NSEB-2023 (NSEB STAGE-I)

Date of Examination : 26th November, 2023

PAPER CODE - 24

SOLUTIONS
1. Descriptions of the alimentary canals of four animals P, Q, Rand S are given below;
P: Short intestine and colon; small cecurn.
Q: Simple stomach; large cecum.
R: Short intestine; cecum absent
S: Four-chambered stomach with large rumen; long small and large intestine.
Animals P, Q, Rand S respectively could be:
(a) Carnivore; insectivore; non-ruminant herbivore; ruminant herbivore
(b) Carnivore; non-ruminant herbivore; insectivore; ruminant herbivore

EN (c) Non-ruminant herbivore; carnivore; insectivore; ruminant herbivore

(d) Insectivore; nonruminant herbivore; ruminant herbivore; carnivore
Ans. (b)
Sol. Carnivore; non-ruminant herbivore; insectivore; ruminant herbivore
2. The plasma membrane of the root hair cells selectively allows absorbed minerals to pass through plasmodesmata
into the endodermal cells which, then enter the xylem vessels. The indiscriminate absorption of minerals through
apoplastic route, on the other hand, may admit undesirable minerals. This is prevented by ;
(a) Glycerolipids in membranes ofpericycle cells
(b) Suberin in the wall of endodermal cells
(c) Lignin in the wall of xylem cells
LL
(d) Sulfolipids in the membranes of xylem parenchyma cells
Ans. (b)
Sol. Suberin in the wall of endodermal cells
3. It is observed that glucose absorption is slow if the energy drink contains only glucose as compared to drinks that
contain glucose along with small amount of salt. Which of the following correctly explains this?
(a) Glucose absorption is carried out by a membrane protein which is symporter by nature.
(b) Glucose absorption is carried out by a membrane protein which is antjporter by nature.
(c) Na+ and Cl– ions interact with glucose molecules and break the hydration shell around them, making it easier
A

for transport across membrane.

(d) Na+ increases membrane potential thereby increasing the rate of transport.
Ans. (a)
Sol. Glucose absorption is carried out by a membrane protein which is symporter by nature.
4. Digestion of ingested food can occur in two ways. Intracellular - by taking the food material inside the cell and
then breaking it using digestive enzymes (e.g. Amoeba). Extracellular - by secreting digestive enzymes, breaking
the molecules and transporting them inside the cell (e.g. Fungus).
What type of digestion is carried out in humans?
(a) Intracellular (b) Extracellular
(c) Mainly intracellular but partially extracellular (d) Mainly extracellular but partially intracellular.
Ans. (b)
Sol. Extracellular

1
5. Amytal is an inhibitor of Complex I involved in Electron Transport Chain (ETC). A cell free system was used to
study the effect of amytal on electron transport chain. What effect do you expect on the Electron Transport
Chain (ETC) system?
(a) Flow of electron will completely stop.
(b) There will be fewer electrons that will keep the ETC active.
(c) Electron flow through ETC will remain normal.
(d) Electrons will start flowing in reverse direction.
Ans. (b)
Sol. There will be fewer electrons that will keep the ETC active.
6. Three types of mouth parts in insects which are categorised based on the position of head with respect to the
long axis of the body and the direction of the mouth parts. These are depicted below, marked as 1, 2 and 3.
Match the three insects; X - Grasshopper; Y - Earwig; Z - Cicada with the correct type of the mouth parts.

1. 2. 3.

EN (a) X= 1, Y = 2, Z = 3
Ans. (c)
Sol. X = 2, Y= 1, Z = 3
7.
prognathous hypognathous
(c) X = 2, Y= 1, Z = 3
opisthognathous

(b) X = 2, Y = 3, Z = 1 (d) X= 1, Y = 3, Z = 2

Following is the reaction coordinate diagram for an enzyme (E) catalysed reaction using substrate (S) forming
product (P) through the Enzyme-substrate Complex (ES). In this context which of the following statements is
correct?

+
+
Free energy, G

LL
+ DG
+ DG + M
+ uncat
+
DG +
cat
S ES
P

Reaction coordinate
(a) Enzyme lowers the activation energy essential for the substrate to move to transition state
A

(b) Enzyme catalyzed reaction is a two-step reaction

(c) Enzyme provides energy to the substrate
(d) Enzyme helps the substrate to overcome the transition state faster to move to product state
Ans. (a)
Sol. Enzyme lowers the activation energy essential for the substrate to move to transition state
8. A turtle draws its head back into its shell when its shell is touched. After being touched repeatedly, however, the
turtle no longer withdraws its head. This behaviour is an example of:
(a) Conditioning (b) Habituation (c) Associative learning (d) Kinesis
Ans. (b)
Sol. Habituation

2
9. During mating season, the belly of three-spined stickleback fish becomes red. The male sticklebacks show
typical aggressive behaviour when they see a red-bellied male stickleback, or any red-coloured object in the
vicinity. Identify another example of this type of behaviour from the following:
(a) Sparrow chicks exposing their gape for begging food from parents
(b) Person regaining balance on losing his/her foothold .
(c) A dog sitting down on being pulled by the leash
(d) An earthworm burrowing deeper in the soil in daytime
Ans. (d)
Sol. An earthworm burrowing deeper in the soil in daytime
10. Studies have shown that the rate of respiration of an organism varies with fluctuations in temperature. Identify
the correct pairing of the curves I and II with the animals from the given options, respectively;.

60 Curve I
Respiratory movements per minute

40

EN 20

0
Curve II

5 10 15 20 25 30 35
Temperature (Celsius)
LL
Curve I Curve II
(a) Mackerel Fish Kangaroo
(b) Grizzly Bear Salmon fish
(c) Penguin Emu
(d) Seacow Komodo dragon
Ans. (a)
Sol. Mackerel Fish Kangaroo
11. Molecular machines present in the eukaryotic cell perform several functions to ensure the optimum functionality
of the cell and they are found in specific locations in the cell. A student had preparations of 3 such molecules -
A

Chaperonin; Spliceosome and calcium dependent kinases. The cellular locations wherein these molecules would
most predominantly be present respectively are:
(a) Nucleus; Cytoplasm; Nucleus (b) Cytoplasm; Mitochondria; Cytoplasm
(c) Nucleus; Cytoplasm; Cytoplasm (d) Cytoplasm; Nucleus; Cytoplasm
Ans. (d)
Sol. Cytoplasm; Nucleus; Cytoplasm
12. A zoologist was studying the nervous system of some organisms. She observed that specimen M showed presence
of a nerve net, N showed presence of ventral nerve cord with segmented ganglia and O showed a nerve ring
with radial nerves. Based on the observations, M , N and O most likely could respectively be:
(a) Mouse; lizard and squid (b) Planaria; squid and hydra
(c) Hydra; leech and sea star (d) Sea star; earthworm and squid
Ans. (c)
Sol. Hydra; leech and sea star
3
13. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is NOT prevalent in which of the following?
(a) Ovary (b) Testis (c) Adipose tissue (d) Pancreas
Ans. (d)
Sol. Pancreas
14. A protein contains 90 amino actids. During its synthesis how many times t-RNA gets attathed to the A-site of
ribosome?
(a) 30 (b) 90 (c) 89 (d) 270
Ans. (c)
Sol. 89
15. In the skeletal muscle cells, the calcium pump in the sarcoplasmic reticulum functions to:
(a) Maintain Ca2+ ions balance in the cytosol.
(b) Release Ca2+ ions in the cytosol and bringing about contraction of muscles.
(c) Collect Ca2+ ions back into sarcoplasmic reticulum and induce contraction of muscles.
(d) Induction of apoptosis in muscle cells.
Ans. (a)
Sol. Maintain Ca2+ ions balance in the cytosol.
16. A scientist wants to synthesize recombinant DNA. Identify the correct pair of enzymes that he will use to (i) Cut
the vector DNA and (ii) Seal the DNA after inserting the fragment of interest, respectively;
EN
Ans.
Sol.
17.
(a) Exonuclease and ligase
(c) Helicase and ligase
(d)
Endonuclease and ligase
(b) Helicase and Nuclease
(d) Endonuclease and ligase

The adjoining diagrams show the cross section of body of an invertebrate, through the middle region of the body.
Which of the following animals respectively, exhibit.these body forms?

Ectoderm Mesentery
Mesoderm Ectoderm
Endoderm
LL
Endoderm
Lumen Mesoderm Coelom

(i) (ii)

(a) (i) earthworm, (ii) cockroach (b) (i) cockroach (ii) Ascaris
(c) (i) planaria (ii) Tapeworm (d) (i) Planaria (ii) cockroach
Ans. (d)
Sol. (i) Planaria (ii) cockroach
A

18. Presence of two human traits X and Y were compared in the chimpanzee and hyena, a social carnivore. The
results obtained are shown below.
Trait Chimpanzee Hyena
X High Moderate
Y Rudimentary No
Traits X and Y are most likely and respectively the:
(a) tool making and bipedallocomotion (b) degree of intelligence and' tool making
(c) bipedallocomotion and cooperation in hunting (d) cooperation in hunting and degree of intelligence
Ans. (b)
Sol. Degree of intelligence and' tool making

4
19. A 65-year-old male admitted to the hospital showed symptoms like severe inflammatory response, kidney
dysfunction, low levels of Na+ and high levels of K+ in the body. Which part of his endocrine system most
probably must be impaired or dysfunctional?
(a) Hypothalamus (b) Adrenal cortex
(c) Adrenal medulla (d) Parathyroid gland
Ans. (b)
Sol. Adrenal cortex
20. Percent nitrogen in different components within the leaf of two plant species M and N is shown in the following
diagrams.

EN M and N most likely respectively indicate:

(a) C3 and C4 plants
(c) C3 and CAM plants
Ans. (b)
(b) Sun and Shade growing plants
(d) Plants with low and high water availability

Sol. Sun and Shade growing plants

21. Humans are able to smell L and D forms of the aromatic compound, carvone, distinctively because;
LL
(a) They bind to the same olfactory receptor but differently.
(b) The same olfactory receptor differentially forms unique complex with each isomer and triggers different
nerve impulses.
(c) Olfactory receptors are chiral and are distinct for each isomer.
(d) The enantiomer flips to attach with the same receptor at a different site.
Ans. (c)
Sol. Olfactory receptors are chiral and are distinct for each isomer.
22. An Ecological research centre had studied a population of grasshoppers that live in a grassland and feed on
A

grasses. A subpopulation of the same grasshoppers was observed to have access to a nearby forest where some
individuals of the population fed on toxic herbs. After several decades when the same grasshopper population
was studied again, it was observed that the grasshoppers that used to feed on toxic herbs in the forest were
breeding true within themselves, isolated from the original grassland opulation. The Ecologists could identify the
process as speciation. This is an example of which type ofspeciation?
(a) Peripatric (b) Allopatric (c) Sympatric (d) Parapatric
Ans. (a)
Sol. Peripatric
23. 100 bacterial cells are inoculated in a growth medium. Each cell takes 30 minutes to duplicate. Select the
number of cells present in the broth after 20 hours of incubation, assuming no cell death.
(a) 1014 (b) 1012 (c) 10112 (d) 10040
Ans. (a)
Sol. 1014
5
24. Effect of sea water acidification is shown in the following graph for four aquatic animals namely crustaceans,
echinoderms, fishes and molluscs.

The species belonging to R is most likely:

(a) Crustacean (b) Fish (c) Echinoderm (d) Mollusc
Ans. (b)

25.
EN
Sol. Fish
Different sites in the human body are listed with their partial pressure values of O 2 (pO2) and CO2 (pCO2) in the
following table. Identify the body sites represented by X, Y and Z.
Human
Body Site
pO2 pCO2

X 160 0.3
Y 104 40
Z < 40 > 45
(a) X - Exhaled air, Y - Alveolar capillaries, Z - Pulmonary vein
(b) X - Inhaled air, Y - Pulmonary Vein, Z - Tissues
LL
(c) X - Inhaled air, Y - Systemic arteries, Z - Pulmonary arteries
(d) X - Inhaled air, Y - Alveolar space, Z - Pulmonary arteries
Ans. (d)
Sol. X - Inhaled air, Y - Alveolar space, Z - Pulmonary arteries
26. Recombination frequency between some genes is B – D > A – C > A – B. What could be the sequence of these
genes on a chromosome?
(a) D-B-C-A (b) B-A-C-D (c) D-A-B-C (d) C-A-B-D
A

Ans. (b)
Sol. B-A-C-D
27. During complete oxidation of substrate X to CO2 and H2O, a total of 110 H+ ions were transported out across
the inner mitochondrial membrane. If 4 H+ ions are sent back to generate one ATP, calculate the number of
ATPs generated and NADH oxidized (Assume that FADH2 is NOT involved).
(a) 11 NADH and 28 ATPs (c) 11 NADH and 38 ATPs
(b) 10 NADH and 32 ATPs (d) 10 NADH and 28 ATPs
Ans. (a)
Sol. 11 NADH and 28 ATPs

6
28. Cells P, Q and R are mutants for enzymes x, y and z respectively. These enzymes are involved in the biosynthesis
of the same amino acid. When P, Q and R were co-cultured in a plate lacking the amino acid, strains P and Q
grew while R did not. When P and Q were eo-cultured, Q grew while P did not. Find the sequence of the
enzymes involved in the biosynthesis pathway of the amino acid.
(a) z,y,x (b) x,y,z (c) y,z,x (d) y,x,z
Ans. (d)
Sol. y,x,z
29. Fresh leaves from two different plant species M and N were separately treated with sucrose solution to observe
the stomatal status. This treatment was done (i) in the presence of light and (ii) in the absence of light. Following
observations were recorded.

Leaf M Leaf N
Before sucrose After sucrose Before sucrose After sucrose
treatment treatment treatment treatment
In presence of
Stomata open Stomata closed Stomata closed Stomata closed
light
In the absence

EN of light
Stomata closed

(a) M & N are both dicots

(c) M is a C-3 plant; N is a CAM plant
Ans. (c)
Sol. M is a C-3 plant; N is a CAM plant
Stomata closed Stomata open

If osmosis is assumed to be absent, which of the following statements is TRUE?

Stomata closed

(b) M is a C-4 plant

(d) M is a CAM plant; N is a C-4 plant

30. Which of the following statements about Ubiquinone is WRONG?

(a) It is an iron containing protein like cytochrome.
LL
(b) It is a small hydrophobic molecule.
(c) It is a eo-enzyme.
(d) It is not a protein.
Ans. (a)
Sol. It is an iron containing protein like cytochrome.
31. Which of the following statements is correct about the Go phase of the cell cycle?
(a) 'The Go phase arrests the cell division and does not allow it to continue cell division ever agam.
(b) Once cells come out of the G0 phase, they directly start DNA synthesis.
A

(c) The G0 phase is a preparatory phase.

(d) Cells enter the G1 phase post the G0 phase
Ans. (d)
Sol. Cells enter the G1 phase post the G0 phase
32. In corn plants, a dominant allele 'I' inhibits kernel colour expression, while the recessive allele 'i' in homozygous
condition permits colour expression. At a different locus, the dominant allele 'P' controls purple kernel colour
while homozygous recessive genotype 'pp' creats red kernels. If plants heterozygous at both loci are crossed
what will be the phenotypic ratio of purple : red : colourless?
(a) 3:1:12 (b) 12:4:0 (c) 9:4:3 (d) 3:4:9
Ans. (a)
Sol. 3:1:12

7
33. A man with haemophilia (a recessive sex linked condition) has a daughter of normal phenotype. She marries a
man who is not haemophilic. If the married couple has four sons, what is the possibility that all four will be
haemophilic?
(a) 1/4 (b) 1/32 (c) 1/16 (d) 1/8
Ans. (c)
Sol. 1/16
34. The distribution of some mushroom communities in two habitats I and II are shown in the given figures.

Which of the following statements regarding these habitats is correct?

(a) Habitat I has greater species richness than II.
EN (b) Habitat II has a more even distribution of species than I.
(c) Habitat II has greater species evenness than I.
(d) Habitat I is more diverse than II.
Ans. (d)
Sol. Habitat I is more diverse than II.
35. Note the following processes:
i. Mutation
ii. Recombination
iii. Post-translational modifications
LL
iv. Crossing over during meiosis
v. Alternative splicing of RNA transcripts.
According to the findings of Human Genome Project, there are about 25000 genes; but there is evidence for
greater number of different polypeptides. Which of the above-mentioned processes might explain the discrepancy
between the number of genes and the number of polypeptides?
(a) i and ii (b) iii and v (c) i, ii and iv (d) All of the above
Ans. (b)
A

Sol. iii and v

36. Cells of the lower layers of human skin divide and replace dead cells. Why it is not correct to say that they are
similar to plant meristem? Choose the correct reason from the following options.
(a) They are devoid of any cell wall.
(b) They are not isodiametric in shape.
(c) They can replace original cells only and not any other cell types.
(d) They divide by astral mitosis and show the presence of centriole.
Ans. (c)
Sol. They can replace original cells only and not any other cell types.

8
37. Thymus gland is always the preferred gland for DNA extraction because:
(a) Being a soft gland, extraction can be easily done.
(b) Being a vestigial organ in adults, it can be easily used for extraction.
(c) The majority of cells in the gland are lymphocytes which have the greatest ratio of nucleus to cytoplasm.
(d) The number of dividing cells in the gland at any given point of time is always high.
Ans. (c)
Sol. The majority of cells in the gland are lymphocytes which have the greatest ratio of nucleus to cytoplasm.
38. The TCA cycle is an amphibolic pathway. Anaplerotic reactions are such metabolic pathways that replenish
TCA cycle intermediates when they leak away from the cycle. The leakage of Oxaloacetate from the TCA cycle
forms which of the following?
(a) orphyrins (b) Pyrimidines (c) Acetyl CoA (d) Mannose
Ans. (b)
Sol. Pyrimidines
39. Observe the picture given below. It is a cross section of a leaf of an herbaceous perineal plant and the bar is
equivalent to 35mm. 'pa' represents parenchyma, 'vb' represents vascular bundles, and 'g' represents glandular
hair.

EN
Which of the following respectively represent I and II marked in the picture?
LL
(Choose the most appropriate one):
(a) Adaxial epidermis and abaxial ectoderm (b) Endodermis and Epidermis
(c) Abaxial epidermis and adaxial epidermis (d) Lower ectoderm and Upper ectoderm
Ans. (c)
Sol. Abaxial epidermis and adaxial epidermis
40. A cross section of a petiole as seen under the light microscope and its schematic diagram is given below. From
the anatomical characteristics seen, identify the correct statement from the following;
A

(a) The presence of empty spaces in parenchyma indicates a dying petiole.

(b) The thick epidermis indicates the plant to be found in highly saline areas.
(c) The dense vascular bundles to the periphery indicate the plant to be from an arid zone.
(d) Air filled spaces indicate the plant can survive in low oxygen areas.
Ans. (c)
Sol. The dense vascular bundles to the periphery indicate the plant to be from an arid zone.

9
41. It is observed that plant 'M' requires 3000 ATPs and 1200 NADPH2 for synthesis of starch; while the plant 'N'
requires 1800 ATPs and 1200 NADPH2 to synthesise same amount of starch. Plant 'M' and 'N' respectively
could be:
(a) Sorghum and sugarcane (b) Rice and Tomato
(c) Maize and Wheat (d) A tropical plant and a succulent xerophyte.
Ans. (c)
Sol. Maize and Wheat
42. In one of the bacterium of Acetobacter family, it was found that the enzyme, succinate CoA-synthetase was
absent. The bacteria are, however, useful in the production of vinegar since they uye an alternate enzyme. In
this context, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) These bacteria appear to have adapted to utilize the abundant citrate in its environment.
(b) These bacteria appear to have adapted to utilize the abundant lactate in its environment.
(c) These bacteria appear to have adapted to utilize the abundant acetate in its environment.
(d) These bacteria appear to have adapted to utilize the abundant nitrate in its environment.
Ans. (c)
Sol. These bacteria appear to have adapted to utilize the abundant acetate in its environment.
43. Lagomorphs like rabbit are caecal fermenters and they produce faecal pellets from caecum. In this context,
identify from the following, the most appropriate statement that explains this adaptation;
EN (a) The fibre digestion takes place in the caecum using microbes that are live in the caecum
(b) They produce soft faeces containing nutrients from the cecum, in the night, which they eat again.
(c) They cannot chew the cud like bovines but they retain food in caecum for a long time to digest the fibre.
(d) They produce faeces only in the daytime and allow food to remain within the gut overnight to allow digestion
of fibres.
Ans. (b)
Sol. They produce soft faeces containing nutrients from the cecum, in the night, which they eat again.
44. The image shows a unique characteristic seen in a group of arthropods. The arrows point to which of the
following?
LL

(a) Segmental Gills (b) Segmental Spiracles (c) Book lungs (d) Segmental tracheae
Ans. (c)
Sol. Book lungs
45. An individual taking a leisurely walk in the forest trips over a rattlesnake leading to instant changes in the
A

physiology. A few possible changes are listed below:

(i) Epinephrine binds to receptors in liver and on fat cells.
(ii) The nervous system stimulates endocrine cells in the adrenal gland.
(iii) Binding of epinephrine leads to decreased beating of heart
(iv) Glycogen formation increases.
(v) Blood vessels in the digestive tract constrict.
(vi) Pumping of blood increases.
The changes that would occur in the given situation are:
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) and (vi) (b) (ii), (iv) and (vi) (c) (i), (ii), (v) and (vi) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Ans. (c)
Sol. (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)
10
46. A cell suspension has a concentration of 1012 cells/mL. An analyst diluted the suspension to a concentration of
106 cells/mL. How much reduction in concentration did the analyst achieve?
(a) 50% (b) 6 log (c) 5 log (d) 2 log
Ans. (b)
Sol. 6 log
47. Following is the diagram representing transport of hydrophilic molecules across the membrane, mediated through
transporter protein. What can you conclude from the given diagram?

EN (a) Transporter protein irreversibly converts the substrate to a transportable form.

(b) Transporter protein increases the free energy (G) for transmembrane diffusion of the solute.
(c) Transporter protein provides a hydrophobic passageway for the movement of molecules.
(d) Transporter protein removes the hydration shell and prepares the molecule to move across the membrane.
LL
Ans. (d)
Sol. Transporter protein removes the hydration shell and prepares the molecule to move across the membrane.
48. In an experiment, different cultures of a Spirogyra sps were exposed to a single spectrum of light from different
spectral regions in the visible light using specific filters. Aerobic bacterial cells were also added to these cultures.
The abundance of bacterial cells (black dots '·'), in each of the different cultures, against the visible spectrum
(wavelengths in nm) is shown in the following diagrammatic presentation:
Select the correct conclusion from the statements given below:
A

(a) Green light leads to increased oxygen production. (b) Green light is absorbed maximum by Spirogyra sps.
(c) Red light results in maximum oxygen production. (d) Bacterial cells absorb red light.
Ans. (c)
Sol. Red light results in maximum oxygen production.

11
 ANY NUMBER OF OPTIONS (4,3,2 or 1) MAY BE CORRECT
MARKS WILL BE AWARDED ONLY IF ALL THE CORRECT OPTIONS ARE BUBBLED AND NO
INCORRECT.
49. Enzymes from Hyperthermophiles, which grow optimally at temperatures between 80°C and 110°C show
unique structure-function properties of high thermostability and optimal activity at temperatures above 70°C.
The figure below illustrates the Hydrogen-deuterium exchange recorded in Sulfolobus acidocaldarius and porcine
muscle cytosol adenylate kinases observed during a temperature gradient experiment.

EN Which of the following statements are correct in this context?

(a) At 20°C a much smaller fraction of the amide protons in S. acidocaldarius adenylate kinase are exchanged
than in the porcine cytosolic enzyme indicating that more amide protons are involved in stable hydrogen
bonds in the thermophilic enzyme.
(b) Lesser rigidity explains why hyperthermophilic enzymes are often inactive at low temperatures (i.e., around
20 to 37°C).
(c) Hyperthermophilic enzymes are less rigid than their mesophilic homologues at mesophilic temperatures
and that rigidity is a prerequisite for high protein thermostability.
(d) Temperatures of greater than 90°C are needed before S. acidocaldarius adenylate kinase can show an
LL
exchange level as compared to the catalytically active mesophilic enzyme.
Ans. NA
Sol. NA
50. Which of the following are TRUE about the peroxisomes found in yeast?
(a) They are not very active when yeast is cultured in the presence of glucose.
(b) They can multiply only by fission.
(c) They are very active when yeast is cultured in the presence of methanol.
(d) They grow in size by incorporating proteins and lipids synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum .
A

Ans. (a,b,c,d)
Sol. They are not very active when yeast is cultured in the presence of glucose.
They can multiply only by fission.
They are very active when yeast is cultured in the presence of methanol.
They grow in size by incorporating proteins and lipids synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum .
51. The C4 plants have relatively more efficient photosynthetic machinery. This may be attributed to;
(a) PEP carboxylase that has a higher affinity for CO2 and no affinity for O2.
(b) The entire dark reaction being carried inside a single cell type.
(c) CO2 being concentrated in bundle sheath cells at the expense of ATP.
(d) Fixing of CO2 even under low CO2 concentration.
Ans. (a, d)

12
Sol. PEP carboxylase that has a higher affinity for CO2 and no affinity for O2.
Fixing of CO2 even under low CO2 concentration.
52. Secondary succession is seen in forests that are affected by fires. The following graphic presentation compares
post-fire recovery of vegetation in slopes and valleys against the recovery time in years.

EN Which of the following is/are correct?

(a) The recovery along the slopes is faster during the middle stage of succession after fire as compared to
valley.
(b) The recovery along the slopes is slower during the middle stages of succession after fire as compared to
valley.
(c) The succession sets in faster along the valley than the slope after fire.
(d) The succession sets in slower along the valley than the slope after fire.
Ans. (a, c)
Sol. The recovery along the slopes is faster during the middle stage of succession after fire as compared to valley.
LL
The succession sets in faster along the valley than the slope after fire.
53. Ecosystems consist ofpopulations of different species which constantly interact with each other. A few such
interactions (P, Q, R and S) are depicted below.
P1 and P2 = Producer or Prey, H1 = Herbivore and C1 and C2 = Carnivore.
P Q R S
C1

C1 C2 C1 C1 C2
A

P1 P1 P2 H1

P1 P2

P1
Which of the following is/are correct description/s of these interactions?
(a) Indirect mutualism between C1 and P1 in S.
(b) Apparent competition between P1 and P2 in Q.
(c) Commensalism between C1 and C2 in P.
(d) Indirect mutualism between C1 and C2 in R.
Ans. (a, b)

13
Sol. Indirect mutualism between C1 and P1 in S.
Apparent competition between P1 and P2 in Q.
54. Which of the following is true about protein translocation?·
(a) Ribosomes can recognize the signal sequence in the protein and dock them on endoplasmic reticulum (ER).
(b) Protein translocation into the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) takes place simultaneously along with translation.
(c) A fully folded protein can enter the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) from the cytosol.
(d) Protein synthesis may involve free ribosomes, which are eventually docked to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER).
Ans. (a, d)
Sol. Ribosomes can recognize the signal sequence in the protein and dock them on endoplasmic reticulum (ER).
Protein synthesis may involve free ribosomes, which are eventually docked to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER).
55. Nereis is a worm that burrows in the floor of brackish estuaries. Its head and anterior segments protrude from
the burrow to feed on the surface around the burrow. During feeding a variety of stimuli induce the worm to jerk
back into its burrow. For an experimental study, a behavioural scientist could easily get the worms to live in glass
tubes in shallow basins of water. He recorded the retracting response of the worms when two types of stimuli -
a moving shadow and mechanical shock by jarring of the basin were given to the worms at 1 min intervals. The
results obtained for the experimental set ups (I and II) are shown where response to both stimuli are studied in set
up I while that to only one stimulus is studied in set up II.

EN
LL
A

Which of the following statements is/are true with reference to the results obtained?
(a) Response in IA represents habituation while that in IIC represents sensitization.
(b) Habituation is always faster for a moving shadow stimulus than that for a mechanical shock stimulus.
(c) Sensory adaptation is always a permanent adaptation.
(d) Habituation to moving shadow stimulus is independent of the response to mechanical stimulus.
Ans. (b)
Sol. Habituation is always faster for a moving shadow stimulus than that for a mechanical shock stimulus.

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56. The mechanosensory lateral-line system in fishes consists of thousands of neuromast sensory cells distributed
across the body of the animal. In nature, the larvae of Zebra fish (Danio rerio) are generally predated by fish
which use suction pressure to catch them. For an experiment 2 groups of larvae were prepared. One groups
was 'caudal neuromasts ablated' (CNA) while the other one was 'middle neuromasts ablated' (MNA). These
larvae were exposed to mild suction pressure created in water. As they tried to avoid the suction current, the
positions of the two groups of larvae were recorded from the start to finish of the experiment. These recordings
were plotted as shown in the figure below.
[Note: The suction source is located at the origin of the coordinate system]

EN Which of the following are the correct interpretations?

(a) The larvae with caudal neuromasts ablated are more efficient in avoiding the suction as compared to the
larvae with middle neuroblasts ablated.
(b) The larvae with middle neuromasts ablated are more efficient in avoiding the suction as compared to the
LL
larvae with caudal neuroblasts ablated.
(c) It may be deduced that both the location and number of neuromasts play a role in detecting a continuous
suction source.
(d) It may be deduced that only the location ofneuromasts play a role in detecting a continuous suction source.
Ans. (b)
Sol. The larvae with middle neuromasts ablated are more efficient in avoiding the suction as compared to the larvae
with caudal neuroblasts ablated.
57. Proline is normally absent in membrane proteins. The possible reason(s) for this can be:
A

(a) It is a hydrophobic amino acid.

(b) It is unable to attain the required protein conformation.
(c) It causes kinks in a-helices.
(d) It forms peptide bond as an amide and its nitrogen is not bound to any hydrogen.
Ans. (a,c,d)
Sol. It is a hydrophobic amino acid.
It causes kinks in a-helices.
It forms peptide bond as an amide and its nitrogen is not bound to any hydrogen.
58. 2,6-Dichlorophenolindophenolate (DCPIP), an electron acceptor, turns colourless from blue colour when it is
added to a suspension containing mitochondria. What does this indicate?
(a) DCPIP is getting oxidized. (b) DCPIP is getting reduced.
(c) ETC carried out by mitochondria is leaky. (d) DCPIP acts as a respiratory substrate.

15
Ans. (b, c)
Sol. DCPIP is getting reduced.
ETC carried out by mitochondria is leaky.
59. In Batesian kind of mimicry a harmless animal (mimic) mimics a distasteful or poisonous animal / (model) while
in Mullerian type of mimicry, two related or unrelated distasteful or poisonous animals develop similar appearance.
Which of the following statements about these types of mimicp are true?
(a) Mullerian mimicry benefits both prey and predator.
(b) Batesian mimicry is a type of mutualistic relationship.
(c) Batesian mimicry is an example of divergent evolution while Mullerian mimicry is an example of convergent
evolution.
(d) It is essential to have a common predator for Mullerian mimicry to evolve.
Ans. (d)
Sol. It is essential to have a common predator for Mullerian mimicry to evolve.
60. Salt glands in Penguins are located at the top of the skull in' a depression above the eye. The figure below
depicts the relationship between relative salt gland depression size and percent fish in the diet of 10 penguin
species. Relative salt gland depression size was calculated as the log10 of depression surface area divided by
cranial size index. Percentage of fish in diet was calculated using weighted mean percentage of fish consumed
by a penguin species.

EN
LL

Which of the following statements are correct?

A

(a) Larger salt gland depressions correlating with a diet high, in hyposmotic fish and smaller salt gland depressions
correlating with a diet high in isosmotic marine invertebrates.
(b) Larger salt gland depressions correlating with a diet high in isosmotic marine invertebrates, and smaller salt
gland depressions correlating with a diet high in hypoosmotic fish.
(c) Adelie penguin (P. adeliae) an outlier probably because they recently shifted from a mostlykrill to a mostly-
fish diet.
(d) Adelie penguin (P. adeliae) is an outlier probably because they recently shifted from a mostly-fish to a mostly-
krill diet.
Ans. (b)
Sol. Larger salt gland depressions correlating with a diet high in isosmotic marine invertebrates, and smaller salt
gland depressions correlating with a diet high in hypoosmotic fish.

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