64 AIIMS EXPLORER

MODEL TEST PAPER

Time : 3½ hours.
3
Maximum Marks : 200

PHYSICS 0.5 A current in the middle of a long solenoid of

103 turns per m carrying 3 A current, with its
1. From the top of a tower, a particle is thrown
axis perpendicular to the axis of the solenoid,
vertically downwards with a velocity of 10 m s–1.
is
The ratio of the distances covered by it in the 3rd
(a) 12p × 10–7 N m (b) 6p × 10–7 N m
and 2nd seconds of its motion is (Take g = 10 m s–2)
(c) 4p × 10–7 N m (d) 2p × 10–7 N m
(a) 7 : 5 (b) 3 : 4 (c) 4 : 3 (d) 6 : 5
7. The length of a second pendulum is 1 m on the
2. The area enclosed by a circle of diameter 1.06 m
Earth. If the mass and diameter of a planet is
to correct number of significant figures is
double than that of the Earth, then the length
(a) 0.88 m2 (b) 0.088 m2
2 of second pendulum on the planet becomes
(c) 0.882 m (d) 0.530 m2
(a) 1 m (b) 2 m (c) 0.5 m (d) 4 m
3. A 40 kg slab rests on a frictionless floor. A 10 kg
8. Work done in increasing the size of a soap
block rests on top of the slab. The static
bubble from a radius of 3 cm to 5 cm is nearly
coefficient of friction between the block and
the slab is 0.60 while the kinetic coefficient of (surface tension of soap solution is 0.03 N m–1)
friction is 0.40. The 10 kg block is acted upon (a) 0.4p mJ (b) 4p mJ
by a horizontal force of 100 N. If g = 9.8 m s–2, (c) 0.2p mJ (d) 2p mJ
the resulting acceleration of the slab will be 9. An ideal gas undergoes cyclic process ABCDA
as shown in given P-V diagram.

(a) 1.47 m s–2 (b) 1.69 m s–2

(c) 9.8 m s–2 (d) 0.98 m s–2
4. An infinite non-conducting sheet has a
surface charge density s = 0.1 mC m–2 on one
side. How far apart are equipotential surfaces
whose potentials differ by 50 V?
(a) 8.86 mm (b) 8.8 mm
(c) 8.8 cm (d) 8.8 pm The amount of work done by the gas is
(a) 6P0V0 (b) –2P0V0
5. Two wires of same metal have the same length (c) 2P0V0 (d) 4P0V0
but their cross sections are in the ratio 3 : 1.
They are joined in series. The resistance of the 10. A stretched string of length 1 m and mass
thicker wire is 10 W. The total resistance of the 5 × 10–4 kg, fixed at both ends, is under a tension
combination is of 20 N. If it is plucked at points situated at
5 40 25 cm from one end, it would vibrate with a
(a) W (b) W (c) 40 W (d) 100 W frequency
2 3
6. The torque required to hold a small circular (a) 400 Hz (b) 200 Hz
coil of 10 turns, 2 × 10–4 m2 area and carrying (c) 100 Hz (d) 256 Hz
Model Test Paper - 3 65

11. A body of mass 5 kg is moving with a 17. In a plane electromagnetic wave electric field
momentum of 10 kg m s–1. A force of 0.2 N varies with time having an amplitude 1 V m–1.
acts on it in the direction of motion of body for The frequency of wave is 0.5 × 1015 Hz. The
10 s. The increase in its kinetic energy is wave propagation is along x-axis. What is the
(a) 2.8 J (b) 3.2 J (c) 3.8 J (d) 4.4 J average energy density of magnetic field?
12. One quarter sector is cut from (a) 1.1 × 10–12 J m–3 (b) 2.2 × 10–12 J m–3
a uniform circular disc of mass (c) 3.3 × 10–12 J m–3 (d) 4.4 × 10–12 J m–3
M and radius R, as shown in 18. If a star convert all the He nuclei completely
figure. It is made to rotate into oxygen nuclei, the energy released per
about a line perpendicular to oxygen nucleus is [Mass of He nucleus is
its plane and passing through 4.0026 and mass of Oxygen nucleus is 15.9994
the center of the original disc. amu]
Its moment of inertia about the (a) 7.6 MeV (b) 56.12 MeV
axis of rotation is
(c) 10.24 MeV (d) 23.9 MeV
1
(a) 1 MR2 (b) MR2
19. If a Zener diode (VZ = 5 V and IZ = 10 mA)
2 4
1 is connected in series with a resistance and
(c) MR2 (d) 2 MR 2 20 V is applied across the combination, then
8
the maximum resistance one can use without
13. A ball is projected upwards from the top of
spoiling Zener action is
tower with a velocity 50 m s–1 making an angle
30° with the horizontal. The height of tower is (a) 20 kW (b) 15 kW (c) 10 kW (d) 1.5 kW
70 m. After how many seconds the ball reach 20. If the rms current in a 50 Hz ac circuit is 5 A,
the ground? the value of the current (1/300) seconds after
(a) 5 s (b) 12 s (c) 7 s (d) 15 s its value becomes zero is
14. The bob of a simple pendulum is of mass 10 g. (a) 5 2 A (b) 5 3 / 2 A
It is suspended with a thread of 1 m. If we hold (c) 5/6 A (d) 5 / 2 A
the bob so as to stretch the string horizontally 21. A 150 ohm resistor and an inductance L are
and release it, what will be the tension at the connected in series to a 200 V, 50 Hz source
lowest position ? (Take, g = 10 m s–2) of negligible impedance. The current comes to
(a) zero (b) 0.1 N (c) 0.3 N (d) 1.0 N 1.0 A. When the source is changed to 400 V,
15. A ray of light moves from denser to rarer 100 Hz, the current will be
medium. Which of the following is correct? (a) less than 1.0 A
(a) Energy increases (b) 1.0 A
(b) Frequency increases (c) between 1 A and 2 A
(c) Phase change by 90° (d) between 4 A and 2 A
(d) Velocity increases
22. A bar magnet of length 3 cm has points A and
16. A beam of light of wavelength 600 nm from B along its axis at distances of 24 cm and 48 cm
a distant source falls on a single slit 1 mm on the opposite sides as shown in figure.
wide and the resulting diffraction pattern is
observed on a screen 2 m away. The distance
between the first dark fringes on either side of
the central bright fringe is
Ratio of magnetic fields at these points will be
(a) 1.2 cm (b) 1.2 mm
(a) 8 (b) 1/2 (c) 3 (d) 4
(c) 2.4 cm (d) 2.4 mm
66 AIIMS EXPLORER

23. In the part of a circuit shown in figure, the 29. Two discs of the same material and thickness
potential difference between points G and have radii 0.2 m and 0.6 m. Their moments of
H will be inertia about the axes will be in the ratio
(a) 1 : 81 (b) 1 : 27
(c) 1 : 9 (d) 1 : 3
30. A stone is dropped into a lake from a tower
500 m high. The sound of the splash will be
heard at the top of the tower approximately
after a time of (take velocity of sound in air
= 330 m s–1)
(a) 0 V (b) 12 V
(a) 11.5 s (b) 1.5 s
(c) 7 V (d) 3V
(c) 10 s (d) 14 s
24. Light of frequency u falls on material of
31. An electron is moving with an initial velocity
threshold frequency u0. Maximum kinetic  
v = v0i and is in a magnetic field B = B0 j. Then
energy of emitted electron is proportional to
its de Broglie wavelength
(a) u – u0 (b) u
(a) remains constant
(c) υ − υ0 (d) u0
(b) increases with time
25. A 12 W resistor and a 0.21 H inductor are (c) decreases with time
connected in series to an ac source operating at (d) increases and decreases periodically
20 V, 50 cycle. The phase angle between the
32. The half-life of a radioactive substance is
current and the source voltage is
40 years. How long will it take to reduce to
(a) 30° (b) 40° (c) 80° (d) 90°
one-fourth of its original amount and what is
26. If the frequency of the source is doubled in the value of decay constant respectively?
Young’s double slit experiment, then initial (a) 90 years, 0.917 per year
fringe width (b) will become (b) 40 years, 0.9173 per year
β (c) 80 years, 0.0173 per year
(a) unchanged (b) (d) none of these
2
(c) 2b (d) 3b 33. Application of a forward bias to a p-n junction
(a) increases the number of donors on the
27. A block of mass 2 kg is placed on the floor. The
n-side
coefficient of static friction is 0.4. If a force of
(b) increases the electric field in the depletion
2.8 N is applied on the block parallel to floor,
zone
the force of friction between the block and
(c) increases the potential difference across
floor is
the depletion zone
(Take, g = 10 m s–2) is
(d) widens the depletion zone.
(a) 2.8 N (b) 8 N
(c) 2 N (d) zero 34. A prism is filled with a liquid of refractive
28. A player caught a cricket ball of mass 150 g index of 2. If angle of prism is 60°, the angle
moving at a rate of 20 m s–1. If the catching of minimum deviation is
process is completed in 0.1 s, the force of the (a) 75° (b) 60° (c) 45° (d) 30°
blow exerted by the ball on the hand of the 35. In the relation, y = rsin(wt + kx), the
player is equal to dimensional formula for kx or wt is same as
(a) 150 N (b) 3 N (a) r/w (b) r/y
(c) 30 N (d) 300 N (c) wt/r (d) yr/wt
Model Test Paper - 3 67

36. The velocity of a particle at an instant is 10 m s–1. (a) If both assertion and reason are true
After 3 s its velocity will become 16 m s–1. The and reason is the correct explanation of
velocity at 2 s, before the given instant will be assertion.
(a) 6 m s–1 (b) 4 m s–1 (b) If both assertion and reason are true but
–1
(c) 2 m s (d) 1 m s–1 reason is not the correct explanation of
37. A circular disc of mass M and radius R is assertion.
rotating with an angular velocity w about an axis (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
passing through its centre and perpendicular (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
to the plane of the disc. A small point like part 41. Assertion : Temperature of real gases often
of mass m detaches from the rim of the disc changes when undergoing a free expansion
and continues to move with same angular under adiabatic condition whereas that of an
speed. The angular velocity of remaining disc ideal gas does not.
just after detaching will become Reason : First law of thermodynamics holds
 M − 2m   M + 2m  for ideal gas only.
(a)  ω (b)  ω
M+m  M+m  42. Assertion : Frictional forces are conservative
 M + 2m  forces.
(c)  M − 2m  ω (d)  ω Reason : Potential energy can be associated
 M−m  M−m 
38. The point charges Q and –2Q are placed with frictional forces.
some distance apart. If the electric field at the 43. Assertion : The combination of y = sinwt + cos2wt
location of Q is E, then the electrical field at the is not a simple harmonic function even thought
location of –2Q will be it is periodic.
(a) –E/2 (b) –3E/2 (c) –E (d) –2E Reason : All periodic functions satisfy the
39. A cell of emf 1.5 V and internal resistance 2 W d2 y
relation = − ky.
is connected to two resistors of 5 W and 8 W in dt 2
series. The potential difference across the 5 W 44. Assertion : A cloth covers a table. Some dishes
resistor will be are kept on it. The cloth can be pulled out
(a) 3.3 V (b) 1 V (c) 0.5 V (d) 0.33 V without dislodging the dishes from the table.
40. An electron is projected with uniform velocity Reason : For every action there is an equal and
along the axis of a current carrying long opposite reaction.
solenoid. Which of the following statement 45. Assertion : An electron moves from a region of
about this is true? lower potential to a region of higher potential.
(a) The electron will be accelerated along the Reason : An electron has a negative charge.
axis.
46. Assertion : A 60 W - 220 V bulb glows
(b) The electron’s path will be circular about
more than a 100 W - 220 V bulb when they
the axis.
are connected in series across a potential
(c) The electron will experience a force at 45°
difference.
to the axis and hence execute a helical
Reason : When they are connected in series,
path.
resistance of 100 W bulb will be more.
(d) The electron will continue to move with
uniform velocity along the axis of the 47. Assertion : An emf e is induced in a closed
solenoid. loop where magnetic flux is varied. The induced

Directions : In the following questions (41-60), a electric field E is not a conservative field.
 
statement of assertion is followed by a statement of Reason : The line integral of E ⋅ dl around the
reason. Mark the correct choice as closed loop is non-zero.
68 AIIMS EXPLORER

48. Assertion : If an electron and proton 55. Assertion : 90Sr from radioactive fallout from
possessing same kinetic energy enter an a nuclear bomb ends up in the bones of human
electric field in a perpendicular direction, the beings through the milk consumed by them.
path of the electron is more curved than that of It causes impairment of the production of red
the proton. blood cells.
Reason : Electron forms a larger curve due to Reason : The energetic b-particles emitted in
its small mass. the decay of 90Sr damage the bone marrow.
49. Assertion : The centre of mass of an electron 56. Assertion : In a common-base configuration,
and proton, when released moves faster the current gain of transistor is less than unity.
towards proton. Reason : The collector terminal is reverse
Reason : This is because proton is heavier. biased for amplification.

50. Assertion : Generally the path of a projectile 57. Assertion : When two soap bubble’s of different
from the Earth is parabolic but it is elliptical radii are brought into contact, the common
interface of contact bulges into the bubble of
for projectile going to a very great height.
larger radii.
Reason : Upto ordinary height the projectile
Reason : Pressure inside a soap bubble of
moves under a uniform gravitational force,
lesser radius is more than pressure inside a
but for great heights, projectile moves under a
soap bubble of larger radius.
variable force.
58. Assertion : For a system of particles under
51. Assertion : Improper banking of roads causes central force field, the total angular momentum
wear and tear of tyres. is conserved.
Reason : The necessary centripetal force in Reason : The torque acting on such a system is
that event is provided by the force of friction zero
between the tyres and the road.
59. Assertion : If a charged particle is released
52. Assertion : The relative velocity between from rest in a region of uniform electric and
any two bodies may be equal to sum of the magnetic fields parallel to each other, it will
velocities of two bodies. move in a straight line.
Reason : Sometimes, relative velocity between Reason : The electric field exerts no force on
two bodies may be equal to difference in the particle but the magnetic field does.
velocities of the two. 60. Assertion : A rocket moves forward by
53. Assertion : A double convex lens (m = 1.5) pushing the surrounding air backwards.
has focal length 10 cm. When the lens is Reason : It derives the necessary thrust to
immersed in water (m = 4/3), its focal length move forward according to Newton’s third law
becomes 40 cm. of motion.
1  µ g − µa   1 1 CHEMISTRY
Reason : =  −
f  µ a   R1 R2 
61. The correct order of acidic strength of the
54. Assertion : Work function of aluminium is following compounds is
4.2 eV. Emission of electrons will not be CH3CH2CH2COOH; NCCH2COOH;
possible if two photons, each of energy 2.5 eV,    I II

strike an electron of aluminium. CH2 CH—CH2—COOH

Reason : For photoelectric emission, the III
energy of each photon should be greater than (a) I < II < III (b) I < III < II
the work function of aluminium. (c) III < II < I (d) II < I < III
Model Test Paper - 3 69

62. An isotone of 76
32Ge is 69. The bond energies in NO, NO+ and NO– follow
(a) 77
32Ge (b) 77
34Se (c) 77
33As (d) 76
34Se
the order
63. A conductivity cell has a cell constant of 0.5 cm–1. (a) NO+ > NO > NO– (b) NO > NO+ > NO–
This cell when filled with 0.01 M NaCl solution (c) NO– > NO > NO+ (d) NO+ > NO– > NO
has a resistance of 384 ohms at 25 °C. Calculate 70. Which of the following pairs of complexes shows
the equivalent conductance of the given d2sp3 hybridisation and is paramagnetic in
solution. nature?
(a) 130.2 W–1 cm2 (g eq)–1 [Fe(CN)6]4–[Co(CN)6]4– [Fe(CN)6]3– [Co(H2O)6]3+
(b) 137.4 W–1 cm2 (g eq)–1 I II III IV
(c) 154.6 W–1 cm2 (g eq)–1 (a) II and III (b) I and IV
(d) 169.2 W–1 cm2 (g eq)–1 (c) I and III (d) II and IV
64. In the following reaction, the final product is 71. Which amine amongst the following will
answer positively the carbylamine test?

(a) C6H5—NH—CH3 (b)

(a) (b) (c) C6H5—NH—C4H9 (d) C6H5—N(C2H5)2

72. Which of the following reactions produces
(c) (d) hydrogen?
(a) Mg + H2O (b) H2S2O8 + H2O
65. One atmospheric pressure is equal to (c) BaO2 + HCl (d) Na2O2 + 2HCl
1.01 × 105 Nm–2 76 cm Hg 73. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
   I  II
(a) t1/2 ∝ a, for zero order reaction.
760 torr 760 mm Hg
  III   IV (b) t1/2 is independent of a, for first order
(a) I, II only (b) III, IV only reaction.
(c) II, III only (d) I, II, III, IV 1
(c) t1/2 ∝ , for third order reaction.
66. Oil used as frothing agent in froth-floatation a2
process is 1
(a) pine oil (b) mustard oil (d) t1/2 ∝ 1− n
, for nth order reaction.
a
(c) coconut oil (d) olive oil.
74. Which compound on reaction with ethyl
67. Fraction of total volume occupied by atoms in magnesium bromide and water will form
a simple cubic cell is 2-methylbutan-2-ol?
3π 2π π (a) CH3COCH3 (b) CH3COOCH3
(a) π (b) (c) (d)
2 8 6 6 (c) CH3CH2CHO (d) C2H5COCH3
68. Which of the following species is not aromatic? 75. 10 mL of liquid carbon disulphide (specific
(a) Benzene gravity 2.63) is burnt in oxygen. Find the
(b) Cyclooctatetraenyl dianion volume of the resulting gases measured at STP.
(c) Tropylium ion (a) 23.25 L (b) 22.26 L
(d) Cyclopentadienyl cation (c) 23.50 L (d) 20.08 L
70 AIIMS EXPLORER

76. An alcohol gives Lucas test within 5 minutes.

The structure of alcohol, 0.22 g of which liberates
56 mL of CH4 at STP on treating with CH3MgI
will be
(a)
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) I and III (d) both (a) and (b).
(b)
83. In the given Freundlich adsorption isotherm
plot, x, y and z are respectively
(c)

(d)

77. Which one of the following does not give

white precipitate with acidified silver nitrate
solution? (a) 1, 1 , 0 (b) 1 , 1, 0 (c) 0 , 1, 1 (d) 0 , 1 , 1
n n n n
84. In the following reaction, the product P is
(a) (b) CH2 CH—Cl

(c) CH2 CH—CH2—Cl

(d) Both (a) and (b).
78. Chemical formula of ‘Red sindoor’ is (a) (b)
(a) Pb(NO3)2 (b) Na2PbO2
(c) Pb3O4 (d) PbCl2
79. Methyl a-D-glucoside and methyl b-D- (c) (d)
glucoside are
(a) epimers
(b) anomers 85. Given that C + O2 CO2; DH° = – a kJ
(c) enantiomers 2CO + O2 2CO2; DH° = – b kJ
(d) conformational diastereomers. The heat of formation of CO is
80. Substances that are oxidised and reduced in 2a − b b − 2a
the following reaction are respectively (a) b – 2a (b) (c) (d) 2a – b
2 2
N2H4(l) + 2H2O2(l) N2(g) + 4H2O(l) 86. Reaction of hydrogen peroxide with
(a) N2H4, H2O (b) N2H4, H2O2 formaldehyde in the pyrogallol gives
(c) N2, H2O2 (d) H2O, N2 (a) formic acid (b) methanol
81. 2° amine on reaction with nitrous acid gives (c) methane (d) water.
(a) alcohol (b) nitro compound 87. Which of the following reactions does not take
(c) nitroso compound (d) oxime. place?
82. Pair of enantiomers from the following BF3 + F– BF4– …(I)
– 3–
compounds are BF3 + 3F BF6 …(II)
AlF3 + 3F– AlF63– …(III)
Model Test Paper - 3 71

(a) Only (I) (b) Only (II) (a) greater shielding power of s-electrons of
(c) Only (III) (d) Only (I) and (III) Ga atoms
88. In which of the following reactions, Kp > Kc ? (b) poor shielding power of s-electrons of
(I) PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2 Ga atoms
(c) poor shielding power of d-electrons of
(II) N2O4 2NO2
Ga atoms
(III) N2 + 3H2 2NH3
(d) greater shielding power of d-electrons of
(IV) 2SO2 + O2 2SO3 Ga atoms.
(a) (III) and (IV) (b) (II) and (III)
97. Which among the following is the most soluble
(c) (I) and (II) (d) (I), (II) and (IV)
in water?
89. Which of the following metals has maximum (a) CsClO4 (b) NaClO4
ionisation potential? (c) LiClO4 (d) KClO4
(a) Na (b) K (c) Be (d) Mg
98. Ammonia on reaction with excess of chlorine,
90. Glyoxal on intramolecular Cannizzaro gives
reaction in presence of strong alkali gives (a) NCl3 and HCl (b) N2 and NH4Cl
(a) glycol (b) glycine (c) NCl3 and NH4Cl (d) N2 and HCl
(c) glucose (d) glycollic acid.
99. Which of the following metals is present in
91. The freezing point of a solution containing 0.2 g brass, bronze and german silver?
of acetic acid in 20.0 g benzene is lowered by (a) Cu (b) Na
0.45 °C. The degree of association of acetic acid (c) Mg (d) Al
in benzene is (Assume acetic acid dimerises in
100. Identify the correct order of stability of
benzene and Kf for benzene = 5.12 K kg mol–1)
oxidation states of group 16 elements.
(a) 94.5% (b) 54.9% (c) 78.2% (d) 100%
(a) Se4+ < Te4+ < Po4+ (b) Se6+ > Te6+ > Po6+
92. Lithopone is a mixture of (c) Se6+ ≈ Te6+ > Po (d) Both (a) and (b).
(a) BaS + ZnSO4 (b) ZnS + BaSO4
(c) BaO + Zn(NO3)2 (d) Pb3O4 + MgCO3 Directions : In the following questions (101-120),
a statement of assertion is followed by a statement
93. The ion which is not tetrahedral in shape is of reason. Mark the correct choice as :
(a) BF4– (b) NH4+ (a) If both assertion and reason are true
2+
(c) [Cu(NH3)4] (d) [NiCl4]2– and reason is the correct explanation of
94. Acetanilide on nitration followed by alkaline assertion.
hydrolysis gives (b) If both assertion and reason are true but
(a) o-nitroacetanilide reason is not the correct explanation of
(b) p-nitroaniline assertion.
(c) m-nitroaniline (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) 2, 4, 6-trinitroaniline. (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
95. Two bulbs A and B of equal capacity are filled 101. Assertion : The decomposition of NH3 on
with He and SO2 respectively, at the same finely divided platinum surface is first order
temperature. If the pressure in two bulbs is when the concentration is low, however at
same then the ratio of urms for them is higher concentration, the reaction becomes
(a) 6 : 1 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 6 zero order.
96. Al and Ga have the same covalent radius Reason : In first order reaction, the rate of
because of reaction is proportional to the first power of
the concentration of the reactant.
72 AIIMS EXPLORER

102. Assertion : Boiling points of aldehydes lie in Reason : Hydrogen is below copper in the
between parent alkanes and corresponding electrochemical series.
alcohols. 112. Assertion : trans-Pent-2-ene is polar but trans-
Reason : Aldehydes cannot form but-2-ene is non-polar.
intermolecular hydrogen bonds like alcohols. Reason : The polarity of cis-isomer is more
103. Assertion : All F—S—F angles in SF4 are than trans- which are either non-polar or less
greater than 90° but less than 180°. polar.
Reason : The lone pair-lone pair repulsion is 113. Assertion : The ionic size of N3– is bigger than
weaker than bond pair-bond pair repulsion. that of Na+ ion.
104. Assertion : H2O2 has higher boiling point than Reason : The ionic radii of isoelectronic ions
water. decrease with the increase in the magnitude of
Reason : The dipole moment of H2O2 is little the nuclear charge.
more than that of H2O. 114. Assertion : BF3 is a weaker Lewis acid than
105. Assertion : Hydrazine contains nitrogen but BCl3.
does not give Lassaigne’s test for nitrogen. Reason : The pp – pp back bonding is stronger
Reason : Hydrazine reacts with fused sodium in BF3 than in BCl3.
to give H2 gas. 115. Assertion : Acidic character of alcohols follows
106. Assertion : [CoF6]3– ion shows magnetic the order: primary > secondary > tertiary.
moment corresponding to zero unpaired Reason : Acidic character of alcohols is due to
electrons. the presence of polar O—H group.
Reason : It undergoes d2sp3 hybridisation. 116. Assertion : If an electron is in 4p-orbital, then
107. Assertion : Solution of Na2CrO4 in water is possible values of quantum numbers are n = 4,
intensely coloured. l = 1, m = 0, ±1, and s = ± 1 .
Reason : Oxidation state of Cr in Na2CrO4 is +VI. 2
108. Assertion : Sulphanilic acid exists as dipolar Reason : The second shell is a combination of
ion whereas p-aminobenzoic acid does not. one s, one p and one d-subshell.
Reason : Carboxyl group being more acidic 117. Assertion : When a concentrated solution is
than —SO3H group can easily transfer a H+ to diluted by adding more water, molarity of the
the amino group. solution remains unchanged.
109. Assertion : Electrical conductivity of semicon- Reason : Product of moles of a solute and
ductors increases with increasing temperature. volume of solution is equal to the molarity.
Reason : With increase in temperature, large 118. Assertion : Boiling and melting points of
number of electrons from the valence band amides are higher than corresponding acids.
can jump to the conduction band. Reason : It is due to strong intermolecular
110. Assertion : Presence of a nitro group at ortho hydrogen bonding in their molecules.
or para position increases the reactivity of 119. Assertion : For isothermal expansion of an
haloarenes towards nucleophilic substitution. ideal gas its enthalpy decreases.
Reason : Nitro group, being an electron Reason : Enthalpy does not depend on
withdrawing group, decreases the electron temperature.
density over the benzene ring. 120. Assertion : NF3 is a weak ligand than N(CH3)3.
111. Assertion : Copper liberates hydrogen from a Reason : NF3 ionises to give F– ion in aqueous
solution of dilute hydrochloric acid. solution.
Model Test Paper - 3 73

BIOLOGY 133. Shape of chloroplast present in Ulothrix is

(a) cup shaped (b) girdle shaped
121. Phycology is the study of (c) star shaped (d) diffused type.
(a) fungi (b) algae
(c) moss (d) lichens. 134. Which of these is a diploid structure ?
(a) Pollen grains (b) Egg
122. Which of these is a true nut ? (c) Megaspore (d) MMC
(a) Walnut (b) Areca nut
(c) Cashew nut (d) Ground nut 135. False fruit in apple is formed from
(a) receptacle (b) thalamus
123. A dicot plant lacking cotyledons is (c) peduncle (d) petals.
(a) Cuscuta (b) Santalum
(c) Lodoicea (d) none of these. 136. This plant is used as a packing material and
also forms an excellent fodder for feeding
124. The edible part in sorosis fruit is cattle.
(a) perianth + sepals (b) perianth + placenta (a) Medicago (b) Pongamia
(c) placenta only (d) perianth only. (c) Crotolaria (c) All of these
125. In sweet potato the fruit is stored in 137. Maximum protein is present in (which is used
(a) stems (b) leaves as food in space)
(c) phloem (d) roots. (a) Chlorella (b) Scendesmus
126. Adjacent cells are interconnected by (c) Porphyra (d) Spirulina
(a) desmosomes (b) vacuoles 138. Which of these is not a coelenterate ?
(c) mitochondria (d) E.R. (a) Sea pen (b) Sea fur
127. Non flowering plants are included under (c) Sea anemone (d) Sea lily
(a) cryptogamae (b) phanerogamae 139. Protonephridia are the excretory structures
(c) angiosperms (d) any of these. present in
128. Chlorophyll present in red algae is (a) Planaria (b) roundworm
(a) a, d (b) a, b (c) tapeworm (d) prawn.
(c) a, c (d) b, c. 140. Which of these contains 2 nucleus one
129. Which is purely anaerobic ? for vegetative purpose and the other for
(a) Algae (b) Mosses reproduction?
(c) Fungi (d) None of these (a) Euglena (b) Paramecium
130. Pollen grains are shed at which stage? (c) Chlamydomonas (d) Spirogyra.
(a) 2 celled (b) 3 celled 141. How much oxygen is formed from 264g of
(c) Usually at 2-celled, but sometimes 3-celled CO2 and 216 g of H2O ?
(d) Single celled stage (a) 96 g (b) 216 g
131. Sporophyte formation from gametophyte is (c) 264 g (d) 192 g
called 142. Which of the following is not a X-linked
(a) apogamy (b) sporogenesis recessive disease?
(c) gametogenesis (d) apospory. (a) Haemophilia (b) Colour blindness
132. Dark reaction occurs (c) b thalassemia
(a) only in light (d) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency.
(b) only in the absence of light 143. Nuclear material in f × 174 is
(c) independent of light (a) ssDNA (b) ds DNA
(d) both (a) and (c). (c) ssRNA (d) ds RNA.
74 AIIMS EXPLORER

144. Viral envelope contains 156. The process in which the tail of tadpole larvae
(a) lipids (b) proteins is dissoluted and it changes into a frog is
(c) carbohydrates (d) all of these. known as
145. Cross pollination in true genetic sense is (a) morphogenesis (b) neoteny
(a) allogamy (b) cleistogamy (c) paedogenesis (d) metamorphosis.
(c) geitonogamy (d) autogamy. 157. Carapace is present can be observed in
146. Seed of castor is (a) Hemidactylus (b) Testudo
(a) non-endospermic, exalbuminous (c) Naja (d) Bufo.
(b) endospermic albuminous 158. Roots of higher plants show symbiosis with
(c) endospermic exalbuminous mycorrhizas for obtaining
(d) non-endospermic albuminous. (a) sulphates (b) nitrogen
147. Ubisch bodies are secreted from (c) phosphates (d) all of these.
(a) ovule (b) tapetum 159. In the following diagram of a leg of A
C
(c) both of these (d) none of these. cockroach parts have been indicated
148. Lady finger belongs to the family by alphabets. Choose the answer in B D

(a) solanaceae (b) malvaceae which these alphabets have been

(c) cruciferaceae (d) leguminacae. correctly matched with the parts
E
which they indicate,
149. A pure tall red plant is crossed with a pure dwarf
(a) A = Coxa, B = Tibia, C = Tarsus, D = Femur,
white plant. The progenies thus produced in F1
E = Trochanter
generations are selfed. The different types of
(b) A = Coxa, B = Femur, C = Trochanter,
gametes that will be produced in F2 generation
D = Tarsus, E = Tibia
will be
(c) A = Coxa, B = Tarsus, C = Femur, D = Tibia,
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16.
E = Trochanter
150. Opium is obtained from which part of the (d) A = Coxa, B = Trochanter, C = Femur,
plant Papaver somniferous ? D = Tibia, E = Tarsus
(a) Inflorescence (b) Male part (dried)
160. The given type of ecological pyramid represents
(c) Fruit (unripe) (d) Seeds
151. Which of these can be used as a green manure?
(a) Crotolaria juncea (b) Lens esculenta
(c) Meliotus passiflora (d) All of these
152. Erythrocyte maturing factor is
(a) folic acid (b) cyanocobalamine
(c) vitamin B2 (d) vitamin C. (a) pyramid of numbers in a grassland
(b) pyramid of biomass in a fallow land
153. Photosynthesis is absent in (c) pyramid of biomass in a lake
(a) aphotic layer (b) photic layer (d) energy pyramid in a spring.
(c) benthic layer (d) pelagic layer. Directions for questions 161-180 : In each of the
154. Astral rays arise from following questions, a statement of assertion is
(a) centriole (b) cytoplasm given followed by a corresponding statement of
(c) chromatid (d) centromere. reason just below it. Of the statements, mark the
155. Excretion in tadpole is correct answer as
(a) ammonotelic (b) ureotelic (a) If both assertion and reason are true and
(c) uricotelic (d) none of these. reason is the correct explanation of assertion
Model Test Paper - 3 75

(b) If both assertion and reason are true but 169. Assertion : Lysosomes help in the process of
reason is not the correct explanation of photorespiration.
assertion Reason : Lysosomes are rich in basic and acidic
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false enzymes.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false. 170. Assertion : Endomycorrhiza of forest trees
161. Assertion : Transmission of the nerve contribute to the efficient nutrient cycling in
impulse across a synapse is accomplished by tropical forest ecosystems.
neurotransmitters. Reason : The fungi that form endomycorrhizal
Reason : Transmission across a synapse usually associations with plants store nutrient ions and
requires neuro-transmitters because there is make them available to the host plants.
small space. i.e., synaptic cleft, that separates 171. Assertion: The stem tubers are the swollen
one neuron from another. ends of specialised underground stem
162. Assertion : All terrestrial mammals are air branches, which help in vegetative propagation
breathers. of the plant.
Reason : Because of terrestrial habitat, they Reason: Solanum tuberosum is an example of
have well-developed lungs for air breathing. a root tuber which stores inulin as the main
reserve food material.
163. Assertion : There is no chance of transmission
of malaria to man on the bite of a male 172. Assertion: Co-enzyme is a non-protein group
Anopheles mosquito. without which certain enzymes are inactive or
Reason : It carries a non-virulent strain of incomplete.
Plasmodium. Reason: Co-enzymes not only provide a point
of attachment of the chemical group being
164. Assertion : Thiamine deficiency results in transformed but also influence the properties
beri-beri causing paralysis. of the group.
Reason : People eating raw fish may also suffer
from paralysis due to the deficiency of vitamin 173. Assertion: Soil particles, particularly clay and
organic matter in soil, contain negative charges
B1. Cooked fish has no such effect.
that attract positively-charged ions such as
165. Assertion : Minerals are not part of biologically Ca++, K+ and Mg++.
active substances. Reason: This attraction keeps these ions at a
Reason : Some individuals suffer anaemia due soil level where they are available to plants.
to the deficiency of iodine.
174. Assertion: Wax, resin and suberin coating on
166. Assertion : Winged bean is widely cultivated the surface of plant parts reduce the rate of
throughout India. transpiration.
Reason : The protein content in the seeds of Reason: These adaptations are found mostly in
winged bean is low. xerophytes.
167. Assertion : Meiotic division results in the 175. Assertion: Light is very important external
production of four dissimilar cells. factor of transpiration.
Reason : Synapses occurs during zygotene of Reason: Light induces stomatal opening and
meiosis. darkness stomatal closure. Thus the rate of
168. Assertion : Axillary buds, in actively growing transpiration increases in light and decreases
herbaceous plants generally remain dormant. in dark.
Reason : This is due to apical dominance 176. Assertion: Rhizobial aggregates have been
which is under the influence of auxins. observed at distinct sites on curled root hairs.
76 AIIMS EXPLORER

Reason: The infection thread is formed by a 185. Which one of the following volcanoes is the
process of invagination of the hair cell walls in example of ‘Extinct volcano’ ?
the region of curling. (a) Mount Etna (b) Cotopaxi
(c) Visuvious (d) Popa
177. Assertion: It is the brain, not the sense organs,
that interprets the stimulus. 186. Tehri Dam is being built on the river
Reason: Sense organs are transducers. They (a) Yamuna (b) Godavari
transform the energy of a stimulus to the (c) Kaveri (d) Bhagirathi.
energy of nerve impulses. 187. The state in South India which generates
178. Assertion: Adenine cannot pair with cytosine. electricity based on hydel power only is
Reason: This is because there would be two (a) Karnataka (b) Kerala
hydrogen atoms one at the bonding positions (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Andhra Pradesh.
and none at the other. 188. Who among the following is the author of the
179. Assertion: Cartilage (protein matrix) and bone book “Bradman’s Best”?
(a) Roland Perry (b) Barry Richards
(calcium matrix) are rigid connective tissues.
(c) Richard Mulvaney (d) Jom Brokaw.
Reason: Blood is connective tissue in which
plasma is the matrix. 189. Which of the following computer viruses is
named after a cherry and caffeine soft drink
180. Assertion: Hair cells on the basilar membrane
popular with programmes?
(organ of Corti) are responsible for hearing. (a) Sircam (b) Code Pink
Reason: Pressure waves, which begin at the (c) Code Red (d) Malisa.
oval windows, cause the basilar membrane to
vibrate so that the cilia of the hair cells touch 190. Megger is an instrument to measure
the tectorial membrane. This causes the hair (a) very low resistance
cells to initiate nerve impulses, which are (b) insulation resistance
(c) inductance of a coil
carried by the auditory nerve to the brain.
(d) all of these.
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND
APTITUDE & LOGICAL THINKING 191. Find the missing number, if the same rule is
applied in all the three figures.
181. The time difference between I.S.T. and G.M.T. is 6 2 3
1 1 5 2 0 5 3
(a) 5 hrs (b) 9 hrs 131 248 ?
2 2 4 4 8 7 1
1 1 3 6 9
(c) 12 hrs (d) 8 hrs . (a) 132 (b) 262 (c) 274 (d) 320
2 2
182. ‘Pulitzer’ prizes are awarded to Americans for 192. If A is to the south of B and C is to the east of
excellence in B, in what direction is A with respect to C?
(a) films (b) social work (a) North-east (b) North-west
(c) journalism (d) medicines. (c) South-east (d) South-west

183. Doldrum is an area of 193. A set of three figures X, Y, Z shows a sequence

(a) low temperature (b) low rainfall of folding a paper. Fig. (Z) shows the manner
(c) low pressure (d) low humidity. in which the folded paper is been cut. Select
a figure from the options which shows the
184. The first of the ‘GAEL’ (Global Alliance for the unfolded form of fig.(Z).
Elimination of Leprosy) was held in
(a) New Delhi (b) Mumbai
(c) Kolkata (d) Paris. X Y Z
Model Test Paper - 3 77

Problem Figures
(a) (b)

(c) (d)
(a) (b)
194. Arrange the given words in a meaningful
sequence and then choose the most appropriate
sequence from the options. (c) (d)
1. Mother 2. Child 3. Milk
4. Cry 5. Smile 198. Two stations A and B are 110 km apart on a
(a) 1, 5, 2, 4, 3 (b) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5 straight line. One train starts from A at 7 a.m.
(c) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5 (d) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 and travels towards B at 20 kmph. Another
195. Choose the odd one out. train starts from B at 8 a.m. and travels towards
(a) Decantation (b) Filtration A at a speed of 25 kmph. At what time will they
(c) Centrifugation (d) Condensation meet?
196. In the given diagram, the circle stands for (a) 9 a.m. (b) 10 a.m.
educated, square for hard-working, triangle (c) 10.30 a.m. (d) 11 a.m.
for urban and the rectangle for honest people. 199. Select a figure from the options which when
placed in the blank space of Fig. (X) would
5
complete the pattern.
3 7
4 1 6
98
12
?
Which of the following statements is true? Fi.g (X)
(a) No person is urban, educated, honest and
hard-working. (a) (b)
(b) Some honest people are also hard-working
and educated. (c) (d)
(c) All educated people are urban.
(d) Uneducated people are either honest or 200. Introducing a man, a woman said, “He is the
hard-working.
only son of my mother’s mother.” How is the
197. Select a figure from the options which will woman related to the man?
continue the same series as established by the (a) Mother (b) Aunt
five Problem Figures. (c) Sister (d) Niece