Biology for Medical Students (19028), Program of Medicine, Palestine Polytechnic University (PPU)

Name: ………………………. First Hour Exam Time: 50 minutes Date: 18/10/2022

ID: ………………………….. Instructor: Dr. Salamah Alwahsh 28 Points

I. Multiple choice questions. Select the most accurate answer (1 point/each)

Part I: INTRODUCTION and CHEMISTRY of LIFE

1. Reproduction—the ability of organisms of different species to reproduce their kinds sexually
A. False B. True

2. If methanol (CH3OH) is mixed with water which statement is CORRECT?

A. Hydrogen atoms in both H2O and CH3OH can be shared with the electronegative O2 in other H2O and methanol
molecules
B. The -OH of the methanol molecules will completely dissociate to release protons
C. There will be extensive interactions between the carbon atoms of methanol and the hydrogen atoms of H2O
D. Electrons associated with the O2 nucleus in methanol will be drawn away towards the H2 nuclei of H2O
E. There will be non-polar interactions between the carbon atoms of methanol and hydrogen atoms of H2O

3. The lining of the small intestine contains microvilli. The function of microvilli is to
A. produce and excrete digestive enzymes into the small intestine
B. play an important role in absorption
C. secrete hydrochloric acid to aid in digestion
D. play an important role in mechanical digestion
E. provide an environment for symbiotic stomach bacteria

4. Shown at right is part of the pathway of the biosynthesis of the amino acid lysine. What happen to the
coenzyme (NAD+) in this reaction?
A. Oxidised
B. Dehydration
C. Reduced
D. Synthesis
E. Acid-base

5. The atomic number and the atomic mass of an element

A. Do not count the weight of electrons
B. Both include the weight of the electrons, but only the atomic number includes the number of neutrons
C. Both include the weight of the protons of the element
D. Are actually the same thing

6. All of the following are examples of positive feedback mechanism EXCEPT ‫ما عدا‬
A. Blood clot
B. Ovulation
C. Blood glucose levels and osmoregulation
D. Sexual intercourse/ copulation ‫الجماع‬

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7. Which of the following is CORRECTLY written based on binominal nomenclature?
A. escherichia Coli, a bacterium
B. Saccharomyces Cerevisiae, a yeast
C. drosophila Melanogaster, fruit fly
D. Mus musculus, a mouse

8. Which of the following statements best describes homeostasis?

A. Dynamic equilibrium
B. Keeping the body in a fixed and unaltered state
C. Altering the external environment to accommodate the body's needs
D. Maintaining a near-constant internal environment

9. Sexual reproduction
A. occurs in bacteria
B. is type of reproduction which results in one cell splitting into two identical cells
C. is type of reproduction in which two haploid cells join to create a genetically variant zygote
D. None

10. Capillary action of H2O in a tube is the result of …………… being stronger than ………
A. cohesion; adhesion
B. surface tension; cohesion
C. adhesion; cohesion
D. cohesion; surface tension

Part II: MACROMOLECULES

11. Which modification to a phospholipid bilayer would increase the permeability of the membrane?
A. Decrease the concentration of unsaturated fatty acids in the membrane
B. ↓ the temperature of the environment surrounding the membrane
C. ↓ the length of the fatty-acid tails of phospholipids in the membrane
D. Increase the concentration of saturated fatty acids and cholesterol in the membrane

12. Which statement about the relationship between the structure and primary function of structural
polysaccharides is CORRECT?
A. Parallel chains of chitin in fungal cell walls are used for energy storage
B. The highly branched helical structures of glycogen provide structural support in liver cells
C. The unbranched helical structure of amylose (a starch) provides support in the cell walls of plants
D. The parallel strands of cellulose that are joined by hydrogen bonds provide support in the cell walls of plants

13. Testosterone and estradiol (estrogen) are

A. nucleic acids B. carbohydrates C. phospholipids D. proteins E. steroids

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14. Which statement about the structure of DNA and RNA is CORRECT?

A. DNA nucleotides contain phosphate groups and RNA nucleotides do not

B. DNA is a non-polar molecule and RNA is a polar molecule
C. DNA uses cytosine nucleotides and RNA does not
D. DNA contains nitrogen atoms and RNA does not
E. None

15. Which of the following contains nitrogen in addition to C, O, and H?

A. an alcohol such as ethanol D. a monosaccharide such as glucose

B. a steroid such as testosterone E. an amino acid such as glycine
C. a hydrocarbon such as benzene

16. The presence of hydrogen bonds within one polypeptide chain contributes to the polypeptide’s
A. tertiary structure
B. secondary structure
C. quaternary structure
D. Both A and B
E. All of A, B and C

17. The chemical structure shown below is

A. a ribosugar
B. a triphosphopeptide
C. the nitrogenous base, adenine
D. deoxyadenosine triphosphate (deoxy-ATP)
E. deoxy-TTP

18. The side chains of amino acids that are embedded in the interior portion of a membrane are
best characterized as ……………, and their tunnel portion contains ………… R group
A. hydrophilic, hydrophilic
B. hydrophobic, hydrophilic
C. acidic, hydrophilic
D. polar, hydrophobic

19. Which reaction results in the phosphodiester linkage that holds together the 3' carbon of one
ribonucleotide to the 5'C of another ribonucleotide in the formation of ribonucleic acids?
A. Neutralization reaction
B. Oxidation/reduction reaction
C. Dehydration reaction
D. Hydrolysis reaction

20. How many molecules of H2O are needed to completely hydrolyse a polymer that is 11
monomers long?
A. 12 B. 11 C. 9 D. 10 E. 8

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Part III: A TOUR in the CELL
21. ……………… is the spontaneous net movement or diffusion of solvent (H 2O) through a selectively-
permeable membrane from a region of high H2O potential to a region of low H2O potential, in the
direction that tends to equalize the solute concentrations on the two sides
A. Osmosis
B. Diffusion
C. Active transport
D. Facilitated diffusion
E. Amphipathic

22. Which statement is CORRECT?

A. Bacteria have 70S ribosomes and polyosome
B. Some viruses have elaborate (rich) cell structures
C. The nucleus is present in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, but not in viruses
D. Ribosomes are present in eukaryotes, but not in prokaryotes or viruses

23. Which of the following contains nucleic acid?

A. a nucleus and mitochondria
B. a nucleus and chloroplasts
C. bacteria and Archaea
D. All of these
E. None of these choices is correct

24. The diagram at right illustrates five possible arrangements

(numbered 1 to 5) of a protein that could associate with a
phospholipid bilayer. The black regions of the protein are
composed of polar and charged amino acids, and the white region
of the protein is composed of nonpolar amino acids. Which
arrangement is most likely to occur?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

25. What ecological interaction between early eukaryotes and the prokaryote lineage resulted in
mitochondria?
A. Competition
B. Mutualism
C. Symbiosis
D. Parasitism

26. The function of intermediate filaments is

A. to transport organelles/ vesicles within the cell
B. to contract spindle fibres during cell division (mitosis)
C. to provide structural support and mechanical stability of the cell, and maintain the shape of nucleus and cell
D. to support extracellular structures like microvilli, flagella, and cilia

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Bonus
27. Which of the following is NOT correct. The nuclear envelope

A. is a double membrane
B. surrounds chromatin / chromosome in prokaryotes
C. has pores that allow material to flow in and out of the nucleus
D. The outer leaflet of the envelope is attached to a network of cellular membranes called the endoplasmic reticulum

28. RBCs were placed in a 1.5% (g/mL) solution

A. This is an example of hypertonic solution

B. Water will move out, resulting in cell shrinkage
C. This solution contains a higher concentration of solutes compared to intracellular fluid (cytosol)
D. is normal saline solution
E. All of the above
F. A, B, and C

Good Luck

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 Palestine Polytechnic University (PPU)
Program of Medicine

Name ………………………………… Biology for MS (19028) Date: 27.11.2022 Time: 50 min

ID ……………………………………… Second Hour Exam Instructor: Dr Salamah Alwahsh

Select the most accurate answer (1 point each)

Part I: Biochemistry–Energy Metabolism

1. What is a ribozyme?
A. an RNA with enzymatic activity
B. an enzyme that uses RNA as a substrate
C. an enzyme that catalyzes the association between the large and small ribosomal subunits
D. a global protein act as an enzyme that synthesizes RNA as part of the transcription process

2. Consider the following reactions that convert substance A 1 into either A3 or A6

Which of the following enzymes in the anabolic pathway represented above is most likely to
catalyse the rate-limiting step in the biosynthesis of A6?
A. E1 B. E2 C. E3 D. E4 E. E5

3. The rotation of the gamma subunit of the mitochondrial F 1 ATPase requires the presence of
A. NADH
B. electron carriers
C. a proton motive force or ATP
D. O2, ADP, and inorganic phosphate
E. proton channels in the outer mitochondrial membrane

4. In the following reaction catalysed by pyruvate kinase (PK), which of the following sentences is
CORRECT?

I. this reaction generates a substrate-level

phosphorylation
II. PK can generate lactic acid directly
III. catalyses oxidative phosphorylation reaction
IV. PK is involved in the last step of the glycolysis
V. catalyses the transfer of phosphate group from phosphoenolpyruvate to generate ATP and pyruvate
A. Both I, II B. Both II, III C. I, IV, V D. All

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5. Which statement pertains (refers) to the process of glycolysis?

A. Glycolysis produces CO2

B. A key product of glycolysis is ADP
C. Glycolysis produces two 3-carbon molecules
D. Glycolysis only takes place in cells undergoing anaerobic respiration
E. Cells need to have access to molecular oxygen for glycolysis to occur

6. All of the following inhibit electron transfer during oxidative phosphorylation EXCEPT

A. Cyanide B. Rotenone C. Antimycin A D. Dinitrophenol E. CO

Part II: Microbiology

7. Endotoxins
A. are a type of pyrogen (agent that causes fever)
B. include e.g., lipopolysaccharide (the main component of the outer membrane of Gram (-ve) bacteria)
C. have structural and protective roles for the bacteria
D. are a potent activator of the immune system
E. All of the above

8. Bacterial cell wall functions in

A. maintains the cell shape
B. provides physical protection
C. prevents the cell from bursting in a hypotonic environment
D. All
E. Both A and B

9. Bacterial capsules are typically made up of ………… located usually outside the cell
A. lipids
B. lipopolysaccharide
C. repeating viscous polysaccharides and/or polypeptide
D. thin, hair-like appendages filamentous, proteinaceous appendices

10. Staphylococcus aureus has

A. a nucleus B. Mitochondria C. Golgi D. Plasma membrane E. All of the above

11. Bacteria can be grown (cultured)

A. in an incubator
B. on fresh agar media
C. in suitable temperature, CO2, O2 pressure
D. All of the above

12. Normal flora bacteria are considered pathogenic if they were found

A. in the mouth B. on the skin C. in the throat D. in the blood E. in the intestine

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Part III: Mendel and the gene idea

13. A dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two characters (e.g., YyRr) and a
monohybrid is heterozygous for only one character (e.g., Pp)
A. False B. True

14. A sexually reproducing animal has two unlinked genes, one for head shape (H ) and one for tail
length (T ). Its genotype is HhTt. Which of the following genotypes is possible in a gamete from this
organism?
A. HT B. Ht C. Ht D. ht E. All of the above

15. When crossing an organism that is homozygous recessive for a single trait (zz) with a heterozygote
(Zz), what is the chance of producing an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype?
A. 0% B. 25% C. 50% D. 75% E. 100%

16. Which describes the ability of a single gene to have multiple phenotypic effects?

A. Incomplete dominance B. Multiple alleles C. Pleiotropy D. Epistasis

17. In rabbits and many other mammals, one genotype (cc) prevents any fur color from developing.
This is an example of
A. Incomplete dominance B. Multiple alleles C. Pleiotropy D. Epistasis

18. People with sickle-cell trait

A. are usually healthy

B. have increased resistance to malaria
C. are heterozygous for the sickle-cell allele
D. produce normal and abnormal haemoglobin (HbS)
E. All of the above

19. Which of the following occurs during first meiotic prophase?

A. Sister chromatids separate

B. Sister chromatids are replicated
C. Homologous chromosomes separate
D. DNA content becomes half of that in mitotic prophase
E. Homologous chromosomes undergo exchange (crossover)

20. Two AaBb individuals are crossed. What is the probability that a particular offspring will show one
or both of the dominant traits? (A and B are dominant to a and b, respectively, and are unlinked
(independent))
A. 1/16 B. 3/16 C. 9/16 D. 12/16 E. 15/16

Part IV: Immunology

21. ……… are membrane-disruption proteins

A. Perforins B. complement system C. Both A + B D. None of the above

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22. A transfusion of type A blood given to a person who has type O blood would result in ……….…

A. the recipients B antigens reacting with the donated anti-B antibodies

B. the recipients’ anti-A antibodies clumping the donated RBCs
C. the recipients’ anti-A and anti-O antibodies reacting with the donated red blood cells
D. if the donor was a heterozygote (IAi) for blood type, no reaction occurs because type O is a universal
donor

23. ‫ الجمِال‬Camelid antibodies are called mini-antibodies / nanobodies have superior advantages than
conventional antibodies because
A. are composed only of two heavy chains
B. are small in size (15 kDa compared to 150 kDa conventional IgG)
C. can be used in drug deliver to kill target tumour cells
D. All of the above

24. CD45 is a marker for

A. neutrophils D. RBCs
B. lymphocytes E. megakaryocytes
C. endothelial cells F. Both A and B

Part V: Homeostasis and Histology

25. ………………. lines internal body cavities and hollows/tracts and covers the external surfaces

A. The connective tissue

B. The muscle tissue
C. The neural tissue
D. Collagen and keratin
E. None of the above

26. The human dermis does NOT contain which of the following?

A. sweat glands
B. hair follicles
C. sensory nerve endings (including receptors)
D. rich layer of blood and lymphatic vessels
E. Keratinised stratified squamous cells

27. …………… is a dense, thin, acellular sheet-like of extracellular matrix (ECM) that underlies epithelia
and endothelia, and muscle, and separates them from surrounding tissue
A. The tissue B. The collagen C. The convective tissue D. The basement membrane

28. ……………. form the matrix and new layers of cartilage

A. Osteoblasts B. Adipocytes C. Chondroblasts D. Chondrocytes E. Macrophages

Good luck

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