BIOCHEMISTRY

1. This region in the nucleus is the site of ribosome assembly.

A. nuclear membrane C. chromatin
B. nucleolus D. chromosome

2. Which of the following cellular structures is unique in eukaryotes.

A. Plasma membrane C. internal cellular membrane
B. Ribosomes D .Golgi apparatus

3. These organelles consist of membranous sacs containing powerful oxidase enzyme , and they use
molecular oxygen (O2) to detoxify harmful substances.
A. Lysosomes C. peroxisomes
B. Golgi apparatus D .mitochondria

4. The cellular particles are often referred by their sedimentation coefficient value, for example, 70s ribosome
that is expressed in terms of 10 seconds. The abbreviation stands for
A. Subunit C. seconds
B. Svedberg D. none of the above

5. These are organelles that contain the enzymes for pyruvate oxidation, citric acid cycle, beta oxidation of fatty
acids, oxidative phosphorylation .and ETC.
A. Golgi apparatus C. nucleus
B. Lysosomes D. mitochondria

6. Which of the following is / are true?

A. The endoplasmic reticulum is a system of fluid filled cisterns.
B. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for protein synthesis
C. The rough endoplasmic reticulum is the site of lipid synthesis
D. All of the above

7. Some organelles are specific to plants or animal cells . Which of the following organelles are present in plant
cells only?
I. Vacuole III. Cell wall
II. Nuclear envelope IV. Lysosomes
A. I only C. II and IV
B. I and II D. I and IV

8. Viruses are not cellular , but are rather termed as” biological entities”. The main reason why viruses are
considered a cellular entities is because
A. A virus contain only one type of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA.
B. A virus is very small compared to bacteria
C. A virus is pathogenic
D. Scientist cannot classify viruses under the 5 kingdoms of Whittaker

9. Are small , extra chromosomal circular DNA molecules found in prokaryotes.

A. Nucleoli C. plasmids
B. Genes D. histones

10. Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding plasmids.
I. Plasmids are either DNA or RNA molecules
II. Plamids are found in many types of bacteria
III. Plasmids replicate independently of the main chromosome
IV. Each cell contains only a single copy of plasmids
A. III only
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. II and IV

11. The diversity of the different cell types among various organisms lies in their chemical nature. Which of the
following pairs is/are accurate?
A. Bacterial cell membrane- peptidoglycan
B. Plant cell wall- cellulose
C. Animal cell membrane-nucleic acid
D. None of the above

12. Which of the following is/are true of prions?

A. A prion is an infectious agent that contains both proteins and nucleic acid
B. The disease bovine spongiform encephalopathy or mad cow disease is one disease attributed to prions.
C. Both statement are correct
D. Both statements are false.

13. Which of the following structures is/ are present in the nucleus?
A .nuclear membrane C. all of the above
B. Chromatin D. A and B only

14. Which of the following is an active process?

A. Transport of molecules through protein pores.
B. Trans membrane transport through protein pores
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

15. Which of the following statements differentiate simple passive diffusion from facilitated diffusion?
A. Facilitated diffusion is an active process
B. Facilitated diffusion is saturable , simple passive diffusion is not
C. Both statements are correct
D. None of the above

16. Which of the following is affected by digitalis glycosides and ouabain?

A. Sodium-glucose transport system
B. CA -Na exchanger
C. Na-K pump
D. All of the above

17. Which of the following iron is co transported with glucose in the small intestine?
A. Potassium
B. Sodium
C. Calcium
D. Magnesium

18. The nature of the cell wall of the bacteria is used in their classification. Which of the following is cross-linked,
multi layered polysaccharide- peptide complex used as the basis of gram staining.
A. Peptidoglycan
B. Teichoic acid
C. Ergo sterol
D. Phospholipids

19. Which of the following is not a biopolymer?

A. Nucleic acids
B. Carbohydrates
C. Amino acids
D. Lipids

20. Which of the following statements is/ are correct.

A. Adenine is nucleoside
B. Adenosine is a nucleotide
C. Nucleotides are also known as nucleosides phosphates
D. All of the above

21. Which of the following is/ are found in the cytoplasm?

A. Cytosol
B. Inclusions
C. Mitochondrion
D. All of the above
E. A and B only

22. Which of the following is a nucleoside?

A. Guanine
B. Guano sine
 C. guano sine monophosphate
D. Any of the above
23. Which carbon in the sugar is responsible for the difference between the two nucleic acids.
A. Carbon-1
B. Carbon-2
C. Carbon-3
D. None of the above

24. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding nucleic acid primary structure?
A. DNA contains thymine, while RNA contains uracil
B. Adenine and guanine are pyridines
C. Uracil is purine
D. All of the above
E. Only A and B

25. The ribosome in RNA is converted to deoxyribose in DNA by replacing the in RNA
with .

A. Hydroxyl group, hydrogen

B. Hydrogen, hydroxyl group
C. Oxygen, hydroxyl group
D. Hydroxyl group, oxygen

26. What is wobble?

A. The ability of certain anticodons to pair with codons that differ at the third base
B. An error in translation induced by streptomycin
C. A mechanism that allows for a peptide extension in the 50s subunits of the ribosome
D. Thermal motions leading to local denaturation of the double DNA double helix

27. What type of bod connects successive monomer units through a phosphate residue attached to hydroxyl ion
on the 5 carbon of one unit with the 3 hydroxyl of the next?
A. Hydrogen bond
B. Covalent bond
C. Phosphodiester bond
D. None of the above

28. Which of the following groups is responsible for the acidic character of nucleic acids?
A. Phosphate group
B. Nucleotides
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above, nucleic acid is a misnomer. Nucleic acids are not acidic

29. Which of the following are purine bases?

A. Adenine and Thymine
B. Adenine and guanine
C. Cytosine and thymine
D. Cytosine and uracil

30. Which of the following nitrogenous bases is present only in DNA?

A. Adenine
B. Thymine
C. Cytosine
D. Uracil

31. Which of the following base pairs is boned by a double bond?

A. Adenine and thymine
B. Cytosine and guanine
C. Adenine and guanine
D. Cytosine and thymine

32. How many hydrogen bonds are formed between cytosine and guanine?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. No hydrogen bonds are found between them
33. The DNA structure is a double helix containing chains which are complementary. Which of the following
statements best describes complementary?
A. In the chains, each end of the helix contains 5 of one strand and the 3 end of the other
B. Adenine binds to thymine, and cytosine binds to guanine
C. Several codons may code for the same amino acid
D. All of the above

34. Each end of the DNA double helix contains the 5 ends of one strand and the 3 end of the other stand , this
statement describes what characteristic of the DNA structures?
A. Complementary
B. Antiparallel
C. Semiconservative replications
D. Base pairing

35. What do you call the bond between the 1 carbon of the sugar and the base nitrogen?
A. Hydrogen bond
B. Covalent bond
C. Phosphodiester bond
D. Glycosidic bond

36. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Some nucleic acid bases are capable of tautomerization
B. All enzymes are proteins
C. Both statements A and B
D. Both statements are incorrect.

37. Which of the following statements best describes pyrimidine bases?

A. They have a 5- membered membrane structure
B. They have a 6 membered membrane structure
C. Adenine and guanine are pyrimidine bases
D. Some examples include caffeine, theophylline and theobromine

38. The primary difference between nucleoside and nucleotides is the presence of phosphate group in the
former , this statement is;
A. True
B. False

39. Which of the following best describes the degeneracy of the genetic code?
A. 1 codon =1 amino acid
B. 1 codon =6 amino acid
C. 6 codon=1 amino acid
D. None of the above

40. Deoxyribonucleic acid is a double stranded polynucleotide. The base content of DNA displays three sets of
equivalent pairs. Which of the following equations are true?
1 .A=T 3. A+ G= T+ C
2. C=G 4. A+ G is not always equal to T+ C
A. 3 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 4

41. Which of the following is the most form of DNA?

A. A-DNA
B. B-DNA
C. Z-DNA
D. All of the following occur in the same frequency in nature

42. When the two strands of the DNA double helix are separated , each strand can serve as a template for the
replication of the new complementary strand. This describes
A. DNA replication
B. Transcription
C. Complementary of base pairing
D. Semiconservative replication

43. Which of the following is correct according to Watson –crick model for DNA?
1. DNA consist of a two strands
 2. Pairing is A- T and G-C
3. The primary structure of nucleic acids is composed of a double helix stabilized by H- bonds.
4. The chains were complementary and parallel
A. 3 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 4

44. The following base pairs form a minor groove?

A. Cytosine –guanine
B. Adenine- thymine
C. Adenine-uracil
D. A and B only

45. These are discontinuous stretches in which lagging strand is initially synthesized during DN A replication.
A. Enhancer
B. Operon
C. Okazaki fragments
D. Primer

46. A short piece of nucleic acid (DNA or RNA ) , base paired with a DNA template strand and provide free 3-
OH end from which DNA polymerase can extend a DNA strand.
A. Enhancer
B. Operon
C. Okazaki fragments
D. Primer

47. DNA polymerase type has a 5’ to 3’ polymerase and 3’ to 5’ proofreading exonuclease

activity.
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV

48. This DNA polymerase I s primarily involved in repairing DNA.

A. DNA polymerase I
B. DNA polymerase II
C. DNA polymerase III
D. DNA polymerase IV

49. Which of the following statements is/ are true regarding the secondary structure of nucleic acids?
A. Guanine forms base pairs with adenine via 2 hydrogen bonds
B. The B form of the DNA is the most common in biological systems
C. The breaking of H-bonds caused by high temperature is called melting
D. A and B
E. B and C

50. What is the sequence of the major events in DNA replication?

1. DNA ligase joins fragments of the lagging strands, creating a single DNA molecule.
2. DNA polymerase at the replication fork synthesize DNA in 5’ to 3’ direction. There are two strands, the
leading and the lagging strands.
3. DNA double helix is opened by helicases
4. primase creates a temporary RNA
5. DNA polymerase removes RNA primer and fills the gaps between the Okazaki fragments.
A. 1-3-5-4-2
B. 3-4-2-5-1
C. 1-2-5-4-3
D. 4-3-2-5-1

51. This is a rare human disorder, which progresses to photosensitivity, caused by an inherited excinuclease
deficiency.
A. Xeroderma pigmentosa
B. Bloom’s syndrome
C. Fanconi’s anemia
D. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
52. Alkylating agents are used in the treatment of Hodgkin’s disease and leukemia’s. Their main mechanism of
action is to alkylate this nitrogenous base.
A. Adenine
B. Cytosine
C. Guanine
D. Thymine

53. These chemotherapeutic agent binds to bacterial RNA polymerase

A. Pyrazinamide
B. Actinomycin
C. Bleomycin
D. Rifampicin

54. Which of the following is/ are true?

A. RNA polymerase, unlike DNA polymerase does not require primer
B. DNA polymerase is a nuclease
C. RNA polymerase is a nuclease
D. All of the above
E. Only A and B are correct

55. Which of the following is a codon of methionine?

A. UAG
B. AUG
C. UGA
D. UAA

56. This DNA mutations occur when a purine preplaces a pyrimidine or vice versa.
A. Transitional
B. Transversional
C. Insertion
D. Frame shift

57. The purine replaces another purine in mutations.

A. Transitional
B. Transversional
C. Insertion
D. Frame shift

58. Which of the following is /are mutations?

A. Insertion
B. Deletion
C. Transition
D. All of the above
E. Only A and B

59. This mutagenic substance is obtained from smoking cigarettes. It intercalates with DNA and causes frame
shifts..
A. Tar
B. Nicotine
C. Coal
D. Benzopyrine

60. This refers to the noncoding regions that alternate with coding regions in the polypeptide sequence.
A. Exons
B. Promoters
C. Introns
D. Repressor

61. This DNA duplex has a special left handed- helical structure.
A. A-DNA
B. B-DNA
C. Z-DNA
D. F-DNA

62. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of Dactinomycin ( actinomycin D )
A. Bind to bacterial DNA polymerase
B. Binds to 30s subunits
 C. Binds to 50s subunits
D. Intercalates with the minor groove of the double helix

63. 2- aminopyrine is no longer used clinically. It has been found to replace adenine ( 6- aminopurine )or
guanine in DNA resulting to bone marrow toxicity , 2 Aminopyrine exhibit what type of mutation?
A. Transitional
B. Transversional
C. Frameshift
D. deletion

64. Which of the following is /are true regarding the central dogma of molecular biology?
A. Transcription in the synthesis of RNA and DNA
B. The process of replication produces new RNA
C. Reverse transcription is impossible
D. All of the above

65. Actinomycin D, an antineoplastic drug intercalates between two GC pairs in DNA. Which of the following
processes does it inhibit.
A. Translation
B. Transcription
C. DNA repair
D. Replication

66. Tumor producing RNA viruses synthesize DNA from RNA in the process called .
A. Transcription
B. Reverse transcription
C. DNA repair
D. Replication

67. This enzyme is responsible for removing the RNA primer on DNA.
A. Excinuclease
B. DNA ligase
C. RNA polymerase
D. DNA polymerase

68. Which of the following pairs is an accurate pairing of the organism and its start codon?
A. Eukaryote- formylmethionine
B. Prokaryote- methionine
C. Eukaryote- methionine
D. None of the above

69. Human catabolize purine to

A. Urea
B. Uric acid
C. Allantoin
D. Both B and C

70. This refers to the set of prokaryotic structural genes, which are transcribed as a unit, along with regulatory
elements controlling their expression.
A. Operon
B. Operator
C. Inducer
D. Repressor

71. When the serum urate levels exceed to solubility limit, the crystals of sodium urate accumulate in soft tissue
and joints and causes an inflammatory reaction known as
A. Lesch nyhan syndrome
B. Osteomalacia
C. Gouty arthritis
D. Von Gierke’s disease

72. Which of the following statements about amino acid is true?

A. Acidic Amino acid bear a positive charge at pH 7.0
B. All amino acid have a chiral carbon
C. Lysine and arginine are basic amino acids
D. All of the above
73. This type of mutation occurs when the codon containing the changed base may become a termination codon
A. Nonsense mutation
B. Missence mutation
C. Silent mutation
D. Transitional mutation

74. The result of a point mutation that occurs when UCA (coding for serine ) is converted to UCU ( also coding
for serine ) is called
A. Nonsense mutation
B. Missense mutation
C. Silent mutation
D. Any of the above

75. Glutamine and asparagine amino acids are

A. Acidic
B. Basic
C. Neutral
D. Non polar

76. Which Statement is true?

A. Cysteine is dimer of cysteine
B. Cysteine is more stable then cysteine
C. Both statements are correct
D. Bothe statement are false

77. Which of the following amino acids contains basic side chain?
A. Histidine
B. Arginine
C. Leucine
D. All of the above
E. Only A and B

78. Which of the following amino acids contain side chains with sulfur atom?
A. Methionine
B. Cysteine
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A or B

79. Which of the following amino acids is responsible for disrupting the alpha helix because its amino group is
not geometrically compatible with the right handed spiral alpha helix?
A. Proline
B. Valine
C. Leucine
D. Glycine

80. Which of the following amino acids has an imino group?

A. Phenylalanine
B. Proline
C. Tyrosine
D. Threonine

81. Which of the following amino acids possesses a hydroxyl group, which renders it them polar?
A. Serine
B. Threonine
C. Tyrosine
D. Only A and B
E. All of the above

82. What stabilizes the primary structure of proteins?

A. Salt bridges
B. Hydrophobic bonds
C. Disulfide bonds
D. All of the above

83. Which of the following amino acids possesses a phenolic hydroxyl group?
A. Serine
B. Threonine
 C. Tyrosine
D. Only A and B
E. All of the above
84. The isoelectric pH is the pH between pK values on either side of the isoelectric process. Which of the
following equation gives an accurate estimate of isoelectric pH.
A. pI= pK1 =pK2
B. pI= (pK1+pK2 )/2
C. pI=(pK1+ pK2 ) 2
D. pI =pK1> pK2

85. Using the equation of pI, calculate the pI( isoelectric pH) of alanine pK1 (R-COOH ) = 2.35, p K2 (R-NH3 ) =
9.69
A. 6.02
B. 12.04
C. 24.08
D. 5.0

86. Thyroxine, which is chemically 3, 5 3, 5 tetraidothyronine, is used as a precursor of thyroid hormones. What
type of biopolymer is thyroxine?
A. Carbohydrate
B. Lipid
C. Protein
D. Nucleic acid

87. Peptide bond, a type of amide bond, binds the amino terminal of one amino acid to the carboxyl end of
another. What type of process involved in the formation of peptide bonds.
A. Oxidation
B. Hydration
C. Reduction
D. Dehydration

88. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. The C-N bond in the peptide linkage has a partial double bond property that makes it rigid.
B. Neither the C=O nor the N-H in the peptide bond can dissociate
C. Each amino acid in the polypeptide chain is called a residue
D. All of the above

89. This structure of peptide refers to the order of amino acids in the polypeptide chains and the location of the
disulfide bond.
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary

90. This refers to the spatial arrangements of amino acids residues close to one another in the linear sequence
of a polypeptide chain.
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary

91. The overall arrangement and interrelationship of various regions in domains, and individual amino acid
residues of the single polypeptide chain is
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary

92. Alpha helix and b- pleated sheets belong to what structure?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary

93. Random coils and triple helices are example to what protein structure?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
 C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary

94. Fibrous and globular proteins belong to what protein structure?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary

95. The arrangement of polypeptide chains in relation to one another in a multi-chained protein refers to what
structure?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary

96. What do you call the principal method for determining the primary structure of polypeptides? For its initial
step, it utilizes phenylisocyanate , which combines with the terminal amino acid of polypeptide.
A. Grignard
B. Edman
C. Molisch
D. Zollinger

97. Which ofd the following bonds are found in the quaternary structure of polypeptides?
1. Hydrogen bonds 3. Hydrophobic bonds
2. Electrostatic bonds 4. Covalent bonds
A. 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 1-3
D. All of the above

98. Denaturation is randomization of the conformation of polypeptide chain. Chemical agents like strong acids or
bases, heat , ionic detergents, etc. are involved in the process. Which of the following structures remain
unaffected with denaturation?
1. Primary 3. tertiary
2. Secondary 4. Quaternary
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 1 and 3
D. 1-4

99. Which of the following statements is true?

A. Fibrous proteins are water insoluble
B. Globular proteins are water soluble
C. Proteins lose their biologic activity after denaturation
D. Denaturation of protein are sometimes reversible
E. All of the above

100. Which of the following is/are example of essential amino acids?

A. Tyrosine
B. Threonine
C. Tryptophan
D. Both A and B
E. Both B and C

101. Dopamine , norepinephrine and epinephrine are collectively called catecholamines. Which of the following
amino acids serves as a precursor in the synthesis of these catecholamines?

A. Tryptophan
B. Threonine
C. Tyrosine
D. alanine

102. Serotonin is synthesized from this amino acid.

A. Tryptophan
B. Threonine
C. Tyrosine
 D. Alanine

103. Histamine , a chemical messenger, mediates allergic and inflammatory reactions, gastric acid secretion
and neurotransmission of the brain. Which of the following amino acids, which when decarboxylated, yields
histamine?

A. Tyrosine
B. Histidine
C. Tryptophan
D. Any of the above

104. The non- polar amino acid – alanine, leucine, and tryptophan, are all expected to be located in the

Of a globular protein in aqueous environment.

A. Central
B. Peripheral
C. Randomly arranged
D. Scattered

105. Polar and ionized side chains in globular proteins tend to move to the surface to form
bonds with water.

A. Inner
B. Outer
C. Entire
D. Regional

106. Fibrous proteins are elongated, water soluble , generally in either alpha-helical, pleated sheet, or triple
helical forms. Which of the following is an example of fibrous proteins?

A. Hemoglobin
B. Actin
C. Myosin
D. Elastin

107. Among the fibrous proteins listed below, which are the major proteins of skin and hair?

A. Keratin
B. Collagen
C. Elastin
D. Fibronectin

108. The fibrous proteins is the most abundant single proteins in vertebrates.

A. Keratin
B. Collagen
C. Elastin
D. Fibronectin

109. Which of the following statements below gives an accurate description of collagen?

A. It is a fibrous proteins
B. The basic unit of collagen is tropocollagen, a triple helix of three polypeptide chain
C. Vitamin A is important in catalyzing the hydroxylation of proline
D. All of the above
E. Only A and B

110. Which of the fibrous protein is an important structural component of the arterial blood vessels and
ligaments?

A. Keratin
B. Collagen
C. Elastin
D. Fibronectin

111. One way of classifying protein is through their physical properties. Which of the following is soluble in water
and salt solutions, and has no distinctive amino acids?

A. Prolamine
B. Globulin
C. Albumin
D. Histones
112. This is a general term for naturally occurring proteins that yield only alpha amino acids, or their derivative
on hydrolysis

A. Simple proteins
B. Albuminoids
C. Conjugated proteins
D. Derived proteins

113. These are proteins that are combined in nature with some non-protein substances, and are classified
according to the nature of their prosthetic group or non- protein portion.

A. Simple proteins
B. Conjugated proteins
C. Primary derived proteins
D. Secondary derived proteins

114. These are proteins that differ only slightly from their source original proteins, and are formed by means of
the action of heat, acids, alkali, water, enzymes, and mechanical shock.

A. Simple proteins
B. Conjugated proteins
C. Derived proteins
D. Proteosis

115. Keratin in hair and horny tissue, elastin in tendons and arteries, and collagen in skin and tendons belong to
what type of simple proteins?

A. Glutelins
B. Histones
C. Protamines
D. Albuminoids

116. Glutenin in wheat (glutelin ) and zein in corn ( prolamines ) belong to what classification of proteins?

A. Simple proteins
B. Conjugated proteins
C. Denaturated proteins
D. Coagulated proteins

117. Casein in milk and ovovitellin in eggyolk are examples of what type of conjugated proteins?

A. Phospoproteins
B. Nucleuproteins
C. Glycoproteins
D. Chromoproteins

118. Nucleoproteins, lipoproteins, and glycoproteins are classified under what type of proteins?

A. Simple proteins
B. Conjugated proteins
C. Primary derived proteins
D. Secondary derived proteins

119 .Fibrin from fibrinogen and myosan from myosin are examples of what type of primary derived proteins.

A. Proteans
B. Mateproteans
C. Coagulated protein
D. Peptones

120. These are primary derived proteins, which are insoluble substances formed during the early stage of the
action of water, enzymes and dilute acids.

A. Proteans
B. Conjugated proteins
C. Metaproteins
D. Peptones

121. These are primary derived proteins formed during the early stages of protein hydrolysis by means of acids
or alkali.

A. Metaproteins
 B. Acid or alkali albuminates
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B

122. Arrange the following secondary derived proteins from highest to lowest number of molecular weight.

A. Peptide >peptones>proteoses
B. Proteoses>peptides>peptones
C. Proteoses >peptones >peptides
D. Peptones > proteoses >peptides

123. What enzyme is responsible for converting phenylalanine to tyrosine

A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
B. Phenylalanine dehydrogenase
C. Phenylalanine ligase
D. Phenylalanine kinase

124. The absence of this enzyme results to phenylketonuria.

A. Phenylalanine dehydrogenase
B. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
C. Homogentsate oxidase
D.Either A or B

125. Which of the following is true regarding phenylketonuria?

A. The enzyme homogentisate oxidase results to phenylketonuria

B. There overproduction of tyrosine
C. There is always an abnormal development of the child’s brain
D. An artificial protein that lacks phenylalanine is given to children with PKU

126. What diet would you advice the child mother with PKU to give to her baby?

A. Rich in tyrosine, lacks phenylalanine

B. Equal quantities of tyrosine and phenylalanine
C. Rich in phenylalanine, lacks tyrosine
D. Regular infant formula

127. What enzyme is deficient in alkaptunoria?

A. Phenylalanine dehydrogenase
B. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
C. Homogentisate hydroxylase
D. Any of the above

128. What essential amino acid is used in the synthesis of niacin?

A. Tyrosine
B. Methionine
C. Tryptophan
D. Phenylalanie

129. What important neurotransmitter uses tryptophan as its precursor?

A. Histamine
B. Actylcholine
C. Norepinephrine
D. Serotonin

130. Which of the following are branched-chain amino acids responsible for the characteristic sweet smell of the
urine of patients with maple syrup urine disease

A. Leucine, isoleucine, and valine

B. Leucine, alanine and valine
C. Lysine, alanine, and valine
D. Lysine, isoleucine and valine

131. This results from the oxidation of heme protein in hemoglobin resulting to increased affinity, and therefore
failure to adequately deliver oxygen to tissues.

A. Thalassemia
B. Methemolobinemia
 C. Sulfhemoglobinemia
D. Sickle cell anemia

132. The coenzyme FMN and FAD is responsible for the oxidative deamination of amino acids. Which of the
following vitamins is related to this coenzymes?

A. B1
B. B2
C. B3
D. B4

133 .Myoglobin and hemoglobin possesses a cyclic tetrapyrole , heme, as a prosthetic group. Which of the
following ions is found centrally located in the heme?

A. Mg
B. Al
C. Fe
D. P

134. Some serum enzymes are used clinical diagnosis. Which of the following enzyme/s may be used to
diagnose myocardial infarction?

1. Gamma glutamyl transpeptidase

2. AST or SGOT
3. Creatinine phosphokinase
4. Lactate dehydrogenase
A. 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1-3
D. 2-4

135. Acute pancreatitis maybe diagnose using which serum enzymes?

1. Acid phosphatase
2. Alkaline phosphatase
3. Lipase
4. Amylase
A. 3 only
B. 4 only
C. 1 and 2
D. 3 and 4

136. Which of the following enzymes adds an inorganic phosphate to break a bond?

A. Kinase
B. Phosphorylase
C. Phosphatase
D. Ligase

137. Wernickes- Korsakoff syndrome, which can cause acute confusion, ataxia and opthalmoplegia , can be
treated with which of the following?

A. Riboflavin
B. Ascorbic acid
C. Thiamine
D. Pantothenic acid

138 .What is the deficiency state of folic acid?

A. Aplastic anemia
B. Microcytic anemia
C. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Macrocytic anemia

139. Which of the following coenzymes is responsible for carrying I- carbon groups?

A. TPP (thiamine pyrophosphate )

B. NADH (reduced nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide )
C. FAD ( flavin adenine dinucleotide )
D. TFHA (tetrahydrofolic acid )
140. Bone disorder and obstructive liver disease maybe diagnosed using which of the following serum
enzymes?

A. Aminotransferase
B. Alkaline phosphatase
C. Acid phosphatase
D. Lactate dehydrogenase

141. Which of the following vitamins is present in coenzymes required in the transfer of amino groups and
decarboxylation of amino acids? Its deficiency state is manifested by glossitis, peripheral neuropathy and niacin
deficiency.

A. Pyridoxine
B. Niacin
C. Thiamine
D. Riboflavin

142. The signs of pellagra include dermatitis, diarrhea ,dementia, and loss of tongue papillae. Which of the
following is/are deficient in pellagra?

A. Niacin
B. Tryptophan
C. Both A and B
D. Pellagra is not a deficiency state. It is an autoimmune disorder.

143. Trimethoprim and methotrexate are folate reductase inhibitors. The used of the aforementioned drugs
predisposes a person to develop

a. Nausea and vomiting

b. Dermatitis
c. Normocytic anemia
d. Megaloblastic anemia

144. Cheilosis , glossitis , seborrhea , and photophobia are manifestations of what deficiency state?

A. Thiamine
B. Riboflavin
C. Niacin
D. Pyridoxine

145 .Certain metals and trace are importants as enzyme cofactors.

What metal is present in enzyme gluthathione peroxidase that replaces S is one cysteine in active site?
A. Fe
B. Co
C. Se
D. Zn

146 .This class of immunoglobulin is produced during the early response to invading organisms. It has a
relatively large size that restricts its transport in the bloodstream.

A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgD
D. IgA

147. This is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood. Together with IgM , it is capable of triggering
system. Which immunoglobulin is this?

A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgD
D. IgE

148. This immunoglobulin is responsible for mediating hypersensitivity by causing the release of mediators from
mast cells and basophils upon exposure to antigens or allergens?

A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgE
149. This immunoglobulin prevents the attachments of bacteria and viruses to mucuos membranes. It is found in
body secretions such as tears , colostrum , saliva , sweat and small intestines.

A. IgD
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgE

150. This immunoglobulin is capable of crossing the placenta?

A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. IgD

151. Which of the following act synergistically with Vit E?

A. Se
B. Co
C. Cu
D. Mn

152. This are slightly longer, catalytically inactive form of enzymes?

A. Haloenzymes
B. zymogen
C. haloenzyme
D. Both A and B

153. This term refers to an intact with a bound co-factor?

A. Haloenzyme
B. Apoenzyme
C. Zymogen
D. Prosthetic group

154. Ninhydrin is widely used for detecting amino acids . what is the visible result for ninhydrin test in the
presence of proline and and hydroxyproline?

A. Violet
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Old rose

155. Which of the following test is specific for amino acids and free amino group/

A. Biuret test
B. Hopkins Cole test
C. Ninhydrin
D. Xanthoproteic test

156. Xanthprotheic test is a test for?

A. Free amino groups

B. Arginine
C. Cysteine
D. Tyrosine

157. What is the positive visible result of Xanthoproteic test?

A. Yellow color deepening into orange

B. Violet color
C. Bluish green
D. Old rose

158. This test is used to identify the presence of peptide linkage?

A. Ninhydrin
B. Biuret
C. Hopkins Cole
D. Sakaguchi

159. Hopkins Cole is used to identify which of the following amino acids?
 A. Threonine
B. Tryptophan
C. Lysine
D. Leucine

160. Which of the following gives a positive result to basic lead acetate test?

A. Tryptophan
B. Cysteine
C. Cysteine
D. Both A and B
E. Both B and C

161. Pauly diazo test indicates the presence of

A. histidine
B. tyrosine
C. tryptophan
D. both A and B
E. Both B and C

162. Specific test for arginine

A. Biuret test
B. Basic lead acetate test
C. Ninhydrin
D. Sakaguchi

163. This test is used to confirm the presence of the phenolic ring of tyrosine?

A. Ninhydrin test
B. Anthrone test
C. Schiffs test
D. Millons- Nasse

164. This is also known as glyoxylic acid reaction?

A. Millons-nasse
B. Ninhydrin
C. Hopkins cole
D. Schiffs test

165 .Which of the following statement is/ are correct?

1. The difference between intake and output of nitrogenous compounds is known as nitrogen balance.
2. In a healthy adult , nitrogen balance is in equilibrium when intake equals output
3. Positive nitrogen balance occurs when dietary intake is less the excretion of nitrogenous compounds
4. Negative nitrogen balance results when there is too much protein intake
A. 3 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 4
D. 1 and 4

166. This is also known as protein calorie malnutrition. It is a state resulting from the chronic deficiency of
calories , which can occur even in the presence of adequate intake of protein

A. Marasmus
B. Obesity
C. Hemochromatosis
D. Kwashiorkor

167. The digestion of protein begins in the

A. Mouth
B. Stomach
C. Small intestine
D. Pancreas

168. Pepsinogen is an example of

A. Apoenzyme
B. Holoenzyme
 C. Cofactor
D. Zymogen

169. Racemase and mutase are examples of what type of enzymes?

A. Lyases
B. Isomerases
C. Oxidoreductase
D. Ligase

169. Racemase , Mutase , are examples of what type of enzymes?

A. lyases
B. isomerases
C. oxireductase
D. ligases

170. This is caused by inadequate intake of protein in the presence of adequate intake of calories?

A. Marasmus
B. Obesity
C. Hemochromatosis
D. Kwashiorkor

171. This enzymes adds hydrogen atoms to a molecule.

A. Reductase
B. Oxidase
C. Ligase
D. Synthase

172. Which of the following enzymes is an example of hydrolases?

A. esterase
B. racemase
C. aminotransferase
D. decarboxylase

173. This type of enzymes cleaves a carbon to carbon bond to create an aldehyde group?
A. esterase
B. transferase
C .aldose
D. protease

174. The enzyme decarboxylase is an example of a enzyme?

A. hydrolase
B. ligase
C. racemase
D. lyase

175. These are defined a polyhydroxylated compounds with at least three carbon atoms that may or may not
possess a carbonyl group.
A. proteins
B. carbohydrates
C. lipids
D. nucleic acids

176. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. glyceraldehyde is ketotriose
B. dihydroxyacetone is an aldotriose
C .glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone ate tataumers
D. all of the above

177. This are sugar alcohol derived from glucose, which often accumulates in the lenses of diabetic and produces
cataracts.
A. mannitol
B. sorbitol
C. glucitol
D. glycerol

178. Glucose, Fructose and Galactose all have the same chemical formula C6H12O6, through this information , we
can conclude that these substance are
A. anomers
B. epimers
C. enantiomers
D. isomers
179. These stereoisomers are non-superimposible mirror image of each other. These are also called optical isomers
because they rotate polarized light in opposite directions.
A. enantiomers
B. diastereomers
C. anomers
D. both A and B

180. D- threose and L- threose are examples of

A. anomers
B. enantiomers
C. diastereomers
D. conformational isomers

181. Which of the following has the most number of carbon atoms?
A. erythrose
B. sedoheptulose
C. galactose
D. ribose

182. Which of the following statements is /are true?

A. the carbonyl carbon is aldoses in carbon 1
B. the carbonyl group is ketoses in carbon 2
C. Both statements are correct
D. both statements are false

183. Arrange the following monosaccharides from the highest number to lowest number of carbon atoms?
1. erythrose 3. Galactose
2. sedoheptulose 4. Ribose
A. 4-3-1-2
B.3-2-1-4
C. 2-3-4-1
D. 1-2-3-4

184. The stereoisomers of cyclized monosaccarides molecules differing only in the configuration of
the substituents on the carbonyl carbon.
A. diastereomers
B. enantiomers
C. epimers
D. anomers

185. Maltose , a disaccharides is composed of

A. glucose + galactose
B. glucose + fructose
C. glucose + glucose
D. glucose + mannose

186. Which of the following carbohydrates contains the most number of carbon atoms?
A. sedoheptulose
B. sialic acid
C. ribose
D. glycerose

187. Which of the following statement is /are correct?

A. In Fischer projection, when the sugar is written vertically , the lowest carbon is designated as carbon 1
B. If an –OH projects to the right on the Fischer structure, it will project downward in the Haworth projection
C. The Haworth projection provides a more exact representation of the three dimensional conformation of
sugars in nature than chair configuration.
D. all of the above

188. Mutarotation, is a process of interconversion between the alpha and beta forms, using the open chain structure
as a intermediate. Which of the following undergoes mutarotation .
A. monosaccharide’s
B. disaccharides
C. polysaccharides
D. amino acids

189. Which of the following present a cylic sugar nature?

A. Fischer projection
B. Haworth projection
C. Chair projection
D. boat conformation

190. Glucose and galactose differ only in the configuration of their hydroxyl group at carbon 4, thus they are called”
A. diastereomers
B. enantiomers
C. epimers
D. anomers
191. Glycogen is an example of a
A. disaccharide
B. monosaccharide
C. polysaccharide
D. none of the above

192. Which of the following statements is correct about boat and conformation?
A. Axial bonds are parallel to the axis
B. equatorial bonds are perpendicular to the axis
C. For the 6 carbon pyranose , the chair from is more stable than the boat form
D. all of the above
E. only C is correct

193. The OH group on the penultimate or second to the last carbon atoms determines
A. D (dextro ) L ( levo ), dextro pointing to the right and levo pointing to the left
B. D (dextro ) L ( levo ), regarding optical activity
C. both statements are correct
D. both statements are incorrect

194. The glycosidic formed in glycosides is an example of

A. ester bond
B . ether bond
C .ketone bond
D.Noncovalent bond

195. Benedicts test is the traditional test for glucose in the urine . What is the basis for the test?

A. oxidation of cuprous ions to cupric oxides

B. reduction of cupric ions to cuprous oxide
C. enzymatic degradation of glucose
D. reation of glucose with complexing agents

196. Glucose normally absent in the urine because kidneys normally completely reabsorbed all glucose . Which of
the following is true?
A. Glucosuria confirms diabetes mellitus
B. Glucosuria necesarrily means hyperglycemia
C. Glucosuria is solely attributed to insulin problems
D. Glucosuria may occur in other disease state

197. Ascorbic acid, glucoronides and some drugs act as reducing agents . How would test substances affect
Benedicts test result?
A. They may give false negative results
B. They may give false positive results
C. They would not affect that results
D. They would enhance the sensitivity to the test

198. Testape (Lilly ) , Clinistix ( Bayer ) , Multistix ( Bayer ) are based on what principles?
A. oxidation
B. reduction
C. enzymatic action
D. Both A and B
E. both A and C

199. Insulin promotes the storage of fat and glucose in specialized target cells. Which pancreatic cell type of its
responsible for secreting this hormone?
A. A cell or alpha
B. B cell or beta
C. D cell or delta
D. F cell or Delta

200. This hormones may sometimes be useful in reversal of cardiac effects of Beta blocker overdose because of its
ability to increase cAMP production in the heart

A. Insulin
B. Somatostatin
C. Somatomedin
D. glucagon

201. The deficiency of which the following enzymes predisposes persons taken sme therapeutic agents (e.g 4
aminoquinoline, sulfonamides , and propanthelin ) to hemolytic anemia.
A. glucose 1 –phosphate
B. glucose 6-phosphate
C. pyruvate dehydrogenase
D. thymidylate synthase

202. The digestion of carbohydrates begins in the

A. mouth
 B. stomach
C. small intestine
D. duodenum

203. The nonsugar portion of glycosides is known as

A. aglycone
B. genin
C. glycine
D. both A and B
E. both B and C

204. What type of glycisidic bond joins the dimer of glucose to form maltose?
A. alpha 1, 4
B. beta 1, 4
C. alpha 1, 2
D. beta 1, 2

205. The cell markers, which serve as basis for the ABO blood types, are classified as what type of biopolymers?
A. proteins
B. carbohydrates
C. lipids
D. nucleic acids

206. Which of the following blood types is considered as the universal donor?
A. A
B. B
C. AB
D. O

207. Which of the following is the reason why blood type AB is considered as universal recipient?
A. It is the most common among the ABO blood types
B. Blood type AB has neither A nor B substances
C. blood type AB has neither anti- A nor anti- B antibodies
D. all of the above

208. Which of the following statements is/ are true?

A. amylose is long, unbranched polymer with alpha 1, 4 bonds
B. starch consist of a greater proportion of amylopectin than amylose
C. all of the above
D. A and B only

209. The enzyme alpha amylase cleaves to maltose and maltotriose.

A. chondroitin
B. cellulose
C. heparin
D. amylopectin

E. amylase
210. Which of the following is a homopolymer of N – acetyl beta –D – glucosamine whose best known function is in
invertebrate animals?
A. xylan
B.peptidoglycan
C. hyaluronic acid

D. chitin
211. Which of the following is / are examples of glycosaminoglycans?
A. hyaluronic acids
B. mucopolysaccharides
C. chondroitin sulfate
D. all of the above

E. only A and C
212. Which of the following is/ are examples of trisaccharides?
A. raffinose
B. gentianose
C. melezitose
D. all of the above

E. A and B only
213.Raffinose, a trisaccharides also known as
A. melitose
B. melitriose
C. melezitose
D. Both A and B
E. Both B and C
214. Alpha napthol reaction is also known as
A. Molisch test
B. Ninhydrin test
C. Phenylhydrazine test
D. Fehlings test

215. What is the visible result for Molisch test?

A. green or blue green
B. brick red precipitate
C. cherry red color
D. purple ring at the junction

216. This is the other name of Taubers test for ketoses?

A. Anthrone test
B. Seliwanoffs test
C. Aminoguanidine reaction
D. Mucic acid test

217. What is the visible result of aminoguanidine reaction?

A. purple ring at the junction
B. green
C. brownish black precipitate
D. bright reddish precipitate

218. Which of the following accurately describes Barfoeds test?

A. general test for carbohydrates
B. test for ketoses
C. specific test for galactose
D. test to differentiate monosaccharides and disaccharides

219. The addition of a few drops of iodine to a solution produces blue color. This indicates the presence of
A. starch
B. dextrin
C. all of the above
D. A and B only
E. A and B only

220. A reddish solution results after addition of iodine TS to unknown solution. Subsequent addition of ammoniacal
basic lead acetate to a portion of the unknown solutions to the formation of a precipitate. The results to the test
confirm the presence of
A. glycogen
B. dextrin
C. starch
D. lactose

221. This gives a negative to benedicts test

A. glucose
B. sucrose
C. lactose
D. maltose

222. What test can be used to diffentiate galactose from lactose?

A. Benidicts test
B. iodine test
C. Barfoed test
D. Mucic acid test

223. What is the positive result for Fehling test?

A. violet precipitate
B. brick red precipitate
C. green precipitate
D. amorphous crystals

224. This is the general test for carbohydrates?

A. alpha napthol reaction
B. molisch test
C. Phenylhydrazine Test
D. Both A and B
E. Both B and C

225. Which of the following sugars forms an insoluble white phenylhydrazone readily?
A. sucrose
B. galactose
C. arabinose
D. mannose

226. Which hydrolysis product of starch is responsible for forming a dark blue complex with iodine?
 A. amylopectin
B. amylose
C. maltose
D. all of the above

227.This is differentiating test for aldose and ketose sugars?

A. Seliwanoffs test
B. Mucic acid test
C. Barfoed test
D. any of the above

228. This is also known as Embden- Mayeroff pathway?

A. glycolysis
B. Gluconeogenesis
C. glycogenesis
D. glycogenolysis

229. Which of the following is / are ATP consuming stage (s) in glycolysis?
A. Irreversible phosporylation of glucose to glucose 6- phosphate
B. Irreversible phoporylation of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose- 1, 6- biphosphate
C. phospoenolpyruvate to pyruvate
D. A and B
E. B and C

230. Which of the following enzymes is responsible for catalyzing the reaction of glucose to glucose – phosphate?
A. hexokinase
B. pyruvate kinase
C. PFK
D. glyceraldehyde phosphate dehydrogenase

231. This enzyme catalyzes the conversion of fructose-6-P to fructose-1, 6-bi- Phosphate?
A .hexokinase
B. pyruvate kinase
C. PFK
D. glyceraldehyde phosphate dehydrogenase

232. The enzymes for glycolysis are found in the

A. mitochondrion
B. cytososl
C. ribosome
D. nucleus

233. Which of the following enzymes is most important in controlling glycolysis?

A. hexokinase
B.pyruvate kinase
C. PFK
D. none of the above

234. This enzyme is the key that links glycolysis, TCA cycle, amino acid metabolism, and fatty acid oxidation.
A.hexokinase
B. pyruvate kinase
C. PFK
D. none of the above

235. In the phosphorylation reaction, this metal is an essential cofactor?

A. Cu
B. Fe
C. Mg
D. Al

236. This is the main pathway for the carbohydrate catabolism in all human tissues?
A. glycolysis
B. glycogenolysis
C. fructose catabolism
D. galactose catabolism

237. Which of the following enzymes catalyze irreversible steps in glycolysis?

1. PFK 3. Pyruvate kinase
2. hexokinase 4. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
A. 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2, 3
D. 2 and 4
238. The NADH in glycolysis (cytosol ) must be transported to the mitochondrion to undergo oxidative
phosphorylation. However, neither NAD or NADH can penetrate the mitochondrion. This problem is addressed by
the use of shuttles. Which of the following statements regarding the shuttles is correct?
A. glycerol-PO4 shuttle yields 3 ATP
B. malate aspartate shuttle yields 2 ATP
C. both statements are correct
D. both statements are false

239. Which of the following statements is/ are true regarding anaerobic glycolysis?
A. The formation of lactate and 2ATP is the net yield
B. There is a net of 2 NADH produced in the process
C. The anaerobic glycolysis is slower than the aerobic glycolysis
D. all of the above
E. Both A and B

240. The total bet ATP produced in aerobic glycolysis is ATPs per mole of hexose , depending on
which shuttle predominates in the transport NAD/ NADH.
A. 4 to 6
B. 6 to 8
C. 4 to 8
D. 8 to 10

241. The site of citric acid

A. cytososl
B. mitochondria
C. ribosomes
D. any of the above

242. Among the different cells in the body , only these lack mitochondria, which render them incapable of TCA.
A .platelets
B. leukocytes
C. erythrocytes
D. brain cells

243. Which of the following is the central hub in the metabolism of carbohydrates, lipids and amino acids?
A. glycolysis
B. pentose Phosphate Pathway
C. beta –oxidation

D. citric acid cycle

244. What enzymes catalyze the conversion of Acetyl- CoA and oxaloacetate to citrate?
A. citrate synthase
B. isocitrate dehydrogenase
C. fumarase
D. malate dehydrogenase

245. Which of the following is /are the control points in the TCA?
A. the citrate reaction , which is inhibited by ATP
B. Isocitrate dehydrogenase reaction, which is inhibited by ATP
C. alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase reaction , which is inhibited by the end products Succinyl CoA and
NADH
D. all of the above
E. a and B only

246. The electron transport chain (ETC ) is the final common pathway by which electrons derived from the different
fuels of the body flow to oxygen . Where does ETC occur?
A. outer mitochondrial membrane
B. inner mitochondrial membrane
C. cytosol
D. ribosome

247. This is the product of the complete reduction of oxygen?

A. water
B. superoxide anions
C.hydrogen peroxide
D. hydroxyl radicals

248. Which of the following enzymes converts hydrogen peroxide in water?

A. superoxide dismutase
B. catalase
C. cytochrome reductase
D. cytochrome oxidase

249. Tocopherol, carotene, glutathione are ascorbate are all examples of

A. reducing agents
B. antioxidants
C. both A and B
 D. neither A nor B
250. Gluconeogenesis, the formation of new glucose , have enzymes that are confined only in some organs , which
include
A. muscles
B. liver
C. kidneys
D. Both A and B
E. Both B and C

251. What enzyme in gluconeogenesis is include to bypass the hexokinase reaction, which is the conversion of
glucose to glucose- phosphate?
A. pyruvate carboxylase
B. PEP carboxykinase
C. fructose biphosphate
D. glucose -6 –phosphatase

252. Which of the following enzymes in gluconeogenesis is used to bypass the PFK reaction?
A. pyruvate carboxylase
B. PEP carboxykinase
C. fructose biphosphate
D. glucose -6 –phosphatase

253. What two enzymes are used to bypass the pyruvate kinase reaction of glycolysis?
1 . pyruvate carboxylase
2. PEP carboxykinase
3. fructose biphosphate
4. glucose -6 –phosphatase
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 4

254. The pentose phosphate pathway occur in the of the liver, muscle and kidney.
A. inner mitochondria
B. outer mitochondria
C. cytosol
D. ribosomes

255. Which of the following includes the main goals of Pentose Phosphate Pathaway?
A. produce ribose -5 –phosphate for nucleotide synthesis
B. produce NAPDH and NADP for fatty acid and steroid biosynthesis
C. to interconvert pentoses and hexoses
D. all of the above
E. A and B only

256. Which of the following enzymes is present only in the liver and kidney and not in the muscles?
A. pyruvate carboxylase
B. PEP carboxykinase
C. fructose biphosphate
D. glucose – 6- phosphatase

257. This is only the eraction coupled with substrate level phosphorylation in the TCA?
A. citrate to isocitrate
B. isocitrate to alpha –ketoglutarate
C. succinyl CoA to succinyl
D. succinate to fumarate

258. This is only the reaction in TCA that involves FAD / FAD2?
A. citrate to isocitrate
B. isocitrate to alpha –ketoglutarate
C. succinyl CoA to succinyl
D. succinate to fumarate

259. How many ATPs are produced for every acetyl CoA oxidized?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 8

260. How many ATPs are produced in the reduction of one mole of NAD to NADH?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 3
D. 12

261. How many ATPs are produced in the convertion of one mole of FADH2 to FAD?
A. 2
 B .3
C. 4
D. 12

262. This refers to aldose-ketose interconvertion?

A. tautomerization
B. mutarotation
C. isomerism
D. conjugation

263. Which of the following occurs in the cytosol?

A. TCA
B. glycolysis
C. PPP
D. both A and B
E. Both B and C

264. The site of acylglycerol synthesis.

A. ribosome
B. endoplasmic reticulum
C. cytosol

D. mitochondrion
265. This refers to the totality of the chemical reactions that occur in an organism?
A. metabolism
B. anabolism
C. catabolism
D. amphibolism

266. The citric acid cycle is an example of an metabolism

A. anabolic
B. catabolic
C. amphibolic
D. none of the above

267. Which of the following is true regarding anabolism?

A. it is involved in the breakdown of larger molecules
B. It consumes energy
C. it commonly involves oxidative reactions
D. It is exergonic

268. Which of the following is/ are true example of catabolism?

A. glycogenesis
B. glycolysis
C. beta oxidation of fatty acid
D. both A and B
E. Both B and C

269. After digestion and absorption, all biopolymers are converted to the common product,
A. acetyl CoA
B. pyruvate
C. citrate
D. any of the above

270. This refers to a class of a heterogenous group of compound , which are more relate by their physical than by
their chemical properties.
A. proteins
B. nucleic acids
C. carbohydrates
D. lipids

271. These are esters of fatty acids and glycerol?

A. fixed oils and fats
B. waxes
C. sterols
D. phospholipids

272. These are esters of high molecular weight, monohydric alcohols and high molecular weight fatty acids.
A. fixed oils and fats
B. waxes
C. sterols
D. phospholipids

273. These are alcohols containing CPPP nucleus?

A. fixed oils and fats
B. waxes
C. sterols
 D. phospholipids

274. These are esters of glycerol in combination with fatty acids, phosphoric acid, and certain nitrogenous
compounds.
A. fixed oils and fats
B. waxes
C. sterols
D. phospholipids

275. Lard is an example of what chemical class of lipids?

A. fixed oils and fats
B. waxes
C. sterols
D. phospholipids

276. Which of the following is a wax?

A. cholesterol
B. ergosterol
C. spermacetti
D. lecithin

277. Lecithin is an example of

A. fixed oils and fats
B. waxes
C. sterols
D. phospholipids

278. Which of the following is / are true regarding fats and fixed oils?
A. the difference in consistency is caused by the glyceryl ester present.
B. Fixed oils are fats that are solids at room temperature
C. Fixed oils have a higher proportion of saturated glycerides.
D. Fats have a higher proportion of unsaturated glycerides
E. all of the above

279. What phospholipids are associated with the process of blood clotting?
A. lecithin
B. cephalin
C. spingomyelin
D. none of the above

280. Which of the following statements is/ are true?

A. Unsaturated fatty acids have lower meltin point than saturated fatty acids
B. vegetable oils are generally liquid
C. vegetable oils are generally solid
D. Both A and B
E. Both B and C

281. Which of the following statements is / are correct?

1. Although cocoa butter is a vegetable oil, it is solid at room temperature
2. Although cocoa butter is an animal fat , it is liquid at room temperature
3. Although cod liver is an animal fat, it is liquid at room temperature
4. Although cod liver oils is vegetable oil, it is solid at roim temperature
A. 3 only
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 2 only

282. Which of the following statements is true when fats and fixed oils are heated strongly?

A. fats liquefy
B. oils becomes less viscous
C. decomposition occurs accompanied by the production of acrid flammable vapors
D. saponication occurs

283. Which of the following is true when fats and fixed oils are heated moderately?
A. fats becomes less viscous, oil liquefy
B. fats liquefy, oils becomes less viscous
C. decomposition occurs with the production of acrid flammable odor
D. saponication occurs

284. Which of the following is the common property of lipids?

A. they are insoluble in water
B. they are soluble in nonpolar solvents
C. they are completely immiscible with hexane
D. all of the above
E. Both A and B
285. Which of the following are properties of fats and fixed oils?
1. Greasy to touch
2. Leave a permanent oily stain upon the filter paper
3. A few of them are soluble in alcohol
4. They undergo saponification
A. 3 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4

286. These are lipids that contain carbohydrate ( galactose or glucose ) one fatty acid and sphingosine , but no
phosphoric acid or glycerol?
A. cerebrosides
B. gangliosides
C. cytolipins
D. any of the above

287. These are compounds related to cerebrosides that contain sphingosine , long chain fatty acids , hexoses (
usually galactose or glucose ) and neuraminis acid?
A. cerebrosides
B. gangliosides
C. cytolipins

D. lecithins
288. Gangliosides , cerebrosides and cytolipins are collectively called
A. phospholipids or phosphatides
B. glycolipids
C. sulofolipids
D. lipoproteins

289. This is the disposition of lipid plaques on the lining of the arteries?
A. Atherosclerosis
B. Gaucher disease
C. Tay Sac’s disease
D. hyperlipoprotenimia

290. Which of the following is/ are true regarding lipolysis?

A. It is triglyceride hydrolysis
B. It liberates free fatty acids from their main storage depots in the triglycerides
C. It begins in the intestinal hydrolysis of dietary triglycerides by pancreatic lipase
D. all of the above

291. Beta oxidation of fatty occurs in the

A. cytosol
B. mitochondria
C. endoplasmic reticulum
D. ribosomes

292. Fatty acid elongation occurs in the

A. cytosol
B. mitochondria
C. endoplasmic reticulum
D. microsomes

293.This 3- carbon fatty acid derivatives arises from the catabolism of fatty acids containing odd numbered carbons.
A. acetyl CoA
B. acyl CoA
C. propionyl CoA
D. Butyryl CoA

294. Which of the following are ketone bodies?

1. acetone 3. Acetoacetic acid
2. acetic acid 4. Beta hydroxybutyric acid
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 1 , 3 and 4

295. The state of high serum levels of acetoacetic acid and beta- hydroxybutyric acid is called
A. ketonemia
B. ketonuria
C. ketosis
D. ketoacidosis

296. The Salkoowski test for cholesterol utilizes what strong acid?
A. nitric acid
 B. sulfuric acid
C. hydrochloric acid
D. perchloric acid

297. The acetic acid acid- sulfuric acid test for cholesterol is more commonly known as
A. microscopic examination for cholesterol
B. Salkowkis test
C. Liebermann- Burchard test
D. Formaldehyde test

298. What is the positive visible result for Liebermann – Burchard test?
A. yellow crystal
B. black precipitate
C. white amorphous precipitate
D. bluish green color

299. Which vitamin can be used in the management of hyperlipidemia?

A. thiamine
B. riboflavin
C. niacin
D. pantothenic acid

300. Which of the following drugs is a structural analog of HMG- CoA?

A. clofibrate
B. colestipol
C. cholestyramine
D. lovastatin