.made off
handle operated b) Both traction ckt.made off & Train air & Train air
during notching brake applied. brake
of train c) Both traction ckt.made off & train air applied.
& Electrical brake applied.
132 Inside master a) Dead-man’s valve Dead-man’s
controller having b) Dead-man’s pilot valve pilot valve
one air valve i.e. c) Dead-man’s auto valve
133 CLR relay a) Both Powerckt. & Controllerckt. Both Power
consist of b) Only Controller ckt. ckt. &
c) Only Power ckt. Controller
ckt.
134 ACLR relay a) Both Power ckt. & Controller ckt. Only
consist of b) Only Controller ckt. Controller
c) Only Power ckt. ckt.
135 Location of CLR a) Tap changer box Sw. Gr. 2 box

relay b) Sw. Gr. 1 box & Sw. Gr. 1
c) Sw. Gr. 2 box & Sw. Gr. 1
136 Location of ACLR a) In the driving cab relay panel. In the driving
b) In the tap changer box. cab relay
c) In the Sw. Gr. 2 box. panel.
137 Tap changer a) To reduce the arcing of tapchanger To reduce the

tungsten tips during opening of contact. arcing of tap
used b) To reduce the arcing of tapchanger changer
during closing of contact. during
c) To increase the copper burrs opening of
ofcontact tips. contact.
138 Arc chute used a) Toextinguish the arcing. To extinguish

for b) To extinguish & split the arcing. & split the
c) To split the arcing. arcing.
139 Tap changer a) Electro pneumatic contactor. Electro

contactor b) Electriccontactor. pneumatic
c) Pneumatic contactor. contactor.
140 CC1 Contactor a) Electro pneumatic contactor. Electric

b) Electric contactor. contactor.
c) Pneumatic contactor.
141 What type of 1. AC Supply DC Supply
Supply is used to 2. DC Supply
run TM in AC 3. Both Ac & DC Supply
EMU?
142 What type of DC 1. Shunt wound motor Series wound
motor are used in 2. Series wound motor Motor
AC EMU? 3. Compound wound motor
143 How many poles 1. 02 poles 04 Poles
are there in a 2. 04 poles
4601AZ type TM? 3. 06 Poles
144 What is the 1. 535V 535V
continuous 2. 500V
voltage rating of 3. 440V
4601AZ type TM?
145 What is the 1. 340 A 340 A
continuous 2. 300 A
current rating of 3. 450 A
4601AZ type TM?
146 What is the 1. 1200rpm 1260rpm
continuous RPM 2. 1440rpm
rating of 4601AZ 3. 1260rpm
type TM?
147 What is the 1. 224 KW 167 Kw
continuous 2. 167 KW
Power rating of 3. 187 KW
4601AZ type TM?
148 Who is the 1. Crompton greaves BHEL
Manufacturer of 2. BHEL
4601AZ 3. None of them
/BZ/BY/BX type
TM?
149 How much is the 1. 300 A 380 A
rating of 4601AZ 2. 440 A
type TM for one 3. 380 A
Hour?
150 What is the 1. 167 KW 187 Kw
power rating of 2. 187 KW
4601AZ type TM 3. 224 KW
for one hrs?
151 What is the 1. 0.0186Ω 0.0186 Ω
resistance value 2. 0.0182 Ω
of Armature 3. 0.0192 Ω
winding at 25
degree of of
4601AZ type TM?
152 What is the 1. 0.0123 Ω 0.0103 Ω
of series field 3. 0.0113 Ω
winding at 25
degree of 4601AZ
type TM?
153 What is the 1. 0.007Ω 0.009 Ω
of commutating 3. 0.009 Ω
field winding at
250C of 4601 AZ
type TM?
154 What is the core 1. 457.5 mm. 457.2 mm.
diameter of 2. 457.2 mm.
Armature for 3. 457.4 mm.
4601 AZ type
TM?
155 What is the core 1. 260.50 mm. 260.50 mm.
length of 2. 260.10 mm.
Armature for 3. 262.50 mm.
4601 AZ type
TM?
156 What is the 1. 970 mm. 975 mm.
overall length of 2. 980 mm.
Armature for 3. 975 mm.
4601 AZ type
TM?
157 What is the 1. 99 mm. 99 mm.
length of working 2. 98 mm.
faces of 3. 101 mm.
commutator for
4601 AZ type
TM?
158 What is the 1. 324/323.5 mm. 325.5 mm.
diameter of 2. 324/325.5 mm.
commutator 3. 324/326.5 mm.
when new for
4601 AZ TM?
159 What is the min. 1. 305 mm. 305 mm.
permissible 2. 310 mm.
diameter of 3. 315 mm.
commutator for
4601 AZ type
TM?
160 What is the 1. 1.21 mm. 1.14 mm.
thickness of mica 2. 1.14 mm.
for commutator 3. 1.24 mm.
of 4601 AZ type
TM?
161 What is the 1. F H
insulation class 2. C
of Armature used 3. H
in 4601 AZ type
TM?
162 What is the class 1. H F
of insulation 2. F
used in field of 3. C
4601 AZ type
TM?
163 How much is the 1. 0.01 mm. 0.03 mm.
commutatorovalit 2. 0.02 mm.
y permitted in 3. 0.03 mm.
4601 AZ type
TM?
164 How many 1. 02 04
interpoles are 2. 04
there in a 4601 3. 08
AZ type TM?
165 What is the 1. 1000 V 1000 V
insulation level 2. 500 V
used in 4601 AZ 3. 2000 V
type TM?
166 How many no. of 1. 2 4
brush arms are 2. 4
used in 4601 AZ 3. 6
type TM?
167 How many brush 1. 01 01
holders/arm are 2. 02
used in 461 AZ 3. 04
type TM?
168 How many no. of 1. 02 02
brushes per arm 2. 01
are used in 4601 3. 04
AZ type TM?
brush length of 2. 55 mm.
used in brush 3. 60 mm.
gear of 4601 AZ
type TM when
new?
170 What is the width 1. 44.45 mm. 44.45 mm.
of brush used in 2. 43.25 mm.
Brush gear of 3. 42.05 mm.
4601 AZ type
TM?
171 What is the 1. 20.5 mm. 25.4 mm.
thickness over 2. 25.4 mm.
two halves of 3. 30.6 mm.
brush in brush
gear of 4601 AZ
type TM?
172 What is the range 1. 1.5 to 3.0 mm. 1.6 to 3.2
of clearance 2. 1.6 to 3.2 mm. mm.
between brush 3. 2 to 4 mm.
holder and
commutator in
4601 AZ type
TM?
minimum 2. 32 mm.
serapping length 3. 36 mm.
of carbon brush
in 4601 AZ type
TM?
174 What is the range 1. 2.7 – 3.65 Kg. 2.7 – 3.65 Kg.
of brush holder 2. 2.7 – 3.62 Kg.
spring tension 3. 2.7 – 3.75 Kg.
allowable for
4601 AZ type
TM?
175 What is the Arc 1. 10 to 11 mm. 11 to 12 mm.
horn gap 2. 11 to 12 mm.
maintained in 3. 12 to 13 mm.
4601 AZ type
TM?
176 Brush grade used 1. EG14D BE14Z1(ELC
in Brush bear of 2. ACPL(MORGAN) A)
4601 AZ type TM 3. E88X(I)ELCA(S&E)
4. BE14Z1(ELCA)
177 What type of 1. NU326M/C4 NU326M/C4
Armature bearing 2. NUP318
is used in pinion 3. None
end of 4601 AZ
type TM?
178 What type of 1. NU326M/C4 VA 301 NUP 318 VA
Armature bearing 2. NUP 318 VA 301 301
is used in 3. None
commutatornd of
4601 AZ type
TM?
179 Brush grade used 1. BE 14z1(ELCA) E88x()ELCA(
in earth return 2. CMIS (Morgan OEM) S&E)
brushes in 4601 3. E88x(I)ELCA(S&E)
AZ type TM?
180 What is the 1. 53.2 mm. 53.5 mm.
length of earth 2. 53.5 mm.
return brush 3. 53.8 mm.
when new for
4601 AZ type
TM?
181 What is the 1. 32.4 mm. 34.4 mm.
condemning 2. 33.4 mm.
length of earth 3. 34.4 mm.
return brush for
4601 AZ type of
TM?
182 What is the 1. 2005 Kg. 2035 Kg.
weight of 2. 2035 Kg.
complete Motor 3. 2105 Kg.
with gear & gear
case for 4601 AZ
type of TM?
183 What is the 1. 1722 Kg. 1812 Kg.
complete motor 3. 1812 Kg.
including Axle
cap, axle
bearings and
pinion for 4601
AZ type of TM?
184 What is the 1. 520 Kg. 520 Kg.
Armature for 3. 820 Kg.
4601 AZ type of
TM?
185 What is weight of 1. 80 Kg. 85 Kg.
gear case for 2. 85 Kg.
4601 AZ type of 3. 90 Kg.
TM?
186 What is the 1. 5 Kg. 9 Kg.
weight of pinion 2. 9 Kg.
for 4601 AZ type 3. 13 Kg.
of TM?
187 What type of 1. Geartak-2(HPC) Geartaak-
grease is used in 2. Lithon-3(HPC) 2(HPC).
armature bearing 3. Servogem RR3(IOC)
for 4601 AZ type
of TM?
188 How much is the 1. 500 gm. 550 gm.
quantity of grease 2. 550 gm.
required for first 3. 600 gm.
filling at pinion
end bearing for
4601 AZ type of
TM?
189 How much is the 1. 215 gm. 315 gm.
quantity of grease 2. 300gm.
required for first 3. 315 gm.
filling at
commutator end
bearing for 4601
AZ type of TM?
190 What is the 1. Servo system 57 Servo system
recommended 2. Servo system 68 57
lubricant for axle 3. Servo system 81
suspension
bearing for 4601
AZ type of TM?
191 How much is the 1. 2 Ltrs 2.4 Ltrs
maximum 2. 2.4 Ltrs
quantity of 3. 2.7 Ltrs
lubricant can be
used in each cap
for 4601 AZ type
of TM?
192 Recommended 1. Caltex crater no-2 ESSO Andok-
lubricant used I 2. BhratCamex compound-F(BPC) BR
gar case for 4601 3. ESSO Andok-BR
AZ type of TM?
193 What is the min. 1. 1.5 KG 1.7 Kg
quantity of 2. 1.6 Kg
lubricant used in 3. 1.7 Kg
Gear case for
4601 AZ type of
TM?
194 What is the 1. 2.4 Kg 3.4 Kg
max.quantity of 2. 3.4 Kg
lubricant used in 3. 4.4 Kg
Gear case for
4601 AZ type of
TM?
195 The Armature & 1. MIG welded TIG Welded
Equalizer Coil 2. TIG welded
leads are 3. Brazed
196 The commutator 1. Anti-creep age PTFE type Anti-creep
outer mica V-ring 2. PVC tape age PTFE
is protected with 3. Glass tape type.
197 The function of 1. Continuous & Unidirectional Torque Continuous

the commutator 2. Pulsating &hetrodirectional torque &Unidirectio
in DC motor is to 3. Pulsating & Unidirectional torque. nal Torque
help to develop
198 The interpole 1. Neutralize the reactance voltage Neutralize
used to 2. Add the reactance voltage the reactance
3. None of them voltage
199 How many no of 1. 15 teeth 20 teeth

teeth are having 2. 20 teeth
in a pinion of 3. 25 teeth
4601 AZ type of
TM?
200 What is the dear 1. 20:91 20;91
& Pinion teeth 2. 20:93
ratio of 4601 AZ 3. 20:95
type of TM?
201 What type of 1. Push fit Shrink fit
fitment is used 2. Press fit
during fitting 3. Shrink fit
Pinion on
armature shaft
for 4601 AZ type
of TM?
202 What is the 1. 500 V 1000 V
voltage to be 2. 1000 V
used for 3. 2000 V
meggering
Traction Meter?
203 What should be 1. 5 MΩ 1 MΩ
the minimum 2. 3 MΩ
value of TM when 3. 1 MΩ
meggering done
with 1 KV
megger?
204 What type of 1. Non-fluffy, clean & dry Non-fluffy,
cloth should be 2. Fluffy & dry clean & dry
used to clean TM 3. Fluffy, clean & moisture
parts during
inspection?
205 What kind of air 1. Moist compressed air Dry &
should be used 2. Dry & cleaned compressed air cleaned
for blowing out of 3. Dirty compressed air compressed
TM? air
206 How many leads 1. 5 5

are there in 4601 2. 3
AZ type of TM? 3. 7
207 How many Arc 1. 6 6
horn are used in 2. 2
a 4601 AZ type of 3. 4
TM?
208 How many 1. 4 8
carbon brush are 2. 6
used in a 4601 3. 8
AZ type of TM?
209 What is the limit 1. 241.1mm to 244.3mm 241.3mm to
of TM nose gap 2. 241.3mm to 242.06mm 242.06mm
for 4601 AZ type 3. 240.0mm to 244.5mm
of TM?
210 What is the limit 1. 0.20mm to 1.80mm 0.35mm to
of diametrical 2. 0.25mm to 1.75mm 1.72mm
clearance of 3. 0.35mm to 1.72mm
suspension
bearing of TM?
211 How many 1. 231 no 230 nos.
segment are 2. 230 no
there in a 4601 3. 229 no
AZ type of TM?
212 What is the 1. 56.21 mm to 54.48mm 56.21 mm to
“K”value range 2. 56.31 mm to 54.08mm 54.48mm
for Pinion of 4601 3. 56.29mm to 54.38mm
AZ type of TM?
213 What is the 1. 0.145mm to 0.190mm 0.145mm to
permissible value 2. 0.142mm to 0.192mm 0.190mm
of diametrical 3. 0.144mm to 0.191mm
clearance of PE
bearing for 4601
AZ type of TM?
214 What is the 1. 0.102mm to 0.142mm 0.115mm to
permissible value 2. 0.105mm to 0.140mm 0.145mm
of diametrical 3. 0.115mm to 0.145mm
clearance of CE
bearing for 4601
AZ type of TM?
215 What is the free 1. 157/158 157/158
height of rubber 2. 158/159
sand width block 3. 156/157
unit when new?
216 What is the 1. 155mm 153.5mm
condemning 2. 153.5mm
height of rubber 3. 155.3mm
sand width unit?
217 What is the 1. 240.506mm/239.710mm 2470.506/23
dimension 2. 241.505mm/240.306mm 9.710mm
between bogie 3. 240.306/239.708mm
transom noses
when new?
218 What is the free 1. 252.2/253.2mm 252.2/253.2
assembled height 2. 251.2/252.2mm mm
of complete sand 3. 253.2/254.2mm
width block unit
when new?
219 What is the HP of 1. 220HP 224HP
4601 AZ type of 2. 224HP
EMUTM? 3. 238HP
220 How many Aux 1. 4 4
motors are used 2. 5
in 25 KV AC EMU 3. 6
M/coach?
221 How many 1. 1 2
radiator motors 2. 2
are used in 25 3. 4
KV AC EMU
M/coach?
222 What type of Aux 1. Single Phase squirrel cage induction 1.Single
motors are used motor Phase
in 25 KV AC 2. three Phase squirrel cage induction squirrel cage
EMU? motor induction
3. three phase slip ring induction motor motor.
223 What is the value 1. 40 µfd 20µfd

of capacitor used 2. 25µfd
in radiator 3. 20µfd
motors of 25 KV
AC EMU?
224 In 25 KV AC 1. 782 V AC Supply 267 V AC
EMU Aux motors 2. 267 V AC supply supply
are fitted in 3. 141 V AC supply
Transformer
secondary?
225 In 25 KV AC 1. 782 V AC Supply 141 V AC
EMU Main 2. 267 V AC supply supply
compressor are 3. 141 V AC supply
fitted in
Transformer
secondary
226 Main compressor 1. AC Motors DC Motor
for EMU is 2. DC Motors
having 3. Both AC& DC Motors
227 How many bolts 1. 4 nos 6 nos
are used to fix 2. 6 nos
one gear case on 3. 8 nos
TM for 4601 AZ
type of EMU TM?
228 What type of 1. Cylindrical Roller bearing Cylindrical
bearing is used in 2. Cylindrical tapper Roller bearing Roller
4601 AZ type of 3. Ball bearing bearing.
EMU TM?
229 What type of 1. Single row cylindrical roller bearing Ball bearing
bearing is used 2. Double
Aux motors of 25 3. Ball bearing row cylindrical roller
KV AC EMU? bearing
230 What is the HP 1. 0.5 HP 0.5 HP
for radiator motor 2. 0.75 HP
used in 25 KV AC 3. 1.0 HP
EMU?
231 What type of 1. Double reduction spar gear drive single
drive is used in 2. Singlereduction spar gear drive reduction
25 KV AC EMU? 3. Multiple reduction helical gear drive spar gear
drive
232 How many axle 1. 4 nos 8 nos

cap fixing bolts 2. 8 nos
are used to fix 3. 142 nos
axle caps on TM/
233 One TM is having 1. 2 nos 2 nos
Axle caps 2. 4 nos
3. 6 nos
234 How much is the 1. 62-64 Kg-m 62-64 Kg-m
specified value of 2. 60-62 Kg-m
Torque 3. 58-60Kg-m
recommended for
Axle cap bolt, M-
24?
Torque 3. 96-98 Kg-m
recommended for
Gear case
mounting bolt,
M-36?
236 How many end 1. 6 6
shield bolts are 2. 8
used in a 4601 3. 10
AZ type of EMU
TM?
Totque 3. 25-27 Kg-m
recommended for
end shield bolts
M-20
238 What is the bore 1. 469.94/469.90mm 469.94/469.90m
dia of magnet 2. 470.94/470.90mm m
frame (PE side) 3. 471.94/471.90mm
for 4601 AZ type
of EMU TM?
239 What is the bore 1. 253.032/254.00mm 253.032/254.00m
dia of magnet 2. 252.032/253.00mm m
frame (CE side) 3. 251.032/252.00mm
for 4601 AZ type
of EMU TM?
240 What is the 1. To limit vertical movement To limit transverse
function of the 2. To limit transverse movement movement
flanges of the 3. To limit both vertical & transverse
Axle suspension movement
bearings for 4601
AZ type of EMU
TM?
241 Which relay acts a. OLI c. OVR
on voltage? b. CLR
c. OVR
d. RFAR
242 Which relay acts a. CLR a. CLR
on current? b. OLI
c. OVR
d. RFAR
243 Which relay acts a. CLR d. RFAR
on circulation of b. OL 5
air or oil? c. TTR
d. RFAR
244 ---------- relay a. RFAR c. TTR
acts on the sense b. CLR
of temperature. c. TTR
d. OL 3
245 HEFRA -2 which a. circulation relay b. Tension
type of relay? b. Tension relay relay
c. Temperature relay
d. Auxiliary relay
246 What is the full a. Temperature thermostat relay b.

form of TTR? b. Transformer thermostat relay Transformer
c. Transformer Temperature relay thermostat
d. Temperature of thermostat relay relay
247 What is the full a. Current balance Auxiliary relay a. Current
form of CBAR ? b. Current balancing Auxiliary relay balance
c. Circuit balancing Auxiliary relay Auxiliary relay
d. Circuit balance Auxiliary relay
248 Full form of BIR ? a. Buccholz indication relay b. Buchholz

b. Buchholz indication
indication relay relay
c. Bucholz indication relay
d. Buchoolz indication relay
249 Full form of OLP? a. over load primary a. over load

b. over load power primary
c. over load of power cut
d. over loaded primary
250 LTR work on :- a. AUX-1 ckt B. AUX-2 ckt
B. AUX-2 ckt
c. power ckt
d. Rectifer ckt
251 What is the a. set a. set
normal aspect of b. reset
EFRA?
252 NVR work on:- a. Power ckt b. AUX-1 ckt
b.AUX – 1 ckt
c. AUX-2 ckt
d. control ckt
253 Function of a. Protect the transformer primary winding d. proect
EFRA-2 ckt? b. protect the rectifier diodes auxiliary 2 ckt
c.protect the auxiliary 1 ckt from earth from earth
fault fault.
d. proect auxiliary 2 ckt from earth fault
254 Minimum closing a.110v b. 55v
voltage of ABR b.55v
relay? c.75v
d.60v
255 Normal operating a.75v B.110v
voltage of TTR? b.110v
c.78v
d.72v
256 What is the a. Normally close late open a. Normally
meaning of NCL b. Normally open late close close late open
in relay? c. Normally open early clos257d. Normally
close late
257 What is the value a.506 ohm+/- 16% b.506 ohm+/-

of Resistance of b.506 ohm+/- 8% 8%
CR coils at 20 c.506 ohm+/- 10%
degree d.510 ohm+/- 12%
centigrade?
258 Resistance of a.506om c.956 ohm
RFAR coils at 20 b.610om
degree c.956om
centigrade. d.2674om
259 Resistances of a.2514om a.2514 ohm

NVR coil at 20 b.2614om
degree c.2518om
centigrade. d.2674om
260 NOE stands for? a. Normally open early. a. Normally

b. Normally open but early close open early
c. Normally open early closing closing
d. Normally open early operating.
261 Minimum contact a.1.2mm c.1.6mm

gap OL1 relay? b.0.8mm
c.1.6mm
d.3.2mm
262 Setting value of a.900A DC a.900A DC
OL 4? b.900V AC
c.900A AC
d.900V DC
263 OLP set at ------- a.150/.5A DC c.160/.7A AC
----------- b.150/.5A AC
c.160/.7A AC
d.160/.7A DC
264 Which is striker a. 1.2mm c.0.8mm

gap of OL 4? b.1.6mm
c.0.8mm
d. 2.4 mm
265 Which portion of a. Top portion
TQ Rod called b. Middle portion
drive end? c. Bottom portion
266 VCB stands for? a. Vaccum circuit breaker b. vacuum
b. vacuum circuit breaker. circuit breaker
c. virtual circuit breaker.
d. variable circuit breaker.
267 In ABB a. In Vacuum b. In Air
quenching Takes b. In Air
place in which c. In oil
medium?
268 VST means? a. Vacuum Switch Tub269b.Virtual Switch a. Vacuum
Tu270 Switch Tube
c. VariableS witch Tube
d. Vacumm Switch Testing
269 Low voltage ckt a.220v c.1000v
breaker have b.400v
rated volt. Less c.1000v
than? d.10000v
270 BVAC 25.10 MO7 a. Single pole a. Single pole

is a ----------- pole b. Double Pole
ac ckt breaker?
271 Interrupting a. Air d . all of the
medium in a b. Oil above
contractor may c. SF 6
be d. all of the above
272 SF6 gas is a. sulphur fluoride b.sulphur difluoride c. sulphur
c.sulphur hexafluoride hexafluoride
d.sulphur fluorine
273 The acting a. stainless steel d. copper
contacts for a b. Hard pressed carbon Tungsten alloy
circuit breaker c. Porcelain
are made of:- d.copper Tungsten alloy
274 For extra high a.stainless steel d. copper
voltage live which b.hard pressed carbon tungsten alloy
circuit breaker is c. ponceliain
preferred? d. copper tungsten alloy
275 In oil circuit a.True a.True

breaker b.False
transformer oil is
used?
276 In a.True a.True
electromagnetic b.False
relay the
restraining torque
given by spring.
277 Which circuit a.ABB a.ABB
breaker needs b.VCB
less c.SF6
maintenance? d.OCB
278 In ESMON a.RCI b.PG
system speed b.PG
sensor located at c.SCU
---------- d.JB
279 Full form of RCI? a.Recorder cum indication b.Recorder cum
b.Recorder cum indicator indicator
c.Recorder cum indicating
a.Recording cum indication
280 Speed sensor needs a. 110 – 120v c.9-12v

---------- V dc b. 108 -112v
supply. c. 9 -12v
d. 5- 10v
281 What do mean by a. Micro controller card d. Input card
MIP card in RCI? b. Speed indicator card
c. Memory card
d. Input card
282 Which single a. Width of pulse b. Frequency of
microprocessor b. Frequency of pulse pulse
continuously c. Trigger of pulse
measure to d. Error signal from PG
calculate the speed?
283 Which parameter a. Train No. c. No. of wheels
are not shown in b. Train load
RCI? c. No. of wheels
d. No .of motors coaches
284 What it will happen a. Generates over speed alarm
if speed exceed set b. Generates Faulty message a. Generates over
limit c. Generates speed limit exceed speed alarm
message to LCD
d. Generate special message to driver.
285 Function of CT in a. Measure
ESMON? a. Measure primary current of the EMU primary current
transformer of the EMU
b. Measure primary voltage of the EMU transformer
transformer
c. Measure primary energy of the EMU
transformer
d. Measure secondary winding current
of the EMU transformer
286 Input ratio of CT is - a. 150/ 5A a. 150/ 5A

---------------- b. 160/ .7A
c. 110/ 3A
d. 25/ 160A
287 Which type of data a. Long term D . Both long
recorded in Memory b. Short term term and short
card ? c. Either long term or short term term.
d. Both long term and short term
288 Following which one a. RCI directly connected PG b. RCI directly
is correct? b. RCI directly connected SCU connected SCU
c. RCI directly connected PT
d. RCI directly connected CT
289 Which interfacing a. RS485 c. RS232

device connects RCI b. RS232
to PC/Laptop? c. RJ 45
d. RS-345
290 How many no. of a. One d. Two
outputs provide by b. Two
speed sensor? c. Three
d. Five
291 What is LMLA 4. Low maintenance lead acid Low maintenance lead
Battery? 5. Low multiple lead acid acid
6. Light maintenance lead acid
292 What is 90Ah 4. 90 Air horse 90 Amp hour
Battery? 5. 90 Air hour
6. 90 Amp hour
293 What is specification 4. 10V 90 Ah 10V 90Ah
of Battery use in 5. 6V 120 Ah
EMU? 6. 2V 1100 Ah
294 How many cell in a 4. 3 5
Battery? 5. 4
6. 5
295 How many Battery 4. 5 5
in one trolley of 5. 3
Battery box? 6. 4
296 How many battery 1. 9 10
in one Motor coach? 2. 8
3. 10
297 How much voltage 4. 110V 105V
in one Motor coach? 5. 105V
6. 120V
298 How many positive 4. 5 5
plates provided in 5. 6
one Battery? 6. 7
299 How many negative 1. 5 6
plates provided in 2. 6
one Battery? 3. 7
300 How many terminals 4. One Two
provided in one 5. Two
Battery? 6. Three
301 What colour exist on 1. Red Red
positive terminal? 2. Blue
3. Yellow
302 What colour exist on 1. Red Blue
negative terminal? 2. Blue
3. Yellow
303 What is rating of 1. 60A 80A
the Battery fuse? 2. 70A
3. 80A
304 What gas 1. H2 H2
evaporates 2. NH2
during charging 3. CO2
of Battery?
305 Which acid 1. H2SO4 H2SO4
utilized for 2. HCL
making 3. None
electrolysis?
306 What is Battery 1. Spongy lead Spongy lead
positive plate 2. Spongy cadmium
material? 3. Spongy nickel
307 What is Battery 1. Lead oxide Lead oxaide
negative plate 2. Cadmium oxide
material? 3. Nickel oxide
308 What is the 1. 25 sq. mm. 25 sq. mm.
measurement of 2. 20 sq. mm.
lead used of 3. 15 sq. mm.
Battery?
309 What is the 1.49 Kg. (approx.) 47 Kg.
weight of one 2.247 Kg. (approx.) (approx.)
Battery with 3. 48 Kg. (approx.)
electrolyte?
310 What type of 1.Parallel Series
connection 2. Series
provided in 3.Series-parallel
Battery box?
311 How many fuses 1. Two Two
(80A) connected 2. Three
in Battery fuse 3. Four
box?
312 What material 1.PPCP PPCP
used for making 2.PPBP
Battery body? 3.PPDP
313 What is value of 1.2.1 V 2.1 V
cell voltage? 2.2.2 V
3.2.3 V
314 What instrument 1.Hygrometer Hydrometer
used for 2.Hydrometer
measuring 3.None
Specific gravity?
315 What is the 1.8x40 mm. 8x40 mm.
measurement of 2.8x50 mm.
bolt to connect 3.10x50 mm.
battery lead?
316 What is the 1.8 mm. 8 mm.
measurement of 2.9 mm.
washer used to 3.10 mm.
connect Battery
lead?
317 10V 90Ah Battery 1.19 Amps 18 Amps.
what is value of 2.18 Amps
discharge 3.17 Amps.
current?
318 10V 90Ah Battery 1.5 hours 5 hours
what is value of 2. 6 hours
discharge time? 3. 7 hours
319 How many 1.6 6
fixation bolts 2.7
used for Battery 3.8
box foundation?
320 What is ratio of 1. 1:3 1:3
Acid and distilled 2. 2:3
water for 3. 3:3
electrolysis?
321 What instrument 1.DC voltmeter DC voltmeter
fitted in rake to 2.DC Ammeter
check Battery 3.None
and charging
voltage?
322 What instrument 1. DC voltmeter DC Ammeter
fitted in rake to 2. DC Ammeter
check Battery 3. None
and charging
current?
323 What instrument 1.Clamp meter Capacitance
used to check 2.Capacitance meter meter
capacitance 3.None
value?
324 What is value of 1.476 µFD 576 µFD
AC capacitor in 2.576 µFD
DP charger? 3.376 µFD
325 How many bridge 1.4 4
diodes used for 2.5
rectifying in 3.6
Battery charger?
326 What is input 1.266 V AC 266V AC
voltage of Battery 2.276 V AC
charger? 3.286 V AC
AC capacitor of 2.252 µFD
RAMYYA make 3.272 µFD
Battery Charger?
AC capacitor of 2.288 µFD
MB make Battery 3.228 µFD
Charger?
329 What is the value 1.800 µFD 800 µFD
of DC filter 1.600 µFD
capacitor of DP 2.400 µFD
make charger?
capacitor of 3.5000 µFD
RAMYYA make
charger?
capacitor of 3.200 µFD
LAMDA make
charger?
capacitor of MB 3.5000 µFD
make charger?
333 What is input 1.20A 20A
fuse value of DP 2.25A
charger? 3.30A
334 What is output 1. 20A 25A
fuse value of DP 2. 25A
charger? 3. 30A
335 What is the 1.100V 110V
output voltage of 2.105V
Battery charger? 3.110V
336 What indication 1.BCFL BCFL
ensures Battery 2.BCFS
charger working 3.None
or not?
337 On run what type 1.Battery voltage Control voltage
of voltage 2.Charging voltage
showing on 3.Control voltage
voltmeter?
338 What charging 1.1-2 Amps 1-2 Amps
current should be 2.2-4 Amps
in normal 3.3-5 Amps
condition?
339 What is ferrule 1.B2 B2
marking of 2.B3
Battery positive 3.B4
lead at LT
compartment?
340 What is ferrule 1. B2 B3
marking of 2. B3
Battery negative 3. B4
lead at LT
compartment?
341 What is value of 1. 1200-1210 1235-1255
specific gravity of 2. 1235-1255
Battery? 3. 1265-1275
342 What is the 1. 32 Kg. (approx.) 30 Kg.
weight of one 2. 31 Kg. (approx.) (approx.)
Battery without 3. 30 Kg. (approx.)
electrolyte?
343 What is the full 1. Equal fault relay Auxiliary Earth fault
form of EFRA-II 2. Earth fault relay Aux-II relay Aux-II
3. Earth finding relay Aux-II
344 What is the full 1. Switch for EFRA-II Switch for
form of HEFRA-II 2. handle for EFRA-II EFRA-II
3. none
345 How many circuit 1. 2 2
of light in a 2. 3
coach? 3. 4
346 How many circuit 1. 2 2
of light in a 2. 3
coach? 3. 4
347 In what manner 1. Series Zigzag
provided light or 2. Parallel
Fan in a coach? 3. Zigzag
348 What is the value 1. 5A 5A
of one coach light 2. 7A
ckt MCB? 3. 8A
349 What is the value 1. 5A 10 A
of one coach Fan 2. 10A
ckt MCB? 3. 15A
of one coach light 2. 10A
ckt MCB in 3. 11A
negative side?
of one coach Fan 2. 15A
ckt MCB in 3. 17A
negative side?
352 How many 1. 2 2
emergency light 2. 3
ckt in one coach? 3. 4
353 What is the value 1. 2.5A 2.5A
of emergency 2. 3A
light ckt MCB? 3. 5A
354 What is the value 1. 5A 5A
of emergency 2. 7A
light ckt MCB in 3. 9A
negative side?
355 What is the value 1. 30 A 35 A
of Fan ckt MCB 2. 35 A
of one unit? 3. 40 A
356 What is the value 1. 10 A 10 A
of Light ckt MCB 2. 15 A
of one unit? 3. 20 A
357 What is the effect 1. VCB closed VCB trip
for EFRA_II trip? 2. VCB trip
3. None
358 What is the 1. 9W 9W
voltage value of 2. 10W
LED tube light in 3. 11W
coach
359 What is the 1. 141V 141 V
voltage in light & 2. 151V
Fan Circuit? 3. 161V
360 What is the 1. 400-450mm 400-450 mm
sweep length of 2. 500-550mm
coach fan? 3. 600-650mm
361 What is the 1. 4/5 µfd 4/5 µfd
capacitance value 2. 6/7 µfd
of coach fan 3. 8/9 µfd
capacitor?
362 How many light 1. 26 26
provided in old 2. 27
conventional A or 3. 28
C coach?
363 How many Fan 1. 26 26
provided in old 2. 27
conventional A or 3. 28
C coach?
provided in 2. 19
conventional D 3. 18
coach?
provided in 2. 16
conventional D 3. 18
coach
provided in new 2. 36
ICF A or C type 3. 37
coach?
ICF A or C type 3. 44
coach?
ICF D type 3. 44
coach?
369 How many Light 1. 35 36
ICF D type 3. 37
coach?
provided in 2. 29
conventional B 3. 30
coach?
ICF B coach? 3. 29
provided in 2. 23
conventional B 3. 24
coach?
373 What is the 1. Charge the battery Charge the
function battery 2. Charge the Aux-I Ckt Battery
Charger 3. Charge the Aux-IICkt
374 What is the 1. 12V AC 12V AC
voltage in cab 2. 13V AC
spot light? 3. 14V AC
375 What is the 1. 9W 11 W
wattage of CFL in 2. 10 W
EMU cab? 3. 11 W
376 What is the full 1. Liquid crystal diode Liquid crystal
form LCD in 2. Liquid crystal display display
Electronic head 3. Light crystal display
code?
377 What is the full 1. Light emission Diode Light emission
form LED in 2. Liquid crystal Diode Diode
Electronic head 3. Light emission Display
code?
.378 What is the full 1. Switch mode power supply Switch mode
form SMPS in 2. Switch mode panel supply power supply
Electronic head 3. Stand mode power supply
code?
379 Why is the input 1. 110 V DC 110 V DC
voltage in 2. 111 V DC
electronic Head 3. 112 V DC
code?
380 What is means 1. MAIN MENU
“C” on key Pad in 2. MENU
electronic Head 3. MIDDLE
code?
381 What is means 1. ENTER ENTER
“B” on key Pad in 2. EXTENTION
electronic Head 3. NONE
code?
382 What is means 1. Back Right Back Space
“D” on key Pad in 2. Back Space
electronic Head 3. None
code?
383 What is means 1. Exit Menu Exit Menu
“A” on key Pad in 2. Exit Main
electronic Head 3. Exit middle
code?
384 What is means 1. Train Route Train No
“*” on key Pad in 2. Train Via
electronic Head 3. Train no
code?
385 What is means 1. Nos of Coaches Nos of Coaches
“#” on key Pad in 2. Nos of trains
electronic Head 3. Nos of route
code?
386 What is the 1. 5 V 5V
output value of 2. 6 V
Voltage in 3. 7 V
electronic Head
code?
387 What is the 1. 2 Ft 2 Ft
length of tube 2. 3 Ft
light fitted in 3. 4 Ft
EMU coach?
388 What type of 1. Normal water Distilled water
water used in 2. Distilled water
Battery? 3. Dirty water
389 What type of fan 1. Fixed type Swiveling type
fitted in cab on 2. Inclined type
LPP side? 3. Swiveling type
390 What is the 1. 18-20 W 18-20 W
wattage of FL 2. 20-22 W
tube light in EMU 3. 22-24 W
coach?
391 No. of bogie in 1. 1 2
EMU coach 2. 2
3. 3
392 Type of coupler 1.Permanent Semi-
used in EMU 2.Automatic permanent
3.Semi-permanentscaku coupler scaku coupler
393 Type of wheel in 1.Solid forged & Cast wheel Solid forged &
EMU 2.Tyre wheel Cast wheel
3.Solid forged & tyre wheel
394 Whether tyre 1.Yes No
wheel fitted in 2.No
EMU
395 Name the gauge 1. ‘J’ gauge Profile gauge
used for 2. Profile gauge
measuring tread 3. Flange gauge
wear
396 Name the gauge 1. ‘J’ gauge ‘J’ gauge
used for 2. Profile gauge
measuring tyre 3.Flange gauge
thickness
397 Name the 1. ‘J’ gauge Flange gauge
instrument used 2. Profile gauge
for measuring 3. Flange gauge
flange thickness
398 New wheel dia of 1. 952 mm. 952 mm.
motor coach 2. 877 mm.
3. 857 mm.
399 New wheel dia of 1.952 mm. 952 mm.
trailor coach 2. 877 mm.
3.857 mm.
400 Condemning dia 1.877 mm. 877 mm.
of motor coach 2.857 mm.
wheel 3.865 mm.
401 Condemning dia 1. 877 mm. 857 mm.
of conventional 2. 857 mm.
Trailor coach 3. 865 mm.
solid wheel
of HCC bogie 2. 857 mm.
solid wheel in 3. 865 mm.
Trailor coach
of cast wheel in 2. 857 mm.
Trailor coach 3. 865 mm.
404 New flange 1. 29.4 mm. 29.4 mm.
thickness of EMU 2. 30 mm.
wheel 3. 29 mm.
405 Condemning 1. 25 mm. 22 mm.
flange thickness 2. 22 mm.
of EMU wheel 3. 27 mm.
406 Serviceable limit 1. 5 mm. 5 mm.
(maxm) of tread 2. 6 mm.
wear 3. 4 mm.
407 Name the gauge 1. Wheel distance gauge Wheel distance
used for 2. ‘J’ gauge gauge
measuring wheel 3. Flange gauge
gauge
408 Measurement 1. 1600 +1 -2 mm. 1600 +2 -1
limit of wheel 2. 1600 +2 -1 mm. mm.
distance gauge 3. 1600 mm.
409 Maximum oil 1. 97 mm. 97 mm.
level in dashpot 2. 77 mm.
of motor coach 3. 70 mm.
level in dash-pot 2. 77 mm.
of HCC Trailor 3. 70 mm.
coach
level in dash-pot 2. 77 mm.
of conventional 3. 70 mm.
Trailor coach
412 Full form of HCC 1. High carrying capacity High carrying
2. Heavy carrying capacity capacity.
3. Hard carrying capacity
413 Side bearer oil 1. Above bronze piece Above ground
level 2. Above ground plate plate
414 Type of ferodo 1. Non-asbestos Non-asbestos
brake block used 2. Asbestos
in EMU
415 Type of brake 1. Single piece Single piece
pull rod used in 2. 2 piece
EMU 3. 3 piece
416 Serviceable limit 1. Up to 20 mm. Below 30 mm.
of flat wheel 2. Up to 25 mm.
3. Below 30 mm.
417 Name the grease 1. RR-3 RR-3
used iin axle box 2. Servogem
418 Type of roller 1. Direct mounted double row Direct
bearing used in spherical roller bearing. mounted
EMU axle 2. Direct mounted single row double row
spherical roller bearing. spherical roller
bearing.
419 Shock absorber 1. 600 Kg. 900 Kg.
capacity of motor 2. 900 Kg.
coach
conventional
bogie
capacity of trailor 2. 900 Kg.
coach
conventional
bogie
(vertical) capacity 2. 900 Kg.
of air-spring 3. 300 Kg.
bogie
422 Name the 1. Contact thermometer infrared Non-contact
instrument which 2. Non-contact infrared infrared
measures axle thermometer. thermometer.
box temperature
423 Gap between 1. 10-12 mm. 10-12 mm.
brake block and 2. 20 mm.
wheel 3. 25 mm.
424 Allowable axle 1. 80 80
box temperature 2. 50
difference 3. 150
between same
wheel
425 Measurement 1. 180 +20 -0 mm. 180 +20 -0
limit of 2. 180 +0 -20 mm. mm.
cowcatcher 3. 180 mm.
height
426 Buffer height of 1. 1090 +0 -15 mm. 1090 +0 -15
EMU coach 2.1090 +20 -0 mm. mm.
3. 1090 +15 -0 mm.
427 New brake block 1. 49 mm. 49 mm.
thickness 2. 59 mm.
3. 45 mm.
428 EMU secondary 1. Bolster spring/air-bellow Bolster/air-
suspension 2. Axle guide spring. bellow
consist of
429 EMU primary 1. Axle guide spring & dashpot. Axle guide
suspension 2. Bolster/air bellow spring &
consists of dashpot.
430 Variation of 1. 5 mm. 0.5 mm.
wheel dia in same 2. 0.5 mm.
axle 3. 15 mm.
4. 13 mm.
431 Variation of 1. 5 mm. 5 mm.
wheel dia in same 2. 0.5 mm.
bogie. 3. 15 mm.
4. 13 mm.
432 Variation of 1.5 mm. 13 mm.
wheel dia in 2.0.5 mm.
different bogie. 3.15 mm.
4. 13 mm.
433 Number of roller 1. 28 28
in axle bearing. 2.24
3.20
4.30
434 In air-spring 1. 49 mm. 40 +-5 mm.
boge, gap 2. 33 mm.
between bogie 3. 30 mm.
frame and bogie 4. 40 +-5 mm.
bolster
435 In air-spring 1.Air-bellow Air-bellow
bogie, what is 2.Air dryer
replaced by
bolster spring
436 Whether different 1.Yes No
bellow make can 2.No
be fitted in same
bogie
437 Whether different 1.Yes No
colour coding of 2.No
axle guide spring
can be fitted in
same
coach/bogie
438 Whether different 1. Yes No
colour coding 2. No
bolster spring
can be fitted in
same
coach/bogie
439 Condemning limit 1. 4.7 mm. 6.0 mm.
of Even wear 2. 5.0 mm.
3. 6.0 mm.
440 Condemning limit 1. 4.7 mm. 4.7 mm.
of Root wear 2. 5.0 mm.
3.6.0 mm.
441 Anchor link 1. MC Conv. TC
mechanism is 2. HCC
seen in 3. Conv. TC
442 Type of schaku 1. Automatic Semi
coupler used in 2. Semi Automatic Permanent
3. Semi Permanent
443 What is the POH 1. 16 month 18 month
schedule 2. 18 month
3. 20 month
444 What si the load 1. Centre pivot Side Bearer
carrying 2. Side bearer
member? 3. Schaku Coupler
445 Where 1. Centre pivot Schaku
articulation 2. Axle bearing Coupler
bearing is seen? 3. Schaku Coupler
446 How much degree 1. 13 degree 13 degree
of rotation is 2. 10 degree
permitted by 3. 15 degree
Schaku Coupler?
447 Tare weight of TC 1. 30Ton 34 Ton
2. 32Ton
3. 34Ton
448 Tare weight of 1. 60Ton 58 Ton
MC 2. 58Ton
3. 64Ton
449 Type of Bogie 1. Cast Fabricated
frame? 2. Fabricated
3. Forged
450 Type of Bogie 1. BO-BO BO-BO
used in EMU 2. B-B
Coaches? 3. CO-CO
451 Hot Axle failure 1. TM bearing Axle bearing
is due to 2. Axle bearing
3. None
452 Hair line crack 1. 10-12mm 12-25 mm
“B” limit 2. 12-25 mm
3. Above 25mm
453 Width of Wheel 1. 127-130 mm 127-130 mm
2. 128-132 mm
3. 134-136 mm
454 Rigid wheel base 1. 2500 mm 2896 mm
of EMU 2. 2896 mm
3. 3010 mm
455 No of brake 1. 12 16
block fitted in a 2. 16
coach 3. 18
456 Best category of 1. Blue Green
Spring 2. Green
3. Yellow
457 Dia of Swing link 1. 34 mm 45 mm
pin 2. 40 mm
3. 45 mm
458 False flange is a 1. Tread Tread
wheel defect of 2. Flange
3. Axel
459 MC & HCC bogie 1. Water Oil
center pivot 2. Oil
contains 3. Grease
460 Damping agent 1. Dash pot Shock Absorber
of Secendry 2. Shock Absorber
Suspension 3. Sand width block
461 No of Bolster 1. 10 16
spring fitted in a 2. 14
coach 3. 16
462 Type of Bolster 1. Single rested Double
spring 2. Double
3. Tripple
463 Parking brake 1. Filled with air Nil
acts when Brake 2. Nil
Cylinder is 3. Half filled with air
464 Type of (a)AM-14 (b)AM-12
pantograph used (b)AM-12
in conventional (c)AM-22
EMU/MEMU (d)AM-15
Motor Coaches
465 Maximum (a)2450mm (c)2460mm
possible (b)2400mm
extension of AM- (c)2460mm
12 type panto (d)2410mm
466 Material of (a)Aluminium (b)Braided
flexible shunt (b)Braided copper wire copper wire
(c)SS wire
(d)GI wire
467 Weight of CPL (a)200 kg (d)215 kg

make Panto(AM- (b)300 kg
12) excluding foot (c)250 kg
insulators (d)215 kg
468 Weight of SIL (a)200 kg (c)235 kg

make Panto(AM- (b)300 kg
12) excluding foot (c)235 kg
insulators (d)250 kg
469 Raising time of (a)8-13 sec (b)6-10 sec

pantograph (b)6-10 sec
(c)10-15 sec
(d)5-8 sec
470 Lowering time of (a)Up to 6 sec (c) Up to 10 sec

pantograph (b) Up to 8 sec
(c) Up to 10 sec
(d) Up to 12 sec
471 Cold resistance of (a)1450-1550 ohms (a)1450-1550

panto operating (b) 1140-1250 ohms ohms
valve coil of Rotex (c) 1700-1800 ohms
make (d) 1000-1100 ohms
472 Pick up voltage of (a)Less than or equal to 65 volts (a)Less than or
Rotex make (b) Less than or equal to 60 volts equal to 65
panto valve (c)More than 65 volts volts
(d)Non
473 Pick up current (a)40 mA (d)42 mA

at 65 volts of (b)45 mA
Rotex make (c)55 mA
panto valve (d)42 mA
474 Drop out voltage (a)30-31 volts (b)11-28 volts

of Rotex make (b)11-28 volts
panto valve (c)30-35 volts
(d)Non
475 Drop out current (a)18 mA (a)18 mA

of Rotex make (b)20 mA
panto valve at 28 (c)25 mA
volts (d)30mA
476 Coid resistance of (a)40 ohms (b) 29.9 ohms

panto operating (b) 29.9 ohms
valve coil of BHEL (c) 31.9 ohms
make (d) Non
477 Maximum (a)60 volts a.c. (c)65 volts d.c.
operating voltage (b)60 volts d.c.
of BHEL make (c)65 volts d.c.
panto valve (d)65 volts a.c.
478 Folded height of (a)210 mm (b)205 mm
panto without (b)205 mm
insulator of EMU (c)220 mm
(d)Non
479 Folded height of (a)200 mm (c)276 mm

panto without (b)250mm
insulator of (c)276 mm
LOCO (d)260 mm
480 Static pressure of (a)10 kg/cm2 (c)7 kg/cm2
pantograph is (b)9 kg/cm2
adjusted at (c)7 kg/cm2
(d)8 kg/cm2
481 What is the (a)10 kg (b)9 kg

weight of panto (b)9 kg
pan (c)8 kg
(d)12 kg
482 Minimum (a)4.5 kg/cm2 (a)4.5 kg/cm2

pressure for (b)8 kg/cm2
complete (c)2.5 kg/cm2
extension of (d)Non
panto
483 Total span of (a)1700 mm (c)1800 mm
panto pan is (b)1600 mm
(c)1800 mm
(d)Non
484 Nos of turns in (a)25/26 turns (a)25/26 turns
panto main (b) 27/28 turns
spring coil is (c) 20/21 turns
(d) Non
485 Deflection of (a)Less than 30 mm (b) Less than

plunger spring (b) Less than 25mm 25mm
using 10 kg (c) 35 mm
weight (d)Non
486 Lubricants (a)Vaseline (a)Vaseline

recommended for (b)K-oil
throttle valve is (c)Non
487 Condemning limit (a)3.8 mm (b)3.5mm

of metallised (b)3.5mm
carbon strip is (c)4.5 mm
(d)5 mm
488 Transverse (a)30 mm (a)30 mm

flexibility using (b)32 mm
30 kg should be (c)38 mm
(d)Non
489 Flexible shunt (a)28% (b)20%
should be (b)20%
changed when (c)25%
wire braided are (d)35%
cut
490 Panto main (a)Raising spring (a)Raising
spring are called (b)Lowering spring spring
(c)Non
491 The pantograph (a)Yes (a)Yes
is link between (b)No
the overhead
contact system
and the power
circuit of
EMU/LOCO
492 Cylinder support (a)Aluminium (a)Aluminium
is made of (b)Copper
(c)Cast iron
493 Control rod (a)Yes (a)Yes
lowers panto (b)No
when operated
494 Different type of (a)Yes (a)Yes
panto is used in (b)No
three phase AC
EMU than
conventional
EMU
495 Type of panto (a)WBL 03 (b)WBL 22.03
used in three (b)WBL 22.03
phase AC EMU (c)AM-12
(d)Non
496 Weight of three (a)Approx 200 kg (c)Approx 150
phase EMU(WBL (b)Approx 300 kg kg
22.03) SCHUNK (c)Approx 150 kg
MAKE without (d)Approx 215 kg
insulator is
497 Width of pan (a)1700 mm (c)1800 mm
head(WBL 22.03) (b)1600 mm
(c)1800 mm
(d)Non
498 Servomotor is not (a)True (a)True
available in WBL (b)False
22.03 Panto
499 ADD stands for (a)Auto drop device (a)Auto drop
(b)Auto drain device device
(c)Non
500 ORD Means (a)Over reach Detector (a)Over reach
(b)Over read Detector Detector
(c)Non
501 Panto pan (a)Aluminium (c)Metallised
current collector (b)Copper carbon
material is (c)Metallised carbon
(d)Non
502 Condemning limit (a)25 mm (c)26 mm
of metallised (b)29 mm
carbon strip is for (c)26 mm
WBL 22.03 (d)30 mm
503 Plunger box is (a)Yes (a)Yes
replace by leaf (b)No
spring in WBL
22.03 Type panto
504 Maximum (a)2500 mm (d)2400 mm
extension of WBL (b)2600 mm
22.03 Type panto (c)2700 mm
(d)2400 mm
505 Air pressure for (a)5 bar (c)5.5 bar
raising (b)6 bar
pantograph WBL (c)5.5 bar
22.03 (d)Non
506 Air pressure for (a)5 bar (b)6 bar
continuous (b)6 bar
operation of (c)7bar
pantograph( WBL (d)Non
22.03)
507 Maximum speed (a)150 kmph (b)160 kmph
under good (b)160 kmph
overhead wire (c)Non
condition ( WBL
22.03)
508 Raising spring of (a)Yes (a)Yes
AM-12 panto is (b)No
replaced by air
bellow in WBL
22.03 Pantograph
509 Gapless type (a)True (a)True
Lighting Arrestor (b)False
is used in EMU
510 IR value of (a)900 ohms (b) 1000 ohms
Gapless Lighting (b) 1000 ohms
Arrestor using (c) 700 ohms
2.5 KV insulation (d) 800 ohms
tester should be
more than
511 Maximum speed (a)90kmph (b)100 kmph
under good (b)100kmph
overhead wire (c)Non
condition for AM-
12 panto
512 Weight of throttle (a)1.4 kg (a)1.4 kg
vlve is (b)2 kg
(c)2.5 k g
(d)Non
513 Length of carbon (a)500 mm (b)520 mm
strip in straight (b)520 mm
portion ia (c)230 mm
(d)Non
514 What type of 1. DC series Three Phase
Motor used in 2. Synchronous AC Induction
Wheel turning 3. Three Ph AC Induction
lathe?
515 What si the 1. 10-20 kg/sq. Cm 20-50 kg/sq.
Hydraulic 2. 20-50 kg/sq. Cm Cm
pressure in 3. 50-80 kg/sq. Cm
various
equipment of
wheel lathe?
516 Capacity of which 1. 1 Ton 3 Ton
machine for 2. 2 Ton
pulling of EMU 3. 3 Ton
coach?
517 What is max. 1. 5 mm 13 mm
Wheel dia 2. 10 mm
difference 3. 13 mm
between bogie to
bogie?
518 What ismax. 1. 1 mm 0.5 mm
Wheel dia 2. 0.5 mm
difference in 3. 2 mm
same Axle ?
519 What is max. 1. 1 mm 5 mm
Wheel dia 2. 3 mm
difference in 3. 5 mm
same bogie ?
520 What is the 1. 857 mm 865 mm
condemn limit of 2. 865 mm
HCC solid wheel 3. 877 mm
dia if T/Coach ?
521 What is the 1. 877 mm 877 mm
condemn dia of 2. 857 mm
any cast wheel ? 3. 865 mm
522 What type of 1. Universal Motor Slip ring AC
motor is used in 2. Slip ring AC Induction Motor Induction
Air Compressor? 3. Squirrel cage AC Induction Motor Motor
523 What is the full 1. Electrically operated Travelling Electric
form of EOT Crane overhead
crane? 2. Electronically overhead Transverse transverse
3. Electric overhead transverse
524 Capacity of Air 1. CFM CFM
Compressor 2. SFM
representby ? 3. LPS
524 Rating of Pump 1. CFM² M³/Hr
represent by 2. SFM
3. M³/Hr
526 What is the good 1. Less than 2 Ω Less than 2 Ω
Earth resistance 2. Less than 5 Ω
value in case of 3. Less than 4 Ω
copper wiring?
527 What is the unit 1. Meter Meter
of Head any 2. Second
dewatering 3. Kg
pump?
528 Cable size of a 50 1. 35 mm² 95 mm²
HP motor should 2. 50 mm²
be 3. 95 mm²
529 What current 1. 100 A 200 A
required to weld 2. 150 A
a 6mm rod by a 3. 200 A
welding machine?
530 What method is 1. Frequency changing Pole Changing
used for speed 2. Voltage changing
changing of wheel 3. Pole changing
lathe motor ?
531 Why earth pin of 1. To identify Earth contact
a 3 Pin plug 2. Earth contact with earth during with earth
made longer in connecting & late separation during during
size? disconnecting the 3 pin plug connecting &
3. To reduce loose connection. late separation
during
disconnecting
the 3 pin plug
532. If you want to “OFF” MCP then what will you do?
a) OFF MCP control MCB b) OFF MCP Synchronizing MCB c) Open MCP fuse
d) All of these.
Ans. :- (d)
533. How many type of Brake Binding occurs ?

a) Electrical b) Mechanical c) Pneumatic d) All of the these.
Ans. :- (d)
534. If MCP is not working which equipment will you check ?

a) 160A fuse b) Check CR, Control MCB, MCB Synchronizing c) By-pass switch d) All of
the these.
Ans. :- (d)
535. “BP pressure continuously destroying through “Dead-man” valve. How to attend ?
a) Isolate BPIC b) Isolate MRIC c) Isolate “ Dead-man’s” cock d) All of the these.
Ans. :- (c)
536. “Normally air leakage from EP unit & Binding occurred” – How to attend?
a) Isolate BPIC b) Isolate MRIC c) Isolate EPIC & ICA d) Isolate CIC
Ans. :- (c)
537. “MR pipe line broken online before CIC of Motor coach”.—How to attend ?
a) Isolate CIC b) MCP kept off c) Broken pipe to be tied with GI wire d) All of the these.
Ans. :- (d)
538. “MR pipe line broken online after CIC of Motor coach”.--- How to attend ?
a) Isolate both end MRIC b) MCP kept OFF c) Broken pipe to be tied with GI wire d) All of
the these
Ans. :- (d)
539. MCP Governor Diaphragm burst online. --- How to attend ?
a) Isolate MCP Governor isolating cock b) MCP Governor MCB kept “ OFF” c) None of the
these
d) All of the these.
Ans. :- (a)
540. BP pipe broken of Trailer coach online.—what will be the effect ?

a) Brake binding only in the same Trailer Coach b) Brake binding throughout the rake c) No
brake binding d) All of the these.
Ans. :- (b)
541. BP pipe broken of Trailer coach online.— How to attend ?

a) Isolate both end BPIC b) Isolate EPIC & ICA c) Charge BIVS on both cab d) All of the these.
Ans. (d)
542. What is the height of installation lever ?

a) 290 mm to 340 mm b) 285 mm to 335 mm c) 295 mm to 345 mm d) None of the these
Ans. :- (a)
543. What is the setting of ACP Governor ?

a) 5.2 to 6.4 kg/cm2 b) 5.3 to 6.4 kg/cm2 c) 5.4 to 6.4 kg/cm2 d) None of the these.
Ans. :- (a)
544. What is the setting of MCP Governor ?

a) 6.0 to 7.0 kg/cm2 b) 6.2 to 7.2 kg/cm2 c) All of the these d) None of the these.
545. What is the setting of control Governor ?

a) 4.2 to 3.1 kg/cm2 b) 4.1 to 3.2 kg/cm2 c) 4.2 to 3.2 kg/cm2 d) None of the these
Ans. :- (c)
546. What is the setting of Equipment Governor ?

a) 4.2 to 3.3 kg/cm2 b) 4.1 to 3.3 kg/cm2 c) 4.1 to 3.2 kg/cm2 d) None of the these.
Ans. :- (a)
547. What is the pressure setting of Parking Brake ?

a) 4.8 kg/cm2 b) 5.0 kg/cm2 c) 5.2 kg/cm2 d) None of the these.
Ans. :- (b)
548. What is the length of MR hose ?

a) 1900 mm b) 2150 mm c) 2000 mm d) None of the these.
Ans. :- ( b)
549. What is the length of BP hose ?

a) 2150 mm b) 2200 mm c) 2000 mm d) None of the these.
Ans. :- (a)
550. What is the contact finger pressure of Brake controller ?
a) 270-300 gms b) 290-300 gms. c) 280-300 gms. d) 300-320 gms.
Ans. :- (c)
551. What is the contact pressure of brake relay (Autel make) ?

a) 900-1100 gms. b) 1000-1100 gms. c) 900-1000 gms. d) 1000-1200 gms.
Ans. :- (a)
552. Good health of desiccant of Air dryer (Humidity indicator) indicated by the colour—
a) Red b) Yellow c) Blue d) Purple
Ans. :- (c)
553. Dead man’s valve is operated by ---

a) Application Top valve b) Pilot valve c) Graduating valve d) Feed valve
Ans. :- (b)
554. Colour of BP metal pipe in conventional coaches –

a) Red b) Green c) Yellow d) All of the these.
Ans. :- (c)
555. Auto brake is applied by the pressure of ----

a) Main Reservoir b) Auxiliary Reservoir c) Control Reservoir d) Horn Reservoir.
Ans. :- (b)
556. Return wire no. of EP unit (Holding & Application magnet coils) is –
a) 37 b) 38 c) 40 d) 36
Ans. :- (c)
557. A valve assembly fitted between two air bellows Auxiliary Reservoir is called—
a) Duplex check valve b) Pilot valve c) Leveling valve d) None of the above.
Ans. :- (a)
558. In-coming air pressure in EP limiting valve on EP application---

a) 4.8 kg/cm2 b) 5.0 kg/cm2 c) 3.5 kg/cm2 d) MR pressure at that time.
Ans. :- (d)
559. Wire no. 37 & 38 in Brake Application Relay are introduced from ---
a) Wire no. 3601 b) Wire no. 3602 c) Wire no. 3603 d) None of the above.
Ans. :- (c)
560. Sump capacity of KPC make MCP—

a) 6.2 Ltrs. b) 7.4 Ltrs. c) 6.4 Ltrs. d) None of the above.
Ans. :- (a)
561. 3 connecting rods in an MCP are kept in an angular position—

a) 90 degree b) 120 degree c) 45 degree d) None of the above.
Ans. :- (b)
562. Height of an air bellow with full air pressure—
a) 255mm b) 240 mm c) 200 mm d) None of the above.
Ans. :- (a)
563. Air flows from ASS reservoir to air bellow through ---
a) Graduating valve b) Leveling valve c) Guide Valve d) Installation lever.
Ans. :-( b)
564. MCP runs at ---

a) 121 V b) 141V c) 110 V d) None of the above.
Ans. :- (c)
565. To pick-up starting Relay it needs---

a) Only control governor active b) Only Equipment governor active c) Both CG & EG active d)
None of these.
Ans. :- (c)
566. Control reservoir supply air pressure to –

a)EP units b) Auto units c) Leveling valves d) Tap changer air chambers.
Ans. :- (d)
567. What is the MCP safety valve (HP) setting ?

a) 7.8 kg/cm2 b) 7.6 kg/cm2 c) 7.9 kg/cm2 d) None of these.
Ans. :- (a)
568. Colour of MR metal pipe in conventional coaches---

a) Green b) Red c) Yellow d) White.
Ans. :- (b)
569. EP brake is applied by the pressure of ---

a) Control reservoir b) Auxiliary reservoir c) Main reservoir d) None of the above.
Ans. :- (c)
570. EP application magnet coil wire no. is –

a) 36 & 37 b) 37 & 38 c) 38 & 40 d) 37 & 38
Ans. :- (c)
571. In-coming air pressure of additional limit valve---

a) 3.5 kg/cm2 b) 4.8 kg/cm2 c) 5 kg/cm2 d) 2 kg/cm2
Ans. :- (a)
572. Sump capacity of ELGI make MCP ---

a) 6.15 Ltrs. b) 6.2 Ltrs. c) 6.0 ltrs. d) 6.25 ltrs.
Ans. :- (d)
573. What is the pressure setting of EP limit valve—

a) 2.0 kg/cm2 b) 3.6 kg/cm2 c) 1.2 kg/cm2 d) 1.6 kg/cm2
Ans. :- (b)
574. What is the pressure build up time of ACP—
a) 10-12 mins b) 12-15 mins c) 6 -8 mins d) 7-9 mins
Ans. :- (a)
575. What is the pressure setting of EP unit safety valve ---

a) 3.6 kg/cm2 b) 3.5 kg/cm2 c) 3.9 kg/cm2 d) None of these.
Ans. :- (c)
576. Which make Air dryer is not provided in EMU rake—

a) Knorr Bremse b) Prag Polymer c) Stone India Limited d) Escorts.
Ans. :- (d)
577. What is the magnet coil resistance of Escorts make EP—

a) 500 ± 5% Ω b) 425 ± 5%Ω c) a & b both d) None of the above.
Ans. :- (a)
578. Which type of lubricant is used in WSF make EP unit—

a) Renolit HLT2 b) HP-CHASIS c) Servo RR -3 d) None of the above.
Ans. (b)
579. Which type of lubricant is used in ELGI make MCP—

a) SS 57 b) SP 150 c) SS 68 d) SL 150
Ans. (b)
580. Which type of lubricant is used in KPC make MCP---

a) SS 68 b) SP 150 c) SL 150 d) SS 57
Ans. :-(a)
581. Which type of lubricant is used in Escorts make EP unit—

a) Servo RR3 b) HP CHASIS c) Renolit HLT2 d) None of these.
Ans. :-(c)
582. At present what is the brake cylinder stroke length—

a) 40 mm b) 50 mm c) 55 mm d) 45 mm.
Ans. :- (a)
583. What is the maximum stroke length of Brake cylinder—

a) 90 mm b) 95 mm c) 100 mm d) None of these.
Ans. :-(b)
584. What is the total gap to be maintained between Brake block and wheel—
a) 10 mm b) 16 mm c) 15 mm d) 13 mm.
Ans. :- (d)
585. What is the maximum allowable TAKE-UP of brake cylinder---

a) 300 mm. b) 305 mm c) 310 mm. d) None of these.
Ans. :- (b)
586. What is the pressure setting of duplex check valve—
a) 1.5 ± 0.15 kg/cm2 b) 1.2 ± 0.15 kg/cm2 c) 1.5 ± 0.12 kg/cm2 d) 1.2 ± 0.12 kg/cm2
Ans. :- (a)
587. Which make leveling valve is not provided in EMU rake—

a) FTIL b) WSF c) Escorts d) Knorr Bremse
Ans. :- (b)
588 In conventional rake for look-out 1. Normal glass (Heat Laminated

glass/Hd. Code glass which type treatment glass) glass.
of material used? 2. Laminated glass
3. Toughened glass
589 In Air-suspension rake (single 1. Laminated glass Polycarbonate
piece look-out glass type) which 2. Polycarbonate sheet sheet.
type of material used for look-out 3. Toughened glass
glass purpose?
590 Design of sole bar in ICF/BEML 1. ‘U’ type ‘Z’ type
rake 2. ‘C’ type
3. ‘Z’ type
591 Design of sole bar in Jessop rake 1. ‘U’ type ‘C’ type
2. ‘C’ type
3. ‘Z’ type
592 Tare weight of ICF motor coach 1. 59.096 ton 56.87 ton
2. 56.87 ton
3. 57.82 ton
593 Tare weight of ‘C’ type coach (ICF) 1. 32 ton 32 ton
2. 35 ton
3. 34 ton
594 Coach length of EMU 1. 68 ft. 68 ft.
2. 69 ft.
3. 71 ft.
595 No. of seat available in motor 1. 100 nos. 98 nos.
coach 2. 99 nos.
3. 98 nos.
596 Thickness of MS sheet used over 1. 2.6 mm. 1.6 mm.
roof 2. 1.6 mm.
3. 3 mm.
597 Thickness of MS sheet used for 1. 1.6 mm. 2.6 mm.
side wall body 2. 2.6 mm.
3. 3 mm.
598 Maximum cambering value on 1. 30 mm. 25 mm.
motor coach 2. 35 mm.
3. 25 mm.
599 Hand grip used in motor coach 1. 108 108
2. 110
3. 112
600 Drain grid available in motor 1. 48 05
coach for ICFmake rake 2. 28
3. 05
601 Sliding door flap available in 1. 10 10
motor coach 2. 12
3. 14
602 Compartment window shutter 1. 16 18
available in ICF trailor coaches. 2. 18
3. 20
603 Compartment window shutter 1. 16 16
available in ICF motor coaches. 2. 18
3. 20
604 Driving motor coach type indicate 1. A B
by 2. B
3. C
4. D
605 Driving trailor coach type indicate 1. A A
by 2. B
3. C
4. D
606 Trailor coach without vendor 1. A C
system is indicated by 2. B
3. C
4. D
607 Trailor coach with vendor system 1. A D
is indicated by 2. B
3. C
4. D
608 Width of the coach 1. 10.1 ft. 12.1 ft.
2. 11.1 ft.
3. 12.1 ft.
609 Door height of EMU coaches 1. 6.2 ft. 6.5 ft.
2. 6.1 ft.
3. 6.5 ft.
610 Length of head stock (end to end) 1. 20700 mm. 20726 MM.
2. 20710 mm.
3. 20726 mm.
611 In latest EMU coaches body (ICF) 1. PU paint PU paint
paint used 2. Alkaline paint
3.
612 For sun ray protection material 1. Sun control film Roller type sun
used 2. Roller type sun screen
screen
3. Flap type sun screen
613 Type of EMU motor coach 1. YZZS YZZS
indicated by 2. YS
3. YSD
(A) (B) (C ) ( D) ANS

614 Full Form of MCB Mini ckt Multi ckt Miniacher More ckt C
breaker breaker ckt breaker breaker
615 Rating of master controller 20 Amp 15 Amp 6 amp 10amp B
MCB
616 Rating of EP MCB 03 Amp 10 Amp 6 amp 05amp B
617 Rating of Hd light MCB 15 amp 10 amp 6 amp 30 amp B
618 Rating of Oil pump MCB 16 amp DC 16 amp 10 amp DC 10 ampAC B

AC
619 What is the W/no of main W/no-16 W/no-20 W/no-36 W/no-14 D
control supply +ve
620 From where control supply DC +ve fuse Control Master Change D
originate fuse controller over switch
621 What is Gd supply W/no W/no-20 W/no-21 W/no-15 W/no-16 A
622 Rating of NVR MCB 2.5 AC 2.5 DC 5A, AC 5A, DC C
623 Rating of MCP fuse 50amp 100amp 125amp None C
624 In HQOP M27 is connected GP1 GP2 GP3 GD A
with
625 Rating of ACP return fuse 16 amp 15amp 10amp 20amp A
626 Blocking diode in between 7&8 8 & 10 10 & 12 9 & 10 B
panto and ABB situating in
between w/no-
627 Rating of Fan1 MCB (main) 30 amp 20amp 35amp 25amp C
after contractor
628 HEFRA-II connected in A26-GB1 A26 – GB2 A26-GB3 A26-GB4 A
between w/no-
629 How many jumper in a 3/4 5/6 6/7 4/5 D
coach
630 C jumper /socket is used Notching Braking Indication None C
for
631 How many core used for 16 core 17 core 18 core 19 core D
Jumper /socket
632 W/no- 38 is used for Brake Brake Brake None B
holding applicatio releasing
n
633 Rating of main fuse of 725A x 725A, 500A, 800v 100A, 100v D
NGEF rectifier 100V 100v
634 Rating of Main fuse HIND 100A, 100v 500amp, 800amp, 2X D
new rectifier is 500v 800v 725amp,
1000v
635 Rating of Main fuse in Hind 800amp, 1000amp, 500amp, 725amp, C
old rectifier is 800v 1000v 800v 1000v
636 Rating of Main fuse in 725amp, 1000amp, 500amp, 800amp, A
BHEL rectifier is 1000v 1000v 500v 800v
637 Rating TI fuse in Hind New TI-600 TI-1200 TI-800 TI-500 A
rectifier is
638 Main Rect. centre earth M1 & M7 M1 & M8 M1 & M14 M1 & M10 B
capacitor situated in
between w/no-
639 Main AC surge capacitor M1 & M14 M1 & M18 M1 & M15 M1 & M7 A
bank in main rectifier
connected in between w/no-
640 Main DC surge capacitor M1 & M8 M14 & M15 & M27 M1 & M14 C
bank in main rectifier M27
connected in between w/no-
641 LTR is connected in parallel Aux. comp Main Oil pump BA charger B
of Comp
642 Rating of aux.-II main fuse 50amp 160amp 100amp 125 amp C
643 Rating of aux.-I main fuse 50amp 160amp 100amp 125 amp A
644 Aux comp is connected in D102-41 D104-41 14-41 D10-41 A
between w/no-
645 Rating of MCB of Rectifier 15A 16A 10A 05A C
fan blower motor
646 Rating of return fuse of 50A 32A 10A NONE B
Rect. And oil pump motor
647 Rating of air drier MCB 1A 2A 5A 10A A
648 How many type of TI fuse 2 4 6 8 A

use in rect. Supvr, ckt
649 Voltage of aux-I ckt is 141V 110V 220V 266V D
650 Voltage of aux-II ckt is 141V 110V 220V 266V A
651 EP free wheeling diode 30-40 36-41 3605-40 3603-40 D
connected in between w/no
652 How many switches in BL 16 14 12 10 A
box
653 What w/no- is used for 10 11 12 13 B
Over Load re-setting
654 In 3 phase AC EMU rake Variable Variable Both None C

how Motor drives voltage voltage
and
frequency
655 Type of TM in 3 phase AC 3 ph 1 ph 3 ph 1 ph C

EMU rake synchronou synchrono asynchronou asynchron
s us s ous
656 Voltage rating of 3 phase AC 1600v 1800v 950v 1400v B
EMU of DC link Capacitor in
Medha Rake
657 CCU stand for Central Computer communicati None A
control unit control on control
unit unit
658 Battery box consist in Motor TC1 DTC & NDTC TC2 C
coach
659 Main air comp. consist in Motor TC1 DTC & NDTC TC2 C
coach
660 DDU stand for Driven Driver Driver None C
driver unit distance display unit
unit
661 In motor coach EP braking CCU MCU PCU NONE B
control by
662 In 3 phase AC EMU NVR No volt Network No video None B
means relay video recording
recording
663 In normal mode in 3 phase 4 3 2 1 B
AC EMU how many MAC
works at a time
664 Transformer in EMU One in each Two in Three in each Four in A
M/C, T/C each M/C, M/C, T/C each M/C,
T/C T/C
665 BUD Device One no Two no Three no Four no A
each M/C, each M/C, each M/C, each M/C,
T/C T/C T/C T/C
666 Breather Device One no Two no Three no Four no A
each M/C, each M/C, each M/C, each M/C,
T/C T/C T/C T/C
667 Colour of silica gel in AC-DC Red/Pink Yellow/ Blue/pink Green/ C
EMU white brown
668 Colour of silica gel in 3 Golden/gre Red/pink/ Green/blue/ Brown/yell A
phase AC EMU en/blue white yellow ow/golden
669 Oil level in conservator 15’c-30’c 25’c-50’c 30’c-60’c 20’c-30’c A
tank
670 BUD of TFP oil More than More than Less than 50 More or B
51 kv 60 kv kv less 25
kv
671 PRV located in Cab HT Roof top Under D
(Driving) gear
/frame
672 PRV provided for Passenger EMU TFP Safety Driver’s C
safety Safety Safety
673 TT Setting 72’C-76’C 70’C-75’C 60’C-100’C 100’C- B
172’C
674 Location of TT in HT cab LT cab Driving cab Under A
gear
frame
675 Location of TTR in HT cab LT cab Driving cab Under B
gear
frame
676 Mounting Bolts of TFP 02 nos 03 nos 06 nos 08 nos D
677 Type of Nuts used in Nylock nuts Castle Crack Nuts Plane B
Mounting Bolts in TFP Nuts nuts
fixing
678 No. of tapings in TFP 03 Nos 05 Nos 10 Nos 20 Nos B
679 No of notching in Tap 03 notch 22 notch 20 notch 10 notch B
changer
680 Time of sequence in 10 second 11 second 11-13 second 22 second C
second
681 No. of contactor sets 05 nos. 10 nos. 22 nos. 09 nos. D
used Tap changer
682 No. of motor contactor 04 nos. 06 nos. 02 nos. 08 nos. D
sets used in EMU
including NC (MC+NC)
per motor coach
683 No. of negative contactor 04 nos. 06 nos. 02 nos. 08 nos. A
sets NC used in EMU
per motor coach
684 No. of reverser in EMU 04 nos. 02 nos. 01 no. None B
per motor coach
685 No of TR elements 08 nos. 06 nos. 04 nos. 02 nos. C
686 No. of PFD elements 02 nos. 04 nos. 06 nos. 08 nos. A
687 Location of chock Under Roof top HT LT A
(TL+DL+SL) frame compartment compartm
ent
688 Location of ASL in Under Roof top HT LT C
frame compartment compartm
ent
How many no. of ASL 01 no 02 nos 03 nos 04 nos B
689
690 BIR is protection for safety of TFP Chock Conserva BUD & A
tor tank Pipe line
691 CC contactor for Baby Mai Light in Fan for B
compress compress coach coach
or or
692 DGA & BUD testing required for TFP SL+DL+T Conserva BUD & A
L tor tank Pipe line
693 WCO required for winding change Untappe Tapped For both None
over d to to
tapped untapped
694 How many stages of tap changer Shunt Half Shunt None C
sequence power to power to power To
half Shunt Full
power power power
695 NR & NR2 required for Regular Enhance Bunch None
sequence sequence sequence
time time
696 No. of aux finger in T5 aux box 04 nos 06 nos 10 nos 08 nos C
697 No. of aux finger in WGR 04 nos 06 nos 10 nos 01 nos B
698 No. of aux finger in T9 set 02 nos 04 nos 06 nos None A
699 Air Bolts bore for tap changer T1 to 1.3mm 1.6mm 2.4mm 6.35mm A
T9
700 Air Bolts bore for Motor contactor 1.3mm 1.6mm 2.4mm 6.35mm
NC1 to NC4 & M1 to M4
701 Air Bolts bore for NR1 1.3mm 1.6mm 2.4mm 6.35mm
702 Air Bolts bore for NR2 1.3mm 1.6mm 2.4mm 6.35mm
703 Air Bolts bore for K1 & K2 reverser 1.3mm 1.6mm 2.4mm 6.35mm
704 Air Bolts bore for WGR 1.3mm 1.6mm 2.4mm 6.35mm
705 Contact gap for motor contactor M1 20.64 to 19.5 to 20.00 to None of
to M4 & NC1 to NC4 23 20.64mm 25.00mm this
.81mm
706 Minimum IR value of TFP more than 2m/ohm 1m/ohm 10m/oh 100m/oh
m m
707 Aux contact pressure of master 280gm to 2.80gm 110gm to 1.10gm
controller 400gm to 170gm to
4.00gm 1.70gm
708 Lubricating oil used in tap changer SL-100 SAE-30 SS-57 SS-68 B
set
709 MCP contact gap CC1 10.32MM 32.10MM 19.05MM 20.64MM A
710 BIR acts depends upon 100CC 200CC 250CC 500CC C
accumulation of gap in BUD
711 Name of gases found in TFP oil CO Only CO2 SO2 Only C2 H2 D
during DGA testing Only Only
712 OLP setting in EMU 70 Amp 0.7 Amp 40 Amp 50 Amp B
713 EP Magnet coil resistance 957 +/- 795 +/- 597 +/- None of A
8% at 8% at 8% at this
20’C 20’C 20’C
What type of motor used in Radiator of DC series Synchron AC DC C
714
Transformer oil ous induction parallel
What type of suspension system for TM Fixed Axle None of C
Mounting huge this
715 pad nose
suspensi
on
716 What type of motor is auxiliary comp. AC single 3 Phase DC Motor None of C
used in AC EMU phase AC motor this
717 What happen if we noticed metallic Gap Lubricati Lubricati All of D
substance in housing oil between ng pad ng oil above
suspensio felt not of level not
n and proper proper
journal quality
not
within
limit
718 Total no of TM in a 12 coach EMU train 16 12 28 None A
719 Total no of Aux. motor in EMU motor 5 4 3 None A
coach
720 Type of TM no. series used in EMU 4001BX 4601BX 6040BY 4610BX B
721 No of teeth in EMU TM pinion 19 20 21 22 A
722 The gear ratio in EMU is 19:81 20:91 21:91 22:91 B
723 Capacity of oil pump in EMU is 363.6 263.6 360LPM 400LPM D
LPM LPM
724 No of carbon brushes in one TM are 4 16 18 8 D
725 Value of capacitor used for blower for 10MF 20MF 30MF 40MF B
Radiator
726 What type of defect generally noticed for Stator coil Terminal Impeller All of this D
oil pump motor shorted parted loose
727 What type of Lubricant used in EMU TM SP76 RR3 SS57 Servo D
Gear case coat
170T
728 TFP oil is cooled by Radiator Aux. Rectifier MCP A
motor comp blower
motor
729 Arc horn gap in relation to TM of AC Gap Gap Gap None of C
EMU is between between between this
main pole brush brush
and holder holder
armature and and
commuta magnet
tor frame
730 Continuous rating of EMU TM is 224HP 237HP 151HP None of A
this
731 This is an aux. motor used for MVRH MPH MVSI MCP B
circulation of TFP oil
732 How many securing bolts for gear case 3 4 5 6 D
733 Condemning size of earth return brush 53.5mm 34.4mm 43mm 44mm B
734 Condemning size of TM carbon return 36mm 32mm 22mm 42mm B
brush
735 RBS stands for Roller Roller Right None of B
bearing bearing bearing this
size seized size
736 Running current for Radiator 6.2Amp 3.5Amp 4.5Amp 5.7Amp C
20’C 20’C 20’C
20’C 20’C 20’C
739 Min & Max lubricant Quantity in gear 2.2/4kg 2.5kg/5 1.7kg/3.4 3.4kg/ C
case kg kg 6.8kg
740 Quantity of lubricant required in each 4.2 Ltrs 2.4 ltrs 3.4 ltrs 1.4 ltrs B
axle cap
741 Quantity of grease to fill up in pinion 750 gm 450gm 550gm 350gm C
end bearing during overhauling
742 Arching horn gaps are provided to Provide Imprope Minimize None of C
electrical r heat damage if this
path dissipiat there is a
ion flash over
743 Type of TM used in EMU Series Shunt Compoun None A
d
744 No of inter pole in TM 2 4 6 5 B
745 Permissible value of gap between brush 3 to 4mm 4 to 1.6 to 4.6 to C
holder and commutator 5mm 3.2mm 5.6mm
746 Circuit breaker used in EMU ABB SF-6 VCB OCB C
747 Location of VCB governor in EMU HT Under LT Cab Inside D
compartm driving
ent desk
748 Control voltage of VCB 24v 250v 110v 220v C
749 22 CB stands for Double Single SF-6 ABB B
bottle bottle
VCB VCB
750 Location of VCB HT LT Roof HT D
compartm compart compart
ent ment ment &
Roof both
751 VCB will tip for the relay of TTR FRAR CBAR BIR D
752 Setting of OL5 & OL6 Relay in EMU 4000 Amp 3000 2000 Amp 1000 A
Amp Amp
753 SR not picking up with MSTL indication Tap Motor SR/I Inter Control B
problems contactor contacto lock bad switch
not r not contact defective.
closing closing
754 LTR Relay is provided Power ckt Aux ckt Aux-II ckt Control C
ckt
755 If Traction motor no.1 is grounded OI1 OL2 OL3 & EFR(P) C
which is the following Relay will act OL4
756 NVR connected with Control Power Aux ckt Aux-II C
ckt ckt ckt
757 Relay to defect abnormalities in EFRA-II RFAR BIR OL1 & C
Transformer OL2
758 Location of OL1 & OL2 Switch gr. Switch Tap Switch B
I gr. II changer gr. II
box
759 Pick up voltage of OVR is 140v 540V 230V 840V B
760 Safety Relays are TTR CBAR TTR, CBAR, BIR, OLP D
RFAR NVR
761 Pressure relay is EM Type EP Type Latching Electroni A
Type c Type
762 ABR is EM Type EP Type Latching Electroni C
Type c Type
763 ARR Standing for Air reset ABB ABB act None of B
relay reset relay this
relay
764 CBAR stands for Current Current Current Current A
balancing balancin braking braking
Aux. relay g Air Aux. relay Air relay
relay
765 Rating of OLP relay is 100A 00V 160A 160V C
766 When TTR act the following lamp will ABB CHBA UFL MSTWL B
glow
767 Color of switch jell (good) Block Blue Pink White B
768 In case of earth fault in light ckt which EFR OLP EFRA-II RFAR C
relay will act
769 Voltage of Aux-II winding of EMU TFP 141V 266V 782V None of A
this
770 Voltage of Aux-II winding of EMU TFP 255KV 266V 782V None of B
this
771 Control voltage in EMU is 110V AC 230V AC 110V DC 110V DC C
Location of OL5 & OL6 Switch gr. Switch HT Tap D
I gr. II compartm changer
ent box
772 Location of CLR-I Switch gr. Switch HT Tap A
I gr. II compartm changer
ent box
773 ESMON Speedometer shows Speed Energy Voltage , Speed, D
only only current, current,
speed & voltage,
energy energy,
distance
& power
facts
774 If fan ckt is grounded in EMU which EFR(P) OLP TTR EFRA-II D
relay will operate
775 The specific gravity of initial change of 1240 1260 1280 1250 D
the cell is
776 The specific gravity fully charge of the 1280- 1260- 1250- B
cell is 1290 1280 1270
777 Supply of control ckt of EMU & MEMU 380v 380v 110v DC C
Single three
phase phase
778 Full form of CFL is Compose Compac Compoun None of A
Fluoresce t d this
nt Lamp Fluoresc Fluoresce
ent nt Lamp
Lamp
779 Full form of LED is Light Light Light None of A
emitting emitted emnason this
diode diode diode
780 The unit for measuring illumination is Lose Fluse Lumese None of A
this
781 Average life of Lead acid battery is 4 Yrs 5 Yrs 3 Yrs 6 Yrs A
782 EFRA2 full form is Earth Earth Earth None of A
fault relay fault fault this
of aux. relay of relay
ckt-II aux. ckt-I
783 VRLA Battery is AC 3 phase EMU rake Value Vent Value None of A
full from is Regulated Regulate Release this
lead acid d lead lead acid
battery acid battery
battery
784 How many cell in a battery 4 Nos 5 Nos 6 Nos 7 Nos B
785 Rating of EMU Battery 100V,100 10V, 12V, None B
AH 90AH 120AH
786 Amp. rating of BA Box fuse 80 amp 100amp 63amp 32amp A
787 No. of BA in EMU Motor coach 20 155 10 5 C
788 Outgoing wire no. of BA box. B1-B2 B2-B3 B3-B4 B4B5 B
789 Cell voltage of Battery is 2.1v 2.2v 2.3v None A
790 Input voltage of coach ventilation of fan 220v 415v 141v 266v C
791 Input voltage of coach normal light 220v 415v 141v 266v C
792 Input voltage of BA charger 220v 415v 141v 266v D
793 Output voltage of BA charger 110v 210v 141v 266v A
794 Input wire no of coach normal light w/no-14 w/no- w/no-45 w/no- D
MCB (phase) A261 A226
795 Input wire no of coach fan MCB w/no-14 w/no-44 w/no-20 w/no- B
A226
796 Input wire no of coach emg. light MCB w/no-14 w/no-44 w/no- w/no-31 D
226
797 Electrolyte use in EMU Battery Consente Dilute Dilute Dilute B
d sulphuric Nitric Hydroclo
sulphuric acid acid ric acid
acid
798 Rating of head light bulb110V 100/90W 24V, 24V, None of B
100/90W 100/80W this
799 Input voltage of led bas tail lamp 266vAC 141V AC 110V AC 110V DC D
800 Normal light in coach to coach are 4ckt 6ckt 2ckt None C
divided in to
801 Emg. light in coach to coach are divided 4ckt 6ckt 2ckt None C
in to Question
802 Out put voltage of Head light converter 110v 24v 32v None B
803 Head light converter converts AC-DC DC-AC AC-AC DE-DC D
804 Filter capacitor in battery charger used Out put Input Across None A
at TFP
805 In 3 phase AC EMU BA charging voltage 110V 120V 127V 415V C
806 Individual BA voltage in 3 phase AC 6V 10V 12V 24V A
EMU
807 Type of battery used in 3 phase EMU Dry cell Alkalin VRLA cell None C
cell
808. Choose the correct alternative :

Minimum cattle guard height of ICF/ Jessop / Air Spring coaches are
75 mm b) 200 mm c) 190mm d) 180 mm
Ans : (d) 180 mm.
809. Minimum Schaku coupler height………………………
1025mm b) 1030mm c) 1020mm d) 1040 mm
Ans : © 1020 mm
810. Minimum clearance from body bolster to bogie frame (M/C+ T/C) Air spring coaches.
90mm b) 95m c) 105m d) 185 m
Ans : (b) 95 m
811. Minimum clearance bolster to bogie frame (coil SP coaches)

a)22 m b)24 c) 26 d) 18 mm
Ans : ( d) 18 mm
812. Minimum clearance bolster to bogie from in coil T/C-

35 m b) 40 c) 32m d) 28 mm
Ans : ( a ) 35 m
813. Minimum buffer height of M/C + T/C (coil SP + Air bellow coaches )
a)1080 mm b) 1075 m c)1090m d)1085 m
Ans : ( b) 1075 m
814. Minimum wheel dia issued from POH for M/C solid wheels
900 mm b) 896 c) 888m d)892 mm
Ans : (d) 892 mm
815. Minimum wheel dia issued from POH for T/C solid wheel
870 b) 872 c) 890 d) 880 mm
Ans : ( b) 872
816. Condemn limit of solid wheel M/C

876mm b) 884 mm c)878 mm d) 877 mm
Ans : ( d ) 877 mm
817. Condemn limit of solid wheel T/C

857 m b)860m c)870 d)876m
Ans : (a) 857 m
818. Condemn limit of non HC solid cast T/C

870 b)872 c) 865 d) 866
Ans : ( c ) 865
819. Condemn limit of HCC T/C

876 b) 878 c) 880 d) 884
Ans : (a ) 876
820. Minimum inner distance between 02 wheels are
1592 b) 1598 c) 1600 d) 1599 m

Ans : ( d) 1599 m
821. Maximum inner distance between 02 wheels are
1604 b) 1600 c) 1602 d) 1601 m
Ans : (c ) 1602
822. How many brake blocks are there in 3 Φ AC EMU (12 coaches Rake)
190 b) 192 c) 196 d) 200
Ans : (b ) 192
823. How many brake blocks are there in a ( 10 coaches Air suspension Rake)
184 b) 180 c) 166 d) 160
Ans : ( d) 160
824. What is the condemning limit of brake block thickness

14 b) 16 m c) 13 m d) 15 mm
Ans : ( c ) 13 m
825. What is initial thickness of a new brake block

46 m b) 49 m c) 52 m d) 50 mm
Ans : (b) 49 m
826. Average life span of T/C brake block
50 days b) 55 days c) 60 days d) 45 days
Ans : ( c)60 days
827. Average life of M/C brake block

50 days b) 45 days c) 60 days d) None
Ans : ( b) 45 days
828. In between brake block and wheel thread of either side of a wheel supposed to be
6 mm b) 12 mm c) 10 mm d) 8 mm
Ans : ( a ) 6 mm
829. Maximum oil level in Dash pot of M/C air bellow coaches is
100 m b) 99 c) 96 d) 97 mm
Ans : (d) 97 mm
830. Maximum oil level in Dash pot of T/C for coil spring c oaches
80 m b) 78 m c) 82 m d) 77 mm
Ans : d) 77 mm
831. Maximum oil level in Dash pot T/C for Air Suspension
97 b) 98 c) 100 d) 104 mm
Ans : ( a ) 97
832. How many saddle blocks are there in a 3Φ ACEMU 12 coaches Rake.
102 b) 104 c)106 d) None of them
Ans : d) None of them.
833. What is the quantity of LL-3 grease are filled in M/C axle box
5 KG b) 1.7 KG c) 2.5 KG d) 1.750
Ans : d) 17.50 KG
834. What is the quantity of LL-3 grease filled in T/C axle box
2 kg b) 2.5 kg c) 3 Kg d) 2.250 Kg
Ans : d) 2.250 kg
835. Axle U.S.T carried out within

a)200 days b) 195 days c) 180 days d) 195 days
Ans : (c ) 180 days.
836. What is condemn limit of root wear ?

3.7 mm b) 4.7 mm c) 4.5 mm d) 4.2 mm
Ans : (b ) 4.7 mm
837. What is the condemn limit of Even wear ?

5.7 mm b) 6.2 mm c) 6.0mm d) 6.5mm
Ans : ( c ) 6.0mm
838. What is the new limit of flange thickness in wheel ?

29.4 mm b) 29 mm c)28.7 mm d) 28.5 mm
Ans : ( a ) 29.4 mm
839. What is the variation of wheel Trade Diameter of same axle ?

0.5 mm b) 1.0mm c) 1.5 mm d)2.0 mm
Ans : (a) 0.5 mm
840. What is the variation of wheel Trade Diameter of same bogie ?
3.0 mm b)4.0mm c) 6.0 mm d)5.0 mm

Ans : (a) 0.5 mm
841. what is the condemn limit of the flat wheel ?

25 mm b) 35 mm c) 30 mm d) 20 mm
Ans : (c ) 30 mm
842. Maximum crown clearance of Jessop T/C coaches

48 b)49 c) 47 d) 50
Ans b) 49
843. Minimum height from Rail to Bogic corner (ICF coil spring)
675 b) 670 c) 680 d) 677
Ans : ( a )675
844. Maximum height from Rail to cattle guard (ICF/BEML and Jessop)
175 b) 180 c) 190 d) 200
Ans : d) 200
845. How many rolars are there in Axle Rollr bearing ?

16 b) 14 c) 18 d) 28
Ans : (d) 28
846. If the ambian temperature is 25,0 then what will be temperature of Axle Box, once the rack
is stable after running
550 C b) 450C c) 500C d) 400c
Ans : (c) 50
847. What will be the maximum distance to measure the axle box temp with laser gun from axle
box
2’ b) 2.5’’ c) 1.5’ d) 1’
Ans : (d) 1’
848. What is the maximum limit of bolster control guide gap

5 mm b) 4 m c) 2 mm d) 2.5mm
Ans : d) 2.5 mm
849.Buffing gear gap measured with

“J” gauge b) Flange gauge c) Wedge Gauge d) Profile gauge
Ans : ( c ) Wedge Gauge.
850. What will be the condition 200 KG shock observer if filted vertically in a Air Suspension
M/C
a)Nothing will happen b) It will last longer than its life c) oil will leaked out within short period d)
None of them.
Ans : ( C ) oil will leaked out within short period.
851. 900 KG shock observer fixed in

a) only coil spring M/c b) Any T/C or M/c c) Only 3ɸ EMU M/C d) Only air
suspension T/C
Ans : a) only coil spring M/c
852. 300 KG Shock absorber fitted in

On the bolster of 3Φ EMU b) only in vertical position of 3Φ T/C c) Any vertical position
either 3Φ or Air Suspension coaches d) None of them
Ans : (C ) Any vertical position either 3Φ or Air suspension coaches
853. An axle guide spring found broken in out station stable point of T/C, can it be changed
No b) Yes
Ans : a) No
854. An outer bolster spring found broken in out station stable point of M/c can it be changed ?
No b) Yes
Ans : B)
855. Independent brakes are provided to

a) Br. Application in loco b) Br. Application on in train alone c) Br. Application in Loco &
Train both d) None of them.
Ans : B
856. True or False

Mechanical breaks in Loco motives are air brake only.
Ans : True
857.In EMU the setting of Parking brake gov is
( 6 -7) kg/m2 b) (3.3-4.3) kg/cm2 c) (2.6-3.2)kg/cm2 d) (4-5)kg /cm2
Ans : C
858 In EMU the sitting of MCP gov. is

(5-6) kg/cm2 b) (7-8) kg/cm2 (4.5-5.5) kg/m2 d) (6.2-7.2)kg/m2
Ans : D
859. In EMU one of the following is a part of break controller

Triple valve b) Equalising dich valve c) safty valve d) Self lapping cylinder
Ans : B
860. In EMU setting of Equip Gov (EG) is

(4.5-5.5) kg/cm2 b) (2.2-3.8) kg/cm2 c) (4.2-3.3)kg/cm2 d) (4.4-5.2) kg/cm2
Ans : C
861 In EMU one of the following is a part of EP unit

Tripple valve b) Equilising discharge valve c) Pappet valve d) self lapping cylinder.
Ans : A
862 What brake cylinder pressure is maintained for MCC

1.6 kg/cm2 b) 1.2 kg/cm2 c) 2 kg/cm2 d) 3.5 kg/cm2
Ans : A
863 What pressure is maintained in Brake pipe ?

a)1.6 kg/m b)4.6 kg/m2 c) 5 kg/m2 d) 6 kg/m2
Ans : C
864. How many no of brake cylinders are provided in Air suspension Train Coach ?
a)04 nos b) 06 nos. c) 12 nos. d) 08 nos.
Ans : D
865. What is the input voltage of Main comp ?

a) 230 volt AC b) 230v DC c)110 v AC D) 110 V DC
Ans : D
866. What is the input voltage of Aux comp ?

a) 25 KV b)230 v AC c) 110 v DC d) 24 V DC
Ans : C
867 . How many types of brakes are there in AC EMU ?

a) 3 b) 4 c)5 d) 6
Ans : C
868. What is the pressure setting of CG (Control Governor)

a) 6.2-7.2 Kg/cm2 b)(6-7) kg/c m2 c) (4-3) kg/cm2 d)(4.2-3.2) KG/cm2
Ans : D
869. What is the pressure of BP limiting valve ?

a) 1.2 kg/m2 b) 3.6 kg/m2 c) 2 kg/m2 d) 1.6 kg/m2
Ans : B
870. What pressure is maintained in Control Reducing valve ?
a) 6 kg/cm2 b) 4.2 kg/cm2 c) 5 kg/cm2 d) 3.5 kg/cm2
Ans : C
871. How many BP units are there in a AC EMU Rake ?

a) 10 nos. b) 09 nos. c) 12 nos. d) 11 nos.
Ans : C
872. How many bogie hoses are there in a EMU Rake ?

a) 02 nos. b) 12 nos. c) 24 nos. d) 08 nos.
Ans : C
873. How many hooter are there in a driving M/C ?

a) 2 nos b) 01 no. c) 04 nos. d)03 nos.
Ans : A
874. How many air bellows are there in a Air suspension coach ?
a) 12 b) 08 nos c) 06 nos d) 04 nos.
Ans : D
875. How many air driers are provided in a EMU Rake ?

a) 4 b)08 nos c) 02 nos. 4) 12 nos.
Ans : A
876. In EMU the Break Cylinder pressure in HCC T/C is (8 cylinder TC)
a) 1.2 kg/cm2 b) 2 kg/cm2 c)1.6 kg/cm2 d)4.6 kg/cm2
Ans : A
877. The location of air dryer in EMU is

a) HT compt. B) LT compt. c) Rear of the MC d) Nones
Ans : C
878. If BP pressure is less than 4 kg/m2 through which Governor

a) ACP gov. b) EG c) CG d) MCP gov.
Ans : C
879. How many non- returning check valve are there in a H.T compartment of a conventional
EMU rake?
a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) None.
Ans : A
880. MR safety valve setting is (HP safty valve)

a) 6.75 kg/cm2 b) 7.9 kg/cm2 c) 7.75 kg/cm2 d) 7 kg/cm2
Ans : B
881. Which oil is to be topped up in ELGI MCP

a) SAE 40, b) SP 150 c) SP 100 d) SS68
Ans : B
882 Which oil is to be topped up in KPC MCP ?
a) SAE 40 b) SP150 c)SP100 d)SS 68
Ans : D
883. Type of brake cylinder in EMU coach

a)JSL 203 mm b) LD2 c) KBr VIII C d) ESBC III M Ans : A
884. Which pressure is to be dropped for applying auto brake

a) MR pressure b) BC pressure c) BP pressure d)Aux pressure
Ans : C
885. For blowing hooter which pressure is required ?

a) MR b) BC c) BP d) Aux
Ans : A
886 Aux Compressor is a

a) DC Motor b) Single phase AC motor c) 3 phase AC motor d) None of these
Ans : A
887. Location of PB Governor is

a) LT room b) HT room c) Tr.Coach ‘C’ d) Tr Coach ‘D’.
Ans: A
888. Parking brake cylinders are fitted on which wheel ?

a) 1-4-5-8 b) 2-3-6-7 c) 2-4-6-8 d) 1-3-5-7
Ans : A
889. Capacity of Air suspension reservoir in EMU coach is

a)120CC b)135CC c)105CC d) 150 CC
Ans : D
890. ICF type wiper (non- modified)servo motor wiping angle is

a) 450 b) 600 c) 750 d) 900
Ans : D
891. ICF type wipe (modified) servo motor wiping angle is

a) 450 b) 600 c) 750 d) 900
Ans : B
892. Brake cylinder stroke length in mm

a) 40mm b) 60mm c) 90mm d)120mm
Ans : A
893. EP self lapping is actuated with help of

a) JSL brake cylinder b) self lapping cylinder c)Parking Brake cylinder
d) none of these.
Ans : B
894. Pressure build up of a main compressor is available in how many stages ?
a) 3 stages b) 2 stages c) single stage d) none of these.
Ans : B
895. Among the following, which is the right formula for inductance?
a) L=emf*t/I
b) L=emf/t*I
c) L=emf*I/t
d) L=emf*t*I
View Answer
Answer: a
a) L=NΦ/t
b) L=NΦt
c) L=N/Φt
d) L=NΦ2t
View Answer
Answer: a
897. For a coil having a magnetic circuit of constant reluctance, the flux is ___________ to the
current.
a) Directly proportional
b) Inversely proportional
c) Not related
d) Very large compared to
View Answer
Answer: a.
898. For a coil having a magnetic circuit of constant reluctance, if the flux increases, what
happens to the current?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Becomes zero
View Answer
Answer: a
899. The unit for inductance is ___________
a) Ohm
b) Henry
c) A/m
d) A/s
View Answer
Answer: b
900. If either the inductance or the rate of change of current is doubled, the induced e.m.f?
a) Remains constant
b) Becomes zero
c) Doubles
d) Becomes half
View Answer
Answer: c
901. If the current changes from 5A to 3A in 2 seconds and the inductance is 10H, calculate the
emf.
a) 5V
b) 10V
c) 15V
d) 20V
View Answer
Answer: b
902. If the current changes from 5A to 3A in x sec and inductance is 10H. The emf is 10V,
calculate the value of x.
a) 2s
b) 3s
c) 4s
d) 5s
View Answer
Answer: a
903. If the current changes from 3A to 5A in 2s and the emf is 10V. Calculate the inductance.
a) 10H
b) 20H
c) 30H
d) 40H
View Answer
Answer: a
904. Which of the following power plant causes highest amount of air pollution?
a) Thermal power plant
b) Hydroelectric power plant
c) Nuclear power plant
d) Geothermal power plant
View Answer
Answer: a
905. Which of the following gas is not emitted during combustion of coal?
a) Oxides of sulphur
b) Oxides of Nitrogen
c) Oxides of Mercury
d) Oxides of carbon
View Answer
Answer: c
906. Which of the following pollutants emitted by thermal power plant causes irritation in Eyes?
a) Oxides of sulphur
b) Oxides of Nitrogen
c) Oxides of Mercury
d) Oxides of carbon
View Answer
Answer: b
907. Which of the following pollutants emitted by thermal power plant is a cause of global
warming?
a) NO
b) CO2
c) SO2
d) NO2
View Answer
Answer: b
908. Which of the following pollutant causes acid rain?

a) NO
b) CO2
c) SO2
d) NO2
View Answer
Answer: c
909. Which of the following is mostly affected by thermal power plant pollutants?
a) Lithosphere
b) Atmosphere
c) Hydrosphere
d) Exosphere
View Answer
Answer: b
910. Hydroelectric power plants with limited storage are suitable to supply
a) Base load
b) Peak load
c) Base load and Peak load
d) Average load
View Answer
Answer: c
911. Nuclear power plants are suitable only for load factor over _________
a) 0.5
b) 0.7
c) 0.3
d) 0.8
View Answer
Answer: d
912. A three phase transformer has a name plate details of 30 MVA and voltage rating of 230Y
kV/69∆ kV with a leakage reactance of 10% and the transformer connection via wye-delta. Taking
a base of 230 kV on the high voltage side, turns ratio of the windings is ______
a) 2
b) 1.5
c) 6
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: a
a base of 230 kV on the high voltage side, the transformer reactance on the LV side is
a) 176.33 Ω
b) 1763.3 Ω
c) 47.6 Ω
d) 15.87 Ω
View Answer
Answer: a
a base of 230 kV on the high voltage side, the transformer reactance referred to the low voltage
side in ohms is
a) 47.61 Ω
b) 15.87 Ω
c) 176.33 Ω
d) 157.8 Ω
View Answer
Answer: a
a base of 230 kV on the high voltage side, the transformer reactance referred to the low voltage
side in ohms is
a) 0.1
b) 0.2
c) 0.198
d) 0.4
View Answer
Answer: a
916. A 200 bus power system has 160 PQ bus. For achieving a load flow solution by N-R in polar
coordinates, the minimum number of simultaneous equation to be solved is ___________
a) 359
b) 329
c) 360
d) 320
View Answer
Answer: a
917. Two alternators A and B having 5% speed regulation are working in parallel at a station.
Alternator A is rated at 15 MW while B is at 20 MW. When the total load to be shared is 12 MW,
then how much of the load will be shared by the alternator B?
a) 6.85 MW
b) 5.14 MW
c) 6 MW
d) 7 MW
View Answer
Answer: a
918. Two alternators A and B having 5% speed regulation are working in parallel at a station.
Alternator A is rated at 15 MW while B is at 20 MW. When the total load to be shared is 12 MW,
then how much of the load will be shared by the alternator B?
a) 6.85 MW
b) 5.14 MW
c) 6 MW
d) 7 MW
View Answer
Answer: a
919. A 400 V, 50 Hz three phase balanced source ripples to a star connected load whose rating is
S(=300+j400) kVA. The rating of the delta connected capacitor bank needed to bring p.f. to 0.9
lagging is _______ KVAR.
a) 254.7
b) 25.4
c) 84.9
d) 284.5
View Answer
Answer: a
920. A 400 V, 50 Hz three phase balanced source ripples to a star connected load whose rating is
S(=300+j400) kVA. A delta connected capacitor bank needed to bring p.f. to 0.9 lagging. The
operating power factor of the system is
a) 0.8
b) 4/3
c) 3/4
d) 0.6
View Answer
Answer: a
921. A given system to be analysed was found with the below phasor representation of the system
voltages. Which of the symmetrical components will be present in the mentioned system?
a) Positive sequence components
b) Negative sequence components
c) Zero sequence components
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
922. The phasor operator which is used to depict the unbalanced phase voltages into three phase
quantities, provides a rotation of
a) 120o counter clockwise
b) 120o clockwise
c) 90o counter clockwise
d) 90o clockwise
View Answer
Answer: a
923. Which is the longest station name in Indian Railways?
(A) Kanyakumari
(B) Venkatanarasimharajuvariapeta
(C) Kharagpur
(D) Chhatrapati Shivaji TerminusCorrect Answer
Answer: Option B
924. Where is the wheel and axle plant of Indian Railways situated?
(A) Chittranjan
(B) Kapurthala
(C) Bangalore
(D) PeramburCorrect Answer
Answer: Option C
927 .At which of the following places Diesel Component Works is established?
(A) Jamshedpur
(B) Patiala
(C) Perambur
(D) VaranasiCorrect Answer
Answer: Option B
928. The headquarters of South-Central Railways is situated at
(A) Mumbai (CST)
(B) Chennai
(C) Secundrabad
(D) Mumbai (Central)Correct Answer
Answer: Option C
929. A platform surrounded by rail lines from all the four sides, is called
(A) Dock platform
(B) Passenger platform
(C) Island platform
(D) Goods platform
Answer: Option C
930 .When was the nationalization of Indian Railways done?
(A) 1952
(B) 1950
(C) 1951
(D) 1954Correct Answer
Answer: Option B
931 .In which year Research, Design and Standard organization was established?
(A) 1954
(B) 1957
(C) 1959
(D) 1967Correct Answer
Answer: Option B
932. Railway Staff College is situated at
(A) Bangalore
(B) Secundrabad
(C) Chennai
(D) VadodaraCorrect Answer
Answer: Option D
933.Where is the Research, Design and Standard Organization situated?
(A) Lucknow
(B) Bangalore
(C) Pune
(D) New DelhiCorrect Answer
Answer: Option A
934. The zone with the minimum length is
(A) North-Eastern Railway
(B) North-Eastern Frontier Railway
(C) South-East Railway
(D) South-Central RailwayCorrect Answer
Answer: Option B
935. The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge and Meter Gauge are respectively
a) 12 m and 12 m
b) 12 m and 13 m
c) 13 m and 12 m
d) 13 m and 13 m
Ans: C
936. Largest dimension of a rail is it’s
a) height
b) foot width
c) head width
d) any of the above
Ans: a
937. Largest percentage of material in the rail is in its

a) head
b) web
c) foot
d) head and foot both
Ans: a
938. The purpose of providing fillet in a rail section is to

a) increase the lateral strength
b) increase the vertical stiffness
c) avoid the stress concentration
d) reduce the wear
Ans: c
939. The cross-sectional area of 52 kg flat footed rail is

a) 6155 mm2
b) 6615 mm2
c) 7235 mm2
d) 7825 mm2
Ans: b
940. 52 kg rails are mostly used in

a) Broad Gauge
b) Meter Gauge
c) Narrow Gauge
d) both (a) and (b)
Ans: a
941. Tensile strength of steel used in rails should not be less than
a) 450 MPa
b) 500 MPa
c) 700 MPa
d) 850 MPa
Ans: c
942. Head width of 52 kg rail section is

a) 61.9 mm
b) 66.7mm
c) 67mm
d) 72.33 mm
Ans: c
943. 60 R rails are mostly used in
a) Broad Gauge
b) Metre Gauge
c) Narrow Gauge
d) none of the above
Ans: b
944. Ordinary rails are made of

a) mild steel
b) cast iron
c) wrought iron
d) high carbon steel
Ans: d
945. The main function of a fish plate is

a) to join the two rails together
b) to join rails with the sleeper
c) to allow rail to expand and contract freely
Ans: a
946. Number offish bolts per fish plate is

a) 2
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Ans: b
947. Fish plate is in contact with rail at

a) web of rail
b) fishing plane
c) head of rail
d) foot of rail
Ans: b
948. Gauge is the distance between

a) center to center of rails
b) running faces of rails
c) outer faces of rails
Ans: b
950. Which of the following factors govern the choice of the gauge ?
i) volume and nature of traffic
ii) speed of train
iii) physical features of the country
The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) both (i) and (ii)
c) both (ii) and (iii)
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: d
951. For developing thinly populated areas, the correct choice of gauge is
a) Broad Gauge
b) Meter Gauge
c) Narrow Gauge
d) any of the above
Ans: c
952. Due to battering action of wheels over the end of the rails, the rails get bent down and
are deflected at ends. These rails are called
a) roaring rails
b) hogged rails
c) corrugated rails
d) buckled rails
Ans: b
953. The slipping of driving wheels of locomotives on the rail surface causes
a) wheel burns
b) hogging of rails
c) scabbing of rails
d) corrugation of rails
Ans: a
954. The width of foot for 90 R rail section is

a) 100 mm
b) 122.2 mm
c) 136.5 mm
d) 146.0 mm
Ans: c
955. The height of the rail for 52 kg rail section is

a) 143 mm ,
b) 156 mm
c) 172 mm '
d) 129mm
Ans: b
956. The formation width for a railway track depends on the
i) type of gauge
ii) number of tracks to be laid side by side
iii) slope of sides of embankment or cutting The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) both (i) and (ii)
c) both (i) and (iii)
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: b
957. The formation width for a single line meter gauge track in embankment as adopted
on Indian Railways is
a) 4.27 m
b) 4.88 m
c) 5.49 m
d) 6.10 m
Ans: b
958. The side slope of embankments for a railway track is generally taken as
a) 1:1
b) 1.5:1
c) 2:1
d) 1:2
Ans: c
959. The formation width for a double line Broad Gauge track in cutting (excluding drains)
as adopted on Indian Railways is
a) 6.10 m
b) 8.84 m
c) 10.21m
d) 10.82 m
Ans: c
960. The total gap on both sides between the inside edges of wheel flanges and gauge
faces of the rail is kept as
a) 10mm
b) 13mm
c) 16mm
d) 19 mm
Ans: d
961. Creep is the

a) longitudinal movement of rail
b) lateral movement of rail
c) vertical movement of rail
d) difference in level of two rails
Ans: a
962. Anti creep bearing plates are provided on
a) bridges and approaches
b) joints
c) both (a) and (b)
Ans: d
963. Minimum composite sleeper index pres-cried on Indian Railways for a track sleeper is
a) 552
b) 783
c) 1352
d) 1455
Ans: b
964. Dog spikes are used for fixing rail to the

a) wooden sleepers
b) CST-9 sleepers
c) steel trough sleepers
d) concrete sleepers
Ans: a
965. Number of dog spikes normally used per rail seat on curved track is
a) one on either side
b) two outside and one inside
c) one outside and two inside
d) two outside and two inside
Ans: b
966. The type of bearing plate used in all joints and on curves to give better bearing area
to the rails is
a) flat mild steel bearing plate
b) mild steel canted bearing plate
c) cast iron anti creep bearing plate
Ans: b
967. Flat mild steel bearing plates are used

a) for points and crossings in the lead portion
b) with wooden sleepers at locations where creep is likely to be developed
c) on all joints and curves
d) on all the above
Ans: a
968. The nominal size of ballast used for points and crossings is
a) 25 mm
b) 40 mm
c) 50 mm
d) 10mm
Ans: a
969. At points and crossings, the total number of sleepers for 1 in 12 turnouts in Broad
Gauge is
a) 51
b) 62
c) 70
d) 78
Ans: c
970. Width of ballast section for Broad Gauge is

a) 1.83 m
b) 2.25 m
c) 3.35 m
d) 4.30 m
Ans: c
971. A train is hauled by 4-8-2 locomotive.

The number of driving wheels in this locomotive is
a) 4
b) 8
c) 12
d) 14
Ans: b
972. Which planet is nearest to the sun?
A Earth
B Jupiter
C Mercury
D Mars
Ans: C
973. ECG is done to diagnose an ailment connected with?
A Kidney
B Heart
C Brain
D Blood
Ans.: B
974. The pH of acid rain is
A. More Than 5.6
B. Less than 5.6
C. Equal to 7
D. More than 7
Ans: B
975. A solution turns blue litmus red, its pH is likely to be
A.11
B.9
C.5
D.10
Ans: C
976.An electric heater draws 3.5 A from a 110 V source. The resistance of the heating
element is approximately
A. 385
B. 38.5
C. 3.1
D. 31
Answer: Option D
977. If 750 µA is flowing through 11 k of resistance, what is the voltage drop across
the resistor?
A. 8.25 V
B. 82.5 V
C. 14.6 V
D. 146 V
978. One sine wave has a positive-going zero crossing at 15° and another sine wave has a
positive-going
Answer: Option A zero crossing at 55°. The phase angle between the two waveforms is
A. 0°
977. The formula to find I when the values of V and R are known is
B. 45°
A. I = VR
C. 40°
B. I = R/V
D. none of the above
C. V = IR
Answer: Option C
D. I = V/R Answer: Option D
979. A resistor is connected across a 50 V source. What is the current in the resistor if
the color code is red, orange, orange, silver?
A. 2 mA
B. 2.2 mA
C. 214 mA
D. 21.4 mA
Answer: Option B
980.. In a three-phase system, the voltages are separated by
A. 45°
B. 90°
C. 120°
D. 180°
Answer: Option C
981. In a certain three-wire Y-connected generator, the phase voltages are 2 kV. The
magnitudes of the line voltages are
A. 2,000 V
B. 6,000 V
C. 666 V
D. 3,464 V
Answer: Option D
982. What kVA rating is required for a transformer that must handle a maximum load
current of 8 A with a secondary voltage of 2 kV?
A. 4 kVA
B. 0.25 kVA
C. 16 kVA
D. 8 kVA
Answer: Option C
983. The turns ratio required to match an 80 source to a 320 load is
A. 80
B. 20
C. 4
D. 2
Answer: Option D
984. When the turns ratio of a transformer is 20 and the primary ac voltage is 12 V, the
secondary voltage is
A. 12 V
B. 120 V
C. 240 V
D. 2,400 V
Answer: Option C
985. If a transformer has 50 turns in the primary winding and 10 turns in the secondary
winding, what is the reflective resistance if the secondary load resistance is 250 ?
A. 250
B. 25
C. 6,250
D. 62,500
Answer: Option C
. 986.A certain transformer has 400 turns in the primary winding and 2,000 turns in
the secondary winding. The turns ratio is
A. 0.2
B. 0.4
C. 5
D. 25
Answer: Option C
987. 0.6 of a number is equal to 0.08 of another number. The ratio of the numbers will be
(a) 3 : 4
(b) 4 : 3
(c) 2 : 15
(d) 2 : 9
Ans. (c)
988. 1/5 of a number exceeds 1/7 of the same number by 10. The number is :
(a) 125
(b) 150
(c) 175
(d) 200
Ans. (c)
989. A boys was asked to find the value of 3/8 of a sum of money. Instead of multiplying
the sum by3/8 he divided it by 3/8 and then his answer exceeded by Rs. 55. Find
the correct answer?
(a) Rs. 9
(b) Rs. 24
(c) Rs. 64
(d) Rs. 1,320
Ans. (b)
990. The sum of three consecutive odd natural numbers each divisible by 3 is 72. What is
the largest among them?
(a) 21
(b) 24
(c) 27
(d) 36
Ans.(c)
991. If *381 is divisible by 11, then the digit at tae place of *is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 7
Ans.(d)
992. In a class 3/5 of the students are girls and rest are boys. If 2/9 of the girls and 1/4 of
the boys are absent. What part of the total number of students are present?
(a) 23/30
(b) 23/36
(c) 18/49
(d) 17/25
Ans (a)
993. Two numbers differ by 5. If their product is 336, the sum of the two numbers is
(a) 21
(b) 28
(c) 37
(d) 51
Ans.(c)
994. The maximum number of students among whom 1001 pens and 910 pencils can be
distributed in such a way that each student gets same number of pens and. same number
of pencils, is:
(a) 91
(b) 910
(c) 1001
(d) 1911.
Ans.(a)
995. Unit digit in (264)102 + (264)103 is:

(a) 0
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Ans.(a)
996. Which one of the following is the least? 3 3 3 , 2, 2 and 4

(a) 2
(b) 3 4
(c) 3
(d) 3 2
Ans(d)
997. If 80% of A = 50% of B and B = x% of A, then the value of x is:

(a) 400 (b) 300
(c) 160 (d) 150
Ans (c)
998. If x is 80% of y, what percent of x is y?

(a) 75% (b) 80%
(c) 100% (d) 125%
Ans(d)
999. In a town, the population was 8000. In one year, male population increased by 10%
and female population increased by 8% but the total population increased by 9%. The
number of males in the town was
(a) 4000 (b) 4500
(c) 5000 (d) 6000
Ans(a)
1000. In an examination, there were 1000 boys and 800 girls.60% of the boys and 50% of
the girls passed. Find the percent of the candidates failed?
(a) 46.4
(b) 48.4
(c) 44.4
(d) 49.6
Ans (c)
1001. If A exceeds B by 40%, B is less than C by 20%, then A C is,:

(a) 28 : 25
(b) 26 : 25
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 3 : 1
Ans (a)
1002. Price of sugar rises by 20%. By how much percent should the consumption of sugar
be reduced so that the expenditure does not change?
Ans(c)
1003. In a school 70% of the students are girls. The number of boys are 510. Then the
total number of students in the school is
(a) 850
(b) 1700
(c) 1830
(d) 1900
Ans(b)
1004. Applied to a bill for Rs. 1,00,000 the difference between a discount of 40% and two
successive discounts of 36% and 4% is
(a) Nil
(b) Rs. 1,440
(c) Rs. 2,500
(d) Rs. 4,000
Ans(b)
1005. A tradesman marks his goods 10% above his cost price. If he allows his customers
10% discount on the marked price, how much profit or loss does he make, if any?
(a) 1% gain
(b) 1% loss
(c) 5% gain
(d) No gain, no loss
Ans. (b)
1006
. In EMU the BC Pressure for TC is :
(a) 2.0 kg/cm2 (b) 1.6 kg/cm2 (c) 1.2 (d) 1.5 kg/cm2
Ans. c
1007
. In EMU the MR Pressure is :
(a) 5.0 kg/cm2 (b) 6.0 kg/cm2 (c) 7.0 (d) 8.0 kg/cm2
Ans. c
1008 The type of Traction Motor used in

. EMU is :
(a) 4001 BX (b) 4601 BX (c) 6040 BX (d) None of the
Ans. b
1009
. The wheel diameter condemn limit for MC is :
(a) 952 mm (b) 900 mm (c) 877 mm (d) 857 mm 19. (c)
Ans.C
1010
. The type of EMU pantograph is ;
(a) AM-10 (b) AM-12 (c) AM-14 (d) None of the
Ans.b
1011
. The type of strip used in EMU pantograph is ;
(a) Metalised (b) Carbon (c) Mild steel (d) None of the Ans.(a)
carbon above
1012
. The pantograph strip thickness condemn limit is ;
(a) 2.5 mm (b) 3.5 mm (c) 4.5 mm (d) None of the Ans (b)
Above
1013
. The control voltage in EMU is ;
(a) 110 V AC (b) 230 V AC (c) 110 V DC (d) 230 V DC Ans (c)
1014
. The rating of EMU traction motor is :
(a) 150 KW (b) 535 KW (c) 230 KW (d) 167 KW Ans (d)
1015
. The rating of EMU Transformer is :
(a) 1000 KVA (b) 535 KVA (c) 25 KVA (d) 50 KVA Ans (a)
1016 The type of cooling of transformer oil

. is :
(a) OFAF (b) OF (c) AF (d) None of the Ans (a)
Above
1017 The voltage of primary winding of EMU transformer
. is :
(a) 25 KV (b) 266 V (c) 782 V (d) None of the Ans (a)
above
1018 The voltage of Secondary winding of EMU

. transformer is :
(a) 25 KV (b) 266 V (c) 782 V (d) None of the Ans (c)
above
1019 .New wheel diameter of EMU Motor Coach/Trailer coach
(a) 900 mm (b) 950 mm (c) 850 mm (d) 952 mm
Ans. D
Ans.a
1020. Total auxiliary motors in EMU motor coach are
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2
1030.Total No. of traction motors in a EMU Motor Coach is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
Ans.C
1031.The Safety device provided in EMU for detecting gassing and the
protection of Transformer is:
(a) OLP (b) TTR (c) BUD (d) PRV
Ans.c
1032 .The Safety device fitted in the EMU Transformer for its protection against
explosion:
(a) PRV (b) OLP (c) BUD (d) TTR
Ans.a
1033. The Ampere hour capacity of EMU battery is :
(a) 80 Ah (b) 90 Ah (c) 100 Ah (d) 75 Ah
Ans.b
1034.In EMU, the setting of Parking brake governor cut in/cut
out is :
(a) 6.0/7.0 (b) 3.3/4.3 kg/cm2 (c) 2.6/3.2 kg/cm2 (d) 4.0/5.0 kg/cm2
kg/cm2
The function of Aux rectifier is to feed

1035. :
(c) Aux II (d) None of the

(a) Aux I circuit (b) Battery charger circuit above Ans.. (c)
The function of DC-DC converter is to

1036. feed :
667 Colour of silica Red/Pink Yellow/ Blue/pink Green/ C

gel in AC-DC
EMU white brown
(a) Flasher light (b) Head light (c) Tail lamp (d) None of the Ans. (b)
above
1037. The number of batteries available in EMU are :
667 Colour of silica Red/Pink Yellow/ Blue/pink Green/ C

gel in AC-DC
EMU white brown
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) None of the Ans (c)
above
Total time required to get complete notches from starting to full

1038. power :
(a) 5-15 sec (b) 10-12 sec (c) 15-20 sec (d) None of the Ans. (b)
Above
Notches will not respond if one of the following is
1039. ‘Off’ ::
a) OL reset (b) CR (c) BIV (d) BL switch Ans. (c)
1040. Find the amount and compound interest on Rs. 1400 for 02 years at 5%
a) 1435 b) 1345 c) 1315 Ans. a)
1041. What sum of money will amount to Rs. 3704.40 in 3 years at 5% compound
Interest ?
a) 2200 b) 3200 c) 5200 d) None of the above Ans. b)
1042 . A colour T.V. is marked for sale for Rs. 17600, which includes sales tax at 10% . Calculate
the sales tax in rupees.
a) 1800 b) 1900 c)1600 d) None of the above Ans.

c)
1043. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the
following equation?
158.25 x 4.6 + 21% of 847+?= 950.93 50 45
a)35 b)40 c) 25 d) 45 Ans. d)
1044. The average of the first and the second of three numbers is 15 more than the average of
the second and the third of these numbers. What is the difference between the first and the third
of these three numbers?
a)15 b)45 c) 60 d) None of these Ans. d)

1045. There are 11 members in a family out of which there are 4 males and remaining
females. The family has hired three cars for a trip to zoo. The members are to be seated in
the cars in such a way that there are not more than four members in one car and there is
at least one male in each car. How many different ways can the members travel?
a) 610 b)124 c) 126 d) None of these Ans. d)
1046. Since Total marks are not given So Can not be Determined 12. A classroom has equal
number of boys and girls. Eight girls left to play Kho-kho, leaving twice as many boys as girls in
the classroom. What was the total number of girls boys present initially?
a) 16 b) 24 c) 32 d) None of these Ans. c)
1047 If the arithmetic mean of 6, 8, 10. x, 7 is 8.the value of x will be :
a) 7 b) 9 c) 10 d) None of thes Ans. b)
1048. A train is moving with an uniform speed. It crosses a railway platform 120 metres long in
12 seconds and another platform 170 meires long in 16 seconds. The speed of the train per
second is—
a) 12.5m/Sec b) 10 m/Sec c) 10.22m/Sec d) None of these Ans. a)
1049. If the sum of the two radii of two circles is 7 cm and the difference of their circumference is
8 cm, the two circumferences will be—
a) 34cm and 26cm b) 28cm and 20cm c) 26cm and 18 cm d) None of these Ans. c)
1050. In Bengal who introduced the Permanent Revenue settlement system ?
a) Clive b) Hastings c) Wellesley d) Cornwallis Ans. d)

1051. Who propounded the motto ‘Go Back To The Vedas’?
a) Ramakrishna Paramhansa b) Vivekananda c) Jyotiba Phule d) Dayanand Saraswati
Ans. d)
1052. Name the representative of Indian women in The Second Round Table
Conference?
a) Aruna Asaf Ali b) Sucheta Kripalani c) Sarojini Naidu d) Kalpana Joshi
Ans. c)
1053. When did the British Govt. start ruling India directly?
a) After the Battle of Plassey b) After the Battle of Panipat c) After the war of Mysore d)
After Sepoy Mutiny Ans.d)
1054. The original name of Swami Dayananda Saraswati was-
a) Abhi Shankar b) Gowri Shankar c) Daya Shankar d) Mula Shankar
Ans. d)
1055. When was the first train steamed off in India?
a) 1848 b) 1853 c) 1875 d) 1880 Ans. b)
1056. Which of the following is the headquarters of the newly established railway zone ‘East
Coast Railways’?
a) Vishakhapattnam b) Kolkata c) Hyderabad d) Bhubaneswar Ans. d)
1057. Which train in India has the longest route length?
a) Howrah - Jammu Tawi Himgiri Express b) Kanyakumari - Jammu Tawi Himsagar Express
c) Kanyakumari - Dibrugarh Vivek Express d) Guwahati-Thiruvanthapuram Express

Ans. c)
1058. Where is the Railway Staff College located?
a) Pune b) Delhi c) Vadodara d) Allahdabad

Ans. c)
1059. On which of the following is the longest railway bridge in India located?
a)River Ganges b) Vembanad Lake c) River Brahmaputra d) Chilka Lake
Ans. b)
1060. In which of the following cities are located 3 zonal headquarters of Indian Railways?
a)Guwahati b) Mumbai c) New Delhi d) Kolkata Ans. d).
1061. Who of the following is known for having designed the first railway timetables?
a)George Bradman b) George Bernard Shaw c) George Bradshaw d) George Brummel
Ans. c).
1062. Which of the following is the largest railway junction in India?
a)Delhi b) Bhatinda c) Mathura d) Allahabad Ans. d)
1063. Which of the following is the eastern-most division of the Indian Railways?
a)Tinsukia b) Lumding c) Rangiya d) Katihar Ans. a)
1064. Over which of the following rivers is the world's highest railway bridge in Kashmir being
constructed?
a)Chenab b) Jhelum c) Sutlej d) Indus Ans. a).
1065. Gorakhpur which has the longest railway platform in the world is located in which of the
following states?
a)Odisha b) West Bengal c) Uttar Pradesh d) Chhattisgarh Ans. c).
1066 . Which of the following stations has all the three guages viz. broad, metre and narrow?
a)Lucknow b) Chandigarh c) Shimla d) Siliguri Ans. d).

1067. What is the width of broad guage railway line in India?
a) 5 feet 3 inches b) 5 feet 6 inches c) 4 feet 11 inches d) 5 feet 4 inches Ans. (b).
1068. What type of the star is the SUN?
a) Gaint b) Supergiant c) Dwarf d) None of the above Ans. C)
1069. The element least present in the human body is

a) Oxygen
b) Hydrogen
c) Iron
d) Carbon
Ans. C)
1070. EL can combined with

a) Casual Leave, Half Pay Leave, Maternity Leave
b) Study Leave, Casual Leave, Maternity Leave
c) Sick Leave, Half Pay Leave, Maternity Leave
d) Casual Leave, Paternity Leave, Maternity Leave
Ans. C)
1071. What is the maximum period of leave of any kind which can be allowed to a
Government servant?
a) 5 Years. b) 6 Years c) 7 Years d) 2Years. Ans. a)
1072. To which leave account, Maternity Leave to be debited?

a) Earned Leave b) Half Pay Leave c) No leave Account d) Child care Leave
Ans. c)
1073. To which leave Account hospital leave is debited?

a) Commuted Leave b) Leave not Due c) Not debited to any Leave Account
d) Earned Leave Ans. c)
1074. LTC cannot be availed during ……….

a) EL b) Casual Leave c) Child Care Leave d)HPL Ans. b)
1075. Leave should not be sanctioned during …………

a) Suspension b) Transfer c) Tour c) Joining Time Ans. a)
1076. Mention the date from which Child Care Leave came into effect :
a) 01.01.2006 b) 0101.2008c) 01.09.2008 d) 0101.2016
Ans. c)
1077. CCL may not be granted for less than ……. Days.
a) 20 Days. b) 10 Days. c) 15 Days. d) No limitation Ans. d)
1078. In a calendar year, CCL cannot be granted for more than

a) 2 times. b) 3 times. c) 4 times. d) 6 times. Ans. b)
1079. What is data entered into a computer called?

a) Output b) Information c) Storage d) Input Ans. d)
1080. What does ‘e’ in an e-mail stand for ?
a)Encyclopedia b)Electronic c) Electric d) Engine Ans. b)
1081. What does ‘Alt’ in the Alt Key stand for ?

a) Alternate b) Alternative c) Altimate d) None of these Ans. a)
1082 Which of the following is a large blood vessel that carries blood away from the heart?
a. Vein b. Artery c. Capillary d. Nerve Ans. b
1083. Which of the following is not a member of the vitamin B complex?

a. Thiamine b. Riboflavin c. Folic acid d. Ascorbic acid Ans. d
1084. Which of the following is an air-borne disease?

a. Measles b. Typhoid c. Pink eye d. None of the above Ans. a
1085. In a byte how many set of bits represent a single character in the computer's
memory?
a. 9 bits b. 11 bits c. 13 bits d. 8 bits Ans : d
1086. Select the example of application software of computer:

a. Ms Word b. Ms Excel c. Both A and B d. MS-DOS Ans: c
Q. 1087. Who was first female operator in Delhi Metro? Answer: Minakshi Sharma.
Q. 1088. Where has National Rail Museum been transferred from Delhi? Answer: Rewari
(Haryana)
Q. 1089. First female to become the member of Railway Board? Answer: Vijaylaxmi
Vishwanathan
Q. 1090. Where is in India, longest platform situated? Answer: Khadagpur (West Bengal)
Q. 1091. Where does the only train for women run? Answer: From Churchgate to Boriwali in
Mumbai
Q. 1092. After separation from India in 1947, Pakistan got how much long railway track?
Answer: 11,200 km
Q. 1092. When did Indian Railway Act Pass?
Answer: In 1890
Q. 1093. Which is the longest railway zone in India? Answer: Northern Railway
Q. 1094. When did Metro Rail in Calcutta start? Answer: 24 October, 1984
Q. 1095. When is Railway Day celebrated on? Answer: 10–16April.
Q. 1096. In which rail region did the automatic signal system start? Answer: Central Railway.
Q. 1097. How many Railway Recruitment Boards are there in India? Answer: 19
Q. 1098. In Indian railway, where and by what name did first tourist rail start?
Answer: Palace on wheels in 1982 between Delhi–Jaipur
Q. 1099. Where did first railway accident in the history of Indian Railway occurred?
Answer: In Morghat (Pure–Bombay root) on 5 January, 1869
Q. 1100. Which is the longest rail route in India?
Answer: From Dibrugarh (Assam) To Kanyakumari
Q. 1101. Where did first monorail operate in India?
Answer: From Sarhind to Alampur and Bhawani mandi to Patiala
Q. 1102. What was the name of India's first indigenous steam engine? Answer: F–734
Q. 1103. Which is India’s first longest railway tunnel situated ?
Answer: Between Monkey hill and Khandala (2100 mt)
Q. 1104. Where the longest rail tunnel at present situated ?
Answer: Peerpranjal rail tunnel, Banihal (Kashmir) Kajiguda division, 11 km.
Q. 1105. Where is the biggest Electrical loco shade situated at?
Answer: Mughal Sarai (Uttar Pradesh)
Q. 1106. First telecommunication between guard and driver began in which train on 20
June,
1982? Answer: Mumbai–New Delhi (Rajdhani Express)
Q. 1107. Whose formation took place on 14 April, 1951 as Regional Railway in Indian
Railway?
Answer: Southern Railway.
Q. 1108. On 10, July 1988, Shatabdi Express began for the first time between which two
station?
Answer: Between New Delhi–Jhansi
Q. 1109. On 1st March 1969 first Rajdhani Express ran between which two stations?
Answer: New Delhi–Howrah
Q. 1110. Name the first DC electrical rail engine?
Answer: Lokmanya (CLW manufactured it in 1961)
1111. Write the full form of the following abbreviations
i) RITES (ii) IRCON (iii) RVNL (iv) IRCTC (v) SOD

vi) OHE ( vii ) ESMON ( viii ) PNM ( ix ) VVVF ( x ) BIVS
Answer
i) RITES: Rail India Techno Economic Service.

ii) IRCON: Indian Railway Construction Company.
iii) RVNL: Railway Vikash Nigam Ltd.
iv) IRCTC: Indian Railway Catering & Tourism Corporation.
v) SOD: Schedule of Dimension.
vi) OHE: Over Head Equipment.
vii) ESMON: Energy cum Speed Monitoring System.
viii) PNM: Permanent Negotiating Machinery.
ix) VVVF: Variable Voltage Variable Frequency.
x) BIVS: Brake Isolating Valve Switch.
1112. A rectangular lawn is 80 meters long and 60 meters wide. Calculate the time taken by a
man to walk along its diagonal at the speed of 18 KMPH. Ans. 20 Sec.
1113 The displacement of contact wire with respect to the pantograph axis is called
(a) Implantation (b) Stagger of contact wire
(c) Gradient of contact wire (d) Sag Ans. c)
1114 In AC traction, maximum stagger of contact wire on curved track is
(a) 380 mm (b) 300 mm
(c) 229 mm (d) 200 mm Ans. c)
1115 In AC traction, maximum stagger of contact wire on tangent track is
(a) 380 mm (b) 300 mm
(c) 229 mm (d) 200 mm Ans. b)
1116 Maximum stagger is allowed at mid span is
(a) 229 mm (b) 200 mm
(c) 152 mm (d) 100 mm Ans. d)
1117 Contact wire is placed in zigzag manner in entire span length , why ?
(a) To avoid formation of groove on pantopan strip
(b) Uniform rubbing of pantopan strip within current collection zone
(c) To avoid breakdown due to formation of groove in pantopan strip
(d) All of the above Ans. a)
1118 Which factor affects the stagger of contact wire ?

(a) Blow-off (b) Versine
(c) Track slewing (d) All of the above Ans. a)
1119 The displacement of contact wire from its original position due to wind pressure across the
track is called
(a) Blow-off (b) Versine
(c) Stagger (d) Super elevation Ans. c)
1120 On tangent track, contact stagger is 200 mm at support, what will be the catenary stagger?
(a) 300 mm (b) 200 mm
(d) Zero Ans. a)
(c) 100 mm
1121 On curved track , contact stagger is 300 mm. at support, what will be the
catenary stagger
(a) 300 mm (b) 200 mm
(c) 100 mm (d) Zero Ans. d)
1122 The offset of the track centre from the chord joining the two adjacent points at the track
centre
is called
(a) Super elevation (b) Versine
(c) Blow-off (d) Span length Ans. a)
1123. The date on which CCS (Leave) Rules,1972 came into effect is
a) 1st January 1972 b) 1st June 1972 c) 1st June 1972
d) 15 August 1972.
th
Ans : c
1124. CCS (Leave) Rules 1972 is not applicable to

a) Persons appointed to the Civil services.
b) Employees of non-statutory departmental canteens.
c) Government servants appointed in subordinate of Central Government.
d) Persons paid from contingencies.
Ans : d
1125. CCS (Leave) Rules, 1972 applies to a person serving under Central Government on
deputation from a state Government –
a) For the rest of the service
b) For a limited duration
c) From the date of his joining State Government
d) None of the above.
Ans : b
1126. How many schedules done the CCS (Leave) Rules contain ?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Ans : b
1127. An authority competent to grant leave is contained in the

a) First Schedule
b) Rule- 3- Definition
c) Second Schedule
d) Third Schedule.
Ans : a)
1123. EL can be combined with

a) Casual leave, Half Pay Leave, Maternity Leave
b) Study Leave . Casual Leave ,Maternity Leave
c) Sick leave , Half Pay Leave, Maternity Leave
d) Casual Leave, Paternity leave, Maternity Leave.
Ans : c
1124. EOL is granted to Government Servants only –

a) When no other leave is admissible or on request
b) When Government Servant is on notice period of VRS
c) Before superannuation
Ans : c
1125. Encashment of earned leave of up to 10 days at the time of availing LTC is permitted,
provided a balance of ………….. days of EL is available at the credit of a Government servant.
a) 180 days
b) 45 days
c) 30 days
d) 300 days
Ans : c
1126. Completed years of service , according to CCS (Leave) Rules means –

a) Continuous service under Central Government including period spent on duty but not counting
leave.
b) Continuous service under Central Government including period spent on duty and leave but not
EXOL.
c) Continuous service under Central Government including EXOL.
d) Continous service under Central Government including service in State Government, if any
Ans : c
1127. What is the maximum period of leave of any kind which can be allowed to a Government
servant ?
a) 5 years
b) 6 years
c) 7 years
d) 2 years.
Ans : a
1128. Paternity Leave is allowed for ………… days

a) 20 days
b) 15 days
c) 25 days
d) 30 days
Ans :b
1129. What is the maximum amount of study leave which can be availed by a Government
Servant other than CHS Officers in his entire service ?
a) 24 months
b) 12 months
c) 10 months
d) 15 months
Ans : a
1130. What is the maximum number of days of EL that can be held at credit by a Government
Servant ?
a) 300 b) 200 c) 250 d) 180
Ans : a
1131. What is the date of retirement of a Government servant ?

a) Afternoon of the last day of the month in which he attains the age of superannuation.
b) Last day of any month in which he wished to retire.
c) Last working day
d) First day of the month in which he attains the age of superannuation.
Ans : a)
1132. If an official is recalled to duty before expiry of his leave, he may be treated as
a) On leave period
b) On duty
c) Absent
d) None of the above
Ans : b)
1133. Casual Leave can be combined with ………………………

a) Special Casual Leave
b) Earned Leave
c) Half Pay Leave
Ans : a)
1134. Combination of Study Leave with earned leave shall not generally involve a total absence of
more than
a) 16 months
b) 24 months
c) 28 months
d) 36 months
Ans : c
1135. Half- a day leave can be taken from ……………

a) Earned Leave
b) Sick Leave
c) Casual Leave
d) Half Pay Leave
Ans : c)
1136. Government servants are not entitled to leave salary while availing
a) Half pay leave
b) Commuted leave
c) Extra ordinary leave
d) Child care leave
Ans : c)
1137. The maximum period of CCL that can be availed by a woman Government servant during
her entire service is -
a) 730 days ( 2 years)
b) 700 days
c) 650 days
d) 365 days (1 year)
Ans : a)
1138. Foreign service means service in which a Government servant receives his pay from
a) Consolidated fund of India
b) Consolidated fund of State
c) Consolidated fund of Union Territory
Ans : d)
1139. Child care is leave is admissible if the child is below…………

a) 18 years
b) 17 years
c) 21 years
d) 25 years
Ans : a)
1140. In a calendar year, CCL can not be granted for more than
a) 2 times
b) 3 times
c) 4 times
d) 6 times.
Ans : b)
1141. CCL shall be admissible for ………………..

a)First child only b) Two eldest surviving children only
c)Any Child d) None
Ans : b)
1142. CCL may not be granted for less than …………….. days.
a) 20 days b) 30 days c) 15 days d) No limitation.
Ans : d)
1143. ……………. Number of days of earned leave are credited in advance to the leave account of a
Government Servant during January and July.
a) 20 days b) 10 days c) 15 days d) None
Ans : c
1144. Leave account of Government servant shall be maintained by the

a) Accounts Officer b) Concerned staff
c)Head of Office d) None of the above
Ans : c
1145. Which of the Leave Rules would apply, if a Government servant is temporarily deputed to
foreign service in India?
a) Leave Rules of Foreign Service
b) CCS (Leave) Rules 1972
c) CCS (Leave) Rules and Foreign Service Leave Rules
Ans : b)
1146. What is the time limit of continous service after which a quasi-permanent employee is not
confirmed ?
a) Two years
b) Three years
c) Four years
d) Five years
Ans : b)
1147. What is the maximum number of days in respect of EL/ HPL that can be encashed by a
Government servant appointed in Industrial Establishment which is governed by Factories, Act
1948 ?
a) Nil
b) 240 days
c) 300 days
d) 300+ 15 days
Ans: c)
1148. When a Government servant applies for a specific kind of leave, the Leave Sanctioning
Authority does not have the power to
a) Sanction
b) Refuse
c) Revoke
d) Alter
Ans : d)
1149. A Government Servant ceases to have any claim for leave to his credit, if he has
a) Resigned to take up another appointment in Government service
b) Retired
c) Been dismissed
d) Been reinstated
Ans : c
1150.If a Government servant claims for commutation of one kind of leave into another he should
apply for commutation within a period of
a) 15 days
b) 30 days
c) 45 days
d) 90 days
Ans : b)
1151. Which leave can not be combined with any other kind of leave
a) Eaterned leave
b) Maternity Leave
c) Special Casual Leave
d) Casual Leave
Ans : d)
1152. Which of the following sentences are correct with respect to right to leave ?
a) Leave can not be claimed by a Government servant as of right
b) Leave may be refused or revoked by the Competent Authority when exigencies of service so require
c) A competent authority can not alter the kind of leave applied for by a Government servant.
d) All of the above.
Ans : d)
1153. The maximum period of continous leave of any kind which can be allowed to a permanent
Government servant
a) 2 years
b) 90 days
c) 5 years
d) 365 days
Ans : c
1154. A Government servant can not accept employment elsewhere while on leave except in the
case of service as a / an
a) Examiner
b) Accountant
c) Medical Practitioner
d) Legal Practitioner.
Ans : a)
1155. Leave Account of a Gaztted Government servant shall be maintained by

a) Audit Officer
b) Himself
c) Pay and Accounts office
d) Head of office
Ans : a
1156. No leave shall be granted to Go9cernment servant if he is

a) On leave preparatory to retirement
b) Under suspension
c) Towork as an examiner
d) To visit abroad with proper permission
Ans : b
1157. A Gazetted Government servant who is a CGHS beneficiary is required to submit a Medical
Certificate for grant of leave on medical ground issued by a
a) RMP
b) AMA
c) Doctor in a CGHS Dispensary
d) Doctor working in a Private Nursing Home
Ans : c
1158. Any claim to leave at credit of a Governement servant who is dismissed removed or who
resigns…………………… from the date of such Act.
a) Is accepted
b) Ceases
c) Is paid
Ans : b
1159. The leave sanctioning authority can waive the production of Medical Certificate in case of an
application for eave on medical grounds, if the period of leave applied for is less than
a) 7 days
b) 3 days
c) 10 days
d) 30 days.
Ans : b)
1160. Mention the maximum number of months of eave that can be sanctioned by the Medical
Authority if he is unable to say with certainty that the Government servant will never again be fir
for service
a) 1 months
b) 6 months
c) 8 months
d) 12 months
Ans : d)
1162. Under what ground , prefix / suffix of holidays to leave are allowed automatically
a) On private ground
b) On medical ground
c) Both private and medical ground
Ans : a)
1163. Absence by a Government servant after expiry of leave shall be debited to his leave accounts
as …………………. To the extent such leave is due.
a) Earned leave
b) Half pay leave
c) Leave not due
Ans : b
1164. How many days of Earned Leave is credited in advance for each half year to an employee
who joins duty on 1st January
a) 15 days
b) 30 days
c) 45 days
d) 60 days.
Ans : a)
1165. A Government servant who had reached maximum of 300 days on 1st January had availed
Earned Leave for 8 days during August. How many days of Earned Leave will be shown in his
leave accounts as on 31st December ?
a) 300 days
b) 300+ 15 days
c) 300+ 07 days
d) 292 days
Ans : c
1166. A Government servant on the date of retirement on superannuation had a maximum

number of 300 days of Earned Leave. During his service , he had availed 60 days of encashment
of earned leave while availing LTC. How many days will he be eligible for encashment of earned
leave on the date of his retirement ?
a) 290 days
b) 300 days
c) 300+ 15 days
d) 240 days.
Ans : b
1167.If am employee joins duty on 1st July afternoon, his entitlement to EL during the first half
year would be
a) 12 ½ days
b) 13 days
c) 15 days
d) 30 days
Ans :b
1168. If a Government servant retires on voluntary retirement on 16th July forenoon, how many
days of Earned Leave will he be entitled to during the half year ?
a) 2 ½ days
b) 3 days
c) 15 days
d) Nil.
Ans : d
1169. Which of the below sentences are correct with respect to Rule 10 of CCS (Leave) Rules ?
i) A Government servant may commute one kind of leave into another within 30 days after joining
his duty.
ii) The leave sanctioning authority which granted him leave may consider the commutation of leave
iii) Adjustment of leave salary due to such commutation of one kind of leave into another shall be on
the leave finally granted to him
iv) A Government servant has the right to claim such commutation.
a) All the above

b) (i), (ii) & (iii)
c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
d) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Ans : b
1170. If a Government servant resigns on 30th December, how many days of earned leave will he
be entitled to during the half year ?
a) 12 ½ days
b) 13 days
c) 15 days
d) 30 days.
Ans : b
1171. If a Government servant dies on 22nd Septemberm how many days of earned leave will be
entitled to during the half year ?
a) 5 days
b) 8 days
c) 12 days
d) Nil
Ans : b
1172. If a Government servant is dismissed on 29th September, how many days of EL is

admissible to him for that half year on the date of dismissal?
a) Nil
b) 5 days
c) 7 ½ days
d) 8 days
Ans : b
1173. If a Government servant had availed EOL on private grounds for 100 days during the
previous half year how many days of EL is he entited for at th e commencement of the next half
year ?
a) 15 days
b) 10 days
c) 5days
d) Nil
Ans : c
1174. If a Government servant had availed EOL on Medical Certificate for 180 days during the
previous half year, how many days of EL is he entitled for at beginning of the next year ?
a) 15 days
b) 10 days
c) 5 days
d) Nil
Ans : d
1175. A Government servant remained absent willfully after leave for 60 days during the previous
half year which is treated as dies non. |How may days of EL is admissible to him at the
beginning of the next half year ?
a) 15 days
b) 6 days
c) 9 days
d) Nil
Ans : c
1176.What is th e maximum number of days of EL that can be granted to a Governemnt servant

at a time in one spell ?
a) 90 days
b) 120 days
c) 180 days
d) 300 days
Ans : c
1177. A Government Servant has requested for credit of unavailed joining time of 6 days to his EL
account which has a balance of 295 days of E|L on 30 th June. How Many days of EL will be at
his credit as on 1st July?
a) 295 days
b) 300 days
c) 300+15 days
d) 300+ 6 days
Ans : c
1178. If a Government servant serving in a Vacation Department, did not avail any vacation , how
many days of EL is admissible to him during the year in respect of 12 months of actual duty ?
a) 15 days
b) 30 days
c) 40 days
d) Nil
Ans : C
1179. When was the HPL restored to Principals , Headmasters, Teachers etc. working in schools of
Vacation Department , under Central Government?
a) 1.1.06
b) 1.9.2006
c) 1.9.2008
d) 1.1.2012
Ans : C
1180. In how many instalments, advance credit of Half Pay Leave is made to one leave account of
Government Servant during a year ?
a) 3 instalments
b) 2 instalment
c) 1 instalment
d) 4 instalment
Ans : b
1181. What is the rate of credit of Half Pay Leave for each completed calander month of service of
a Government servant
a) 3/5
b) 5/3
c) ¾
d) ½
Ans : b
1182. If a Government servant avails 100 days of EOL on private gounds during the previous half
year, what will be entitlement of HPL during the next half year ?
a) Nil
b) 5 days
c) 10 days
d) 20 days
Ans : c
1183. If an employee serving in Vacation Department avails his full vacation in any year, how
many days of EL is he entitled to in that year ?
a) 15 days
b) 30 days
c) Nil
d) 60 days
Ans : c
1184. No Government servant while on leave, other than………. Shall ordinarily be permitted to
take up any other service or employment, according to Rule 13 of CCS (Leave) Rule.
a) Earned Leave
b) Study Leave
c) Leave on Medical Certificate
d) Leave Preparatory to Retirement
Ans : d
1185. The leave sanctioning authority treated 162 days of willful absence of a Gove4rnment
servant as “ dies non” during the previous half year. What will be the entitlement of HPL during
next half year.
a) Nil
b) 1 day
c) 10 days
d) 20 days
Ans : b
1186. What is the maximum lliit for availing HPL by a Government Servant during the entire
service ?
a) 180 days
b) 360 days
c) 660 days
d) No limit
Ans : d
1187. What will be the leave salary of an employee who avils HPL ?
a) Pay last drawn
b) 50% of amount admissible of EL
c) 75% of amount admissible of EL
d) 25% of amount admissible on EL
Ans : b
1188. Under what grounds commuted leave can be granted to Government employees ?
a) Private grounds
b) Medical Grounds with MC
c) Illness of wife
d) Children’s education
Ans : b
1189. What is the maximum limit for availing commuted leave during the entire service of
Government Servant, if such leave is utilized for an approved course of study?
a) 30 days
b) 90 days
c) 120 days
d) 60 days
Ans : b
1190. What leave salary will be payable if a Government servant is granted commuted leave with
MC
a) 50% of HPL
b) As in the case of EL
c) 25% of HPL
d) No leave salary.
Ans : b
1191. When a Government servant avails commuted leave for study purpose to whch leave
account should the commuted leave be debited?
a) Earned Leave account
b) HPL account
c) Commuted leave account
d) EOL account
Ans : b
1192. What is the limit of HPL for availing commuted leave on medical grounds by a Government
servant ?
a) 1/4th of HPL at his credit
b) ½ of HPL at his credit
c) 3/4th of HPL at his credit
d) No limit
Ans : b
1193. If a Government servant who has been granted commuted leave done not return to duty due
to voluntary retirement , what action would you propose ?
a) No recovery of leave salary
b) Commuted Leave would be cancelled
c) Different of leave salary between commuted leave and HPL would be recovered.
d) None.
Ans :c
1194. What is the maximum number of days of commuted leave that can be granted to a female
employee without medical certificate in continuation of her maternity leave ?
a) 45 days
b) 60 days
c) 120 days
d) No limit
Ans : b
1195. What is the maximum period of Leave Not due on Medical Certifcate in continuation of her
maternity leave
a) 180 days
b) 240 days
c) 300 days
d) 360 days.
Ans : b
1196. Under what circumstances Leave Not Due is admissible to a Government servant ?
a) When EL is not at his credit
b) When HPL is not at his credit
c) When casual leave is not at his credit
d) When commuted leave is not at his credit
Ans : d
1197. When is Leave Not Due granted without Medical Certificate ?

a) In continuation of EL
b) In continuation of HPL
c) In continuation of Child Adoption Leave
d) In continuation of EOL
Ans : b
1198. What leave salary is payable to a Govrnment servant who is sanctioned leav4e not due
a) No leave salary is payable
b) As in the case of HPL
c) As in the case of EL
d) As in the case of Commuted leave.
Ans : c
1199. Under what grounds Leave Not Due is allowed to a temporary employee who has put in
more than one year of service ?
a) Private grounds
b) Illness of wife
c) In cases of self, chronic disease viz Cancer
Ans : b
1200. If an employee who availed Leave Not Due returns to duty and resigns subsequently
without carrying the credit of HPL, what action is he liable for ?
a) Disciplinary action
b) Refund of leave salary
c) No action is necessary
d) Not to accept his resignation
Ans : c
1201. Under what circumstanc4es can recovery of over payment of leave salary from a
Gov4ernemnt servant, who had been sanctioned Leave Not Due, be waived ?
a) On resignation
b) On voluntary retirement
c) On Compulsary retirement
d) on leave preparatory to retirement
Ans : c
1202. What is the maximum limit for grant of EOL with or without Medical Certificate to a
permanent Government servant?
a) 18 months
b) 24 months
c) 3 months
d) No limits
Ans : b
1203. What is the maximum limt for grant of EOL with or without Medical Certifcicate to a
permanent Government servant ?
a) 18 months
b) 24 months
c) 3 months
d) No limits
Ans : c
1204. What is the period up to which EOL with Medical Certificate for illness
Can be sanctioned to a temporary Government servant with minimum of one year service ?
a) 3 months
b) 6 months
c) 9 months
d) 18 months
Ans : b
1205. What leave salary is payabe to a Government servant who had been sanctioned EOL with
Medical Certificate?
a) Last pay drawn

b) As in the case of HPL
c) As in the case of EL
d) No leave salary
Ans : d
1206. Who is empowered to grant relaxation of EOL under provisions of sub-rule (2) of Rule 32 in
the case of SC/ST employ6ee for attending pre-examination training courses at centres notified by
Government
a) Immediate superior
b) Head of Office
c) Head of Department
d) President
Ans : c
1207. If two spells of EOL is intervened by leave of another kind, how will it be treated for the
purpose of maximum limit ?
a) Two spells
b) Different spells
c) One continous spells
d) Not admissible
Ans : C
1208. If the service of a Probationer is proposed to be terminated, can any leave be sanctioned /
extended? If yes to what extent?
a) Yes. Should not extend beyond the probationary period

b) Yes. Can be extended beyond the period probations
c) None
d) Both
Ans : a
1209. Whatj is the maximum period of leave on medical certificate that can be sanctioned to an
Apprentice ?
a. Four months
b. Six months
c. One months
d. 15 days
Ans : C
1210. What will be the leave salary payable to an Apprentice, who has been granted leave on
Medical Certificate ?
a) As in the case of EL
b) Last pay drawn
c) As in the case of HPL
d) No leave salary
Ans : c
1211. Which leave rules are applicable in the case of persons re-employed in sub-ordinate office ?
a) Leave rules of previous employer
b) CCS (Leave) Rules 1972
c) Leave rules of previous employer as well as present employer
Ans: b
1212. What is the maximum period of leave which a Government employee is permitted to take as
leave preparatory to retirement?
a) 60 days
b) 150 days
c) 240 days
d) 300 days
Ans : d
1213. What is the kind of leave that cannot be included in leave preparatory to retirement granted
to a Government servant?
a) Earned leave
b) HPL
c) EOL
d) None
Ans : c
1214. What is the permissible limit of earned leave that can be encashed at one time when a
Government servant proposes to avail LTC?
a) No limit
b) 10 days
c) 15 days
d) 30 days
Ans : b
1215. What is the maximum amount of leave that can be encashed by a Government servant
while availing LTC during the entire career?
a) 30 days
b) 60 days
c) 120 days
d) 180 days.
Ans : b
1216. What is the minimum balance of earned leave that should be available at credit when a
Government servant wants to encash earned leave at the time of availing LTC?
a) 30 days
b) 120 days
c) 60 days
d) 180 days
Ans : a
1217. What are the components admissible for computation of encashment of leave salary on the
date of availing LTC?
a) Pay, DA and HRA
b) Pay only
c) Pay plus DA only
d) Pay plus other allowances
Ans : c
1218. A Government employee who has a balance of 300 days of EL at his credit on the date of his
retirement, had encashed EL for 40 days during the entire service, while availing LTC. In such
case, what will be the maximum number of days eligible for payment of encashement of leave
salary at the time of retirement
a) 260 days
b) 240 days
c) 300 days
d) 300-400 days
Ans : c
1219. A Government servant who have encashed leave salary of EL along with the LTC failed to
avail LTC within the time limit prescribed. Consequently he was asked to refund the entire
amount of advance together with the interest . What is the penal rate of interest chargeable on
the entire amount of encashment of leave ?
a) 8%
b) 8 ½ %
c) 2% above the rate of intere4st applicable for PF
d) 2 ½ above the rate of interest applicable for PF
Ans : c
3 Phase EMU
1220. In a three-phase system, the voltages are separated by

A.45° B. 90° C. 120° D. 180° Ans C)
1222 .Inverter converts
A) DC to AC B). AC to AC C). DC to DC D). AC to DC Ans . A)
1223. Rectifier converts

A.) DC to AC B.) AC to AC C). AC to DC d. DC to DC Ans. C)
1224. What is the Line Converter Nominal Input Voltage for 3-Phase EMU?
Ans. 855V, 50Hz, Single phase.
1225. What is the Output Voltage of Traction Converter for 3-Phase EMU?
Ans. 3-ph 1430V AC, 2x468A, 0-160Hz.
1226. What is the rating of of 3-Phase EMU’s Battery?

Ans. Dry Battery 6x18, 120Ah at 110 V DC
1228. What is the full form of HWTL? Ans. Hard Wired Train Line.
1229. What is the full from of ICF? Ans. Integral Coach Factory.
1230. What is the full from of MCB? Ans. Miniature Circuit Breaker.
1231. What is the DC input voltage of Auxiliary Converter?

Ans. 1800 V DC +/- 10%
1231. What is the DC Output voltage of Auxiliary Converter?

Ans. 8.6 Kw at 110 V DC
1232. Power in a Three Phase Circuit = _________.
a) P = 3 VPh IPh CosФ b)P = √3 VL IL CosФ c) Both 1 & 2. d) None of The Above
Ans. c)
1233. A polyphase system is generated by______?
a) Having two or more generator windings separated by equal electrical angle.

b) Having generator windings at equal distances
c) None of the above
d) A and C
Ans. a)
1234. In a three phase AC circuit, the sum of all three generated voltages is _______ ?
a) Infinite (∞) b) Zero (0) c) One (1) d) None of the above Ans. b)
1235. In a three phase AC circuit, the sum of all three generated voltages is ————
a) Infinite b) Zero c) One d) None of the above Ans. b)
1236. An induction motor is ———
a) Self-starting b) Not self-starting c) None of these Ans. a)
1237. Slip of an induction motor lies between ——-
a) 0 to 10 % b) 0 to 400 RPM c) 0 to 5 % d) 0 to 4000 RPM Ans. c)
1238. What is the Nominal Voltage Primary of Transformer for 3 Phase EMU?
Ans. 22.5 KV / (25Kv)
1239. What is the Nominal Voltage Secondary of Transformer for 3 Phase EMU?
Ans. 855V/(950v)
1240. What is the Motor Mass of Traction Motor for 3-Phase EMU?
Ans. 1435 Kg.
1241. What is the Max. Pressure of Main Air Compressor for 3- Phase EMU?
Ans. 10 Bar.
1242. Capacity of Main Air Compressor is
Ans. 1445 LPM.
1243. What is the Gear Ratio of Traction Motor for 3-Phase EMU?
Ans. 103/23 ( 4.478)
1244. In three phase transformer, the phase difference between the primary and the
induced secondary winding is
Ans. 1800
1245. Which of the following test can be used to determine the efficiency of two
identical transformer at full load
Ans. Back to back test
1246. In a three phase AC circuit, the sum of all three generated voltages is ————
Ans. Zero.
1247. The maximum rpm of a Hitachi Traction Motor is
Ans. 895 rpm
1248. AFL circuit works in case of
Ans. Train parting and Chain pulling
1249. Bearings used to support axles of rolling stock are
Ans. Roller bearings.
1250. Which of the following traction system is latest used in the world?
Ans. 3 phase 3.7 kV
1251. The distance traveled before the brakes are applied is
Ans. 2.35 km.
1252. Energy consumption in propelling the train is required for
(A) acceleration
(B) work against gravity while moving up the gradient
(C) work against the resistance to motion
(D) all of the above.
Ans. D)
1253. During coasting the speed of the train __________.
Ans. Decreases.
1254. What would happen if a power transformer designed for operation on 50 Hz
(frequency) were connected to a 5 Hz (frequency) source of the same voltage?
Ans. Transformer may start to Smoke

1255. A transformer has
Ans. A Primary winding used as an input and a secondary winding used as an input .
1256. What is the Temperature Range for EMU Coaches?
Ans. 00 to 500
1257. What is the Max. Speed – Test Speed of 3-Phase EMU ?
Ans. 110 Km/Hr. - 120Km/Hr.
1258. Which type of winding is used in 3-phase shell-type transformer?
Ans. Sandwich type
1259. How 3-phase transformers are constructed?
Ans. Single 3-phase transformer or a bank of 3 1-phasetransformers
1260. What is Nominal Voltage of a Pantograph for 3- Phase EMU ?
Ans. 25Kv ac , 50 Hz.
1261. The Traction Motors transforms
Ans. Electrical Power into Mechanical Power.
1262. How many teeth of Main Gear?
Ans. 103
1263. Gear Box Drive Mass is
Ans. 588 Kg.
1264. How many Auxiliary Converter is provided in each Motor Coach ?
Ans. One.
1265. How many Pneumatically operated Horns on DTC and MC?
Ans. Two & One.
1266. Compressor Control Setting used to
Ans. Control the Compressor from DDU.
1267. What is LTCU ?

Ans. Line and Traction Control Unit
1268. L T C U Consists of
Ans. 2 - Line Converter Computers (LIC) and 2- Traction Inverter
Computers.
1269. What IS Full form of ACU?

Ans. Auxiliary Converter Unit.
1270. What is ACU ?

Ans. Control Unit for Auxiliary Converter.
1271. Number of frequency generator (FGU) is provided in each DTC is

Ans. One.
1272. Brake Control Unit (BCU) has a CPU module that controls
Ans. the complete EP Brake control operation of basic based on the
signals measured.
1273. A Government servant who had encashed leave salary of EL along with the LTC failed
to avail LTC within the time limit prescribed. Consequently he was asked to refund the
entire amount of advance together with the interest . What is the penal rate of interest
chargeable on the entire amount of encashment of leave ?
a) 8%
b) 8 ½ %
c) 2% above the rate of intere4st applicable for PF
d) 2 ½ above the rate of interest applicable for PF
Ans : c
1274. What is the maximum number of days admissible for cash payment in lieu of EL/HPL
put together on attaining superannuation?
a) 240 days
b) 180 days
c) 300 days
d) 120 days
Ans : c
1275. What are the pay and Allowances admissibe for payment of c ash equivalent of EL to a
Government servant who retires voluntarily?
a) Pay and Allowances last drawn
b) Basic Pay only
c) Basic pay plus HRA
d) Basic pay plus DA
Ans :b
1276. What are the Pay and Allowances admissible for payment of cash equivalent of HPL to a
Government servant who retires on superannuation ?
a) Pay and Allowances last drawn
b) Pay and DA only
c) Half of Basic Pay and DA
d) Half of pay plus other allowances.
Ans c
1277 A Government servant who retired vouluntarily does not have any EL at his credit and
wants to commute his HPL for encashment of leave salary of HPL. Is it permissible ?
a) Yes. Up to 300 days
b) Yes. Up to 150 days
c) No. Commutation of HPL is not permissible
d) Yes. Permissible without limit.
Ans : c
1278. What is the maximum number of days of EL and HPL that can be encashed by a
Governement servant whose service has been extended in public interest on the date of his
retirement ?
a) 300 days plus leave earned during his extension.
b) 300 days less half pay leave availed during his extension.
c) Maximum of 300 days EL and HPL put together.
Ans : c
1279.Can a Government servant who is terminated by notice be eligible for cash equivalent of
eave salary of EL and HPL at his credit?
a) Yes. Eligible for HPL to the extent of leave at his credit.
b) Yes. Eligible for EL only to the extent of leave at his credit.
c) Yes. Eligible for both EL & HPL subject to a maximum of 300 days.
d) Yes. Eligible for both EL & HPL subject to a maximum of 150 days.
Ans : c
1280. When a Government servant resigns from service , what is the maximum period of EL up
to which encashment of leave salary is payable ?
a) 300 days
b) Nil
c) 240 days
d) Hlaf of EL subject to maximum of 150 days.
Ans: c
1281. If a Government servant resigns from service, how many days of cash equivalent of leave
salary of HPL is he eligible to ?
a) 180 days
b) 150 days
c) No. He is not eligible
d) 300 days.
Ans : d)
1282 .Is a Government employee who is re-employed after retirement from Military service
eligible for encashment of Leave salary of EL & HPL after retirement? If yes, then to what
extent?
a) Yes. Up to 150 days including the period for which encashment is allowed in the previous
employment.
b) Not eligible
c) Yes. In addition to the period of leave encashed in the previous employment with out any
deduction.
d) Yes. Up to a maximum of 300 days of EL and HPL put together, incluing the period of leave
encashment in the earlier service
Ans : d
1283. What will be the components of pay for payment of leave salary to re-employed
pensioner ?
a) Pay last drawn
b) Pay plusDA after adjustment of Pension and Pension equivalent of other retirement
benefits.
c) Pay fixed at the time of re-employment.
d) Pay plus DA on the date of retirement without adjustment of Pension and pension
equivalent of other retirement benefits.
Ans : d
1284. The maximum number of days EL & HPL for encashment of leave salary payable to
family of the deceased Government servant are
a) 150 days of EL & HPL
b) 300 days of EL & HPL put together
c) 50% of EL only
d) 50% of HPL
Ans : b
1285. Is a permanent Government servant who is completely and permanently incapacitated

for further service eligible for payment of encashment of leave salary of EL and HPL ?
a) Not eligible
b) Yes. But eligible for EL only
c) Yes. But eligible for HPL only
d) Yes. Eligible for both up to maximum of 300 days
Ans :d
1286. Will a temporary Government servant wyho is invalidated for futher service, be eligible
for payment of encashment of HPL ?
a) No. Not eligible
b) Yes Eligible for payment up to a maximum of 300 days
c) Yes. Eligible for payment of 50% of HPL
d) Yes. Eligible for payment of 75% HPL.
Ans : a)
1287. In the event of death of female Government servant, encashment of leave salary is not
payable to
a) Husband
b) Major brother
c) Unmarried daughter
d) Adopted son
Ans : b)
1288. Will a Government servant who has been permitted permanent absorption in PSU /
Autonomous body controlled by a State Government and has requested for encashment of
leave salary of HPL /EL be elgible for encashment ?
a) Eligible for EL only
b) Eligible for HPL only
c) Eligible for both EL & HPL not exceeding 300 days
d) Not eligible for any kind of leave.
Ans : c)
1289. Mention the date from which encashment of EL & HPL to a Governement servant /
retired Government servant came into effect
a) 01.09.2008
b) 01.09.2008
c) 01.01.2008
d) 01.01.2006
Ans : d)
1290. If a Government Servant whose annual increment falls during the leave period dies
without returning to duty , will be entitled to the benefit of increment?
a) Not eligible
b) Eligible for exgratia amount by allowing benefit of increment from due date to date of death.
c) Yes. To the extent of 50% of EL at credit
d) Eligible for EL at credit.
Ans : b
1291. Can a Government servant who has been compulsorily retired as a measure of penalty
be eligible for encashment of leave salary ?
a) Not eligible
b) Eligible for 50% of EL at credit
c) Eligible for EL at credit
d) Eligible for 50% of HPL
Ans : c)
1292. Who is the competent Authority for grant of cash equivalent of leave at the credit of
Government
a) Head of Office
b) Head of Department
c) Authority to whom powers to grant leave has been delegated.
d) Ministry concerned.
Ans :c)
1293. An authority competent to grant leave may issue provisional sanction of leave until a
report regarding admissibility is obtained for a period not exceeding
a) 120 days
b) 60 days
c) 30 days
d) 180 days
Ans : b)
1294. A retired CGHS Doctor requested the Leave Sanctioning Authority to include the
following for computation of encashment of his leave salary which he was drawing on the date
of retirement. Mention the component that is inadmissible for the above purpose :
a) Dearness Allowance
b) Non- practicing Allowance
c) Annual Allowance
d) Personal Pay
Ans : c)
1295. What is the leave salary payable to a Government servant who proceeds on Leave Not
Due ?
a) Last pay drawn
b) Half the amount of pay admissible to EL
c) 3/4th of the amount of pay admissible to EL
d) No leave salary
Ans : b)
1296. What leave salary is payable during HPL in respect of a person to whom the ESI Act
1948 applies ?
a) Last pay drawn
b) Half the amount of pay admissible to EL.
c) Half the amount of pay admissible le4ss the amount of benefit payable under the Act for
corresponding period
d) No leave salary.
Ans : c)
1297. What is the minimum period of leave to be availed by a Government servant who has
requested for sanction of advance of leave salary prior to 21.12.2015.
a) Not less than 45 days
b) Not less than 7 days
c) Not less than 30 days
d) Not less than 10 days
Ans : c)
1298. What was amount of advance of Leave Salary admissible to a Government servant prior
to 31.12.15?
a) Leave salary up to one month’s pay and allowance without any deductions.
b) Leave salary up to one month’s pay and allowance with usual deductions.
c) Leave salary up to half months’ pay with usual deductions.
d) Leave salary up to half month’s pay without usual deductions.
Ans : b)
1299.What is the maximum period up to which Maternity Leave can be granted to a female
Government servant who is unmarried ?
a) 45 days
b) 90 days
c) 180 days
d) Not eligible
Ans : c)
1300.A female Governement servant who has 4 surviving children requested for sanction of
Maternity Leave on account of aborption along with MC. Is she eligible for such request ?
a) Not eligible
b) Eligible not exceeding 30 days
c) Eligible not exceeding 180 days
d) Eligible not exceeding 45 days during entire service.
Ans : d)
1301. A female Government servant applied for Maternity Leave on account of threatened
abortion. To what extent is she eligible ?
a) Eligible for 45 days without MC
b) Not eligible
c) Eligible for 180 days with MC
d) At the discretion of leave sanctioning authority.
Ans : b)
1302. To which leave account, Maternity Leave is to be debited
a) Earned Leave
b) Half pay leave
c) No leave account
d) Child care leave
Ans :c)
1303. Name the kind of leave that is not debited to any leave account
a) Earned leaved
b) Child Adoption Leave
c) Commuted Leave
d) Half pay leave.
Ans : b)
1304. What is maximum period of commuted leave that can be allowed to a female Government
servant without production of MC in continuation of Maternity Leave ?
a) One year
b) Two years
c) 60 days
d) 180 days
Ans : b)
1305. Is an unmarried male Government servant eligible for grant of paternity leave?
a) Eligible for 15 days
b) Eligible for 20 days
c) Not eligible
d) Eligibile for 45 days
Ans : c)
1306. If Paternity leave is not availed of by a Governemnt servant what will happen to such leave
?
a) Leave not availed can be credited to his EL account
b) It can be carried over to next fonfinement of his wife
c) It can be credited to HPL account
d) It will lapse
Ans : d)
1307. Is an Apprentice eligible for grant of Paternity Leave for child adoption ?
a) Eligible for 10 days
b) Eligible for 15 days
c) Eligible for 20 days
d) Not eligible
Ans : b)
1308. What is the age-limit of child stipulated for grant of Child Adoption Leave ?
a) More than a year
b) Below the age of one year
c) Below the age of 16 months
d) Below the age of 18 months
Ans :b)
1309. A male Government servant who has 2 surviving children has requested for sanction of
Paternity Leave in respect of a child taken as ward the Guardian and Wards Act. Is he entitled to
such kind of leave ?
a) Eligible
b) Not eligible
c) Eligible if he has one surviving child
d) Eligible if the ward is less than 1 year. Ans : b)
1310. What is the maximum period of child adoption leave that can be granted to a female
Government servant ?
a) 135 days
b) 90 days
c) 45 days
d) 180 days
Ans : d)
1311. What is the maximum period of Leave Not Due without MC that can be granted to a female
Government Servant in continuation of child adoption leave ?
a) 30 days
b) 60 days
c) 90 days
d) 120 days
Ans : b)
1312. What is the maximum period of any kind of leave that is admissible in continous of child
adoption leave if the age of the adopted child is 9 months old ?
a) up to 1 year
b) 6 months
c)3 months
d) Nil
Ans : c)
1313. What will be the leave salary payable in the case of child adoption leave availed by a female
Governement employee ?
a) half of half pay leave
b) Half of earned leave
c) Equal to the pay drawn immediately before proceeding on leave
d) As in the case of half pay leave
Ans : c)
1314. What is the maximum period of Child Care Leave allowed during the entire service of a
female Government servant ?
a) 365 days
b) 547 days
c) 732 days
d) 730 days
Ans : d)
1315. For how many minor children a female Government servant can request for grant of Child
Care Leave?
a) For 3 children
b) For 2 elder children
c) For any two children
d) No limit.
Ans : b)
1316. What is the maximum age-limit of children prescribed for grant of Child Care Leave to a
female Government Servant?
a) 20 years
b) 22 years
c) Less than 18 years
d) 18 years and above
Ans : c)
1317. What is the maximum age limit prescribed for a child who had disabity of 60% for grant of
Child Care Leave to a female Governement servant ?
a) Above the age of 25 years
b) Below the age of 25 years
c) Below the age of 22 years
d) Age between 25 years and 30 years.
Ans : c)
1318. How many spells of child care leave can be allowed to a fmale government servant in a
calader year?
a) one spell
b) No limit
c) Two spells
d) Three spells
Ans : d)
1319. What is the minimum period of child care leavle to be considered for sanction to a female
Governmnt servant ?
a) 10 days
b) 15 days
c) 20 days
d) 30 days
Ans : b)
1320. Mention the purpose for which child care leave can be applied for by a female Government
servant ?
a) Private ground
b) Illness of self with MC
c) To look after the needs of children like examination and illness
d) To avail LTC.
Ans : c)
1321. Mention the date from which Child Care Leave came into effect :
a) 1.1.2006
b) 01.01.2008
c) 01.09.2008
d) 01.01.2016
Ans : c)
1322. What is the minimum percentage of disability prescribed for a disabled child for grant of
Child |Care leave to a female Government employee ?
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 40%
d) 50%
Ans : C)
1323. What will be the leave salary payable in the case of Child Care Leave availed by a woman
employee ?
a) Half of earned leave
b) Equal to the pay drawn immediately proceeding on leave
c) 100% of salary for first 365 days and 80% for next 365 days
d) No leave salary.
Ans : C)
1324.. Among the following, which is the right formula for inductance?
a) L=emf*t/I
b) L=emf/t*I
c) L=emf*I/t
d) L=emf*t*I
a) L=NΦ/t
b) L=NΦt
c) L=N/Φt
d) L=NΦ2t
1326. For a coil having a magnetic circuit of constant reluctance, the flux is ___________ to the
current.
a) Directly proportional
b) Inversely proportional
c) Not related
d) Very large compared to
1327. For a coil having a magnetic circuit of constant reluctance, if the flux increases, what
happens to the current?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Becomes zero
1328. The unit for inductance is ___________
a) Ohm
b) Henry
c) A/m
d) A/s
1329. If either the inductance or the rate of change of current is doubled, the induced e.m.f?
a) Remains constant
b) Becomes zero
c) Doubles
d) Becomes half
1330. If the current changes from 5A to 3A in 2 seconds and the inductance is 10H, calculate the
emf.
a) 5V
b) 10V
c) 15V
d) 20V
1331. If the current changes from 5A to 3A in x sec and inductance is 10H. The emf is 10V,
calculate the value of x.
a) 2s
b) 3s
c) 4s
d) 5s
1332. If the current changes from 3A to 5A in 2s and the emf is 10V. Calculate the inductance.
a) 10H
b) 20H
c) 30H
d) 40H
Answer: a
1333. It is preferable to connect bulbs in series or in parallel?

a)Series
b)Parallel
c)Bothseriesandparallel
d)Neitherseriesnorparallel
Answer:b
1334. Calculate the total resistance between the points A and B.
a) 7 ohm
b) 0 ohm
c) 7.67 ohm
d) 0.48 ohm
View Answer
Answer: c
1335. Calculate the equivalent resistance between A and B.
a) 60 ohm
b) 15 ohm
c) 12 ohm
d) 48 ohm
Answer: c
1336. Calculate the resistance between A and B.
a) 3.56 ohm
b) 7 ohm
c) 14.26 ohm
d) 29.69 ohm
View Answer
Answer: a
1337. Batteries are generally connected in______

a) Series
b) Parallel
c) Either series or parallel
d) Neither series nor parallel
View Answer
Answer: a
1338. In a _________ circuit, the total resistance is greater than the largest resistance in the
circuit.
a) Series
b) Parallel
View Answer
Answer: a
1339. In a ____________ circuit, the total resistance is smaller than th smallest resistance in the
circuit.
a) Series
b) Parallel
View Answer
Answer: b
1340. Which is the most cost efficient connection?

a) Series
b) Parallel
a) 2 ohm
b) 4 ohm
c) 6 ohm
d) 8 ohm
View Answer
Answer: a
a) 6.67 ohm
b) 46.67 ohm
c) 26.67 ohm
d) 10.67 ohm
View Answer
Answer: a
1343. Find the current in the circuit.
a) 1 A
b) 2 A
c) 3 A
d) 4 A
View Answer
Answer: b
1344. In a series circuit, which of the parameters remain constant across all circuit elements such
as resistor, capacitor and inductor etcetera?
a) Voltage
b) Current
c) Both voltage and current
d) Neither voltage nor current
View Answer
Answer: b
1345. Voltage across the 60ohm resistor is______
a) 72V
b) 0V
c) 48V
d) 120V
View Answer
Answer: b
1346. Find the voltage across the 6 ohm resistor.
a) 150V
b) 181,6V
c) 27.24V
d) 54.48V
Answer: c
1350. If there are two bulbs connected in series and one blows out, what happens to the other
bulb?
a) The other bulb continues to glow with the same brightness
b) The other bulb stops glowing
c) The other bulb glows with increased brightness
d) The other bulb also burns out
Answer: b
1351. What is the value of x if the current in the circuit is 5A?
a) 15 ohm
b) 25 ohm
c) 55 ohm
d) 75 ohm
Answer: a
1352. A voltage across a series resistor circuit is proportional to?

a) The amount of time the circuit was on for
b) The value of the resistance itself
c) The value of the other resistances in the circuit
d) The power in the circuit
Answer: b
1353. Many resistors connected in series will?
a) Divide the voltage proportionally among all the resistors
b) Divide the current proportionally
c) Increase the source voltage in proportion to the values of the resistors
d) Reduce the power to zero
Answer: a
1354. What is the voltage measured across a series short?
a) Infinite
b) Zero
c) The value of the source voltage
d) Null
Answer: b
1355. What happens to the current in the series circuit if the resistance is doubled?
a) It becomes half its original value
b) It becomes double its original value
c) It becomes zero
d) It becomes infinity
View Answe
Answer: a
1356. It is preferable to connect bulbs in series or in parallel?
a) Series
b) Parallel
c) Both series and parallel
Answer: b
1357. Calculate the total resistance between the points A and B.
a) 7 ohm
b) 0 ohm
c) 7.67 ohm
d) 0.48 ohm
Answer: c
a) 60 ohm
b) 15 ohm
c) 12 ohm
d) 48 ohm
Answer: c
1359. Calculate the resistance between A and B.
a) 3.56 ohm
b) 7 ohm
c) 14.26 ohm
d) 29.69 ohm
Answer: a
1360. Batteries are generally connected in______
a) Series
b) Parallel
Answer: a
1361. In a _________ circuit, the total resistance is greater than the largest resistance in the
circuit.
a) Series
b) Parallel
Answer: a
1362. In a ____________ circuit, the total resistance is smaller than th smallest resistance in the
circuit.
a) Series
b) Parallel
Answer: b
1363. Which is the most cost efficient connection?
a) Series
b) Parallel
Answer: a
a) 2 ohm
b) 4 ohm
c) 6 ohm
d) 8 ohm
Answer: a
a) 6.67 ohm
b) 46.67 ohm
c) 26.67 ohm
d) 10.67 ohm
Answer: a
1370. Which of the following is not an expression power?
a) P=VI
b) P=I2R
c) P=V2/R
d) All of the mentioned
Answer d
1371. Which of the following statements are true?
a) Power is proportional to Voltage
b) Power is proportional to current
c) Neither of the statements are right
d) Both the statements are right
Answer: d
1372 A 250V bulb passes a current of 0.3A. Calculate the power in the lamp.
a) 75W
b) 50W
c) 25W
d) 90W
Answer: a
1373. Kilowatt-hour (kWh) is a unit of?
a) Current
b) Power
c) Energy
d) Resistance
Answer: c
1374. Calculate the power in the 20 ohm resistance.
a) 2000kW
b) 2kW
c) 200kW
d) 2W
Answer: b
1375. A current of 5A flows in a resistor of 2 ohms. Calculate the power in the resistor and the
energy dissipated in 300 seconds.
a) 15kJ
b) 15000kJ
c)1500J
d) 15J
Answer: a
1376. Calculate the power across each 20 ohm resistance.
a) 1000W, 1000W
b) 500W, 500W
c) 1000kW, 1000kW
d) 500kW, 500kW
Answer: b
1377. Calculate the power across each 10 ohm resistance.
a) 1000kW, 1000kW
b) 1kW, 1kW
c) 100W, 100W
d) 100kW, 100kW
Answer: b
1378. Calculate the work done in a resistor of 20 ohm carrying 5A of current in 3 hours.
a) 1.5J
b) 15J
c) 1.5kWh
d) 15kWh
Answer: c
1379. The SI unit of power is?
a) kW(kilo-watt)
b) J/s(joules per second)
c) Ws(watt-second)
d) J/h(joules per hour
Answer: b
1380. Which among the following is a unit for electrical energy?
a) V(volt)
b) Wh(kilowatt-hour)
c) Ohm
d) C(coloumb)
Answer: b
1381. A bulb has a power of 200W. What is the energy dissipated by it in 5 minutes?
a) 60J
b) 1000J
c) 60kJ
d) 1kJ
Answer: c
1382. Out of the following, which one is not a source of electrical energy?
a) Solar cell
b) Battery
c) Potentiometer
d) Generator
Answer: c
1383. Calculate the energy dissipated by the circuit in 50 seconds.
a) 50kJ
b) 50J
c) 100j
d) 100kJ
Answer: a
1384. Which among the following is an expression for energy?
a) V2It
b) V2Rt
c) V2t/R
d) V2t2/R
Answer: c
1385. Calculate the energy in the 10 ohm resistance in 10 seconds.
a) 400J
b) 40kJ
c) 4000J
d) 4kJ
Answer: b
1386. A battery converts___________
a) Electrical energy to chemical energy
b) Chemical energy to electrical energy
c) Mechanical energy to electrical energy
d) Chemical energy to mechanical energy
Answer: b
1387. A current of 2A flows in a wire offering a resistance of 10ohm. Calculate the energy
dissipated by the wire in 0.5 hours.
a) 72Wh
b) 72kJ
c) 7200J
d) 72kJh
Answer b
1388. Calculate the energy in the 5 ohm resistor in 20 seconds.
a) 21.5kJ
b) 2.15kJ
c) 2.15J
d) 21.5kJ
Answer: a
1389. Practically, if 10kJ of energy is supplied to a device, how much energy will the device give
back?
a) Equal to10kJ
b) Less than 10kJ
c) More than 10kJ
d) Zero
Answer: b
1390. The resistance of pure metals ___________
a) Increases with an increase in temperature
b) Decreases with an increase in temperature
c) Remains the same with an increase in temperature
d) Becomes zero with an increase in temperature
Answer: a
1391. The resistance of insulators __________
a) Increases with an increase in temperature
b) Decreases with an increase in temperature
c) Remains the same with an increase in temperature
d) Becomes zero with an increase in temperature
Answer: b
1392. Which of the following statements are true about metals?
a) Metals have a positive temperature coefficient
b) Metals have a negative temperature coefficient
c) Metals have zero temperature coefficient
d) Metals have infinite temperature coefficient
Answer: a
1393. Which of the following statements are true about insulators?
a) Insulators have a positive temperature coefficient
b) Insulators have a negative temperature coefficient
c) Insulators have zero temperature coefficient
d) Insulators have infinite temperature coefficient
Answer: b
1394. What is the unit of temperature coefficient?
a) ohm/centigrade
b) ohm-centigrade
c) centigrade-1
d) centigrade
Answer: c
1395. A copper coil has a resistance of 200 ohms when its mean temperature is 0 degree
centigrade. Calculate the resistance of the coil when its mean temperature is 80 degree
centigrade.
a) 268.5 ohm
b) 268.5 kilo-ohm
c) 286.5 ohm
d) 286.5 kilo-ohm
Answer: a
1396. The temperature of a coil cannot be measured by which of the following methods?
a) Thermometer
b) Increase in resistance of the coil
c) Thermo-junctions embedded in the coil
d) Calorimeter
Answer: d
1397. The rise or fall in resistance with the rise in temperature depends on ________
a) The property of the conductor material
b) The current in the metal
c) Both the given options
d) Does not depend on any factor
Answer: a
1398. If the temperature is increased in semi-conductors such that the resistance incessantly
falls, it is termed as_______
a) Avalanche breakdown
b) Zener breakdown
c) Thermal runway
d) Avalanche runway
Answer c
1399. Materials having resistance almost equal to zero is_______

a) Semi-conductor
b) Conductor
c) Superconductors
d) Insulators
Answer: c
1400. Star connection is also known as__________
a) Y-connection
b) Mesh connection
c) Either Y-connection or mesh connection
d) Neither Y-connection nor mesh connection
Answer: a
1401. What is the relation between current and voltage in a capacitor?
a) I=1/C*integral(Vdt)
b) I=CdV/dt
c) I=1/CdV/dt
d) I=Ct
Answer: b
1402. If 2V is supplied to a 3F capacitor, calculate the chance stored in the capacitor.
a) 1.5C
b) 6C
c) 2C
d) 3C
Answer: b
1403. Calculate the current in the capacitor having 2V supply voltage and 3F capacitance in
2seconds.
a) 2A
b) 5A
c) 6A
d) 3A
Answer: d
1404. A 4microF capacitor is charged to 120V, the charge in the capacitor would be?
a) 480C
b) 480microC
c) 30C
d) 30microC
Answer: b
1405. For high frequencies, capacitor acts as _________
a) Open circuit
b) Short circuit
c) Amplifier
d) Rectifier
Answer: b
1406. For very low frequencies, capacitor acts as ________
a) Open circuit
b) Short circuit
c) Amplifier
d) Rectifier
Answer: a
1407. A capacitor consists of_________
a) Two conductors
b) Two semiconductors
c) Two dielectrics
d) Two insulators
Answer: a
1408. Capacitor preferred when there is high frequency in the circuits is __________
a) Electrolyte capacitor
b) Mica capacitor
c) Air capacitor
d) Glass capacitor
Answer: b
1409. Capacitance increases with ________
a) Increase in plate area
b) Decrease in plate area
c) Increase in distance between the plates
d) Increase in density of the material
Answer: a
1410. Capacitance decreases with __________
a) Increase in distance between the plates
b) Decrease in plate area
c) Decrease in distance between the plates
d) Increase in density of the material
Answer: c
1411. What is the total capacitance when two capacitors C1 and C2 are connected in series?
a) (C1+C2)/C1C2
b) 1/C1+1/C2
c) C1C2/(C1+C2)
d) C1+C2
Answer: c
1412. N capacitors having capacitance C are connected in series, calculate the equivalent
capacitance.
a) C/N
b) C
c) CN
d) N/C
1413. When capacitors are connected in series, the equivalent capacitance is ___________ each
individual capacitance.
a) Greater than
b) Less then
c) Equal to
d) Insufficient data provided
1414. What is the equivalent capacitance?
a) 1.5F
b) 0.667F
c) 2.45F
d) 2.75F
Answer: b
1415. When capacitors are connected in series ___________ remains the same.
a) Voltage across each capacitor
b) Charge
c) Capacitance
d) Resistance
Answer: b
1416. When capacitors are connected in series _______________ Varies
a) Voltage across each capacitor
b) Charge
c) Capacitance
d) Resistance
Answer: a
1417. Four 10F capacitors are connected in series, calculate the equivalent capacitance.
a) 0.2F
b) 0.4F
c) 0.5F
d) 0.6F
Answer: b
1418. Calculate the charge in the circuit.
a) 66.67C
b) 20.34C
c) 25.45C
d) 30/45C
Answer: a
1419. Calculate the voltage across the 1F capacitor.
a) 33.33V
b) 66.67V
c) 56.56V
d) 23.43V
Answer: b
a) 33.33V
b) 66.67V
c) 56.56V
d) 23.43V
Answer: a
1421. The total voltage drop across a series of capacitors is __________
a) The voltage drop across any one of the capacitors
b) The sum of the voltage drop across each of the capacitors
c) The product of the voltage drop across each of the capacitors
d) Zero
Answer: b
1422. Capacitors C1, C2 and C3 have voltage drops 2V, 3V and 5V respectively. Calculate the
total voltage in the circuit.
a) 10V
b) 2V
c) 5V
d) 0V
Answer: a
1423. What is the voltage across the 2F capacitor?
a) 242V
b) 2V
c) 220V
d) 121V
Answer: d
1424. What is the voltage across the 4F capacitor?
a) 242V
b) 60.5V
c) 22.5V
d) 12.5V
Answer: b
a) 242V
b) 60.5V
c) 40.33V
d) 12.5V
Answer: c
1426. When capacitors are connected in series, which of the following rules are applied?
a) Voltage divider
b) Current divider
c) Both voltage divider and current divider
d) Neither voltage divider nor current divider
Answer: a
1427. A capacitor does not allow sudden changes in _________
a) Current
b) Voltage
c) Resistance
d) Inductance
Answer: b
1428. Which of the following expressions is correct with respect to the voltage across capacitors in
series?
a) V1/V2=C2/C1
b) V2/V1=C2/C1
c) V1*V2=C1*C2
d) V1/C1=V2/C2
Answer: a
1429. Two 4F capacitors are connected in series, calculate the voltage across each if the total
voltage is 20V.
a) 10V
b) 5V
c) 20V
d) 0V
Answer: a
1430. Two capacitors having voltage 2F and 4F are connected in series. This combination is
connected to a 100V supply, calculate the voltage across the 2F capacitor.
a) 66.67V
b) 33.33V
c) 100V
d) 0V
Answer: b
1431. What is the magnetic field outside a solenoid?

a) Infinity
b) Half the value of the field inside
c) Double the value of the field inside
d) Zero
Answer: d
2142. Which, among the following qualities, is not affected by the magnetic field?
a) Moving charge
b) Change in magnetic flux
c) Current flowing in a conductor
d) Stationary charge
Answer: d
1443. When a charged particle moves at right angles to the magnetic field, the variable quantity
is?
a) Momentum
b) Speed
c) Energy
d) Moment of inertia
Answer: a
1444. If the flow of electric current is parallel to the magnetic field, the force will be ______
a) Zero
b) Infinity
c) Maximum
d) Half the original value
Answer: a
1445. The ratio of magnetic force to electric force on a charged particle getting undeflected in a
field is?
a) 1
b) 0
c) 2
d) 4
Answer: a
1446. What is the strength of magnetic field known as ________

a) Flux
b) Density
c) Magnetic strength
d) Magnetic flux density
Answer: d
1447. Weakest force in nature is?
a) Electric force
b) Gravitational force
c) Weak force
d) Magnetic force
Answer: a
1448. How can a magnetic field be produced?
a) Using a permanent magnet
b) Electric current
c) Using a temporary magnet
d) Using a permanent magnet or electric current
Answer: d
1449. Can we see magnetic flux lines?
a) Yes
b) No
c) Depends on the strength of the field
d) Only when the field strength is very large
Answer: b
1450. Magnetic Field lines move from _______

a) North to south
b) South to north
c) West to east
d) East to west
Answer: a
1451. The conventional direction of electric field is ________
a) Positive to negative
b) Negative to positive
c) No specific direction
d) Direction cannot be determined
1452. Electric field originates at __________
a) Positive charge
b) Negative charge
c) Neither positive nor negative
d) Both positive and negative
Answer: a
1453. Electric field terminates at ________
a) Positive charge
b) Negative charge
c) Neither positive nor negative
d) Both positive and negative
Answer: b
1454. Which among the following statements is true with regard to electric field lines?
a) Electric field lines always intersect
b) Electric field lines may or may not intersect
c) Electric field lines can be seen
d) Electric field lines never intersect
Answer: d
1455. Which, among the following, is the field where electric charge experiences a force?
a) Electric field
b) Magnetic field
c) Gravitational field
d) Electric, magnetic or gravitational field
Answer: a
1456. A field that spreads outwards in all directions is __________
a) Linear
b) Radial
c) Weak
d) Strong
Answer: b
1457. In uniform fields, all points have ________ field strength.
a) Zero
b) Same
c) Infinity
d) Different
Answer: b
1458. Which, among the following is the correct expression for an electric field?
a) E=F/C
b) E=F*C
c) E=F/Q
d) E=F*Q
Answer: c
1459. What happens when one material is rubbed against another?
a) The material becomes electrically neutral
b) The material becomes electrically charged
c) The material becomes negatively charged
d) The material becomes positively charged
Answer: b
1460. The insulant between the two plates of a capacitor is called _______
a) Conductor
b) Semi-conductor
c) Dielectric
d) Superconductor
Answer: c
1461. The unit for dielectric strength is ____________
a) V/m2
b) MV/m2
c) MV/m
d) Vm
Answer: b
1462. If the Voltage increases, what happens to dielectric strength?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Becomes zero
Answer: a
1463. If the potential difference in a material is 4MV and the thickness of the material is 2m,
calculate the dielectric strength.
a) 2MV/m
b) 4MV/m
c) 6MV/m
d) 8MV/m
1464. If the dielectric strength of a material is 4MV/m and its potential difference is 28MV,
calculate the thickness of the material.
a) 4m
b) 7m
c) 5m
d) 11m
Answer: b
1465. If the thickness of the material increases, what happens to the dielectric strength?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Becomes zero
1466. The thickness of a material having dielectric strength 10MV/m is 5m, calculate the
potential difference.
a) 2MV
b) 10MV
c) 50MV
d) 100MV
Answer: c
1467. A dielectric is basically a ____________

a) Capacitor
b) Conductor
c) Insulator
d) Semiconductor
Answer: c
1468. Which, among the following, is the correct expression for force in a current carrying
conductor?
a) F=Bi
b) F=B2il
c) F=Bil
d) F=Bl2
Answer: c
1469. When the current in the current carrying conductor increases, what happens to the force in
the conductor which is at right angles to the magnetic field?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Becomes zero
Answer: a
1470. When the length of the conductor in the current carrying conductor increases, what
happens to the force in the conductor which is at right angles to the magnetic field?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Becomes zero
Answer: a
1471. When the magnetic field intensity in the current carrying conductor increases, what
happens to the force in the conductor which is at right angles to the magnetic field?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Becomes zero
Answer: a
1472. The unit for force in a current carrying conductor is _________
a) Newton
b) Tesla
c) Weber/metre
d) Ampere
Answer: a
1473. If the flow of electric current is parallel to the magnetic field, the force will be ________
a) Zero
b) Infinity
c) Maximum
d) Half the original value
Answer: a
1474. The ratio of magnetic force to electric force on a charged particle getting undeflected in a
field is ___________
a) 1
b) 0
c) 2
d) 4
Answer: a
1476. If the intensity of the magnetic field is 100T, the length of the conductor is 3m and the
current in the conductor is 10A, calculate the magnitude of force perpendicular to the electric
field.
a) 300N
b) 30N
c) 30kN
d) 3kN
Answer: d
1477. Weakest force in nature is ________
a) Electric force
b) Gravitational force
c) Weak force
d) Magnetic force
Answer: a
1478. An E.M.F. can be induced by _________
a) Change in the magnetic field
b) Change in the area of cross section
c) Change in angle between magnetic field and area
d) Change in the magnetic field, area and angle
Answer: d
1479. What happens to the current in a coil while accelerating a magnet inside it?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Reverses
Answer: a
1480. What is the consequence of motor effect?

a) Current
b) Voltage
c) Electromagnetic induction
d) EMF
Answer: c
1481. The total number of magnetic field lines passing through an area is termed as?
a) Voltage
b) EMF
c) Magnetic flux
Answer: b
1482. The formula for induced emf is __________
a) emf=B2l
b) emf=Bil
c) emf=Blv
d) emf=B2v
Answer: c
1483. If a conductor 0.2m long moves with a velocity of 0.3m/s in a magnetic field of 5T, calculate
the emf induced.
a) 0.3V
b) 0.03V
c) 30V
d) 3V
Answer: a
1484. Find the length of a conductor which is moving with a velocity 0.4m/s in a magnetic field of
8T, inducing an emf of 20V.
a) 50m
b) 5m
c) 6.25m
d) 0.5m
Answer: c
1485. Find the strength of the magnetic field in a conductor 0.5m long moving with a velocity of
10m/s, inducing an emf of 20V.
a) 1T
b) 2T
c) 3T
d) 4T
Answer: d
1486. What does emf stand for?

a) Electronic magnetic force
b) Electromotive force
c) Electromagnetic force
d) Electromated force
Answer: b
1487. What is emf?
a) Force
b) Voltage
c) Current
d) Flux
Answer: b
1488. Which, among the following, is the formula for induced emf?
a) e=d(phi)/dt
b) e=dt/d(phi)
c) e=t*phi
d) e=t2phi
Answer: a
1489. The formula for induced emf is _______
a) emf=B2l
b) emf=Bil
c) emf=Blv
d) emf=B2v
Answer: c
1490. The emf induced in a coil having N turns is?
a) e=phi/t
b) e=N*phi/t
c) e=N*phi*t
d) e=N2*phi*t
Answer: b
1491. The total number of magnetic field lines passing through an area is termed as ________
a) Voltage
b) EMF
c) Magnetic flux
Answer: b
1492. North pole induces __________
a) Clockwise current
b) Anti-clockwise current
c) Zero current
d) Infinite current
Answer: b
1493. The formula for induced emf is ______
a) emf=B2l
b) emf=Bil
c) emf=Blv
d) emf=B2v
Answer: c
1494. The total number of magnetic field lines passing through an area is termed as _______
a) Voltage
b) EMF
c) Magnetic flux
Answer: b
1495. Find the average value of current when the current that are equidistant are 4A, 5A and 6A.
a) 5A
b) 6A
c) 15A
d) 10A
Answer: a
1496. What is the current found by finding the current in an equidistant region and dividing by n?
a) RMS current
b) Average current
c) Instantaneous current
d) Total current
Answer: b
1497. RMS stands for ________
a) Root Mean Square
b) Root Mean Sum
c) Root Maximum sum
d) Root Minimum Sum
Answer: a
1498. What is the type of current obtained by finding the square of the currents and then finding
their average and then fining the square root?
a) RMS current
b) Average current
d) Total current
Answer: a
1499. __________ current is found by dividing the area enclosed by the half cycle by the length of
the base of the half cycle.
a) RMS current
b) Average current
d) Total current
Answer: b
1500. What is the effective value of current?
a) RMS current
b) Average current
d) Total current
Answer: a
1501. In a sinusoidal wave, average current is always _______ rms current.
a) Greater than
b) Less than
c) Equal to
d) Not related
Answer: b
1502. For a rectangular wave, average current is ______ rms current.
a) Greater than
b) Less than
c) Equal to
d) Not related
Answer: c
1503. Peak value divided by the rms value gives us?
a) Peak factor
b) Crest factor
c) Both peak and crest factor
d) Neither peak nor crest factor
Answer: c
1504. Calculate the crest factor if the peak value of current is 10A and the rms value is 2A.
a) 5
b) 10
c) 5A
d) 10A
Answer: a
1505. Ammeters and voltmeters are calibrated to read?
a) RMS value
b) Peak value
c) Average value
d) Instantaneous value
Answer: a
1506. The rms value is _________ times he maximum value
a) 1.414
b) 0.5
c) 2
d) 0.707
Answer: d
1507. The rms value is 0.707 times the _________ value.
a) Peak
b) Instantaneous
c) Average
d) DC
Answer: a
1508. If the phasors are drawn to represent the rms values, instead of the maximum values, what
would happen to the phase angle between quantities?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Becomes zero
Answer: c
1509. Usually phasor diagrams are drawn representing?
a) RMS value
b) Peak value
c) Average value
d) Instantaneous value
Answer: a
1510. A phasor has frozen at 30 degrees, find the value of the phase angle?
a) 30 degrees
b) 60 degrees
c) 120 degrees
d) 180 degrees
Answer: a
1511. If two current phasors, having magnitude 5A and 10A intersect at an angle of 60 degrees,
calculate the resultant current.
a) 5A
b) 10A
c) 25A
d) 20A
Answer: c
1512. The instantaneous values of two alternating voltages are given as _________
v1=60sinθ and v2=40sin(θ − π/3). Find the instantaneous sum.
a) 87.2 sin(23.5°) V
b) 87.2 sin( 0.5°) V
c) 87.2 sin(-23.5°) V
d) 87.2 cos(23.5°) V
Answer: a
1513. The instantaneous values of two alternating voltages are given as:
v1=60sinθ and v2=40sin(θ − π/3). Find the instantaneous difference.
a) 53 sin(30.9°) V
b) 53 sin(40.9°) V
c) 53 cos(30.9°) V
d) 53 cos(40.9°) V
Answer: b
1514. The resultant of two alternating sinusoidal voltages or currents can be found using
___________
a) Triangular law
b) Parallelogram law
c) Either triangular or parallelogram law
d) Neither triangular nor parallelogram law
Answer: b.
1515. The instantaneous voltage is a product of the resistance and the _____________ current in a
resistive circuit.
a) Instantaneous
b) Average
c) RMS
d) Peak
Answer: a
1516. Find the value of the instantaneous voltage if the resistance is 2 ohm and the
instantaneous current in the circuit is 5A.
a) 5V
b) 2V
c) 10V
d) 2.5V
Answer: c
1517. The power for a purely resistive circuit is zero when?
a) Current is zero
b) Voltage is zero
c) Both current and voltage are zero
d) Either current or voltage is zero
Answer: d
1518. If the maximum voltage in the circuit is 10V and the resistance is 5 ohm, calculate the
maximum current in the circuit.
a) 1A
b) 2A
c) 3A
d) 4A
Answer: b
1519. Calculate the resistance in the circuit if the rms voltage is 20V and the rms current is 2A.
a) 2 ohm
b) 5 ohm
c) 10 ohm
d) 20 ohm
1520. The correct expression for the instantaneous current in a resistive circuit is?
a) i=Vm(sint)/R
b) i=Vm(cost)/R
c) i=V(sint)/R
d) i=V(cost)/R
Answer: a
1521. Can ohm’s law be applied in an ac circuit?
a) Yes
b) No
c) Depends on the rms current
d) Depends on the rms voltage
Answer: a
1522. An induced emf is said to be?
a) Inductive
b) Capacitive
c) Resistive
d) Cannot be determined
Answer: a
1523. Inductor does not allow sudden changes in?
a) Voltage
b) Current
c) Resistance
d) Inductance
Answer: b
1524. An induced emf is said to be ___________
a) Inductive
b) Capacitive
c) Resistive
Answer: a
1525. Find the average current in an inductor if the total current in the inductor is 30A.
a) 10A
b) 26A
c) 15A
d) 5A
Answer: c
1526. What is the value of current in an inductive circuit when there is no applied voltage?
a) Minimum
b) Maximum
c) Zero
Answer: b
1527. What is the current in an inductive circuit when the applied voltage is maximum?
a) Infinity
b) Maximum
c) Zero
Answer: c
1528. In an inductive circuit, the voltage_______ the current?
a) Leads
b) Lags
c) Is greater than
d) Is less then
Answer: a
1529. In an inductive circuit, the current________ the voltage?
a) Leads
b) Lags
c) Is greater than
d) Is less then
Answer: b
1530. A resistance of 7 ohm is connected in series with an inductance of 31.8mH. The circuit is
connected to a 100V 50Hz sinusoidal supply. Calculate the current in the circuit.
a) 2.2A
b) 4.2A
c) 6.2A
d) 8.2A
Answer: d
connected to a 100V 50Hz sinusoidal supply. Calculate the phase difference.
a) -55.1
b) 55.1
c) 66.1
d) -66.1
Answer: a
connected to a 100V 50Hz sinusoidal supply. Calculate the voltage across the resistor.
a) 31.8V
b) 57.4V
c) 67.3V
d) 78.2V
Answer: b
connected to a 100V 50Hz sinusoidal supply. Calculate the voltage across the inductor.
a) 57.4V
b) 42.6V
c) 65.2V
d) 76.2V
Answer: b
connected to a x V 50Hz sinusoidal supply. The current in the circuit is 8.2A. Calculate the value
of x.
a) 10V
b) 50V
c) 100V
d) 120V
Answer: c
1535. Which, among the following, is the correct expression for φ.

a) φ=tan-1 (XL/R)
b) φ=tan-1 (R/XL)
c) φ=tan-1 (XL*R)
d) φ=cos-1 (XL/R)
Answer: a
1536. For an RL circuit, the phase angle is always ________
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) 0
d) 90
Answer: b
1537. Find the total voltage applied in a series RLC circuit when i=3mA, VL=30V, VC=18V and
R=1000 ohms.
a) 3.95V
b) 51V
c) 32.67V
d) 6.67V
Answer: b
1538. In an RLC circuit, which of the following is always used as a vector reference?
a) Voltage
b) Resistance
c) Impedance
d) Current
Answer: a
1539. In an RLC circuit, the power factor is always ____________
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Depends on the circuit
d) Zero
Answer: c
1540. In an RLC series phasor, we start drawing the phasor from which quantity?
a) Voltage
b) Resistance
c) Impedance
d) Current
Answer: d
1541-Which of the following retains the information it’s storing when the power to the
system is turned off?
(A) CPU
(B) ROM
(C) RAM
(D) DIMM
(Ans: B)
1542-A network of computers and other devices that is confined to a relatively small space
is called?
(A) Wide Area Network
(B) Local Area Network
(C) Global Network
(D) Peer-to-Peer Network
(Ans: B)
1543-Every computer connected to the Internet is identified by a unique four-part string,

known as
(A) IP address
(B) Host name
(C) Domain name
(D) None of the above
(Ans: A)
1544-ENIAC was the first general-purpose electronic computer. ENIAC stands for
(A) Electronic Network Interactive Analytic Computer
(B) Electronic Numerical Integrator and Computer
(C) Electronic Network Integrated Analytical Computer
(D) Electronic Numerical Integrated Automatic Computer
(Ans: B)
1545-Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) 1 KB = 1024 bytes
(B) 1 MB=2048 bytes
(C) 1 MB = 1000 kilobytes
(D) 1 KB = 1000 bytes
(Ans: A)
1546-Which of the following memories must be refreshed many times per second?
(A) Static RAM
(B) Dynamic RAM
(C) EPROM
(D) ROM
(Ans: B)
1547-.PNG refers to
(A) Image file
(B) Movie/animation file
(C) Audio file
(D) MS Office document
(Ans: A)
1548-USB is a device used to store data and it stands for

(A) Unlimited Service Band
(B) Unlimited Serial Bus
(C) Universal Serial Bus
(D) Universal Service Bus
(Ans: C)
1549- ______ is a technology that allows telephone calls to be made over computer networks
like the Internet.
(A) VoIP
(B) GSM
(C) Modem
(D) CDMA
(Ans: A)
1550-To identify TCP/IP errors such as connection problems ______ command can be used
(A) FTP
(B) Ping
(C) POP3
(D) STP
1551-A program that runs in the background on your computer, sending information about
your browsing habits to the company that installed it on your computer is called as
(A) Pop-ups
(B) Adware
(C) Grayware
(D) Spyware
(Ans: C)
1552-Software is a set of programs, which is designed to perform a well defined function

and there are two types of software, application and system. The following are all
application software except for
(A) Microsoft Word
(B) Microsoft Excel
(C) Microsoft Power Point
(D) Microsoft Windows
(Ans: D)
1553-1 Gigabyte (GB) is equal to
(A) 1024 bytes
(B) 1024 KB
(C) 1024 MB
(D) 1024 TB
(Ans: C)
1554-The fourth generation computers are based on

(A) Transistor
(B) Integrated circuit
(C) VLSI microprocessor
(D) ULSI microprocessor
(Ans: C)
1555-All the following are computer input devices except for

(A) Keyboard
(B) Printer
(C) Mouse
(D) Joy Stick
(Ans: B)
1556-A CD-RW has a speed rating of 12x 10x 32x. What do the three numbers refer to in
order?
(A) Write, rewrite, read
(B) Read, write, rewrite
(C) Rewrite, read, write
(D) Write, read, rewrite
(Ans: A)
1557-The information stored in ______ is erased when the computer is turned off
(A) ROM
(B) RAM
(C) BIOS
(D) CPU
(Ans: B)
1558-Malware is the short form for malicious software and used to refer to
(A) Spyware
(B) Worm
(C) Virus
(D) All of the above
(Ans: D)
1559-What is the best way to protect your hard drive data?

(A) Scanning
(B) Backup
(C) Defragmentation
(D) Delete junk
(Ans: B)
1560-The following device is used to connect two systems using different protocols
(A) Modem
(B) Repeater
(C) Gateway
(D) Bridge
1561-The computer language used for artificial intelligence is

(A) FOTRAN
(B) PROLOG
(C) C
(D) COBOL
(Ans: C)
1562-Open source software is software whose source code is available for modification or
enhancement by anyone. Which of the following is an example of open source software?
(A) Adobe Photoshop
(B) Microsoft Word
(C) Libre Office
(D) Skype
(Ans: C)
1563-JPEG seen with the .jpg or .jpeg filename extension is commonly used method for
compression of digital images. What does JPEG stand for?
(A) Joint Picture Encoding Graphics
(B) Joint Photographic Experts Group
(C) Joint Photo Edit Grid
(D) Joint Picture Express Grid
(Ans: B)
1564-A “URL” is a formatted text string used by web browsers, email clients and other
software to identify a network resource on the Internet. It stands for
(A) Universal Resource Link
(B) Uniform Resource Locator
(C) Unlimited Resource Locator
(D) Universal Reference Link
(Ans: B)
1565-SD Card is a memory cards used in electronic equipments including digital cameras
and cell phones. What does SD stands for?
(A) Secure Digital
(B) Scan Disk
(C) Short Drive
(D) Slot Disk
(Ans: A)
1566-A byte is equivalent to

(A) 2 bits
(B) 6 bits
(C) 8 bits
(D) 10 bits
(Ans: C)
1567 A standard computer keyboard has how many keys?
(A) 84
(B) 94
(C) 104
(D) 114
(Ans: C)
1568-HTTP stands for:

(A) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
(B) Hyper Timed Text Protocol
(C) Hopper Transfer Text Protocol
(D) Hopper Text Timer Protocol
(Ans: A)
1569-The capacity of 3-1/2 inch floppy is:

(A) 1.33MB
(B) 1.44MB
(C) 1.34MB
(D) 1.43MB
(Ans: B)
1570-A character has how many bits:

(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 12
(D) 16
(Ans: 8)
1571-A program that allows us to do specific tasks is:
(A) Application software
(B) System software
(C) Windows 2000
(D) Windows Xp
(Ans: A)
1571-In a computer network which device acts as a traffic cop:

(A) Router
(B) Hub
(C) Switch
(D) Modem
(Ans: C)
1572-The computer you are controlling or working via a network is called?

(A) Remote computer
(B) Local computer
(C) Host computer
(D) Personal Computer
(Ans: A)
1573-WYSIWYG is an acronym for what?

(A) What You Saw Is What You Got
(B) What You See Is What You Get
(C) What You Seen Is What You Gotten
(D) What You Sow Is What You Get
(Ans: B)
1574-Which protocol sends electronic mail?
(A) Outlook Express
(B) POP3
(C) FTP
(D) SMTP
(Ans: D)
1575-What type of connector is used to plug a telephone line into a modem?

(A) COM1
(B) RJ-45
(C) RJ-11
(D) RJ-10
(Ans: C)
1576-Noise is
(A) an unwanted noise
(B) an irritant
(C) a source of stress
(D) all of the above
Ans: (D)
1577-Following contributes the maximum noise

(A) transport sector
(B) industrial and construction machinery
(C) special events
(D) none of the above
Ans: (A)
1578-Sound is measured in
(A) Hertz
(B) Decibel
(C) ppm
Ans: (B)
1579-Following scale is used for loudness of sound or noise

(A) linear scale
(B) logarithmic scale
(C) exponential scale
Ans: (B)
1580-The level of sound during normal conversation is
(A) 20 dbA
(B) 40 dbA
(C) 60 dbA
(D) 80 dbA
Ans: ( C )
1581-Allowed noise level by WHO in residential areas is

(A) 25 dB
(B) 50 dB
(C) 75 dB
(D) 100 dB
Ans: ( B )
1582-Research suggests that noise pollution is the highest in ___ income neighbourhoods.
(A) low
(B) medium
(C) higher
Ans: ( A )
1583-Noise pollution can cause

(A) hypertension
(B) hearing loss
(C) sleep disturbances
Ans: ( D )
1584-Roadways noise can be reduced by

(A) use of noise barriers
(B) limitation of vehicles speed
(C) alteration of roadway surface texture
Ans: ( D )
1585-Following is used for measuring intensity of sound
(A) Sound level meter
(B) Frequency meter
(C) both (A) and (B)
Ans : ( A )
1586. A man walking at the rate 3 km/hr crosses a square field diagonally in 1 minute.
What is the area of the field?
a. 1000 m2 b. 1250 m2 c. 2500 m2 d. 5000 m2
1587. From a rectangular metal sheet of sides 25 cm and 20 cm, a circular sheet as large as
possible is cut-off. What is the area of the remaining sheet?
a. 186 cm2 b. 144 cm2 c. 93 cm2 d. 72 cm2
1588. The difference between the area of a square and that of an equilateral triangle on the
same base is ¼ cm2. What is the length of side of triangle?
a. (4 – √3)1/2 b. (4 + √3)1/2 c. (4 – √3)1/2 d. (4 + √3)1/2
1589. Three cubes each of side 5 cm are joined end to end. What is the surface area of the
resulting cuboid?
a. 300 cm2 b. 350 cm2 c. 375 cm2 d. 400 cm2
1590. A horse is tied to a pole fixed at one corner of a 50 m x 50 m square field of grass by
means of a 20 m long rope. What is the area of that part of the field which the horse can
graze?
a. 1256 m2 b. 942 m2 c. 628 m2 d. 314 m2
1591. The diameter of the moon is approximately one-fourth of that of the earth. What is
the (approximately) ratio of the volume of the moon to that of earth?
a. 1/16 b. 1/32 c. 1/48 d. 1/64
1592. What is the area of a right angled isosceles triangle whose hypotenuse is 6√2 cm?
a. 12 cm2 b. 18 cm2 c. 24 cm2 d. 36 cm2
1593. A lead pencil is in the shape of a cylinder. The pencil is 21 cm long with radius 0.4
cm and its lead is of radius 0.1 cm. What is the volume of wood in the pencil?
a. 9.0 cm3 b. 9.4 cm3 c. 9.9 cm3 d. 10.1 cm3

1594. If A is the area of a triangle in cm2, whose sides are 9 cm, 10 cm and 11 cm, then
which one of the following is correct?
a. A ˂ 40 cm2 b. 40 cm2 ˂ A ˂ 45 cm2
c. 45 cm ˂ A ˂ 50 cm
2 2 d. A ˃ 50 cm2
1595. A roller of diameter 70 cm and length 2 m is rolling on the ground. What is the area
covered by the roller in 50 revolutions?
a. 180 m2 b. 200 m2 c. 220 m2 d. 240 m2
1596. A cylindrical rod of length h is melted and cast into a cone of base radius twice that
of the cylinder. What is the height of the cone?
a. 3h/4 b. 4h/3 c. 2h d. h/2
1597. A cylindrical vessel of base radius 14 cm is filled with water to some height. If a
rectangular solid of dimensions 22 cm x 7 cm x 5 cm is immersed in it, what is the rise in
water level?
a. 0.5 cm b. 1.0 cm c. 1.25 cm d. 1.5 cm
1598. Three circular laminas of the same radius are cut from a larger circular lamina. When
the radius of each lamina cut out is the largest possible, then what is the ratio
(approximate) of the area of the residual piece of the original lamina to its original total
area?
a. 0.30 b. 0.35 c. 0.40 d. 0.45
1599. The volume of a cone is equal to that of sphere. If the diameter of base of cone is
equal to the diameter of the sphere, what is the ratio of height of cone to the diameter of
the sphere?
a. 2:1 b.1:2 c.3:1 d.4:1
1600. The length, breadth and height of a rectangular parallelepiped are in ratio 6:3:1. If
the surface area of a cube is equal to the surface area of this parallelepiped; then what is
the ratio of the volume of the cube to the volume of the parallelepiped?
a. 1:1 b. 5:4 c. 7:5 d. 3:2
1601. A rectangular tank whose length and breadth are 2.5 m and 1.5 m respectively is half
full of water. If 750 litre more water is poured into the tank, what is the height through
which water level further goes up?
a. 18 cm b. 20 cm c. 15 cm d. 200 cm
1602. Two similar parallelograms have corresponding sides in the ratio 1:k. What is the
ratio of their areas?
a. 1:3k2 b. 1:4k2 c. 1:k2 d. 1:2k2
1603. A cylinder having base of circumference 60 cm is rolling without sliding at a rate of 5

rounds per second. How much distance will the cylinder roll in 5 seconds?
a. 15 m b. 1.5 m c. 30 m d. 3 m
1604. A semi circular thin sheet of a metal of diameter 28 cm is bent and an open conical
cup is made. What is the capacity of the cup?
a. (1000/3)√3 cm3 b. 300√3 cm3 c. (700/3)√3 cm3 d. (1078/3)√3 cm3
1605. A hemispherical bowl of internal radius 20 cm contains sauce. The sauce is to be

filled in conical shaped bottles of radius 5 cm and height 8 cm. What is the number of
bottles required?
a. 100 b. 90 c. 80 d. 75
1606. A hemisphere is made of a sheet of a metal 1 cm thick. If the outer radius is 5 cm,
what is the weight of the hemisphere (1 cm3 of the metal weighs 9 g)
a. 54 П g b. 366 П g c. 122 П g d. 108 П g
1607. A sphere and a cube have same surface area. What is the ratio of the square of
volume of the sphere to the square of volume of the cube?
a. П:6 b. 1:1 c. 6:П d. 3:П
1608. The inner and outer radii of a 7 m long hollow iron right circular cylindrical pipe are
2 cm and 4 cm respectively. If 1000 cm3 of iron weighs 5 kg, what is the weight of the
pipe?
a. 264 kg b. 132 kg c. 396 kg d. None of the above
1609. What is the maximum area of a rectangle, the perimeter of which is 18 cm?
a. 20.25 cm2 b. 20.00 cm2 c. 19.75 cm2 d. 19.60 cm2
1610. The radii of the circular ends of a bucket of height 40 cm are of lengths 35 cm and 14
cm. What is the volume of the bucket?
a. 60060 cubic cm b. 70040 cubic cm c. 80080 cubic cm d. 80160 cubic cm

1611. From a solid cylinder of height 4 cm and radius 3 cm, a conical cavity of height 4 cm
and of base radius 3 cm is hollowed out. What is the total surface area of the remaining
solid?
a. 15П sq cm b. 22П sq cm c. 33П sq cm d. 48П sq cm
1612. A man is 24 years older than his son. In two years, his age will be twice the age of his
son. Which one of the following is the present age of his son?
a. 14 years b. 18 years c. 20 years d. 22 years
1613. The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years. Which
one of the following is the age of the youngest child?
1614. The average age of A and B is 25 years. If the age of C is 10 years, what is the average
age of A, B and C?
a. 12.5 years b. 15 years c. 17.5 years d. 20 years
1615. A father is nine times as old as his son and mother is eight times as old as the son.
The sum of father and mother’s age is 51 years. What is the age of the son?
1616-Ram is shorter than Sham and taller than Prem. Prem is taller than Rahul. Who is
the tallest?
(A) Ram
(B) Sham
(C) Prem
(D) Rahul
(Ans: B)
1617-Which one of the four choices makes the best comparison?

PEACH is to HCAEP as 46251 is to:
(A) 26451
(B) 62451
(C) 51462
(D) 15264
(Ans: D)
1618-If:
2, 3 = 10
7, 2 = 63
6, 5 = 66
8, 4 = 96
Then 9, 7 =…….
(A) 106
(B) 146
(C) 144
(D) 156
(Ans: C)
1619-In a horse race Sahil came in ahead of Ram. Sahil finished after Shashi. Sonam beat
Shashi but finished after Rahul. Who came second?
(A) Sahil
(B) Shashi
(C) Sonam
(D) Rahul
(Ans: C)
1620-Ramu, Sita, Kavita and Kanta speak many languages. Ramu and Sita speak Chinese,
whereas the others speak Spanish. Sita and Kanta speak French. Everyone except Ramu
speaks Hindi. Who only speaks Spanish and Hindi?
(A) Ramu
(B) Kavita
(C) Sita
(D) Kanta
(Ans: B)
1621-Tina and Salman are waiting in a queue. If Tina is fifth in line and Salman is in the
middle of the line. There are five people between Tina and Salman. How many people are
waiting in line?
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 21
(D) 34
(Ans: 21)
1622-Karan is heavier than Sonal. Dorji weighs less than Sonal. Pawan is heavier than Dorji
but lighter than Sonal. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
(A) Karan weighs more than Dorji.
(B) Sonal weighs less than Karan.
(C) Dorji weighs more than Karan.
(D) Dorji is the lightest of all.
(Ans: C)
1623-Four defenders in a football match — Defender A, Defender B, Defender C & Defender
D — take their positions in this order in a row from right to left. During the match,
Defender A changes places with Defender C and then Defender C changes places with
Defender B. Which defender is now at the right end of the row?
(A) Defender A
(B) Defender B
(C) Defender C
(D) Defender D
(Ans: B)
1624-Jack has two bags. The first bag contains a ton of feathers and the second bag
contains a ton of stones. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) The bag of stones weighs heavier than the bag of feathers.
(B) The bag of feathers is lighter than the bag of stones.
(C) The bag of feathers and the bag of stones weigh the same.
(D) The bag of stones weighs twice as much as the bag of feathers.
(Ans: C)
1625-A teacher has three different books which she is trying to arrange on a bookshelf. In
how many can she arrange the books on the shelf?
(A) 9 ways
(B) 6 ways
(C) 27 ways
(D) 3 ways
(Ans: B)
1626-If Russel is older than Candy, Candy is older than Peter. Peter is younger than Russel
and Sandy is older than Russel. A listing from oldest to youngest would be
(A) Sandy, Russel, Candy and Peter
(B) Russel, Sandy, Candy and Peter
(C) Candy, Russel, Sandy and Peter
(D) Peter, Russel, Candy and Sandy
(Ans: A)
1627-Russel’s mother has three children. One of them is called Candy and the other is
Sandy. What is the third child called?
(A) Inadequate information to answer the question
(B) Peter
(C) Russel
(Ans: C)
1628-In your school, Economics is taught in the first period while History is taught in the
fifth period. English is taught between Economics and Mathematics. Science is taught
before history but immediately after Mathematics. As a Science teacher, you teach during
the
(A) 2nd period
(B) 3rd period
(C) 4th period
(D) 5th period
(Ans: C)
1629-In a class 15 students like Maths, 20 students like English and 10 students like
Science. 5 students like all three subjects. If there are 50 students in the class, how many
students like none of the three subjects?
(A) 20
(B) 15
(C) 10
(D) 5
(Ans: B)
1630-Statement 1: Donald sang more songs than Paula
Statement 2: Paula sang fewer songs than Linda
Statement 3: Linda sang more songs than Donald
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is:
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Uncertain
(D) Both A & B
(Ans: B)
1631-Statement 1: Sonam has more pencils than Langer.

Statement 2: George has less pencil than Langer.
Statement 3: Sonam has more pencils than George.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is:
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Uncertain
(D) Both A & B
1632. A dishonest dealer professes to sell his goods at cost price, but uses a false weight
and thus gains 20%. For a kilogram he uses a weight of
a. 700 g b. 750 g c. 800 g d. 850 g
1633. There are some coins and rings of either gold or silver in a box. 60% of the objects
are coins, 40% of the rings are of gold and 30% of the coins are of silver. What is the
percentage of gold articles?
a. 16 b. 27 c. 58 d. 70
1634. In a test, a candidate attempted 10 questions and obtained full marks in all of them.
If he obtained 50% in the test and all questions in the test carried equal marks, how many
questions were there in the test?
a. 15 b. 18 c. 20 d. 25
1635. A candidate attempted 12 questions and secured full marks in all of them. If he
obtained 60% in the test and all questions carried equal marks, then what is the number of
questions in the test?
a. 36 b. 30 c. 25 d. 20
1636. W can do 25% of a work in 30 days, X can do ¼ of the work in 10 days. Y can do 40%
of the work in 40 days and Z can do 1/3 of the work in 13 days. Who will complete the work
fast?
a. X b. Y c. Z d. W
1637. What is 4% of 40% of 400?
a. 160 b. 64 c. 16 d. 6.4
1638-Which of the following refrigerant has lowest freezing temperature?

(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Ammonia
(C) Freon-12
(D) Freon-22
(Ans: D)
1639-The working fluid in Bell Coleman cycle is

(A) Freon-12
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Ammonia
(D) Air
(Ans: D)
1640-In a vapour compression system, the compression of refrigerant follows the law
(A) PVr = C
(B) PV = C
(C) PVn = C
(Ans: C)
1641-The dry bulb temperature lines of psychometric chart are

(A) Vertical
(B) Horizontal
(C) Inclined
(D) Curved
(Ans: A)
1642-When the lower temperature is fixed, COP of a refrigerating machine can be improved
by
(A) operating the machine at higher speeds
(B) operating the machine at lower speeds
(C) raising the higher temperature
(D) lowering the higher temperature
(Ans: D)
1643-Evaporative air-cooler is used effectively when

(A) dry bulb temperature is very close to the wet bulb temperature
(B) dry bulb temperature is high and relative humidity is high
(C) dry bulb temperature is low and relative humidity is high
(D) dry bulb temperature is high and the relative humidity is low
(Ans: D)
1645 -Refrigerant Freon 12 belongs to

(A) methane family
(B) ethane family
(C) ketone family
(D) aldehyde family
(Ans: A)
1646-Sometimes refrigerant plants use cooling towers. The water cooled in these towers is
used
(A) for defrosting evaporator coils
(B) to cool compressor cylinder only
(C) to cool the evaporator coils
(D) to cool refrigerant in condenser
(Ans: D)
1647-The statements concern Psychometric chart.
I-Constant relative humidity lines are uphill straight lines to the right
II-Constant wet bulb temperature lines are downhill straight lines to the right
III-Constant specific volume lines are downhill straight lines to the right
IV-Constant enthalpy lines are coincident with constant wet bulb temperature lines
Which of the statements are correct?
(A) II and II
(B) I and II
(C) I and III
(D) II and IV
(Ans: D)
1648-In S.I. unit, one tonne of refrigeration is equal to

(A) 110 kJ/min
(B) 210 kJ/min
(C) 50 kJ/min
(D) non of the above
(Ans: B)
1649-Subcooling occurs when the vapour

(A) has high latent heat
(B) removes sensible heat from refrigerant
(C) has low latent heat
(D) has high thermal conductivity
(Ans: B)
1650-The refrigerant used in vapour absorption refrigerator is

(A) Freon-12
(B) Ammonia
(C) CO2
(D) Aqua-ammonia
(Ans: D)
1651-In a window air conditioner, the expansion device used is
(A) Capillary tube
(B) Thermostatic expansion valve
(C) Automatic expansion valve
(D) Float valve
(Ans: A)
1652. Look at this series: 22, 21, 23, 22, 24, 23, …..What number should come next?
a.22 b. 24 c. 25 d. 26
1653. Look at this series: 664, 332, 340, 170, …., 89. What number should fill the blank?
a.85 b. 97 c. 109 d. 178
1654. What number should fill the blank? 72, 76, 73, 77, 74, ….., 75
a.70 b. 71 c. 75 d. 78
1655. Find out the wrong number in the given sequence of numbers. 56, 72, 90, 110, 132,
150
a.72 b. 110 c. 132 d. 150
1656. Insert the missing number. 5, 10, 13, 26, 29, 58, 61, (….)
a.122 b. 64 c. 125 d. 128
1657. Look at this series: 3, 4, 7, 8, 11, 12, ….. What number should come next?
a.7 b. 10 c. 14 d. 15
1658. Find the odd one out. 6, 9, 15, 21, 24, 28, 30
a.28 b. 21 c. 24 d. 30
1659. Look at this series: 544, 509, 474, 439, .…. What number should come next?
a.404 b. 414 c. 420 d. 445
1660. Look at this series: 14, 28, 20, 40, 32, 64, ….. What number should come next?
a.52 b. 56 c. 96 d. 128
1661. Look at this series: 2, 1, ½, ¼, ….. What should come next?
a.1/3 b. 1/8 c. 2/8 d. 1/16

1662. A sum of money amounts to Rs. 1352 in two years at 4% per annum of compound
interest. The sum is
a. Rs. 1200 b. Rs. 1250 c. Rs. 1280 d. Rs. 1296
1663. A person invested part of Rs. 45,000 at 4% and the rest at 6%. If his annual income
from both is equal, then what is the average rate of interest?
a. 4.6% b. 4.8% c. 5.0% d.5.2%
1664. A sum of money lent at simple interest amounts to Rs. 880 in two years and to Rs.
920 in three years. The sum of money (in Rs.) is
a. 700 b. 760 c. 784 d. 800
1665. The compound interest on a sum for 2 years is Rs 832 and the simple interest on the
same sum at the same rate for the same period is Rs. 800. What is the rate of interest?
a. a. 6% b. 8% c. 10% d. 12%
1666. A person invested some amount at the rate of 12% simple interest and the remaining
at 10%. He received yearly an interest of Rs. 130. Had he interchanged the amounts
invested, he would have received an interest of Rs. 134. How much money did he invest at
different rates?
a. Rs. 500 @ 10%, Rs. 800 @12% b. Rs. 700 @ 10%, Rs. 600 @12%
c. Rs. 800 @ 10%, Rs. 400 @12% d. Rs. 700 @ 10%, Rs. 500 @12%
1667. The simple interest on a certain sum of money for 3 years at 8% per annum is half
the compound interest on Rs. 4,000 for 2 years at 10% per annum. What is the sum placed
on simple interest?
a. Rs 1,550 b. Rs. 1,650 c. Rs. 1,750 d. Rs. 2,000
1668. A certain sum at a simple interest amounts to Rs. 1350 in 5 years to Rs. 1620 in 8
years. What is the sum?
a. 700 b. 800 c. 900 d. 1000
1669. The sum which amounts to Rs. 364.80 in 8 years at 3.5% simple interest per annum
is:
a. Rs. 285 b. Rs. 280 c. Rs. 275 d. Rs. 270

1670. The difference between the simple interest received from two banks on Rs. 500 for
two years is Rs. 2.50. What is the difference between their rates?
a. 0.25% b. 0.5% c. 1% d. 2.5%
1671. The compound interest on Rs. 36,000 lent at 10% per annum for 5/2 years, if the
interest is compounded annually, is
a. Rs. 9,000 b. Rs. 9,738 c. Rs. 11,916 d. Rs. 7,560
1672. A man invests half his capital at the rate of 10% per annum, 1/3 at 9%and the rest at
12%per annum. The average rate of interest per annum, will he gets, is
a.9% b. 4.5 % c 5.5% d. 4.5%
1673. A train of length 150 m takes 10s to cross another train 100 m long coming from the
opposite direction. If the speed of first train is 30 kmph, what is the speed of second train?
a. 72 kmph b. 60 kmph c. 54 kmph d. 48 kmph
1674. Two persons P and Q start at the same time from city A for city B, 60 km away. P
travels 4 km/hr slower than Q. Q reaches city B and at once turns back meeting P, 12 km
from city B. What is the speed of P?
a. 8 km/hr b. 12 km/hr c. 16 km/hr d. 20 km/hr
1675. A boy walks from his house to school at 2.5 km/hr and arrives 12 minutes late. The
next day he walks at 4 km/hr and reaches the school 15 minutes earlier. What is the
distance from his house to school?
a. 2 km b. 2.5 km c. 3 km d. 3.5 km
1676. A person travelled by train for 1 hour at a speed of 50 kmph. He then travelled by a
taxi for 30 minutes at a speed of 32 kmph to complete his journey. What is the average
speed at which he travelled during the journey?
1677. The earth takes 24 hours to rotate about its own axis. Through what angle will it turn
in 4 hours and 12 minutes?
a. 63 degree b. 64 degree c. 65 degree d. 70 degree

1678. A train 280 m long is moving at a speed of 60 kmph. What is the time taken by the
train to cross a platform 220 m long?
a. 45 s b. 40 s c. 35 s d. 30 s
1679. A student moves √2 x km east from his residence and then moves x km north. He
then goes x km north-east and finally he takes a turn of 90 degrees towards right and
moves a distance x km and reaches his school. What is the shortest distance of the school
from his residence?
a. (2√2+1)x km b. 3 x km c. 2√2 x km d. 3√2 x km
1680. A car travels along the four sides of a square at speeds v, 2v, 3v and 4v respectively.
If u is the average speed of the car in its travel around the square, then which one of the
following is correct?
a. u = 2.25v b. u = 3v c. v ˂ u ˂ 2v d. 3v ˂ u ˂ 4v
1681. A bus travelling at a speed of 40 kmph reaches its destination in 8 minutes and 15
seconds. How far is the destination?
a. 5.43 km b. 5.44 km c. 5.50 km d. 9.06 km
1682. A person travels 12 km due North, then 15 km due East, after that 15 km due West
and then 18 km due South. How far is he from the starting point?
a. 6 km b. 12 km c. 33 km d. 60 km
1683. Two trains leave New Delhi at the same time. One travels north at 60 kmph and the
other travels south at 40 kmph. After how many hours will the train be 150 km apart?
a. 3/2 b. 4/3 c. ¾ d. 15/2
1684. Running at a speed of 60 kmph, a train passed through a 1.5 km long tunnel in two
minutes. What is the length of the train?
a. 250 m b. 500 m c. 1000 m d. 1500 m
1685. Three men start together to travel the same way around a circular track of 11 km.
Their speeds are 4, 5.5 and 8 kmph respectively. When will they meet at the starting point
for the first time?
a. after 11 hours b. after 21 hours c. after 22 hours d. after 33 hours
1686. A train, which is 150 m long passes a platform of 200 m in 15 seconds. What is the
speed of the train?
1687. Ms X drove at the speed of 45 kmph from home to a resort. Returning over the same
route she got struck in traffic and took an hour longer, also she could drive only at the
speed of 40 kmph. How many kilometres did she drive each way?
a. 250 b. 300 c. 310 d. 360
1688. A person moves along a circular path by a distance equal to half the circumference in
a given time. The ratio of his average speed to his average velocity is:
a. 0.5 b. 0.5П c. 0.75П d. 1.0
1689. ’R’ walks 1 km to east and then turns to south and walks 5 km. Again he turns to
east and walks 2 km. After this he turns to north and walks 9 km. How far is he from his
starting point?
a. 3 km b. 4 km c. 5 km d. 7 km
1690. A starts from a place at 7 a.m. with a speed of 10 km per hour. B starts from the
same place at 9 a.m. with a speed of 15 km per hour. When will B meet A?
a. 2 p.m. b. 1 p.m. c. 3 p.m. d. 12 noon
1691. If a bus travels 160 km in 4 hours and a train travels 320 km in 5 hours at uniform
speeds then what is the ratio of the distances travelled by them in one hour?
a. 8:5 b. 5:8 c. 4:5 d. 1:2
1692. Three persons start walking together and their steps measure 40 cm, 42 cm and 45
cm respectively. What is the minimum distance each should walk so that each can cover
the same distance in complete steps?
a. 25 m 20 cm b. 50 m 40 cm c. 75 m 60 cm d. 100 m 80 cm
1693. A car covers a distance of 178.2 km in 4.4 hours. The distance (in km) covered by the
car in 1.2 hours is
a. 40.7 b. 48.6 c. 50.2 d. 40.5
1694. A man goes from Mumbai to Bangalore at a uniform speed of 40 kmph and comes
backs to Mumabi at a uniform speed of 60 kmph. His average speed for the whole journey is
1695. Two trains of lengths 70 metre and 80 metre are running at a speed of 68 kmph and
40 kmph respectively on parallel tracks in opposite directions. In how many seconds will
they pass each other?
a. 5 b. 7 c. 2 d. 10
1696. A and B can do a piece of work in 8 days, B and C can do the same work in 12 days. If
A, B and C can complete the same work in 6 days, in how many days can A and C complete
the same work?
a. 8 b. 10 c. 12 d. 16
1697. Two taps can fill a tub in 5 minutes and 7 minutes respectively. A pipe can empty it
in 3 minutes. If all the three are kept open simultaneously, when will the tub be full?
a. 60 min b. 85 min c. 90 min d. 105 min
1698. 1/48 of a work is completed in half a day by 5 persons. Then 1/40 of the work can be
completed by 6 persons in how many days?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. ½
1699. If 6 men and 8 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days while 26 men and 48 boys can
do the same in 2 days, what is the time taken by 15 men and 20 boys in doing the same
type of work?
a. 4 days b. 5 days c. 6 days d. 7 days
1700. How many men will be required to plough 100 acres of land in 10 days if 10 men
require 8 days to plough 20 acres of land?
a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 60
1701. A, B and C can do a piece of work individually in 8, 10 and 15 days respectively. A

and B start working but A quits after working for 2 days. After this, C joins B till the
completion of work. In how many days will the work be completed?
a. 53/9 days b. 34/7 days c. 85/13 days d. 53/10 days
1701. 76 ladies complete a job in 33 days. Due to some reason some ladies did not join the
work and therefore it was completed in 44 days. The number of ladies who did not report
for the work is
a. 17 b. 18 c. 19 d. 20
1702. 14 pumps of equal capacity can fill a tank in 6 days. If the tank has to be filled in 4
days, what is the number of extra pumps required?
a. 6 b. 7 c. 9 d. 11
1703. A man fills a basket with eggs in such a way that the number of eggs added on each
successive day is the same as the number already present in the basket. This way the
basket gets completely filled in 24 days. After how many days the basket was 1/4th full?
a. 6 b. 12 c. 17 d. 22
1704. B is thrice as fast as A. If A can finish a job in 12 days, how long will it take for both
A and B to finish the same job together?
a. 3 days b. 4 days c. 4.5 days d. 5 days
1705. X, Y and Z can finish a work in 12, 15 and 18 days respectively. In how many days
will all the three finish the work?
a. 4(32/37) b. 5 c. 5(1/37) d. 5(5/37)
1706. B is thrice as fast as A. If A can finish a job in 12 days, how long will it take for both
A and B to finish the same job together?
a. 3 days b. 4 days c. 4.5 days d. 5 days
1707. A can dig a pit in 5 days and B can dig it in 3 days. How long will it take if both A and
B work together?
a. 15/8 days b. 4 days c. 8/15 days d. 2 days
1708. ‘A’ completes a work in 10 days, while ‘B’ and ‘C’ complete it in 12 and 15 days
respectively. In how many days can ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ together complete the work?
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
1709. Ram and Rahim together can complete a piece of work in 18 days. Rahim and Sham
in 24 days and Ram and Sham in 36 days. In how many days will all of them together
complete the work?
a. 16 b. 18 c. 10 d. 12
1710. Working efficiencies of A and B for completing a piece of work are in the ratio 3:4.
The number of days to be taken by them to complete the work will be in the ratio.
a. 4:3 b. 3:2 c. 3:4 d. 2:3
1711. Sita can complete 2/3 of a work in 4 days and Geeta can complete 3/5 of the work in
6 days. In how many days can both Sita and Geeta together complete the work?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 15/4 d.23/8
1712. A tap can fill a tank in 40 minutes and a second tap can empty the filled tank in 60
minutes. By mistake without closing the second tap, the first tap was opened. In how many
minutes will the empty tank be filled?
a. 72 b. 105 c. 80 d. 120
1713. Generator transformers are ________________

a) Step-up transformers
b) Step-down transformers
c) Auto-transformers
d) One-one transformers
Answer: a
1714. In the CCGT, how many step-up transformers will require?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Answer: b
1715. Which of the following is one of the criteria of selecting particular generator transformer?
a) Low HV voltage
b) Low LV currents
c) High impedance
d) On-load tap-changer
Answer: d
Explanation: An on-load tapchanger is required to allow for variation of the HV system volts and
generator power factor. LV volts will generally remain within š5% under the control of the
generator automatic voltage regulator (AVR).
1716. Generator transformers can undergo sudden load-changes.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Generator transformers may be subjected to sudden load rejection due to operation
of the electrical protection on the generator. This can lead to the application of a sudden
overvoltage to the terminals connected to the generator.
1717. Station transformers are generally used for ____________

a) Providing generator voltage to transmission
b) Providing power to load from transmission
c) Isolating DC
d) To supply power section auxiliary
Answer: d
Explanation: The station transformer generally supplies the power station auxiliary system for
starting up the boiler/turbine generator unit or gas turbine/generator and for supplying those
loads which are not specifically associated with the generating unit, for example lighting supplies,
cranes, workshops and other services.
1718. Which of the following does not follow the criteria of station transformer?
a) LV at 11 kV
b) HV at 275-400 kV
c) Low impedance
d) On-load tap-changer required
Answer: c
Explanation: According to the UK standards, Impedance must be such that it can be paralleled
with the unit transformer at 11 kV to allow changeover from station to unit supplies and vice
versa without loss of continuity and without exceeding the permissible fault level for the unit and
station switchgear this usually means that it is about 15%.
1719. Operating load factor of station transformer must be _________

a) low
b) high
c) zero
d) infinite
Answer: a
Explanation: Operating load factor is low, i.e. for much of its life the station transformer will run
at half-load or less. Load losses can therefore be relatively high, but fixed losses should be as low
as possible.
1720. For a unit transformer HV voltage must be _____________
a) 400 kV
b) 200 kV
c) 24 kV
d) 100 kV
Answer: c
Explanation: The HV voltage is relatively low, being equal to the generator output voltage, i.e.
usually between 11 and 23.5 kV. The LV voltage is usually 11 kV nominal, although on some
combined cycle gas turbine stations 6.6 kV is used to supply the unit auxiliaries.
1721. What voltage of On-load tap-changer is required for unit transformer?

a) 11 kV
b) 23 kV
c) 400 kV
d) Not required
Answer: d
Explanation: Paralleling of unit and station transformers during changeover of station and unit
supplies can result in a large circulating current between station and unit switchboard. This
generally adds to the unit transformer load current, and subtracts from that of the station
transformer.
1722. On-load power factor for generator transformer is __________

a) high
b) low
c) can’t define
d) zero
Answer: a
Explanation: in the case of the generator transformer, operating load factor is high, so that load
losses and no-load losses should both be as low as is economically practicable. (Except in some
nuclear stations, where two fully rated unit transformers are provided per unit for system security
purposes.)
1723. The majority of power transformers in use throughout the world are oil filled using a
mineral oil.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In majority power transformers dielectric material used is the oil, which serves the
dual purpose of providing insulation and as a cooling medium to conduct away the losses which
are produced in the transformer in the form of heat.
1724. Dielectric mineral oil is used in ____________
a) Small transformers
b) Medium transformers
c) Large transformers
d) In all transformers
Answer: c
Explanation: Because of the fire hazard associated with mineral oil, it has been the practice to use
designs for smaller transformers which do not contain oil. It is usual, therefore, to locate
transformers with mineral oil, out of doors where a fire is more easily dealt with and
consequentially the risks are fewer.
1725. The purpose of the transformer core is to provide ____________

a) High reluctance path
b) Low reluctance path
c) High inductive path
d) High capacitive path
Answer: b
Explanation: The purpose of a transformer core is to provide a low-reluctance path for the
magnetic flux linking primary and secondary windings. In doing so, the core experiences iron
losses due to hysteresis and eddy currents flowing within it which, in turn, show themselves as
heating of the core material.
1726. Transformer core is designed to reduce ______________

a) Hysteresis loss
b) Eddy current loss
c) Hysteresis loss and Eddy current loss
Answer: c
Explanation: Hysteresis loss and eddy current loss are the losses which take place in core of the
transformer thus they are also termed as core losses. While other losses take place in winding or
in air gap which can’t be dealt with core design.
1727. Transformers windings are generally made of __________

a) Steel
b) Iron
c) Copper
d) Steel iron alloy
Answer: c
Explanation: In order to avoid losses due to loading current, winding materials must be chosen
wisely. Winding conductors are thus made of copper or more precisely saying they are made of
high conductivity copper by some industrial processes.
1728. Before using oil in transformers, insulation material was _________
a) Asbestos
b) Cotton
c) Low grade pressboard in air
d) Kraft paper
Answer: d
Explanation: At the time of discovery of transformer, people were using asbestos, cotton, low grade
pressboard in air for insulation purpose. Further, Kraft paper was invented which became much
popular insulation material.
1729. Which transformer insulation material is best compare to Kraft paper?

a) Oil
b) Asbestos
c) Low grade pressboard
d) Cotton
Answer: a
Explanation: Newly developed oil-filled transformers have capabilities much greater than those
transformers which used Kraft paper as dielectric material. Also, electrical properties of Kraft
paper depend on physical and chemical properties of paper.
1730. Which of the following is not the property of oil that should be fulfilled before using in
transformer?
a) Low viscosity
b) High flash point
c) Low electrical strength
d) High chemical stability
Answer: c
Explanation: There are various important parameters that oil must follow for its use in oil cooled
transformer. These parameters include low viscosity, high stability, high flash point, high
electrical strength, low pour point.
1731. Transformer ratings are given in _____________

a) kW
b) kVAR
c) HP
d) kVA
Answer: d
Explanation: There are two types of losses in a transformer, Copper Losses and Iron Losses or
Core Losses or Insulation Losses. Copper losses (I2R) depends on current passing through
transformer winding while Iron losses or Core Losses or Insulation Losses depends on Voltage.
That’s why the rating of Transformer is in kVA.
1732. Function of transformer is to _________________
a) Convert AC to DC
b) Convert DC to AC
c) Step down or up the DC voltages and currents
d) Step down or up the AC voltages and currents
Answer: d
Explanation: A Transformer does not work on DC and operates only on AC, therefore it Step up of
Step down the level of AC Voltage or Current, by keeping frequency of the supply unaltered on the
secondary side.
1733. What is the dielectric strength of a transformer oil?

a) 1 kV
b) 35 kV
c) 100 kV
d) 330 kV
Answer: b
Explanation: For mineral oil, an accepted minimum dielectric strength is 30 kV for transformers
with a high-voltage rating of 230 kV and above and 27 kV for transformers with a high-voltage
rating below 230 kV. New oil should pass the condition of a minimum dielectric strength of 35 kV
by ASTM methods of testing.
1734. Which of the following is not a part of transformer installation?

a) Conservator
b) Breather
c) Buchholz relay
d) Exciter
Answer: d
Explanation: Conservator, breather, Buchholz relay are the parts which are much important in
transformer construction in order to maintain temperature of the transformer and to work
transformer with good efficiency.
1735. The insulating material that can withstand the highest temperature safely is
_______________
a) Cellulose
b) Asbestos
c) Mica
d) Glass fibre
Answer: c
Explanation: Mica is extremely stable when it is exposed to moisture and extreme temperatures to
maintain superior electrical properties as an insulator. The mechanical properties of mica allow it
to be cut, punched, stamped and machined to close tolerances along with maintenance of a high
thermal conductivity.
1736. The part of a transformer which is visible from outside _______________
a) Bushings
b) Core
c) Primary winding
d) Secondary winding
Answer: a
Explanation: Core, primary winding, secondary winding of a transformer are generally kept in
closed container filled with an oil so that, oil acts as a coolant and provides electrical neutrality
also. Thus, only bushings are visible from outside.
1737. A transformer cannot work on the DC supply because __________________

a) There is no need to change the DC voltage
b) A DC circuit has more losses
c) Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction are not valid since the rate of change of flux is zero
Answer: c
Explanation: For DC supply the direction and the magnitude of the supply remains constant,
produced flux will be constant. Thus, rate of change of flux through the windings will be equal to
zero. As a result, voltage at secondary will always be equal to 0.
1738. An ideal transformer has infinite primary and secondary inductances.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The primary and secondary windings have zero resistance. It means that there is no
ohmic power loss and no resistive voltage drop in the ideal transformer. An actual transformer has
finite but small winding resistances.
1739. In a transformer the resistance between its primary and secondary is ______________
a) Zero
b) Very small
c) Cannot be predicted
d) Infinite
Answer: d
Explanation: Since the primary and secondary windings are not connected to each other, one can
say there exists the resistance of infinite ohms. These windings are connected to each other
magnetically not electrically.
1740. Identify the correct statement relating to the ideal transformer.

a) no losses and magnetic leakage
b) interleaved primary and secondary windings
c) a common core for its primary and secondary windings
d) core of stainless steel and winding of pure copper metal
Answer: a
Explanation: There is no leakage flux so that all the flux is confined to the core and links both the
windings. An actual transformer does have a small amount of leakage flux which can be
accounted in detailed analysis by appropriate circuit modelling.
1741. An ideal transformer will have maximum efficiency at a load such that _____________
a) copper loss = iron loss
b) copper loss < iron loss
c) copper loss > iron loss
d) cannot be determined
Answer: a
Explanation: Maximum efficiency of a transformer is defined at the that values when, copper
losses become completely equal to the iron losses. In all other cases the efficiency will be lower
than the maximum value.
1742. Which of the following statement regarding an ideal single-phase transformer is incorrect?
Transformer is having a turn ratio of 1: 2 and drawing a current of 10 A from 200 V AC supply is
incorrect?
a) It’s a step-up transformer
b) Its secondary voltage is 400 V
c) Its rating is 2 kVA
d) Its secondary current is 20 A
Answer: d
Explanation: Since turns ratio is equal to 1:2 the transformer will give higher voltage at secondary
with respect to the primary voltage, and current in secondary thus will be halved. In last option
current is doubled which is opposite to the ratings given.
1743. Ideal transformer core has permeability equal to _____

a) Zero
b) Non-zero finite
c) Negative
d) Infinite
Answer: d
Explanation: The core has infinite permeability so that zero magnetizing current is needed to
establish the requisite amount of flux in the core. The core-loss (hysteresis as well as eddy-current
loss) is considered zero.
1744.Turns ratio of the transformer is directly proportional to ____________

a) Resistance ratio
b) Currents ratio
c) Voltage ratio
d) Not proportional to any terms
Answer: c
Explanation: According to the voltage expression, emf induced in the primary is directly
proportional to the change in the flux with respect to the time and number of turns of the primary
winding. Similarly, for secondary winding.
1745. Which of the following statement is correct regarding turns ratio?

a) Current ratio and turns ratio are inverse of each other
b) Current ratio is exactly same to the voltage ratio
c) Currents ratio is exactly same to the turns ratio
d) Voltage ratio and turns ratio are inverse of each other
Answer: a
Explanation: Voltage ratio of transformer winding is exactly similar to the turns ratio of
transformer, while voltage ratio and turns ratio is exactly inverse of the currents ratio. Hence, by
knowing any of these quantities on can identify the type of transformer.
1746. Which of the following is the expression for emf induced in primary with voltage applied to
primary of an ideal transformer?
a) e=V
b) V= √2*e*cos ωt
c) e= √2*V*cos ωt
d) Cannot say
Answer: c
Explanation: For an ideal transformer having a primary of N1 turns and a secondary of N2 turns
on a common magnetic core. The voltage of the source to which the primary is connected is v = √2
V cos wt. while the secondary is initially assumed to be an open circuited. As a consequence, flux
f is established in the core such that e = v = N1 dφ/dt.
1747. Which of the following is the wrong expression?

a) i1N1=i2N2
b) i1v1=i2v2
c) i1N2=i2N1
d) v2N1=v1N2
Answer: c
Explanation: According to the transformation ratio, current flowing through the transformer is
inversely proportional to the number turns of winding and voltage applied across it. While, voltage
applied is directly proportional to the number of turns.
1748. For transformer given, turns ratio is equal to a, what will be the impedance of primary with
respect to secondary?
a) a2 times the secondary impedance
b) a times secondary impedance
c) secondary impedance/a
d) secondary impedance/a2
Answer: d
Explanation: The ratio of impedances on primary to the secondary is directly proportional to the
inverse of square of turns ratio of transformer. Hence primary impedance to the secondary
impedance ratio will be 1/ a2.
1749. When does transformer breath in?

a) load on it increases
b) load on it decreases
c) load remains constant
Answer: b
Explanation: Transformer in the low loading condition, also called extreme condition (lower
temperature), oil inside contracts and then air is taken inside thus breath in to main via the
balloon like structure through silica gel breather.
1750. A transformer transforms ________________

a) voltage
b) current
c) power
d) frequency
Answer: c
Explanation: Since, in a transformer voltage and current is changed according to the number of
turns simultaneously, we call that power is transformed, though the magnitude remains same.
Frequency is kept constant.
1751. Greater the secondary leakage flux ___________

a) less will be the secondary induced emf
b) less will be the primary induced emf
c) less will be the primary terminal voltage
Answer: a
Explanation: Since emf induced in the transformer coils is directly proportional to the change in
the flux with respect to time, we can say that if flux reduces the change in flux after some time
will be less which will induce less voltage in secondary.
1752. Which of the following is not the purpose of iron core in a step-up transformer?
a) to provide coupling between primary and secondary
b) to increase the magnitude of mutual flux
c) to decrease the magnitude of magnetizing current
d) to provide all above features
Answer: c
Explanation: In real transformers, the two coils are generally wound onto the same iron core. The
purpose of the iron core is to provide the path for the magnetic flux generated by the current
flowing around the primary coil, so that as much of it as possible also links the secondary coil,
with minimum losses.
1753 In a transformer the tappings are generally provided on

a) Primary side
b) Secondary side
c) Low voltage side
d) Can be connected to any side
Answer: d
Explanation: The turns ratio is different with different tappings and hence different voltages are
obtained with different tappings adjustment. The tappings are placed either on high voltage or low
voltages or sometimes on both high and low voltage windings to get required output.
1754. Helical coils can be used at _____________

a) low voltage side of high kVA transformers
b) high frequency transformers
c) high voltage side of small capacity transformer
d) high voltage side of high kVA rating transformers
Answer: a
Explanation: Helical winding is used for low voltage and high current winding of large generator
transformers. Due to its distinct design that is spiral form, small number of turns and high
current, some additional eddy-current losses may happen in winding.
1755. In real transformer, primary winding has _________

a) Infinite resistance
b) Zero resistance
c) Some finite resistance
d) Cannot say
Answer: c
Explanation: For a real transformer on load, both the primary and secondary have finite
resistances which are uniformly spread throughout the winding. These resistances give rise to
associated copper (I2R) losses.
1756. Both resistances and leakage reactances of the transformer windings are __________
a) Series effects
b) Parallel effects
c) Series-parallel effects
d) Cannot say
Answer: a
Explanation: Both resistances and leakage reactances of the transformer windings are series
effects and for low operating frequencies at which the transformers are commonly employed
(power frequency operation is at 50 Hz only), these can be regarded as lumped parameters.
1757. To convert an ideal transformer into a practical transformer we add ____________

a) Primary winding resistance and secondary winding resistance
b) Primary winding leakage reactance and secondary winding leakage reactance
c) Primary winding resistance, leakage and secondary winding leakage reactance
Answer: c
Explanation: We consider all resistances i.e. of primary and secondary as series parameters of
equivalent circuit of transformer, while all leakage reactances are also connected into the circuit
as series parameters.
1758. Parallel parameters in a transformer equivalent circuit contains ___________

a) Gi and Bm
b) R1 and X1
c) R2 and X2
Answer: a
Explanation: Primary and secondary resistances and leakage reactances are the series parameters
in the transformer equivalent circuit. So, these are not included in parallel parameters. Parallel
parameters contain Gi and Bm in which current Ii and Im flows respectively.
1759. When does capacitor is included in equivalent circuit of transformer?

a) Transformer of very high VA rating
b) Transformer with very high frequency operation
c) Transformer with less VA
d) Never
Answer: b
Explanation: The passive lumped T-circuit representation of a transformer discussed above is
adequate for most power and radio frequency transformers. In transformers operating at higher
frequencies, the interwinding capacitances are often significant and must be included in the
equivalent circuit.
1761. The size of a transformer core will depend on _____________

a) frequency
b) area of the core
c) flux density of the core material
d) frequency and area of the core
Answer: d
Explanation: According to the frequency of transformer size of the core of transformer changes.
While area of core also depends upon many parameters like operating voltage, capacity of
transformer, hence all these contribute to the size of the core.
1762. A single phase transformer has specifications as 250 KVA, 11000 V/415 V, 50 Hz. What are
the values of primary and secondary currents?
a) Primary current = 602.4A, Secondary current = 22.7A
b) Secondary current = 202.7A, Primary current = 602.4A
c) Primary current = 22.7A, Secondary current = 602.4A
d) Primary current = 11.35A, Secondary current = 301.2A
Answer: c
Explanation: Primary current is defined as the ratio of rated capacity of transformer to the rated
primary voltage of the transformer. Rated primary current= Rated power/voltage=
250000/11000= 22.7 A. Similarly calculating for secondary current gives secondary current =
602.4A.
1763. A 25 KVA transformer is constructed to a turns ratio of N1/N2 = 10. The impedance of
primary winding is 3+j5 ohms and of secondary winding is 0.5+j0.8 ohms. What will be the
impedance of transformer when referred to primary?
a) 53j + 85 ohms
b) 53 + 85j ohms
c) 3.5 + 5.8j ohms
d) Can’t be calculated
Answer: b
Explanation: Given turns ratio is 10. Thus, secondary resistance when referred to the primary is
equal to k2*Z2, so net impedance on primary is equal to primary impedance + k^2*Z2 .
Substituting all the terms we get net impedance = 53 + 85j ohms.
1764. If R is the resistance of secondary winding of an electrical transformer and K is the

transformation ratio then the equivalent secondary resistance referred to primary will be _________
a) R/VK
b) R/K2
c) R2/K2
d) R2/K
Answer: b
Explanation: Resistances or more precisely impedances are transformed in the ratio of inverse
square of the transformation ratio or turns ratio. Thus, primary to secondary resistance is equal
to reciprocal of square of turns ratio.
1765. The use of higher flux density in the transformer design ________________
a) reduces weight per kVA
b) reduces iron losses
c) reduces copper losses
d) increases part load efficiency
Answer: a
Explanation: If a material is having higher flux density it will store and transfer maximum amount
of flux from primary to secondary, which will be very helpful as less core material will be required
and weight per KVA will get reduced.
1766. The value of flux involved in the emf equation of a transformer is _______________
a) average value
b) rms value
c) maximum value
d) instantaneous value
Answer: c
Explanation: In the emf equation flux involved is maximum flux. Thus, here we can conclude that
as flux increase/decrease emf at the secondary also increases/decreases. Emf varies according to
the AC wave input.
1767. Which winding of the transformer has less cross-sectional area?

a) Primary winding
b) Secondary winding
c) Low voltage winding
d) High voltage winding
Answer: d
Explanation: Winding having less cross-sectional area may be primary or secondary winding. For
high voltage winding cross sectional area is less while for low voltage winding cross sectional are
is more, due to inverse proportionality.
1768. In constant frequency (50 Hz) power transformers, approximate form is used with
___________
a) π equivalent model
b) T equivalent model
c) π and T equivalent both
d) Another model
Answer: b
Explanation: In constant frequency (50 Hz) power transformers, approximate forms of the exact T-
circuit equivalent of the transformer are commonly used. Thus, we lump all series parameters of
the circuit on either side of T circuit.
1769. Exciting current in an electrical transformer will not be affected much if primary is excited
with E rather than V.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Since winding resistances and leakage reactances are very small, V1 = E1 even
under conditions of load. Therefore, the exciting current drawn by the magnetizing branch (Gi ||
Bm) would not be affected significantly by shifting it to the input terminals, i.e. it is now excited
by V1 instead of E1.
1770. In approximate equivalent circuit of the transformer _______________

a) All resistances and inductances are lumped before magnetizing branch
b) All resistances and inductances are lumped after magnetizing branch
c) Resistances and inductances aren’t changed
d) Any of the above will work
Answer: b
Explanation: Since Io is very small compare to like about 5-10% of full load current, voltage drop
can be approximated to very large extent. These all resistances and inductances are in series,
combined with each other to give approximate equivalent circuit.
1771. Final approximate equivalent circuit contains _________

a) Only equivalent X series branch
b) Only equivalent Z series branch
c) Only equivalent R series branch
d) Any of the above
Answer: a
Explanation: We combine all series parameters of equivalent circuit together to get approximate
equivalent circuit of the transformer, where we assume that equivalent resistance is zero as it is
negligible, and parallel branch is removed.
1772. In a given transformer for given applied voltage, which of the following losses remain
constant irrespective of load changes?
a) Friction and windage losses
b) Copper losses
c) Hysteresis and eddy current losses
Answer: c
Explanation: Hysteresis and eddy current losses together called as core-loss in a transformer.
These losses remain constant for constant voltage and frequency applied to a transformer, these
components remain same irrespective of load.
1773. On which of the following degree of mechanical vibrations produced by the laminations of a
transformer depends?
a) Tightness of clamping
b) Gauge of laminations
c) Size of laminations
d) Tightness of clamping, gauge and size of laminations
Answer: d
Explanation: Mechanical vibrations produced in a transformer are directly effective due to the
tightness of the clamping, gauge og laminations, size of laminations as well. There are various
methods in order to reduce their effects.
1774. Variations in a hysteresis loss in a transformer (Bmax = maximum flux density)

____________
a) Bmax
b) Bmax1.6
c) Bmax3.83
d) Bmax/2
Answer: b
Explanation: According to Steinmetz’s formula, the heat energy dissipated due to hysteresis is
given by Wh=ηβmax1.6, and hysteresis loss is thus given by Ph≈ Whf ≈ηfβmax1.6. That exponetital
term varies fraom 1.4 -1.8 and is equal to 1.6 for iron.
1775. Leakage flux in the transformer depends on _____________________

a) Load current
b) Load current and voltage
c) Load current, voltage and frequency
d) Load current, voltage, frequency and power factor
Answer: a
Explanation: Leakage flux is directly proportional to the current, as if is current increased net
value of flux increases thus, flux leakage also increases which further contribute to the losses as
it is then not able to link with secondary windings .
1776. The full-load copper loss of a transformer is 1600 W. At half-load, the copper loss will be
_______
a) 6400 W
b) 1600 W
c) 800 W
d) 400 W
Answer: d
Explanation: Copper losses are defined as I2*R losses many times, as they are directly
proportional to the square of current flowing through them. Thus, copper losses will reduce if load
is reduced that too in square proportion.
1777. Silicon steel used in laminations, because it reduces ________________

a) Hysteresis loss
b) Eddy current losses
c) Copper losses
Answer: a
Explanation: Electrical steels are also known as lamination steel or silicon steel. The main special
thing related to the silicon steel is, its magnetic properties such as small hysteresis area and
hence, small energy dissipation per cycle, thus low core loss.
1778. If the supply frequency to the transformer is increased, the iron loss will ___________
a) Not change
b) Decrease
c) Increase
Answer: c
Explanation: As frequency increases, the flux density in the core decreases but as the iron loss is
directly proportional to the frequency hence effect of increased frequency will be reflected in
increase of the iron losses.
1779. Which of the following can measure iron loss of a transformer?

a) Low power factor wattmeter
b) Unity power factor wattmeter
c) Frequency meter
d) Any type of wattmeter
Answer: a
Explanation: As the secondary side is open in OC, the entire coil will be purely inductive in
nature. So, the power will be lagging due to inductive property of the circuit. So LPF (Low power
factor) wattmeter is used in open circuit test of transformer.
1780. How reduction in core losses and increase in permeability can be obtained simultaneously
in a transformer?
a) Core built-up of laminations of cold rolled grain oriented steel
b) Core built-up of laminations of hot rolled sheet
c) Cannot be determined
d) Frequency Meter
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: CRGO is supplied by the producing mills in coil form and has to be cut into
laminations, which are then used in transformer core, which is an integral part of any
transformer. Grain-oriented steel is used in large power, distribution transformers and in certain
audio output transformers also.
1781. Losses which occur in rotating electric machines and do not occur in transformer are ______
a) Friction and windage losses
b) Magnetic losses
c) Hysteresis and eddy current losses
d) Copper losses
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Windage and friction losses occur in rotating parts of a machine generally in rotor of
the machine, thus they will never occur in transformer, as transformer does not contain any
rotating part at its secondary unlike induction motor.
1782. Which of the following parameter will be more for 16 gauge copper wire in
comparison to 14 gauge copper wire?
(A) Cost
(B) Strength
(C) Resistance
(D) Weight
Correct Answer : C
1783. The length of wire having resistance of 1 ohm/m in a heater rated at 1000 W and 250
V will be
(A) 250 m
(B) 125 m
(C) 62.5 m
(D) 500 m
Correct Answer : C
1784. Power dissipated in a pure capacitor is
(A) Minimum
(B) Maximum
(C) Infinite
(D) Zero
Correct Answer : D
1785. The size of the feeder is determined primarily by
(A) The current it is required to carry
(B) The percentage variation of voltage in the feeder
(C) The voltage across the feeder
(D) The distance over which the transmission is made
Correct Answer : A
1786. Non-conductors whose polarization is caused by an electric field are known as
(A) Dielectric
(B) Super-conductors
(C) Semi-conductors
(D) Insulators
Correct Answer : A
1787. If the diameter of a conductor is double, then its resistance will be reduced to
(A) Half
(B) One-fourth
(C) One-eight
(D) One-sixteenth
Correct Answer : B
1788. One of difficulties encountered with super-conductors is
(A) The materials become highly magnetic
(B) Strength is reduced
(C) Resistance is increased
(D) Maintenance of low temperature
Correct Answer : D
1789. The inductance of a coil can be increased by
(A) Decreasing number of turns
(B) Increasing core length
(C) Using core material of high relative permeability

(D) All of the above
Correct Answer : C
1790. The resistance of a lamp rated at 240 V and 60 watts equal to
(A) 960 ohms
(B) 120 ohms
(C) 240 ohms
(D) 480 ohms
Answer : A
1791. Two resistances of 100 ohms and 0 ohm are connected in parallel. The overall
resistance will be
(A) 100 ohms
(B) 50 ohms
(C) Zero ohm
(D) Any one of the above
Correct Answer : C
1792. As per Raj Bhasa Adhiniyam, Union Territory of Andaman & Nicobar fall in which
‘Region’ ?
Ans. Region ‘A’
1793. As per Raj Bhasa Adhiniyam, ‘Gujrat’ fall in which ‘Region’?

Ans. Region ‘B’
1794. As per Raj Bhasa Adhiniyam, ‘Karnataka’ fall in which ‘Region’?

Ans. Region ‘C’
1795. What is the full form of O.C.C ?

Ans. Open Circuit Characteristic .
1796. What is the full form of ADRM ?

Ans. Additional Divisional Railway Manager.
1797. What is World Environment Day ?
Ans. 5th June.
1798. Where ICF situated?

Ans. Perambur, Tamil Nadu.
1799. A man sells an article at a loss of 10%. Had be bought it at 20% less and sold it for
55 more, he could have gained 40%. What is the cost price of the article?
Ans. Rs. 250.
1800. What is the full form of PNM ?

Ans. Permanent Negotiating Machinery.
1801. What are the three main Hindi examination conducted for the Railway Staff for
Proficiency?
Ans. Prabodh, Praveen, and Pragya.
1802. What is full form of COFMOW ?

Ans. Central Organization for modernization of workshop
1803. What is full form of PRS ?

Ans. Passenger Reservation System.
1804. What is the unit of Electrical energy ?

Ans. Watt-hour.
1805. What is the operating voltage of kolkata Metro ?

Ans. 750 VDC.
1806. As per Raj Bhasa Adhiniyam , all states and Union territories are covered in how
many
regions?
Ans. Three ( A, B and C)
1807. Which Railway Station has largest platform in the world ?

Ans. Gorakhpur.
1808. In which year first electric train was run?

Ans. 1925 in India and 1879 in the world (in Berlin)
1809. Name of the 03(three) nos. incentives for propagating the use of Hindi in Central
Government office?
Ans. a) Individual Cash award of Railway Board. b) Incentive scheme of Ministry of Home
affairs c) Rajbhasa collective cash award for maximum use of Hindi.
1810. A traction power Transformer 132KV/25KV draws 400 amps at 25KV from OHE .
Find
KVA power drawn ?
Ans. 10000 KVA
1811. What is the maximum speed of a Air Suspension Type EMU train?
Ans. 100KMPH
1812. What is the working pressure of EMU compressor ?

Ans. 7 Kg/Sq.cm
1813. How many CCTV camera are fitted IN EACH LADIES COACH OF Three Phase EMU
rakes of HOWRAH DIVISION?
Ans. 07 (Seven ) Nos.
1814. New wheel Diameter of Motor Coach is

Ans. 952 mm.
1815. A rectangular lawn is 80 meters long and 60 meters wide. Calculate the time by a
man to Walk along its diagonal at the speed of 18 KMPH.
Ans. 20 Sec.
1816. Under provision of Section 3(3) of official Language Act, 1963 with amendments,
1967 , mark TRUE /FALSE against the following documents which shall be issued
both in Hindi and English Language.
Documents Resolution Answer
1. Resolutions True/False True
2. General Orders True/False True
3. Rules True/False True
4. Notification True/False True
5.Administrative & other Reports True/False True
6. Press Communication True/False True
7. Administrative and other reports and True/False True

official papers to be laid before a House
or the House of Parliament.
8. Contracts True/False True
9. Agreements True/False True
10. Licenses True/False True
11. Permits True/False True
12. Tender Notices True/False True
13. Tender Forms True/False True
1817. How many stations is Howrah Division comes under ‘A’ Region
Ans. 05 Nos.
1818. As per Raj Bhasa Adhiniyam, ‘JAMALPUR/IRIMEE’ fall in which ‘Region’?

Ans. “A”
. 1819 As per Raj Bhasa Adhiniyam, ‘HAZIPUR/EAST CENTRAL RAILWAY’ falls in which
‘Region’?
Ans. “A”
1820 .As per Raj Bhasa Adhiniyam, ‘IRIEEN/NASIK ROAD’ fall in which ‘Region’?
Ans. “B”
1821 . As per Raj Bhasa Adhiniyam, ‘RAILWAY STAFF COLLEGE’ fall in which ‘Region’?
Ans. “B”
1822 . As per Raj Bhasa Adhiniyam, ‘IRICEN/PUNE’ fall in which ‘Region’?

Ans. “B”
1823 . As per Raj Bhasa Adhiniyam, ‘IRISET/SCECANDRABAD’ fall in which ‘Region’?

Ans. “C”
1824 . As per Raj Bhasa Adhiniyam, ‘ KOLKATA -METRORAIL’ fall in which ‘Region’?
Ans. “C”
1825. What is the Official Language of the Union of India?

Ans. Hindi in Devnagari Script.
1826. On which date, Part XVII of the Constitution was passed in Parliament?
Ans. 14.09.1949.
1827. When was the Official Languages Act 1963 passed ?

Ans. 10.05.1963.
1828. When was the Official Languages Act 1963 amended?

Ans. 1967.
1829. When is ‘Hindi Day’ celebrated every year?

Ans. September 14.
1830. According to Official Language Rules, under which region Andaman & Nicobar Islands
come ?
Ans. ‘A’ Region.
1831. Which are the Union Territories classified under Region ‘B’ ?
Ans. Union Territory of Chandigarh, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu.
1832. What is the Official Language of Arunachal Pradesh?

Ans. English.
1833. From when did the Section 3(3) of Official Languages Act take effect?
Ans. 26 January 1965.
1834. In which state, Sections 6 & 7 of Official Languages Act 1963 do not apply ?
Ans. Jammu and Kashmir.
1835. In which states, Urdu has been declared as Official Language?

Ans. Andhra Pradesh & Bihar.
1836. Which was the main language and co-official language used for the Official Purpose of
the Union of India upto 1965 ?
Ans. English was the main language and Hindi was the co-official language.
1837. In which year, the Hindi Translation of Railway Budget was prepared and who was the
Railway Minister ?
Ans. In the year 1956, Late Shri.Lal Bahadur Shastri.
1838. What is the scheme implemented by Railway Board for doing work in Hindi?
Ans. Rajbhasha Individual Cash Award Scheme.
1839. Who is the Chairman of Central Hindi Committee ?

Ans. Prime Minister
1840. Which is the final Hindi course prescribed for clerical cadre employees of Central
Govt. ?
Ans. Pragya.
1841. Who are eligible to be trained in the Hindi courses ?

Ans. All the Central Govt. employees in Class III and above.
1842. Who are all the employees classified under Category ‘A’ ?
Ans. Those employees whose mother tongue is Hindi or Hindustani or its dialect.
1843. From which course a Category ‘D’ employee is required to be trained?

Ans. Prabodh.
1844. What is the lump sum award for passing Pragya ?

Ans. 2400/-
1845. Amount of lump sum award for passing Prabodh, Praveen and Pragya by private
Study.
Ans. Prabodh Rs.1600/-

Praveen Rs. 1500/-
Pragya Rs. 1200/- For each.
1846. Who are eligible to undergo training in Hindi Workshop?

Ans. All Class-III and Gazetted Staff who have working knowledge/proficiency in Hindi.
1847. What is the Personal Pay given for passing Hindi Stenography, to a stenographer
whose mother tongue is not Hindi ?
Ans. Personal Pay equivalent to 2 increment for a period of 12 months.
1848. What is the Full form of IRIEEN ?

Ans. Indian Railway Institute of Electrical Engineering
1849. What is the Full form of IRICEN ?

Ans. Indian Railway Institute Civil Engineering
1850. What is the Full form IRISET ?

Ans. Indian Railway Institute of Signal Engineering and Telecommunications.
1851. राजभाषा क संसद य स म त का मु य काय या है? –

Ans. हंद के गामी योग क समी ा करना
1852. राजभाषा का वा षक काय म कौन तैयार करता है ? –
Ans. राजभाषा वभाग, गृह मं ालय
1853. न न म से कसे यह अ धकार है क वह हंद अथवा कसी अ य भाषा को उ च यायालय क
कायवाह क भाषा का दजा दे सके.
(a) संसद का कोई भी सदन
(b) कसी रा य का रा यपाल
(c) रा यपाल ऐसा कर सकता है ले कन उसे रा प त क पू व अनु म त लेनी होगी.
(d) सु ीम कोट का मु य यायाधीश
उ र c
1854. Who were the first on the Library Building Awards Hindi Library ?
Ans. Sumitra Nandan Pant
1855. The country’s first national museum where Hindi is being installed?
Ans. Agra
1856. How many vowels in the alphabet and even tone of Hindi ?
Ans. 11 वर व 33 सम वर (11 Vowel and 33 Even Vowel),
1857. What is the first epic Hindi language

ह द भाषा का थम महाका य कसे कहा जाता है ?
Ans. पृ वीराज रासो (च दबरदाई क रचना) (Prithviraj Raso(Chand Bardai))
1858. Founder of Hindi prose

ह द गध के त ठापक?
Ans.आचाय महावीर साद ववेद (Acharya Mahavir Prasad Dwivedi)
1859. Hindi vertical language generator

ह द खड़ी बोल के ज मदाता?
Ans.भारते दु ह र च (Bhartendu Harishchandra)

1860. The Promoter of Hindi literature Halawa
ह द सा ह य म हालावाद के वतक?
Ans. ह रवंशराय ब चन (Harivansh Rai Bachchan)
1861. The first story of Hindi literature

ह द सा ह य क थम कहानी?
Ans. इ दुमती (Indumti)
1862. The first poet of Hindi

ह द के थम क व?
Ans. स ध सरहपा (9वीं शता द ) (Proven Srhpa(9th century))
1863. Hindi’s first creation

ह द क थम रचना?
Ans. ावकाचार ंथ ( दे वसेन वमत ) (Shravakachar treatise(Deussen VMT))
1864. The first Fiction in Hindi

ह द का थम उप यास?
Ans. पर ा गु ( ी नवास दास वमत ) (Exam Guru(Srinivas Das VMT)
1865. Hindi’s first magazine

ह द क थम प का?
Ans. संवाद कौमु द (Dialogue Moon)
Question.1866. The first Hindi song Author

ह द के सव थम गीत लेखक?
Answer — वधाप त (Vidyapathi)
Question.1867. Hindi’s first daily newspaper

ह द के सव थम दै नक समाचार-प ?
Answer — सु धावषण (Sudhawarsn)
Question.1868. Hindi’s first Comedietta

ह द का थम एकांक ?
Answer — एक घू ँट (One gulp)
Question.1869. Who is the author of the novel Maila Anchal

मैला आँचल उप यास के लेखक कौन ह?
Answer — फणी वरनाथ ‘रे णु’ (Fnishwarnath ‘Renu’)
1870. वतमान म भारतीय सं वधान म कतनी राजभाषाएं व णत ह?
(a) 24
(b) 22
(c) 14
(d) 25
उ र b
या या: वतमान म भारतीय सं वधान म 22 राजभाषाएं व णत ह. वतमान म 22 राजभाषाएं इस कार ह; बंगाल ,

बोड़ो, डोगर , गुजराती, ह द , क नड़, क मीर , क कणी, मै थल , मलयालम, म णपु र , मराठ , नेपाल , ओ ड़या, पंजाबी ,
सं कृ त, संथाल , स धी, त मल, तेलु गू, उदू और अस मया.
1871. भारतीय सं वधान म राजभाषाएं कस अनु सच

ू ी म व णत है?
(a) अनु सू ची 5
(b) अनु सू ची 6
(c) अनु सू ची 7
(d) अनु सू ची 8
उ रd
या या: भारतीय सं वधान क आठवीं अनु सू ची म 22 भाषाएँ व णत ह. इसम मू ल प से 14 भाषाएँ व णत थीं.

वष 2003 म मै थ ल, डोगर ,बोडो और संथाल भाषाओ को आठवीं अनु सू ची म जोड़ा गया था.
1872. न न म से कौन सा कथन राजक य भाषाओ के स दभ म सह नह है?
(a) सं वधान के भाग XVII म अनु छे द 343 से 351 राजभाषा से स बं धत ह.
(b) जब तक रा प त कोई अ यथा यव था ना दे उ चतम ् यायालय के काय अं ेजी म ह गे
(c) राजभाषा अ ध नयम को 1963 म पास कया गया था
(d) दे वनागर ल प म लखी जाने वाल हंद संघ क भाषा है.
उ र b
या या: जब तक संसद कोई अ यथा यव था ना दे उ चतम ् यायालय और उ च नयायालय के काय अं ेजी

भाषा म ह ह गे.
1873. न न म से कौन सा अनु छे द सु मे लत नह है?
(a) अनु छे द 343: संघ क राजभाषा
(b) अनु छे द 344: राजभाषा पर संसद य स म त एवं आयोग
(c) अनु छे द 345:रा य क राजभाषा
(d) अनु छे द 351: उ चतम ् यायालय और उ च यायालय के लए राजभाषा
उ र d
या या: अनु छे द 351 का स ब ध हंद भाषा के वकास के लए व नदश से है न क उ चतम ् यायालय और

उ च नयायालय के लए राजभाषा से.
1874. न न म से कसे यह अ धकार है क वह हंद अथवा कसी अ य भाषा को उ च यायालय क कायवाह
क भाषा का दजा दे सके.
(a) संसद का कोई भी सदन
(b) कसी रा य का रा यपाल
(c) रा यपाल ऐसा कर सकता है ले कन उसे रा प त क पू व अनु म त लेनी होगी.
(d) सु ीम कोट का मु य यायाधीश
उ र c
या या: कसी रा य का रा यपाल; रा प त क पूव अनु म त से हंद अथवा कसी अ य भाषा को उ च

यायालय क कायवाह क भाषा का दजा दे सकता है.
1875. य द कसी यि त को उ चतम यायालय म कोई जन हत या चका लगानी हो तो या चका कस भाषा म

लखी जानी चा हए?
(a) 22 भाषाओ म से कसी भी भाषा म
(b) या चकाकता अपनी मातृ भाषा म
(c) केवल अं ेजी म
(d) हंद या अंगेजी म
उ र c
या या: संसद ने उ चतम यायालय म हंद के योग के लए कोई यव था नह क है. अतः उ चतम
यायालय केवल उ ह या चकाओं के सुनता है जो क अं ेजी म ह .
1876. न न म से कौन सु मे लत है ?
रा य रा य भाषा
(a) आ दे श तेलु गू
(b) केरल त मल
(c) गोवा अं ेजी
(d) ज मू & क मीर क मीर
उ र a
या या: केवल आ दे श क राजक य भाषा तेलु गू सु मे लत है, इसके अलावा अ य वक प म लखी गयी
भाषा सु मे लत नह है.
1877. अ णाचल दे श म कौन सी मु य े ीय भाषा है ?
(a) अस मया
(b) बोडो
(c) अं ेजी
(d) डोगर
उ र c
या या: मेघालय, अ णाचल दे श और नागालड म रा य क मु य े ीय भाषा अं ेजी है

1878. ‘डोगर ’ भाषा भारत के कस रा य े म बोल जाती है?
(a) ज मू और क मीर ा त
(b) पु दच
ु ेर
(c) अंदमान एवं नकोबार वीप समू ह
(d) नागालड
उ र a
या या: 'डोगर ' भारत के ज मू और क मीर ा त म बोल जाने वाल एक भाषा है. वष 2003 म इसे 92 व
सं वधान संशोधन अ ध नयम के वारा भारतीय सं वधान क आठवीं अनु सू ची म शा मल कया गया था.
1879. न न म से कौन सी भाषा भारतीय सं वधान क आठवीं अनु सू ची म व णत नह है?
(a) नेपाल
(b) क मीर
(c) स धी
(d) अं ेजी
उ र d
या या: अं ेजी भाषा भारतीय सं वधान क आठवीं अनु सू ची म व णत नह है. इसके अलावा न म द गयीं
सभी भाषाएँ व णत ह.
1880. सं वधान के कौन से अनु छेद के अनु सार हंद को संघ क राजभाषा बनाया गया है ?
उ र:- अनु छेद 343 (1) के अनु सार हंद को संघ क राजभाषा और दे वनागर को ल प बनाया गया है ।
1881. राजभाषा नी त से संबं धत संवैधा नक यव था या है ?

उ र:- सं वधान के अनु छे द 120, 210 एवं 343 से 351 राजभाषा नी त क संवैधा नक यव था से संबं धत ह।
1882. राजभाषा आयोग क थापना कब हु ई थी ?
उ र:- राजभाषा आयोग क थापना वष 1955 म हु ई थी।
1883. राजभाषा अ ध नयम कब लागू हु आ ?

उ र:- राजभाषा अ ध नयम वष 1963 म लागू हु आ ।
1884. राजभाषा अ ध नयम 1963 क धारा 3(3) के अनु सार कतने और कौन-कौन से द तावेज को वभाषी प म जार
कया जाना अ नवाय है ?
उ र:- राजभाषा अ ध नयम 1963 क धारा 3(3) के अनु सार कु ल 14 कार के द तावेज यथा; सामा य आदे श, अ धसू चनाएँ,
संक प, नयम, संसद के सम रखी जाने वाल शास नक रपोट, शास नक व अ य रपोट, सं वदाएँ, सरकार कागज़ात,
करार, अनु ापन, पर मट, ेस व ि तयाँ, न वदा सू चना व न वदा फॉम संबंधी द तावेज को वभाषी प म जार कया
जाना अ नवाय है ।
1885. राजभाषा नयम कब से लागू हु ए ?

उ र:- राजभाषा नयम वष 1976 से लागू हु ए।
1886. राजभाषा नयम क सं या कतनी है ?

उ र:- राजभाषा नयम क सं या 12 है ।
1887. राजभाषा वभाग तवष वा षक काय म य जार करता है ?

उ र:- राजभाषा संक प, 1968 के अनु पालन म राजभाषा हंद के सार और वकास क ग त बढ़ाने के लए राजभाषा वभाग
वारा तवषवा षक काय म जार कया जाता है ।
1888. अंतररा य सं धय और करार को कस भाषा म तैयार कया जाना चा हए ?

उ र: अंतररा य सं धय और करार को अ नवाय प से हंद और अं ेजी दोन भाषाओं म तैयार कया जाना चा हए ।
1889. नगर राजभाषा काया वयन स म त क त वष कतनी बैठक आयोिजत क जानी चा हए?
उ र: नगर राजभाषा काया वयन स म त क वष म 02 बैठक ( त छमाह एक बैठक) आयोिजत क जानी चा हए ।
1890. या वदे श म ि थत भारतीय कायालय के लए भी हंद म प ाचार करना अ नवाय है?

उ र: जी हाँ, वदे श म ि थत भारतीय कायालय के लए भी 30 तशत प ाचार हंद म कया जाना अ नवाय है ।
1891. कतने तशत का मक को हंद का कायसाधक ान होने पर कसी कायालय को अ धसू चत कया जाता है ?
उ र- 80 तशत का मक को हंद का कायसाधक ान ा त होने पर कसी कायालय को अ धसू चत कया जाता है ।
1892. मेर मातृभाषा पंजाबी है , मु झे हंद लखनी पढ़नी नह ं आती तो या मु झे बोध म वेश दया जाएगा ?
उ र: जी नह ,ं मातृभाषा के आधार पर कए गए वग करण के अनु सार पंजाबी, उदू, क मीर और प तो आ द भाषा-भा षय को
सीधे ा म दा खला दया जाता है ।
1893. म अस मयां भाषी हू ं, मने बोध पर ा उ ीण क है तो या मु झे ो साहन योजना का लाभ मलेगा ?

उ र: जी नह ,ं अस मयां भाषी य द वैि छक तौर पर श ण लेता है तो उसे ो साहन योजना का लाभ ा त नह ं होता ।
1894. िजन े म हंद श ण योजना क क ाएँ नह ं चलाई जातीं वहाँ के का मक को हंद का कायसाधक ान कैसे
दान कया जासकता है ?
उ र: िजन े म हंद श ण योजना क क ाएँ नह ं चलाई जातीं ऐसे दूर-दराज के थान पर ि थत कायालय के
का मक को क य हंद श ण सं थान वारा चलाए जा रहे भाषा प ाचार पा य म, ऑनलाइन श ण अथवा ाइवेट
श ाथ के प म कायसाधक ान दान करवाया जा सकता है ।
1895. या टं कण श ण हे तु भी प ाचार पा य म क सु वधा उपल ध है?

उ र: जी हाँ, टं कण श ण हे तु भी क य हंद श ण सं थान वारा प ाचार पा य म क सु वधा उपल ध करवाई गई
है ।
1896. हंद भाषा और हंद टं कण प ाचार पा य म म आने वाल क ठनाइय का समाधान कस कार कया जाता है ?
उ र: हंद भाषा और प ाचार पा य म म आने वाल क ठनाइय के समाधान हे तु दे शभर म यि तगत संपक काय म
आयोिजत कएजाते ह ।
1897. प ाचार वारा हंद भाषा और हंद टं कण के श ण क अव ध कतनी है ?

उ र- प ाचार वारा हंद भाषा के श ण क अव ध एक वष है जब क हंद टं कण प ाचार पा य म क अव ध छह माह
है ।
1898. या क य हंद श ण सं थान तथा इसके उप सं थान म हंद भाषा क तरह हंद टं कण व आशु ल प के
अ पका लकगहन श ण क यव था है ?
उ र: जी हाँ, क य हंद श ण सं थान तथा इसके उप सं थान म हंद भाषा क तरह हंद टं कण व आशु ल प के
अ पका लक(गहन) श ण क यव था है ।
1899. हंद श ण योजना के भाषा के द घका लक श ण के वष म कतने स होते ह?

उ र: हंद श ण योजना के भाषा के द घका लक श ण के वष म दो स होते ह ।
1900. हंद टं कण और हंद आशु ल प के अ पका लक गहन श ण काय म क अव ध कतनी है ?

उ र: अ पका लक (गहन) हंद टं कण पा य म क अव ध 40 पू ण काय दवस है और अ पका लक (गहन) हंद आशु ल प
के श णकाय म क अव ध 80 पू ण काय दवस है ।
1901. कायालय से दूर जाकर पर ा दे ने पर का मक के या ा यय का भु गतान कसके वारा कया जाता है ?

उ र: कायालय से दूर जाकर पर ा दे ने पर का मक के या ा यय का भु गतान उसी के कायालय वारा कया जाता है ।
1902. म द ल क से हंद बोध श ण ा त कर रहा हू ँ । या म पर ा चे नै से दे सकता हू?ँ

उ र: जी हाँ, पर ा कंध को पर ा से कम से कम एक माह पू व सू चत करने और अनु म त ा त होने पर आप चे नै क
से पर ा दे सकते ह।
1903 ‘गाँधी’ फ़ म म गाँधी क भू मका कसने नभाई ?

उ र – बेन कं सले
1904. श क दवस कब मनाया जाता है ?
उ र – 5 सतंबर
1905. भारत का रा य पु प क है ?
उ र – कमल
1906. कौन सा संधु स यता का थान अब पा क तान म है ?
उ र – हड़ पा
1907. ‘भू दान आंदोलन’ कसने शु कया कया था?
उ र – वनोभा भावे
1908. भारत म अं ेजी श ा का कसने शु क थी?
उ र – लाड मैकाले
1910. ‘ लाइंग सख’ के नाम से कसे जाना जाता है ?
उ र – म खा संह
1911. सं वधान के ा प स म त के चेयरमैन कौन थे?
उ र – डॉ. भीम रॉव अ बेडकर
1912. ‘ ड कवर ऑफ इं डया’ नामक पु तक कसने लखी थी?
उ र – जवाहर लाल नेह
1913. नोबेल पु र कार ा त करने वाला थम भारतीय कौन है ।
उ र –रव नाथ टै गोर
1914. ोणाचाय पु र कार कससे स बं धत है ?
उ र – े ठ गु / श क
1915. रामकृ ण मशन क थापना कसने क थी?
उ र – वामी ववेकानंद
1916. भारत के कस रा य सवा धक चावल उ पादन होता है –
उ र – पि चम बंगाल
1916. कस थान पर महा मा बु ध ने ान ा त कया था?
उ र – गया
1917. स ध नाटक ‘शकुं तला’ कसने लखी थी?
उ र – महाक व का लदास
1918. भारत के रा गान ‘जन गण मन’ के रच यता थे-
उ र – रवी नाथ टै गोर
1919. यु ध म साहस और परा म के दशन के लए दया जाने वाला भारत का सव च
सै नक अलंकरण है
उ र – परमवीर च
1920. रा यसभा क बैठको क अ य ता कौन करता है ?
उ र – उपरा प त
1921. ज मू और क मीर का रे लपथ कस रे लवे जॉन के अंतगत आता है ?
उ र – उ र रे लवे
1922. व यात महाका य ‘महाभारत’ के रच यता कौन है ?
उ र – वेद यास
1923. ‘गीतांज ल’ के क व ह –
उ र – रवी नाथ टै गोर
1924. भारत के कस रा य म प व तीथ थल ‘अमरनाथ’ ि थत है ?
उ र – ज मू एवं क मीर
1925. कस जानवर को रे ग तान का जहाज कहा जाता है ?
उ र – ऊँट
1926. कस वष म महा मा गांधी का ज म हु आ था?
उ र – 1869
1927. रे ल पथ के मीटर गेज क चौड़ाई होती है
उ र – 1 मीटर
1930. व व का सबसे बड़ा महा वीप कौन सा दे श है
उ र – ए शया
1931. व व का सबसे ऊँचा पवत शखर है -
उ र – एवरे ट
1932. भारतीय गणरा य के थम रा प त कौन थे?
उ र – डॉ. राजे साद
1933. माउ ट एवरे ट पर चढ़ने वाला थम यि त है ।
उ र – तेनिजंग नोग
1934. कस भारतीय नेता को ‘भारत का लौह पु ष’ के नाम से जाना जाता है ?
उ र – सरदार व लभ भाई पटे ल
1935. ज लयाला वाला बाग कस शहर म ि थत है ?
उ र – अमृतसर
1936. भारत का रा य प ी है -
उ र – मोर
1937. “जय जवान, जय कसान” का नारा कसने दया था?
उ र – लाल बहादुर शा ी
1938. सख धम के सं थापक कौन थे?
उ र – गु नानक दे व
1939. भारत म सबसे पहल रे लगाड़ी कब चल थी?
उ र – 16 अ ैल, 1853
1940. भारत म सबसे ल बी सड़क है -
उ र – जी. ट . रोड
1941. भारत सवा धक श त रा य है -
उ र – केरल
1942‘चाचा जी’ के नाम से जाने जाते थे-
उ र – प. जवाहर लाल नेह
1943. भारत का कौन सा शहर ‘गु लाबी नगर के नाम से जाना जाता है ?
उ र – जयपु र
1944. ‘इंकलाब िजंदाबाद’ का नारा सव थम कसने दया था?
उ र – सरदार भगत संह
1945. भारत का सव च पु र कार है -
उ र – भारत र न
1946. भारतीय क डीजल इं जन व नमाण इकाई ‘डीजल लोकोमो टव व स’ कहाँ ि थत है ?
उ र – वाराणसी
1947. ‘बैसाखी’ यौहार कस धम के लोग मनाते ह?
उ र – सख धम के लोग
1948. अनु छे द 370 भारत के कस रा य म लागू है ?

उ र – ज मू-क मीर
1949. कौन-सी नद महारा के ना सक से नकलती है ?
उ र – गोदावेर
1950. महा मा गांधी जी के प नी का नाम या था?
उ र – क तू रबा गांधी
1951. मु य चु नाव आयु त क नयु ि त कौन करता है ?
उ र – रा प त
1952. ‘ए मेरे वतन के लोगो’ दे शभि त गीत कसने लखा है ?
उ र – दप
1953. मु यम ी क नयु ि त कौन करता है ?
उ र – रा यपाल
1954. र व नाथ टै गोर ने भारत के रा य गान के अलावा कस एक और दे श का
रा य गान लखा?
उ र – बां ला दे श
1955. राजभाषा अ ध नयम 1963 कब पा रत हु आ?
– 10.05.1963
1956. राजभाषा अ ध नयम 1963 कब संशो धत था?
– 1967
1957. राजभाषा नयम के अधीन वग कृ त तीन े या- या है ?
– क, ख व ग े
1958. हर साल ' हंद दवस' कब मनाया जाता है?
– 14 सतंबर को
1959.. राजभाषा नयम के अनु सार, अंदमान व नकोबार वीप कस े म आता है?
– 'क' े
1960. 'ख' े म वग कृ त एक मा संघ रा य े या?
– चंडीगढ़
1961. अ णाचल दे श क राजभाषा या है?
– अं ेजी
1962. राजभाषा वभाग का 'राभाकास' से या मतलब है?
– राजभाषा काया वयन स म त
1963. क य हंद स म त के अ य कौन है?

– धानमं ी
1964. संसद य राजभाषा स म त का गठन कब हु आ?
– जनवर 1976
1965. राजभाषा क संसद य स म त म लोक सभा के कतने सद य ह?

– 20
1966. फलहाल राजभाषा क संसद य स म त क कतनी उप-स म तयां ह?
– 3 उप स म तयां
1967. राजभाषा काया वयन स म त क बैठक क आव धकता या है?

– 3 मह ने म एक बार
1968. नगर राजभाषा काया वयन स म त क बैठक क आव धकता या है? –
6 मह ने म एक बार
1969. राजभाषा का वा षक काय म कौन तैयार करता है?
– राजभाषा वभाग, गृह मं ालय
1970. राजभाषा अ ध नयम क धारा 3(3) कब से वृ हु ई?

– 26 जनवर 1965
1971. राजभाषा नी त क जानकार दे ने वाले अनु छे द सं वधान के कस भाग म ह?
– भाग-XVII – स हव भाग
1972.. राजभाषा अ ध नयम 1963, क धारा 6 व 7 कस रा य म लागू नह ं होती?
– ज मू क मीर
1973. कन- कन रा य म उदू को राजभाषा के प म घो षत कया गया है?
– आं दे श व बहार
1974.. साल म कतनी बार हंद पर ाएं चलाई जाती ह?
– दो बार
1975. हंद पर ाएं कन- कन म मह न म चलाई जाती ह?
– मई व नवंबर
1976. को ट 'ख' म वग कृ त कमचार कौन ह? –
िजनक मातृभाषा उदू, पंजाबी, क मीर , पु तो, स धी या सह भाषा हो
1977. को ट 'ग' म वग कृ त कमचार कौन ह? –
िजनक मातृभाषा मराठ , गु जराती, बंगाल , उ डया या असामी हो
1977. को ट 'घ' म वग कृ त कमचार कौन ह?
– जो द ण भारत क भाषा या अं ेजी बोलते ह
1978. . हर साल हंद संबंधी कौन-सा समारोह मनाया जाता है?
– राजभाषा उ सव व हंद दवस
1979. . राजभाषा उ सव कस लए मनाया जाता है?

– कमचा रय के बीच राजभाषा के त जाग कता पैदा करने के लए और हंद म काम करने को े रत
करने के लए
1980.. 'ख' े म आने वाले रा य का नाम बताइए।
– गु जरात, महारा , पंजाब, चंडीगढ़ के संघ रा य े
1981.. फलहाल सं वधान के आठवीं अनु सू ची म कतनी भाषाएं सि म लत ह?
– बाईस
1982.. राजभाषा अ ध नयम 1963 य पा रत था?
– 1965 के बाद भी हंद के साथ अं ेजी को जार रखने का ावधान करने के लए
1983.. राजभाषा नयम कब पा रत हु आ?
– 1976
1984.. अनु छे द 344 के अनु सरण म राजभाषा आयोग क नयु ि त कब हु ई?
– वष 1955 म
1985. . दे श का पहला रा य ह द सं हालय कहाँ था पत कया जा रहा है?
– आगरा
1986.. वष 1976 म ग ठत संसद य राजभाषा स म त के अ य कौन थे?
– त काल न गृह मं ी ी ओम मेहता
1987. संसद य राजभाषा स म त क कौन-सी स म त तवेदन का मसौदा तैयार करती है?
– संसद य राजभाषा स म त क आलेख एवं सा य उपस म त
1988. . भारत के थम रा क व कौन ह?
– मै थल शरण गु त
1989 . In which of the following processes is energy released?

A. Respiration B. Photosynthesis C. Ingestion D. Absorption
Ans. A. Respiration
1990. The Source of the sun’s energy, is the process of –

A. photoelectric emission B. nuclear fission C. nuclear fusion D. thermionic emission
Ans. C. nuclear fusion
1991. Study of atmospheric phenomena is called –

A. Astrology B. Meteorology C. Seismology D. Astronomy
Ans. B. Meteorology
1992. “Curie” is the unit of –

A. radioactivity B. temperature C. heat D. energy
Ans. A. radioactivity
1993. Which of the following gases is lighter than air?

(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Oxygen
(C) Ammonia (D) Chlorine
Ans. c)
1994. What is laughing gas?

(A.) Nitrous Oxide (B.) Carbon monoxide
(C.) Sulphur dioxide (D.) Hydrogen peroxide
Ans. a)
1995. The gas usually filled in the electric bulb is

A. Nitrogen B. Hydrogen
C. Carbon dioxide D. Oxygen
Ans. a)
1996. Soda water contains
A. Carbonic Acid B. Sulphuric Acid C. Carbon Dioxide D. Nitrous Acid
Ans. c)
1997. Which of the following is not a chemical reaction?
(A) Burning of paper (B) Digestion of food (C) Conversion of water into steam (D) Burning of
coal
Ans. c)
1998. Which of the following is the lightest metal?
A. Mercury B. Lithium C. Lead D. Silver
Ans. b)
1999. The Vallabhai Patel Airport is located at
(A) Ahmedabad (B) Gandhi Nagar (C) Aurangabad (D) Surat
Ans. a)
2000. A man has some hens and cows. If the number of heads be 48 and
the number of feet equals 140, then the number of hens will be:
A. 22 B. 23 C. 24 D. 26
Ans. d)
2001. Choose the correct alternative :

Minimum cattle guard height of ICF/ Jessop / Air Spring coaches are
a) 75 mm b) 200 mm c) 190mm d) 180 mm
Ans : (d) 180 mm.

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QUESTION BANK ELECT.

Sl No Question Multiple choice answer Answer

8 Type of Medha a) MAE 675 a

11 Transformer a) 1100 KVA a

20 Signal bell code a) Single bit a

26 WGR a) Winding general relay b

44 Trip Indicator a) ARTL d

120 DGA is required a) SL, DL & TL TFP

135 Location of CLR a) Tap changer box Sw. Gr. 2 box

137 Tap changer a) To reduce the arcing of tapchanger To reduce the

138 Arc chute used a) Toextinguish the arcing. To extinguish

139 Tap changer a) Electro pneumatic contactor. Electro

140 CC1 Contactor a) Electro pneumatic contactor. Electric

197 The function of 1. Continuous & Unidirectional Torque Continuous

199 How many no of 1. 15 teeth 20 teeth

206 How many leads 1. 5 5

223 What is the value 1. 40 µfd 20µfd

232 How many axle 1. 4 nos 8 nos

246 What is the full a. Temperature thermostat relay b.

248 Full form of BIR ? a. Buccholz indication relay b. Buchholz

249 Full form of OLP? a. over load primary a. over load

257 What is the value a.506 ohm+/- 16% b.506 ohm+/-

259 Resistances of a.2514om a.2514 ohm

260 NOE stands for? a. Normally open early. a. Normally

261 Minimum contact a.1.2mm c.1.6mm

264 Which is striker a. 1.2mm c.0.8mm

270 BVAC 25.10 MO7 a. Single pole a. Single pole

275 In oil circuit a.True a.True

280 Speed sensor needs a. 110 – 120v c.9-12v

286 Input ratio of CT is - a. 150/ 5A a. 150/ 5A

289 Which interfacing a. RS485 c. RS232

467 Weight of CPL (a)200 kg (d)215 kg

468 Weight of SIL (a)200 kg (c)235 kg

469 Raising time of (a)8-13 sec (b)6-10 sec

470 Lowering time of (a)Up to 6 sec (c) Up to 10 sec

471 Cold resistance of (a)1450-1550 ohms (a)1450-1550

473 Pick up current (a)40 mA (d)42 mA

474 Drop out voltage (a)30-31 volts (b)11-28 volts

475 Drop out current (a)18 mA (a)18 mA

476 Coid resistance of (a)40 ohms (b) 29.9 ohms

479 Folded height of (a)200 mm (c)276 mm

481 What is the (a)10 kg (b)9 kg

482 Minimum (a)4.5 kg/cm2 (a)4.5 kg/cm2

485 Deflection of (a)Less than 30 mm (b) Less than

486 Lubricants (a)Vaseline (a)Vaseline

487 Condemning limit (a)3.8 mm (b)3.5mm

488 Transverse (a)30 mm (a)30 mm

533. How many type of Brake Binding occurs ?

534. If MCP is not working which equipment will you check ?

540. BP pipe broken of Trailer coach online.—what will be the effect ?

541. BP pipe broken of Trailer coach online.— How to attend ?

542. What is the height of installation lever ?

543. What is the setting of ACP Governor ?

544. What is the setting of MCP Governor ?

545. What is the setting of control Governor ?

546. What is the setting of Equipment Governor ?

547. What is the pressure setting of Parking Brake ?

548. What is the length of MR hose ?