PRE – BOARD EXAMINATION 2022

Module 1
PHARMACEUTICAL INORGANIC CHEMISTRY & PHARMACEUTICAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

Name: _________________________________________________Date: _______________ Score: ______

Multiple choice, write your answer before the number.

1. This is radioactive particle that weights almost the same as helium atom.
A. x-ray D. beta ray
B. alpha ray E. ultraviolet ray
C. gamma ray
2. Which of the following processes is a physical change?
A. Distillation of water D. fermentation of coconut water
B. Digestion of food E. combustion of methane
C. Neutralization of an acid by a base
3. Which of the following statements shows an extensive property?
A. Iron nails conduct heat D. A pinch of sugars weighs 2.3 grams
B. Sampaguita flowers smells sweet E. Glycerin is viscous
C. Water boils at 100 0C
4. When a metal binds with a non-metal , the metal will most likely:
A. Donate electron/s D. allows its electron to move in an
B. Accept electron/s E. unfilled orbitals
C. Share its electrons
5. This states that orbitals of the same energy will be singly filled first with electrons before they are paired.
A. Aufbau principle D. Heisenberg Uncertainly Principle
B. Hund’s rule E. n + I rule
C. Pauli’s Exclusion Principle
6. The ion that gives the Prussian blue precipitate with potassium ferrocyanide.
A. Ferric D. nickel
B. Ferrous E. cobalt
C. Zinc
7. Evolves gas with fruity odow when treated with ethanol and concentrated hydrochloric acid
A. Acetate D. silicate
B. Chlorate E. chromate
C. Sulfate
8. The empirical formula of diphosphorous pentoxide is:
A. P2O5 D. PO
B. PO2 E. P2O
C. PO3
9. Which of the following pairs of atoms will most likely form an ionic bond
A. C and O D. C and H
B. C and Ca E. C and S
C. C and Cl
10. An official gas that is used in pharmaceutically to mask the disagreeable taste of certain medicines:
A. Carbon Dioxide, USP C. Helium, USP
B. Nitrogen, USP D. Oxygen, USP
11. These are substances that take/absorb sufficient water from the atmosphere forming a liquid:
A. Efflorescent C. A and B
B. Deliquescent D. None of the choices

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 A. Ferrous lactate C. ferrous sulfate
A. Ferrous gluconate D. ferrous fumarate
13. A sulfur containing compound used as an antioxidant is:
A. Sulfur Dioxide D. Sulfur Dioxide
B. Sulfurated Potash E. Antimony Sulfide
C. Precipitated Sulfur
14. Laughing gas is a:
A. General anesthetic C. disinfectant
B. Caustic D. local anaesthetic
15. Nessler’s reagent is used to identify:
A. A. K+ C. Na+
+
B. B. NH4 D. Al3+
16. What is the general formula give to alkalines?
A. CnH2n C. CnH2n+2
B. CnH2n+1 D. C2H2n-2
17. What is the common name of tetrametheylmethane?
A. 1o pentane C. 3opentane
B. 2opentane D. neopentane
18. The following are unsaturated hydrocarbons, EXCEPT:
A. alkane C. 2-propanol
B. alkene D. B and C
19. Which of the following can be prepared from the dehydration of ethanol?
A. ethylene C. ethanol
B. ether D. A & B
20. The reaction of ROH + RCOOH is called:
A. neutralization B. dehydration
B. esterification D. oxidation
21. Physicochemical property that have been studied by the QSAR approach which can be easily quantified for
complete molecules?
A. hydrophobic C. steric
B. electronic D. AOTA
22. Antibody (Ab) found in persons with allergies of various types, as well as in autoimmune diseases.
A. IgM C. IgE
B. IgA D. IgD
23. What is the general term that is used to refer to compounds having two hydroxyl groups attached to two
adjacent carbons?
A. Carbinol C. glycol
B. catechol D. glycerol
24. Which of the following substrates can be used to synthesize tertiary alcohols?
A. formaldehyde D. ethane
B. ethanol E. none of these
C. propanone
25. Markonikov addition of water to a double bond in a primary carbon results to the
formation of:
A. Primary alcohols C. alkanes
B. Secondary alcohol D. tertiary alcohols
26. What the part renders this drug recognizable by the viral thymidylate kinase?
A. Valine residue C. 3’ hydroxyl group
B. Adenine residue D. Guanosine residue
27. The following compounds yield a violet color to FeCl3 test except:
A. Benzoic acid C. Methyl salicylate
B. Salicylic acid D. ASA
28. Carbon in organic compounds is analyzed as carbon dioxide using:
A. Lime water C. Cuprous oxide
B. Soda lime D. Lead acetate
29. This undergoes hydrolysis in the presence of heat producing phosgene.
A. CH3Cl C. CH4
B. CH2Cl2 D. CCl4
30. The hybridization of Carbon in ethane is:
A. sp C. sp3
2
B. sp D. sp4
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 a. CdS b. Sb2S3 c. HgS d. MnS
32. Both iron and copper are found in which respiratory enzyme:
a. trisinase b. cytochrome oxidase c. peroxide d. oxidase
33. Oxygen and ozone are:
a. isotopes b. isobars c. polymorphs d. allotropes
34. Softest mineral known:
a. calamine b. kaolin c. talc
d. bentonite e. silica
35. A metal which is unaffected by body fluids and attaches itself to bones, is now used in surgical repairs of
bones, nerves and muscles:
a. aluminum b. iron c. tantalum d. tin
36. Blue vitriol, an effective astringent and emetic is chemically:
a. FeSO4-7H2O b. CaCl2 c. CU(C2H3O2)2 d. CuSO4 5H2O
37. All of the following ions are present in the intracellular fluids except:
a. K+ b. Na+ c. Mg 2+ d. HPO4-3
38. Bordeaux mixture used as fungicide contains:
a. selenium sulfide b. magnesium sulfate c. cupric sulfate d. silver nitrate
39. To kill microorganism in inanimate objects we simply used:
a. antiseptic b. corrosive c. disinfectant d. sterilization
40. The mechanism of action in the use of carbon as anti-diarrheal is:
a. absorption b. adsorption c. precipitation d. oxidation
41. Physiologically inert substances added to the main component of the tablet so it will be convenient
to swallow are termed as:
a. diluent b. lubricant c. surfactants d. thickening agent
42. Some of the uses of astringent are:
a. anti-perspirant b. caustic c. styptic d. all of these
43. The ion that gives positive result to Thenard’s Blue Test:
a. aluminum b. chromium c. manganese d. zinc
44. The ion that gives a yellow precipitate with NaOH and scarlet red precipitate with an excess KI:
a. mercurous b. mercuric c. plumbous d. bismuth
45. Substance that shows strong conductivity property and a high degree of ionization:
a. Strong electrolyte b. Non-electrolyte c. weak electrolyte d. buffer
46. The chemical properties of the elements depend upon the extent to which their electrons are:
a. replaced b. completed c. lost d. redistributed
47. Substances that absorb moisture from the atmosphere and dissolve in it is said to be:
a. deliquescent b. efflorescent c. hydrolysis d. none of the above
48. This compound when mixed with the hemoglobin of the blood, results in asphyxial death:
a. carbon dioxide b. carbon monoxide c. nitrogen oxide d. sulfur
dioxide
49. For treatment of mental ailments:
a. Li2CO3 b. Na2CO3 c. CaCO3 d. K2CO3
50. Cinnabar is chemically:
a. HgCl b. HgS c. Zn d. ZnSO4
51. This instrument used to measure sodium and potassium in quantitatively:
a. polarimeter b. spectrophotometer c. refractometer d. flame photometer
52. Irritative phenomenon to the skin and mucus membrane exhibited by rashes and headaches when excessive
amount of Iodine is administered:
a. Hyperiodism b. Iodism c. Hypoiodism
d. any of the given e. none of the above
53. Salts are formed as a result of the reaction between except:
a. inorganic acid and as inorganic base c. water and non-metallic element
b. water and a metal d. an organic acid and an inorganic base
54. Which of the following is a coinage metal:
a. barium b. magnesium c. copper d. strontium
55. Gas responsible for the oxidative changes in fats, paints and oil:
a. oxygen b. carbon monoxide c. carbon dioxide d. hydrogen
56. This refers to an electrically neutral unit formed when two or more atoms are joined together by covalent
bond:
a. ion b. molecule c. compound
d. element e. mixture

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 57. Which of the following is not an action of sulfur?
a. cathartic b. parasiticide c. fumigation
d. depilatories e. Reye’s syndrome
58. Radioactive substances are characterized by:
a. unstable nucleus c. low proton-neuron ratio
b. emitting radiation d. all of the above
59. The rate of decay of radioactive substance is expressed in terms of:
a. half-life b. angstrom c. curie d. amu
60. He discovered oxygen and called it empyreal air
a. Priestly b. Beckerel c. Scheele d. Cavendish
61. The upper edge of a filter paper used during filtration should be about ______ cm from the upper rim of
the funnel
A. 1 cm B. 2 cm C. 3 cm
D. 2/3 cm E. 0.5 cm
62. When a precipitate tends to pass through the filter paper, this salt may be added to prevent the formation of.
colloidal solutions.
A. Sodium chloride B. Potassium nitrate C. Lithium chloride
D. Ammonium nitrate E. NOTA
63. The reaction between silver nitrate and potassium iodide will produce
A. A black precipitate B. A white precipitate C. A gray precipitate
D. A yellow precipitate E. No precipitate
64. Purple colored compounds usually indicate the presence of
A. Dichromates B. Cobalt salts C. Permanganates
D. Purple Sulphur E. Sulphides
65. Francium has Z=
A. 37 B. 55 C. 57
D. 87 E. 95
66. The bond existing between mercury (II) fluoride is
A. H bond B. Ionic C. Covalent
D. Metallic bond E. NOTA
67. Which among these acid halides has the highest acidity?
A. HI B. HBr C. HCl
D. HF E. NOTA
68. This is used both as a diuretic and in the treatment of chronic acidosis to restore bicarbonate reserve.
A. Sodium bicarbonate B. Potassium bicarbonate C. Sodium citrate
D. Sodium lactate E. Ammonium chloride
69. Defacqz reaction is used to test for:
A. Molybdenum B. Tungsten C. Thallium
D. Gallium E. Gold
70. A precipitate may result in an unknown solution upon the addition of hydrogen sulphide if this action is
present:
A.Ag+ B. As5+ C. Fe2+
D. Fe3+ E. Li+
71. One hundred volumes of hydrogen peroxide is equal to
A. 3% B. 6% C. 30%
D. 70% E. 100%
72. Potassium alum is an example of a
A. Normal salt B. Hydrogen salt C. Mixed salt
D. Double salt E. NOTA
73. Used as bone replacement for temporary braces of long bones and to close openings in the skull
A. Plaster of Paris B. Zinc-eugenol cement C. Silver
D. Tantalum E. Adamantium
74. Aluminum silicates that contain impurities of calcium, magnesium, iron oxides, fragments of quartz etc. is
known as ________
A. Bentonite B. Montmorillonite C. Kaolin
D. Attapulgite E. Clay
75. The following are the known uses of sodium hypochlorite solution except:
A. Disinfectant B. Antiseptic C. Oxidizing agent
D. Bleaching agent E. AOTA

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 76. Why is it important to give a patient Lugol’s solution at least 24 hours before the administration of
radioactive iodine?
A. To saturate the thyroid gland with iodine D. A and B
B. To prevent iodine depletion E. A and C
C. To prevent the uptake of radioactivity
77. The quantitative Benedict’s solution contains all of the following except:
A. Cupric sulfate B. Sodium citrate C. Potassium thiocyanate
D. Potassium ferrocyanide E. Sodium carbonate
78. An entity providing a pair of electrons in a coordinate covalent bond is termed as
A. Acceptor species B. Electron provider C. Donor species
D. Acid E. Base
79. The strongest acid among the members of the halogen family is
A. HF B. HCl C. HBr
D. HI E. HNO3
80. This buffer system is useful at alkaline pH and can be used in ophthalmic solutions, contact lens solution
and as solvent for soluble fluorescein.
A. Sorensen phosphate buffer D. Gifford’s buffer
B. Atkins and Pantin buffer E. NOTA
C. Feldman’s buffer
81. Addition of Barium chloride solution to solutions containing nitrites will produce
A. Evolution of gas D. Transient pale blue solution
B. Brown precipitate E. No precipitate
C. White crystalline precipitate
82. This is used to provide an inert atmosphere to retard oxidation in cod liver oil, olive oil, and multiple
vitamin preparations.
A. Helium D. Carbon dioxide
B. Nitrogen E. NOTA
C. Hydrogen
83. In the compound sodium manganite, NaMnO3, manganese exhibits a valence of
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4
D. 6 E. 7
84. The following elements exhibit amphoteric property except
A. Aluminum D. Lead
B. Tin E. NOTA
C. Zinc
85. This aluminum magnesium silicate, also known as Floridin, is a low plasticity clay-like material with high
water content. It finds its use in the decolorization of oils.
A. Kaolin D. Pumice
B. Bentonite E. NOTA
C. Fuller’s Earth
86. The least abundant of all inert gases
A. Krypton D. Argon
B. Xenon E. Neon
C. Radon
87. Butter of Zinc
A. Zinc carbonate D. Zinc lactate
B. Zinc chloride E. NOTA
C. Zinc oxide
88. This precipitation can hasten absorption in the stomach, increase acid gastric juice secretion and act as
carminative. It is prepared by charging carbon dioxide in water at a pressure of 3-4 atmospheres.
A. Lime water D. Dilute hydrochloric acid
B. Soda water E. NOTA
C. Dakin’s solution
89. Also known as Flowers of Sulfur
A. Amorphous sulfur D. Plastic sulfur
B. Precipitated sulfur E. NOTA
C. Sublime sulfur
90. The best food source of Copper
A. meat D. AOTA
B. egg yolk E. NOTA
C. whole grains
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 91. The ratio of disinfectant to the dilution of phenol required to kill a given strain of the bacterium Salmonella
typhi:
a. Phenol number c. Phenol value
b. Phenol coefficient d. None of the above
92. The generic name of Nizoral:
a. Meconazole c. Ketoconazole
b. Clotrimazole d. Potassium sorbate
93. A combination of non-ionic and cationic surfactants with iodine:
a. Povidone-Ioduine c. Iodine Tincture
b. Strong I2 solution d. I2 in KI solution
94. This is used as an inhalation anesthetic:
a. droperidol b. thiopental c. halothane d. midazolam
95. This drug is used as an osmotic diuretic:
a. Mannitol b. Ethanol c. Isopropanol d. Glycitol
96. The drug is effective against both exoerythrocytic and erythrocytic forms of malaria:
a. chloroquine b. quinine c. amodiaquine d. cycloguanil
97. Newest and most potent quinoline derivative for malaria:
a. amodiaquine b. mefloquine c. atabrine d. daraprim
98. More potent optical isomer of ofloxacin:
a. levo b. dextro c. cis isomer d. trans isomer
99. Active form of the sulfonamide:
a. non-ionized b. ionized c. amphoteric d. oxo ring
100. A metabolite of chloral hydrate:
a. trichloroacetic acid b. acetaldehyde c. carbapenem ring d. phenacetone
101. A sample drug excreted via the saliva:
a. lidocaine b. sulfonamide c. sulfonamide d. thiamine
102. Anesthetic of choice for labor:
a. halothane b. enflurance c. nitrous oxide d. methoxyflurane
103. Propionic acid derivative:
a. paracetamol b. dipyrone c. piroxicam d. naproxen
104. Paracetamol is a/an:
a. salicylate c. aniline derivative
b. pyrazolone d. azocine derivative
105. All of the following are progestins except:
a. norethindrone c. ethynodiol diacetate
b. testosterone d. progesterone
106. Local anesthetics that is not a derivative of benzoic acid is:
a. lidocaine c. dibucaine
b. procaine d. bupivacaine
107. The onset and duration of barbiturate action is mainly a function of its:
a. lipid solubility c. plasma binding
b. renal excretion d. method of administration
108. Diphenoxylate is a structural analog of:
a. dilantin b. codeine c. meperidine d. naloxone
109. A polysaccharide that is used as plasma expander is:
a. starch b. insulin c. dextrose d. dextran
110. Benzaldehyde is synthetic:
a. cinnamon oil c. corn oil
b. bitter almond oil d. rose oil
111. Retin-A is:
a. alltoin c. tretinoin
b. adapalene d. benzoyl peroxide
112. Depo-Provera is:
a. cyproterone acetate c. medroxyprogesterone acetate
b. nandrolene decanoate d. leuproreline acetate
113. An antimanic agent:
a. haloperidol b. lithium salts c. LSD d. phenol
114. The most active aminoglycoside against Mycobacterium tuberculosis is:
a. streptomycin c. neomycin e. kanamycin
b. amikacin d. tobramycin
115. Effective administration routes of nitroglycerin for angina pectoris include all of the following, except:
a. oral
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 116. All of the following antibiotics produce neuromuscular blockade, except:
a. ampicillin c. streptomycin e. amikacin
b. kanamycin d. neomycin
117. An antibiotic most commonly used in topical preparations:
a. clotrimazole c. griseofulvin e. foscarnet
b. vidarabine d. bacitracin
118. A macrolide antibiotic which was found in the soil of Iloilo:
a. Achromycin b. Albamycin c. Erythromycin d. Viomycin
119. Agents that facilitate the evacuation of bowels:
a. anti-motility agents c. astringents e. none of the above
b. cathartics d. antacids
120. In terms of pH, aspirin is absorbed in the:
a. mouth c. stomach e. rectum
b. small intestines d. large intestines
121. The following structure is the side chain of amino acid tryptophan. What is the name of the following
structure?

a. Purine b. Pyrimidine c. Indole

d. Quinolene e. Pyridine
122. The structure of nucleic acid base cytosine, uracil and thymine is based on following N-ring. What is the
name of the following structure?

a. Pyridine b. Piperidine c. Pyrazine

d. Piperazine e. Pyrimidine
123. These lipid soluble compounds are also paraffin or saturated hydrocarbons. They commonly undergo
halogination and combustion reaction and, in vivo, terminal carbon or side chain hydroxylation may occur.
a. Alkanes b. Alkenes c. Aromatic hydrocarbon
d. Alkynes e. Alkyl halides
124. These compounds have a general formula of R-CHO and contain a carbon group (C=O). The common
reactions of these compounds are oxidation and hemiacetal and acetal formation.
a. Aldehydes b. Ether c. Phenols
d. Ketones e. Esters
125. Which of the following terms best describes the following reaction:

a. Acetylation b. Reductive cleavage c. Oxidative deamination

d. Decarboxylation e. N-dealkylation
126. A range of the following compounds in increasing strength of carbonyl oxygen as a hydrogen bond
acceptor:

a. IV, III, II, I b. I, II, III, IV c. II, III, I, IV

d. I, III, IV, II e. III, II, I, IV
127.
Sulfonamides can undergo which metabolic pathway?
I. Acetylation at the N4 amino group
II. Conjugation with glucoronic acid or sulphate at the N4 amino group
III. Acetylation or conjugation with glucoronic acid at the N1 amino group\
IV. Hydroxylation and conjugation in the heterocyclic ring, R

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 a. II only is correct b. III only is correct c. I and IV are correct
d. II and III are correct e. I, II, III, and IV are correct
128. Successfully isolated penicillin using processes such as freeze-drying and chromatography.
a. Alexander Flemming b. Florey and Chain c. Dorothy Hodgkins
d. Beechams e. None of the above
129. Below is the general structure of penicillins. Which part of its structure is not essential for activity?

a. The free carboxylic acid d. The bicyclic system

b. The strained B-lactam ring e. The sulphur atom
c. The acyl amino side chain
130. Which of the following anti-HIV drug is an analogue of deoxycytidine where the 3’ carbon has been
replaced by sulphur?
a. Zidovudine b. Didanosine c. Lamivudine
d. Abacavir e. Efavirenz
131. Below is the structure of chloramphenicol, a bacteriostatic agent that binds to the 50s subunit of ribosome.
Which part of its structure is essential for drug activity?

a. The nitro group b. The 2 alcohol groups c. The dichloroacetamide group

d. A and B only e. All of the above
132. Which of the following drugs is not an alkylating agent used in cancer chemotherapy?
a. Carmustine b. Busulfan c. Procarbazine
d. Mitomycin C e. None of the choices
133. Which of the following metabolic transformation of barbiturates can lead to loss of depressant activity?
a. Oxidation of substituents d. All of the above
b. Desulfuration of 2-thiobarbiturates e. None of the above
c. Hydrolytic cleavage of the barbituric ring
134. Which among the following amino acids is likely to be present in the active site of the target enzyme of
terbinafine and form an ionic interaction with the tertiary amine group?
a. Valine b. Isoleucine c. Alanine
d. Glutamic acid e. Serine
135. According to this drug receptor theory, the number of drug receptor interactions per unit time determines
the intensity of the biological response
a. Rate theory b. Occupational theory c. Activation aggregation theory
d. Induced fit theory e. Molecular pertubation theory
136. Which of the following undergo oxidative reaction?
I. Olefins
II. Alcohols and Aldehydes
III. Aromatic moieties
IV. Nitro and Azo compounds
a. I, II and III only d. I and II only
b. II, III and IV only e. IV only
c. III only
137. This term that denotes the selective metabolism of two or more similar functional groups, or two or more
similar atoms that are positioned in different regions of a molecule
a. Stereoisomerism d. Substrate stereoselectivity
b. Regioselectivity e. Bioselectivity
c. Selective Toxicity
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 138. A dye available as vaginal suppositories for the treatment of yeast infection
a. malachite green d. gentian blue
b. methylene blue e. basic fuchsin
c. phenolphthalein
139. The antibiotic that binds with Ribosome 30s subunit
a. Chloramphenicol d. Lincomycins
b. Tetracycline e. Penicillins
c. Erythromycin
149. Bacillus subtilis strain that was isolated from debrided tissue of a compound fracture in 7-year old
Margaret Tracy produced this antibiotic.
a. gramicidin, USP d. polymyxin B sulphate, USP
b. bacitracin, USP e. vancomycin
c. colistin sulphate, USP
141. The major adverse effect of Midamor:
a. hypokalemia d. hyperkalemia
b. hyponatremia e. hypermagnesemia
c. hypocalcemia
142. What antibiotic caused a major advance in the treatment of tuberculosis?
a. Isoniazid d. Cycloserine
b. Ethionamide e. Capreomycin
c. Rifampicin
143. Available in the form of vaginal suppositories for the treatment of trichomonal and monilial vaginits
a. Nifurtimox d. Glycobiarsol
b. Suramin e. Melarsoprol
c. Pentamidine
144. An antineoplastic agent prepared by treating potassium chloroplatinate with ammonia
a. cisplatin d. pipobroman
b. etoposide e. asparaginase
c. hydroxyurea
145. Phenolated Iodine Solution is
a. Lugol’s solution c. Burnham solution
b. Boulton’s solution d. Brandon’s solution
146. This is obtaines by the action of zinc upon solutions of antimony trichloride and is called:
a. antimony brown c. antimony white
b. antimony black d. antimony purple
147. In what concentration of silver nitrate is used as wet dressing for persons suffering from third degree
burns?
a. 1% c. 5%
b. 0.5% d. 1.5%
148. Zinc uranyl acetate, Mg uranyl acetate and cobalt uranyl acetate, forms insoluble salt with:
a. potassium c. magnesium
b. sodium d. calcium
149. Chalybeate water contains
a. Lithium c. Salt
b. Carbon d. Iron
150. Magnesium ion is detected using this dyestuff in alkaline solution forming a blue lake:
a. aluminon reagent c. p-nitrobenzene resorcinol
b. amaranth d. oxine reagent

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