1. It is one of the tools of organization.

A. Chart
B. Division of responsibility
C. Both A and B
D. Both A and C
2. It is an element of organization.
A. Manangement guide
B. Organizational Planning
C. Product manual
D. Both A and B
E. None of the above
3. It is one of the tools of organization.
A. Delegation of the authority
B. Management guide
C. Division of responsibility
D. Production guide
E. Employee manpower guide
4. It is an element of organization.
A. Determination of inter relationship among function
B. Position description
C. Organizational manual
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
5. It is the disadvantage of tool of organization.
A. Does not reveals companies objective
B. Limiting the objectives
C. Have structure objectives none of the above
D. None of the above
E. All of the above
6. Stage of Research & product development
A. Preliminary stage
B. Planning stage
C. Schedule stage
D. Both A and B
E. Both A and C
7. Section of Quality Control of Division
A. Central release section
B. Chemical control section
C. Production section
D. Both A and B
E. None of the above
8. Section of Quality Control of Division
A. Micro-biological section
B. Plant inspection section
C. Specification and assay
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
9. Section of the Plant Department
A. Planning and Scheduling
B. Rejected area
C. Quarantine area
D. Approved area
E. None of the above
10. Section in Warehousing Department
A. Dispensing section
B. Finishing goods area
C. Quality Control area
D. Both A and B
E. Both A and C
11. Which is not section of Plant Departrment.
A. Finished good area
B. Engineering & maintenace
 C. Inventory section
D. Manufacturing of drugs
E. None of the above
12. Which is not a stage of research & Product Development.
A. Preliminary stage
B. Research stage
C. Pharmaceutical reseach
D. Both A and B
E. Both A and C
13. Which is not section of warehousing department.
A. Returned goo section
B. Approved for use section
C. Approved for use section
D. Inventory section
E. None of the above
14. It is not a section of Quality control
A. Micro-biological section
B. Approved for use section
C. Chemical control section
D. All of the above
15. It is not a division of Research & Product development
A. Pharmaceutical research
B. Microbial section
C. Chemical section
D. None of the above
E. All of the above
16. It is section of Research and Production Development Division.
A. Approved for Use section
B. Returned Goods Section
C. Pharmaceutical Research
D. Chemical Research
E. None of the above
17. It is part of Research & Product Development
A. Quarantine area
B. Clinical Research stage
C. Chemical control Section
D. Engineering & maintenance
E. Approved Area
18. It is a section of Quality control Division
A. Quarantine area
B. Clinical Research stage
C. Chemical Control section
D. Engineering & maintenace
19. It is a section of Plant department
A. Quarantine area
B. Clinical Research stage
C. Chemical Control Section
D. Engineering & maintenace
E. Quality control area
20. It is one section of warehouse division
A. Quarantine area
B. Clinical Research stage
C. Chemical Control Section
D. Engineering & maintenace
E. Quality control
21. It is a combination of people, money & machines.
A. Plants dept
B. Finance dept organization
C. Line
D. All of the above
22. Identified as “ Chain of command” from top to bottom
A. Plant department
 B. Finance department
C. Organization
D. Line
E. All of the above
23. Involves payment & fix price of expenses.
A. Plant department
B. Finance department
C. Organization
D. Line
E. None of the above
24. Overall composition of the company
A. Plant department
B. Finance department
C. Organization
D. Line
E. None of the above
25. This watches closely and records all materials used in the production.
A. In process Section
B. Dispensing pharmacist
C. Inventory control
D. Production control
E. All of the above
26. Consist of the products which have been bottled or stripped, packed but not yet labeled.
A. In process Section
B. Dispensing pharmacist
C. Inventory control
D. Production control
E. All of the above
27. Who prepares the manufacturing order based on the master formula.
A. In process Section
B. Dispensing pharmacist
C. Inventory control
D. Production control
E. All of the above
28. Who weighs & measure the ingredients & transfer them to the respective mfg. area.
A. In process Section
B. Dispensing pharmacist
C. Inventory control
D. Production control
E. All of the above
29. In charge of the preparation of the master formula if the copy was sent without the actual amount.
A. Batch
B. Lot number
C. Component
D. QC Head
E. None of the above
30. Where do the copies of manufacturing order goes to?
A. Batch
B. Lot number
C. Component
D. QC Head
E. None of the above
31. A specific homogenous quantity of a drug produced accdg. To a single M.O.
A. Batch
B. Lot number
C. Component
D. QC Head
E. None of the above
32. Any distinct combination of letters or both w/c the complete history of the mfr, control, packing & distribution
of a batch or lot of a drug is determined.
A. Batch
B. Lot number
 C. Component
D. QC Head
E. None of the above
33. Ingredient intended for the use in the manufacture .
A. Batch
B. Lot number
C. Component
D. QC Head
E. None of the above
34. Responsibility of an organization to determine that system, facilities & written procedures.
A. Technology element
B. Aesthetic element
C. Quality Control
D. Quality assurance
E. None of the above
35. Where random spot checking instead of 100% examination of the work process & product is performed.
A. Technology element
B. Aestetic element
C. Quality Control
D. Quality assurance
E. None of the above
36. The element of quality that indicates that the possesses an attractive design.
A. Technology element
B. Aestetic element
C. Quality Control
D. Quality assurance
E. None of the above
37. Element of quality that means that product can withstand the surrounding conditions.
A. Technology element
B. Aestetic element
C. Quality Control
D. Quality assurance
E. None of the above
38. Dishonesty & fatigue is one cause of variation of:
A. Materials
B. Machines
C. Methods
D. Man
E. All of the above
39. Variation between supplies of the same substance for:
A. Materials
B. Machines
C. Methods
D. Man
E. All of the above
40. Aging & improper care is one cause of variation of:
A. Materials
B. Machines
C. Methods
D. Man
E. All of the above
41. Negligence by chance is one variation of:
A. Materials
B. Machines
C. Methods
D. Man
E. All of the above
42. Difference in adjustment of equipment is one variation of:
A. Materials
B. Machines
C. Methods
D. Man
 E. All of the above
43. Variation w/n a batch is for:
A. Materials
B. Machines
C. Methods
D. Man
E. All of the above
44. Variation of equipment for the same process if for:
A. Materials
B. Machines
C. Methods
D. Man
E. All of the above
45. Inadequate training & understanding is one cause of variation for:
A. Materials
B. Machines
C. Methods
D. Man
E. All of the above
46. Inexact & inadequate procedure is one cause of variation for:
A. Materials
B. Machines
C. Methods
D. Man
E. All of the above
47. Variation between batches from the same supplies is for:
A. Materials
B. Machines
C. Methods
D. Man
E. All of the above
48. Improper working conditions is one cause of variation of:
A. Materials
B. Machines
C. Methods
D. Man
E. All of the above
49. Partial or complete separation of the top or bottom of a tablet from the main body.
A. Picking
B. Capping
C. Lamination
D. Chipping
E. Mottling
50. Separation of tablet 2 or more distantn layer.
A. Picking
B. Capping
C. Lamination
D. Chipping
E. Mottling
51. Removal of edges of edges of tablets.
A. Picking
B. Capping
C. Lamination
D. Chipping
E. Mottling
52. Removal of material from the surface of the tablets
A. Picking
B. Capping
C. Lamination
D. Chipping
E. Mottling
53. Adhesion of granulation to the die wall.
A. Weight variation
B. Mottling
C. Double impression
D. Sticking
E. None of the above
54. Unequal distribution of color on the surface of the tablet with light or dark areas.
A. Weight variation
B. Mottling
C. Double impression
D. Sticking
E. Picking
55. Imprinting twice which is unnecessary
A. Weight variation
B. Mottling
C. Double impression
D. Sticking
E. Picking
56. Migration of dye during drying of granulation.
A. Weight variation
B. Mottling
C. Double impression
D. Sticking
E. Picking
57. Caused by poor mixing
A. Weight variation
B. Mottling
C. Double impression
D. Sticking
E. Picking
58. Tablets w/c is recommended to speed up disintegration by breaking up starting from the mouth.
A. Chewable tablet
B. Sublingual tablet
C. Buccal tablet
D. Vaginal tablet
E. Troches
59. It is placed beneath the tongue, which contain drugs to be absorbed through the oral mucosa because they
are destroyed in the GIT.
A. Chewable tablet
B. Sublingual tablet
C. Buccal tablet
D. Vaginal tablet
E. Troches
60. It placed at the side of the cheek or between the lip gum, which contain drugs to be absorbed through the
oral mucosa because they are destroyed in the GIT
A. Chewable tablet
B. Sublingual tablet
C. Buccal tablet
D. Vaginal tablet
E. None of the above
61. It is consist of small tablets of compressed drug without excipient.
A. Chewable tablet
B. Sublingual tablet
C. Buccal tablet
D. Vaginal tablet
E. None of the above
62. Specially formulated and shaped tablet intended to be placed in the vagina by special inserters.
A. Vaginal tablets
B. Implantation tablets
C. Insert
D. Both A and B
E. Both A and C
63. It is designed so that the administration of a single dosage unit provides the immediate release of an amount
that promply produces the desired therapeutic effect.
A. Sugar-coated tablet
B. Enteric coated tablet
C. Sustained release tablet
D. Hypodermic tablet
E. All of the above
64. It is also referred as dry-filled capsule consisting of two section, one slipping over the counter.
A. Hard capsule
B. Hard gelatin capsule
C. Hard gel capsule
D. Both A and B
E. Both A and C
65. It is defined as a colloidal system consisting of very fine subdivided liquid or solid particles dispersed in and
surround by a gas.
A. Capsules
B. Tablets
C. Aerosol
D. Cosmetics
E. Solutions
66. It is a branch of science dealing with the external embellishment.
A. Cosmetic surgery
B. Cosmetology
C. Cosmetic art
D. Cream
E. None of the above
67. It is employed to produce carbon dioxide by chemical reaction of the components upon addition of water.
A. Effervescent tablets
B. Hygroscopic tablet
C. Eutetic tablet
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
68. What type of cosmetic is deodorant cream?
A. Hair care
B. Skin care
C. Teeth care
D. Nail care
E. None of the above
69. What type of cosmetic is lipstick?
A. Hair care
B. Skin care
C. Teeth care
D. Nail care
E. None of the above
70. What type of cosmetics is depilatories?
A. Hair care
B. Skin care
C. Teeth care
D. Nail care
E. None of the above
71. What is the use of alkyl esters of p-hydroxy benzoic acid in the preparation?
A. Type of ointment base
B. Preservatives
C. Emulsifiers
D. Filter aids
E. Flavour
72. What is the use of benzalkonium chloride in the preparation?
A. Type of ointment base
B. Preservatives
C. Emulsifiers
D. Filter aids
E. Flavour
73. What is the use of petrolatum in the preparation?
A. Type of ointment base
B. Preservatives
C. Emulsifiers
D. Filter aids
E. Flavour
74. What is the use of casein in the preparation?
A. Type of ointment base
B. Preservatives
C. Emulsifiers
D. Filter aids
E. Flavour
75. What is the use of acacia in the preparation?
A. Type of ointment base
B. Preservatives
C. Emulsifiers
D. Filter aids
E. Flavour
76. What is the felt in the preparation?
A. Type of ointment base
B. Preservatives
C. Emulsifiers
D. Filter aids
E. Flavour
77. What is the use of membrane filter in the preparation?
A. Type of ointment base
B. Preservatives
C. Emulsifiers
D. Filter aids
E. Flavour
78. What is the use of diatomite in the preparation?
A. Type of ointment base
B. Preservatives
C. Emulsifiers
D. Filter aids
E. None of the above
79. What is the use of anhydrous lanolin in the preparation?
A. Type of ointment base
B. Preservatives
C. Emulsifiers
D. Filter aids
E. None of the above
80. What is the use of veegum in the preparation?
A. Type of ointment base
B. Preservatives
C. Emulsifiers
D. Filter aids
E. None of the above
81. What is the use of sodium lauryl sulfate in the preparation?
A. Type of ointment base
B. Preservatives
C. Emulsifiers
D. Filter aids
E. None of the above
82. What is the use of Steric acid in the preparation?
A. Type of ointment base
B. Preservatives
C. Emulsifiers
D. Filter aids
E. None of the above
83. What is the use of cotton cloth in the preparation?
A. Type of ointment base
 B. Preservatives
C. Emulsifiers
D. Filter aids
E. None of the above
84. What is the use of kraft paper in the preparation?
A. Type of ointment base
B. Preservatives
C. Emulsifiers
D. Filter aids
E. None of the above
85. What is the use of mineral oil in the preparation?
A. Type of ointment base
B. Preservatives
C. Emulsifiers
D. Filter aids
E. None of the above
86. It is not process of capsules production.
A. Dipping
B. Pinning
C. Drying
D. Homogenizing
E. None of the above
87. It is not a part of capsule filling equipment.
A. Hopper for empty capsules
B. Punch
C. Hopper for powder with auger
D. Closing plate
E. None of the above
88. It is not a part of Transdermal drug delivery system.
A. Backing layer
B. Drug containing layer
C. Release control layer
D. Anti-adhesive
E. None of the above
89. It is not a part of aerosol container.
A. Hopper
B. Housing
C. Mounting cap
D. Actuator
E. None of the above
90. What is the use of polyethylene glycol in film coating of tablets?
A. Surfactant
B. Opaquant
C. Water permeability
D. Plasticizer
E. None of the above
91. What is the use o castor oil in film coating of tablets?
A. Surfactant
B. Opaquant
C. Water permeability
D. Plasticizer
E. None of the above
92. What is the use of polyoxyethylene sorbitol in the film coating of tablets?
A. Surfactant
B. Opaquant
C. Water permeability
D. Plasticizer
E. None of the above
93. What is the use of titanium dioxide in film coating of tablets?
A. Surfactant
B. Opaquant
C. Water permeability
 D. Plasticizer
E. None of the above
94. What is the use of beeswax in film coating of tablets?
A. Plasticizer
B. Glossant
C. Allow rapid evaporation
D. Volatile solvent
E. None of the above
95. What is the use of cellulose acetate phthalate in film coating of tablets?
A. Plasticizer
B. Glossant
C. Allow rapid evaporation
D. Volatile solvent
E. None of the above
96. What is the use of plasticizer in film coating of tablets?
A. To produce smooth thin film
B. For elasticity
C. Allow rapid evaporation
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
97. What is the use of polyester in the preparation of transdermal drug delivery
A. Backing layer
B. Adhesive
C. Peel strip
D. Packaging
E. None of the above
98. What is the use of heat sealed foil pouches in TDD?
A. Backing layer
B. Adhesive
C. Peel strip
D. Packaging
E. None of the above
99. What is the use of polyethylene in the preparation of TDD?
A. Backing layer
B. Adhesive
C. Peel strip
D. Packaging
E. None of the above
100. What is the use of silicone based in the praparation of TDD?
A. Backing layer
B. Adhesive
C. Peel strip
D. Packaging
E. None of the above
101. What is the use of acrylic based in the preparation of TDD?
A. Backing layer
B. Adhesive
C. Peel strip
D. Packaging
E. None of the above
102. What is the use of foil in the preparation of TDD?
A. Backing layer
B. Adhesive
C. Peel strip
D. Packaging
E. None of the above
103. What is the use of metallixed laminates in the preparation of TDD?
A. Backing layer
B. Adhesive
C. Peel strip
D. Packaging
E. None of the above
104. What is the use of plastic pouches in the preparation of TDD?
A. Backing layer
B. Adhesive
C. Peel strip
D. Packaging
E. None of the above
105. What is the use of polyisobutylene in the preparation of TDD?
A. Backing layer
B. Adhesive
C. Peel strip
D. Packaging
E. None of the above
106. What is the coextruded films in the preparation of TDD?
A. Backing layer
B. Adhesive
C. Peel strip
D. Packaging
E. None of the above
107. Monosodium glutamate can be used as flavor in drugs.
A. Statement is True
B. Statement is False
C. Can be
D. Should not be
E. None of the above
108. Partition coefficient of the drug substance can influence absorption of drugs on the skin.
A. Statement is True
B. Statement is False
C. Can be
D. Should not be
E. None of the above
109. Creaming is one problem of suspension
A. Statement is True
B. Statement is False
C. Can be
D. Should not be
E. None of the above
110. The transdermal route of administration is unsuitable for drugs that irritate the skin
A. Statement is True
B. Statement is False
C. Can be
D. Should not be
E. None of the above
111. What is the use of acacia in the preparation of tablet?
A. Diluent
B. Binders
C. Disintegrants
D. Opaquant
E. None of the above
112. What is the use of agar in the preparation of tablet?
A. Diluent
B. Binders
C. Disintegrants
D. Opaquant
E. None of the above
113. What is the use of Starch in the preparation in tablets?
A. Diluent
B. Binders
C. Disintegrants
D. Opaquant
E. None of the above
114. What is the use of sodium carboxy methyl cellulose in the preparation in tablets?
A. Diluent
 B. Binders
C. Disintegrants
D. Opaquant
E. None of the above
115. What is the use of sucrose in the preparation in tablet?
A. Diluent
B. Binders
C. Disintegrants
D. Sweetener
E. Flavor
116. What is the use of mannitol in the preparation in tablet?
A. Diluent
B. Binders
C. Disintegrants
D. Sweetener
E. Flavor
117. What is the use of lactose in the preparation in tablet?
A. Diluent
B. Binders
C. Disintegrants
D. Both A and C
E. Both A and B
118. What is the use of polyvinyl pyrrolidone in the preparation in tablet?
A. Diluent
B. Binders
C. Disintegrants
D. Both A and C
E. Both A and B
119. What is the use of tragacanth in the preparation in tablet?
A. Diluent
B. Binders
C. Disintegrants
D. Both A and C
E. Both A and B
120. What is the use of methyl cellulose in the preparation in tablet?
A. Diluent
B. Binders
C. Disintegrants
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
121. What part of machine is hopper.
A. Tabletting machine
B. Capsulating machine
C. Aerosol assembly
D. Both A and B
E. Both A and C
122. What part of machine is the rectification unit.
A. Tabletting machine
B. Capsulating machine
C. Aerosol assembly
D. Both A and B
E. Both A and C
123. What part of machine is the feed frame
A. Tabletting machine
B. Capsulating machine
C. Aerosol assembly
D. Both A and B
E. None of the above
124. What part of the machine is the valve assembly
A. Tabletting machine
B. Capsulating machine
C. Aerosol assembly
 D. Both A and B
E. Both A and C
125. What part of machine is the cam
A. Tabletting machine
B. Capsulating machine
C. Aerosol assembly
D. Both A and B
E. Both A and C
126. What part of machine is the peg-ring
A. Tabletting machine
B. Capsulating machine
C. Aerosol assembly
D. Both A and B
E. Both A and C
127. What part of the machine are the dies
A. Tabletting machine
B. Capsulating machine
C. Aerosol assembly
D. Both A and B
E. Both B and C
128. What part of machine is the closing plate
A. Tabletting machine
B. Capsulating machine
C. Aerosol assembly
D. Both A and B
E. Both B and C
129. What part of machine are the punches
A. Tabletting machine
B. Capsulating machine
C. Aerosol assembly
D. Both A and B
E. Both B and C
130. What part of the machine is dip tube
A. Tabletting machine
B. Capsulating machine
C. Aerosol assembly
D. Both A and B
E. Both B and C
131. Titanium dioxide is a substance to be used as:
A. Composition of hard gelatin capsule
B. Propellants in aerosol
C. Component of aerosol package
D. None of the above
E. All of the above
132. Sulfur dioxide is a substance to be used as:
A. Composition of hard gelatin capsule
B. Propellants in aerosol
C. Component of aerosol package
D. None of the above
E. All of the above
133. Pork skin is a substance to be used as:
A. Composition of hard gelatin capsule
B. Propellants in aerosol
C. Component of aerosol package
D. None of the above
E. Both A and B
134. Bone of alligator is a substance to be used as.
A. Composition of hard gelatin capsule
B. Propellants in aerosol
C. Component of aerosol package
D. None of the above
E. Both B and C
135. Flourinated Chlorinated Hydrocarbons is a substance to be used as:
A. Composition of hard gelatin capsule
B. Propellants in aerosol
C. Component of aerosol package
D. None of the above
E. Both B and C
136. Nitrogen is a substance to be used as:
A. Composition of hard gelatin capsule
B. Propellants in aerosol
C. Component of aerosol package
D. None of the above
E. Both A and B
137. Carbon monoxide is a substance to be used as:
A. Composition of hard gelatin capsule
B. Propellants in aerosol
C. Component of aerosol package
D. None of the above
E. Both A and C
138. Nitrous oxide is a substance to be used as:
A. Composition of hard gelatin capsule
B. Propellants in aerosol
C. Component of aerosol package
D. None of the above
E. Both A and B
139. Propellant is a substances to be used as:
A. Composition of hard gelatin capsule
B. Propellants in aerosol
C. Component of aerosol package
D. None of the above
E. Both A and B
140. Container is a component of:
A. Composition of hard gelatin capsule
B. Propellants in aerosol
C. Component of aerosol package
D. None of the above
E. Both B and C
141. Actuators are parts of a component of:
A. Composition of hard gelatin capsule
B. Propellants in aerosol
C. Component of aerosol package
D. None of the above
E. Both A and B
142. Punches are parts of a component of:
A. Composition of hard gelatin capsule
B. Propellants in aerosol
C. Component of aerosol package
D. None of the above
E. All of the above
143. A natural gum best used as a tablet binder when dry since it is difficult to disperse and forms a very heavy
mucilage in water.
A. Acacia
B. Tragacath
C. Psyllium
D. Gelatin
E. Alginic acid
144. Milling action for friable materials which tend to fracture along well defined planes.
A. Attrition
B. Impact
C. Pressure
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
145. Additives used in thermostatic formulations as part of packaging materials for pharmaceutical preparation
which are added to reduce the coefficient of friction of the plastic material.
A. Plasticizers
B. Lubricants
C. Slip agents
D. Stabilizers
E. None of the above
146. Optical property in plastic packaging materials which is a measure of milkiness caused by light scattering by
surface imperfection of film in homogeneities.
A. Clarity
B. Haze
C. Gloss
D. Light transmission
E. None of the above
147. A type of novel delivery system which has the capacity of adhering to a _____ biological substrate and
remain there for an extended period of time.
A. Bioadhesive
B. Intelligent polymers
C. Block copolymer micelles
D. Biomucoadhesive
E. None of the above
148. A type of tablet coating which is a modified form of film coating, differing only in the size of the particles to be
coated and the method used.
A. Compression coating
B. Microencapsulation
C. Enteric coating
D. Specialized film coating
E. All of the above
149. Sugar coating problem encountered when moisture become trapped in the coating.
A. Sweating
B. Blistering
C. Peeling
D. Flaking
E. None of the above
150. The following are the factors which may cause tablets to cap or split except:
A. Excess fines or powders
B. Deep marking on punches
C. Worm dies
D. Unsuitable formula
E. None of the above

151. The following statements are TRUE about granules:

1 - Granules are more stable to the effects of atmospheric humidity.
2 - Granules are more likely to harden upon standing.
3 - Granules are easily wetted by liquids.
4 - Granulations flow less freely into tablet presses.

A) 1 only D) 1 & 3 are true

B) 2 only E) 2 & 4 are true
C) 3 only
152. These are dosage forms that must be left intact upon swallowing.
1- Enteric-coated tablets
2- Sublingual tablets
3- Chewable tablets
4- Extended-release dosage forms

A) 1 & 2 only D) 3 & 4 only

B) 1, 2 & 4 E) 2 & 3 only
C) 1, 2 & 3
153. Hard gelatin capsule shells may be colored with dyes ad made opaque by adding ________.

A) Coal tar D) Gelatin

B) Cupric sulphate E) Talc
C) Titanium dioxide
154. A pH- sensitive, non-digestible radiofelemettric device used as a nonradioactive means of measuring gastric
pH, gastric residence time and gastric emptying time of solid dosage forms is called________.

A) Gamma Scintigraphy D) Silica gel

B) Heidelberg capsule E) Cellulose
C) Gelatin
155. A size “0” capsule has a volume of________.

A) 0.37 mL D) 0.68 mL
B) 0.95 mL E) 0.75 mL
C) 0.50 mL
156. It is an optional step in the preparation of filled hard gelatin capsules.

A) Filling the capsule shells.

B) Cleaning and polishing the filled capsules
C) Developing and preparing the capsule formulation
D) Capsule sealing
E) None of the above
157. When a pharmacist is developing a capsule formulation, she aims to prepare one with the following
characteristics, EXCEPT

A) Ease of swallowing D) Good bioavailability

B) Ease of filling E) None of the above
C) Elegance
158. Sodium starch glycolate is a ______ included in a capsule formulation to assist the breakup and distribution
of its contents in the stomach

A) Diluent D) Binder
B) Filler E) None of the above
C) Disintegrant
159. The addition of ______ % of a lubricant or glidant to the capsule powder mix enhances flow properties.

A) 0.5- 1.0 % D) 0.5- 10.0 %

B) 0.25- 1.0 % E) 0.3- 0.5 %
C) 0.1- 0.2 %
160. Liquids that may be encapsulated into soft gelatin capsules include the following, EXCEPT

A) Ketones D) Ethers
B) Aromatic oils E) None the above
C) Polyethylene glycols
161. Determination of the amount of active ingredients by assay for capsules must fall within the range of _______
of the label claim for 9 out of 10 dosage units assayed.

A) 85%- 115% D) 90%- 110%

B) 100%- 120% E) 70%- 100%
C) 70%- 125%
162. It creates the desired bulk, flow properties and compression characteristics of tablets and capsules.

A) Lactose D) Sodium alginate

B) Methylcellulose E) All of the above
C) Liquid glucose
163. A pharmaceutic ingredient used for enteric coating tablets.

A) Methylcellulose D) Shellac
B) Gelatin E) Talc
C) Liquid glucose
164. A type of tablet inserted into capsules or dissolved in liquid to provide accurate amounts of potent drug
substances is called _______.
A) Coated tablet D) Tablet triturate
B) Multi- layered tablet E) Hypodermic tablet
C) Compressed tablet
165. An example of a rapidly disintegrating tablet is _____.

A) Triaminic D) Tempra
B) Benadryl E) Diazepam
C) Loratadine
166. The following are the factors that need to be controlled during production to ensure that established product
quality standards are met, EXCEPT

A) Content uniformity D) Weight Variation

B) Tablet shape E) None of the above
 C) Dissolution
167. The thickness of a tablet is determined by the following factors, EXCEPT

A) Shape of the punches D) Pressure applied during compression

B) Diameters of the die E) None of the above
C) Amount of fill entering the die cavity
168. Which of the following statements is not true for tablet hardness and friability?

A) The greater pressure applied, the harder are the tablets.

B) Tablets intended to dissolve slowly are made hard.
C) Tablets intended to dissolve slowly are compressed with minimal pressure.
D) Tablets should be soft enough to disintegrate properly after swallowing.
E) None of the above
169. The accepted maximum weight loss of not more than 1% is a requirement for ______.

A) Tablet dissolution D) Tablet hardness

B) Tablet disintegration E) Tablet weight variation
C) Tablet friability
170. The process by which the powder mixture is compressed into large flat tablets or pellets about 1 inch in
diameter.

A) Fluid bed process D) Slugging

B) Dry granulation E) Sifting
C) Direct compression
171. An optional step in the sugar coating of tablets is the _______.

A) Subcoating D) Polishing
B) Waterproofing & sealing E) None of the above
C) Smoothing & final rounding
172. It is the recommended alcohol content limit for OTC oral products intended for children under 6 years of age.

A) 10% D) 0.5%
B) 5% E) 1.5%
C) 0.1%
173. When a solvent at a given temperature has dissolved all of the solute it can, it is said to be ________.

A) Homogenous D) Clear solution

B) Saturated E)Soluble
C) Totally dissolved
174. Solutions of aromatic materials are called ________ if the solvent is alcoholic.

A) Elixirs D) Aromatic waters

B) Spirits E) Solutions
C) Syrup
175. It provides a pleasant means of administering a liquid form of a disagreeable-tasting drug.

A) Syrup D) Juice
B) Sucrose E) Magmas
C) Sorbitol solution
176. In the preparation of elixirs, the best remedy to the formation of cloudiness due to separation of flavouring
oils is
1- The pharmacist may filter the solution to remove the cloudiness
2- The elixir is allowed to stand for a certain number of hours to ensure saturation of the hydroalcoholic
solvent
3- Make use of low heat to permit the dissolution of undissolved particles causing the cloudiness of the
solution
4- Add talc to absorb the excessive amounts of oils and provide ease in their removal from the solution

The pharmacist may:

A) 1 only D) 1 & 3
B) 2 only E) 1 & 2
C) 2&4
177. Diluted acids are aqueous solutions prepared by diluting the corresponding concentrated acids with purified
water. Most diluted acids have a strength of 10% w/v with the exception of Diluted Acetic Acid, which is _____
w/v.

A) 6% D) 5%
B) 8% E) 20%
C) 10%
178. These are concentrated preparations of vegetable or animal drug which are more potent on a weight basis as
the crude drug.

A) Fluidextracts D) Extractive
B) Percolate E) All of the above
C) Extracts
179. Dispersions containing 10-50 µm particles include
1 - Suspensions 3 - Magmas
2 - Emulsions 4 - Gels

A) 1&4 D) 3 & 4
B) 2&3 E) 2 & 4
C) 1&2
180. The following are reasons for preparing a suspensions, EXCEPT

A) Some drugs are chemically unstable in solution.

B) Solid forms of drugs are preferred to the liquid form because of the ease of swallowing.
C) Suspensions allow flexibility in administration of a range of doses.
D) Some poor- tasting drugs are developed to prepare a palatable liquid dosage form.
E) None of the above

181. According to Stoke’s equation the reduction in particle size produce _____.

A) Smaller particles, faster settling rate

B) Slow, more uniform rates of settling
C) Bigger particles, slower settling rate
D) Finer particles and slower settling rate
E) All of the above
182. The theory of emulsification wherein the emulsifying agent is preferentially soluble in one of the phases and
is one embedded more deeply in that phase than the other is the _____.

A) Surface Tension theory D) interfacial Fil Theory

B) Plastic Film theory
C) Oriented-Wedge theory
183. The initial step in the preparation of an emulsion is the _____.

A) Preparation of the raw material. D) Selection of the type of emulsion.

B) Selection of the emulsifier.
C) Mixing of the ingredients.
184. Finely divided solids such as the following generally form O/W emulsion when the insoluble material is added
to the aqueous phase.
1- Acacia 3- Magnesium hydroxide
2- Bentonite 4- Aluminum hydroxide

A) 2, 3 & 4 D) 3 & 4 only

B) 2 only E) 2 & 3 only
C) 1, 2 & 3
185. Surface active agents with HLB values between 8-18 produce _____ type of emulsion.

A) Oil- in- Water D) Water- in- Oil-in- Water

B) Oil- in- Water- in- Oil E) None of the above
C) Water- in- Oil
186. When the emulsifying agent is added to water first to form a mucilage and the oil is slowly incorporated, the
method used in preparing the emulsion is called_____.

A) In situ method D) English method

B) Forbes bottle method E) None of the above
C) Continental method
187. These are thermodynamically stable and optically transparent isotropic mixture of a biphasic O/W system
stabilized with surfactants.

A) Floccules D) Magmas
B) Microemulsions E) Micelles
C) Gels
188. It takes place in unstable emulsions in which the internal phase has a lesser density than the external phase.

A) Bleeding D) Downward creaming

B) Coalescence of globules of the E) Syneresis
internal phase
C) Upward creaming
189. The reversible gel-sol formation with no change in volume or temperature is referred to as_____.

A) Imbibition D) Thixotrophy
B) Swelling E) Rheopexy
C) Syneresis
190. Coloring agents are used in pharmaceutical preparations for aesthetic effects. About 90% of the dyes used in
products regulated by the FDA are synthesized from a single colorless derivative of benzene called_____.

A) Cupric sulphate D) Aniline

B) Sulfur E) None of the above
C) Coal Tar
191. The introduction of diet softdrinks in the 1950’s provided the spark for the widespread use of artificial
sweeteners today. The particular sweetener used by persons with phenylketonuria (PKU) is called_____.

A) Aspartame D) Acesulfame potassium

B) Cyclamate E)None of the above
C) Saccharin
192. Moisture tackiness is a sign of degradation for _____.

A) Tablets D) Creams
B) Capsules E) Ointments
C) Oral powders
193. The dye component contained in FD & C yellow No. 5 which causes allergic-type reactions in many people.

A) Sulfur D) Riboflavin
B) Red mercuric iodide E) Eosin
C) Tartrazine
194. the preservative with the required proportion of 15%-20% concentration commonly employed in
pharmaceutical preparations.

A) Benzoic acid D) Propylparaben

B) Alcohol E) Glycerin
C) Sodium benzoate
195. It is a commercial water- based colloidal dispersion that contains a 30% ethyl cellulose pseudolatex.

A) Aquacoat D) Shellac
B) Cellulose acetate phthalate E) None of the above
C) Polyoxyethylene sorbitan
196. It means the tablet is imprinted with a code that is cut into its surface during production.

A) Laminated D) Debossed
B) Engraved E) All of the above
C) Embossed
197. It is a film-coating problem which shows a filling-in of the score line or an indented logo on the tablet caused
by the film.

A) Mottling D) Bridging
B) Erosion E) Sticking
C) Picking
198. It describes dosage forms which are designed to release the drug at a time other than promptly after
administration.

A) Modified release D) Targeted release

B) Extended release E) None of the above
C) Delayed release
199. The following are the characteristics of drugs commonly incorporated into an extended-release product,
EXCEPT

A) Administer in relatively large D) Possess a good margin of safety.

doses.
B) Exhibits very slow or very fast rates E) None of the above
of absorption and excretion.
C) Uniformly absorbed in the GIT
200. It is a free-flowing powder commonly used to provide the hydrophilic matrix for extended – release tablets.

A) Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose D) Polyethylene

B) Polyvinyl acetate E) PEG 400
C) Polymethacrylate
201. These are semisolid preparations which are intended for external application to the skin or mucous
membranes.

A) Creams D) Gels
B) Pastes E) Magmas
C) Ointments
202. Hydrophilic Ointment, USP is an example of a ____ ointment base.

A) Oleaginous base D) Water- soluble base

B) Absorption base E) none of the above
C) Water- removable base
203. The preparation of ointments having an emulsion base is done chronologically in the following manner:
1 - Preparation and heating of an aqueous solution of the heat-stable, water- soluble components to the
same temperature as the oleaginous components.
2 - The water-immiscible components (oils and waxes) are melted together at 70-75ºC.
3 - The mixture is slowly cooled while maintaining the temperature for 5-10 mins. and stirred until congealed.
4 - The aqueous solution is slowly added to the melted mixture with continuous stirring.

A) 2- 3-1-4 D) 3- 4-1- 2
B) 1- 2- 3- 4 E) 3- 2- 4-1
C) 2- 1-4- 3
204. The following are ointment bases specifically used for ophthalmic ointment preparations, EXCEPT

A) White petrolatum + Liquid D) PEG+ Mineral Oil

petrolatum
B) Hydrophilic ointment E) None of the above
C) White petrolatum+ Liquid
petrolatum + Lanolin
205. Enhanced percutaneous absorption of drugs are affected by the following factors, EXCEPT

A) Drug concentration D) Drugs with 100 - 800 molecular weights

B) Dehydration of the skin E) None of the above
C) Large area of application
206. A physical method that is used to enhance transdermal drug delivery and penetration wherein a charged
chemical compound is delivered across the skin membrane with the use of an electrical field.

A) Use of penetration enhancers D) Iontophoresis

B) Use of percutaneous absorption E) None of the above
enhancers
C) Sonophoresis
207. The rate of drug transport in all transdermal drug delivery systems, both monolithic and membrane, is
controlled by the_____.
1 - Drug delivery device 3 - Skin
2 - Concentration of the drug 4 - Environmental factors

A) 1&2 D) 2 & 4
B) 1&3 E) 1& 4
C) 2&3
208. A disadvantage of TDDSs is

A) Only relatively potent drugs are used. D) It can avoid GI drug absorption difficulties.
B) It avoids the first- pass effect. E) None of the above
C) It rapidly terminates drug therapy.
209. It is used as an adjunct in smoking cessation programs.

A) Catapres TTS D) Scopolamine TDDSs

B) Nitroglycerin-containing TDDSs E) None of the above
C) Nicotine TDDSs
210. Pessaries is a term also referring to _____.

A) Rectal suppositories D) All of the above

B) Vaginal suppositories E) None of the above
C) Urethral suppositories
211. When made with cocoa butter, male urethral suppositories usually weighs about _____.

A) 2g D) 5g
B) 3g E) 6g
C) 4g
212. Long-acting or slow-release suppositories such as Morphine Sulphate is prepared with a base that contains
_____ to prolong the release of the drug over several hours.

A) Alginic acid D) Stearic acid

B) Polyethylene glycol E) All of the above
C) Glycerinated gelatin
213. Glycerinated gelatin suppositories may be prepared by dissolving the following components in their required
proportions:

A) Gelatin (20%), glycerine(70%),suspension of the medication (10%)

B) Gelatin (60%), glycerine(20%),suspension of the medication (20%)
C) Gelatin (20%), glycerine(40%),suspension of the medication (40%)
D) Gelatin (50%), glycerine(30%),suspension of the medication (20%)
E) None of the above
214. Suppositories are prepared by the three general methods, EXCEPT

A) Compression D) Congealing
B) Molding E) None of the above
C) Hand-rolling
215. Cocoa butter suppositories must be maintained and stored in a cool place with a temperature of _____.

A) Below 2ºC D) 2-8º C

B) Above 30º C E) None of the above
C) Room temperature
216. Cross-flow membrane filtration is one of the man methods used in the preparation of purified water and is
referred to as _____.

A) Distillation D) Electrophoresis
B) Ion exchange E) None of the above
C) Reverse osmosis
217. Fluid energy grinding produces finer particles of _____ size for the dispersed phase of suspensions.

A) 1 - 50 µm D) 100 µm
B) 10 - 50 µm E) none of the above
C) Less than 10µm
218. Loose aggregation of suspension particles is called_____.

A) Micronization D) All of the above

B) Flocculation E) None of the above
C) Redispersion
219. Semisolid, semi- rigid systems consisting of dispersions made up of small inorganic particles or large organic
molecules enclosing and interpenetrated by a liquid.

A) Emulsions D) Magmas
B) Gels E) Colloidal dispersion
C) Suspensions
220. It is a form of instability seen in aqueous and non-aqueous gels where there is separation of the solvent
phase due to the elastic contraction of the polymeric molecules.

A) Syneresis D) Thixotropy
B) Imbibition E) Bleeding
C) Swelling
221. It is a semisolid gel consisting of a liquid component together with a protosubstance and a crystalline waxy
fraction.

A) Plastibase D) Organogels
B) Carbowaxes E) Bentonite
C) Petrolatum
222. It is a gelling agent capable of adsorbing large quantities of water without liquefying and is used to prepare
transparent gels.

A) Bentonite D) Colloidal silicon dioxide

B) Carbomer 934 E) Veegum
C) Carboxymethylcellulose sodium
223. Plastibase, a gelling agent that contains a mixture of 5% low molecular weight polyethylene and 95% mineral
oil, is also called_____.

A) Poloxamer D) Povidone
B) Jelene E) Vaseline
C) Veegum
224. The gelatin temperature or gel point of gelatin is highest at its _____.

A) Melting point D) Freezing point

B) Congealing point E) None of the above
C) Isoelectric point
225. Aerosols which are used to provide an airborne mist are called_____.

A) Foam sprays D) Dermatologic sprays

B) Space sprays E) Suntan sprays
C) Surface sprays
226. Freon 12 is a fluorinated hydrocarbon which forms a liquid when cooled to -30º C. It is referred to chemically
as_____.

A) Dichlorofluoromethane D) Difluoroethane
B) Trichloromonofluoromethane E) Trinitrophenol
C) Dichlorotetrafluoroethane
227. Foam aerosols contain _____ % propellant.

A) 85% D) 5%
B) 30%- 70% E) 20%
C) 6%- 10%
228. The following are the main components of a three-phase aerosol system, EXCEPT

A) Valve assembly D) Vapor phase

B) Liquid propellant E) None of the above
C) Product concentrate
229. The part of the aerosol valve assembly which brings the formulation from the container to the valve is
the____.

A) Actuator D) Dip tube

B) Gasket E)Pressurized stem
C) Stem
230. The filling process used for most pharmaceutical aerosols is _____.

A) Cold filling D) None of the above

B) Pressure filling E) All of the above
C) Manual filling
231. Exposure to temperatures above_____ may cause an aerosol container to burst or explode.

A) 49ºC D) 100ºC
B) 37ºC E) 150ºC
C) 60ºC
232. It is a sterile solution of NaCl, KCl, and CaCl2 in Water for Injection.

A) Sodium Chloride Injection, USP D) Bacteriostatic NaCl Injection, USP

B) Ringer’s Injection, USP E) Water for Injection, USP
C) Lactated Ringer’s Injection, USP
233. The following are the general methods used to sterilize pharmaceutical products, EXCEPT

A) Steam sterilization D) Boiling

B) Filtration E) None of the above
C) Ionizing radiation
234. To validate the sterility of pharmaceutical products, biologic indicators are used. In steam and ethylene oxide
sterilization, spores of suitable strains of _____ are commonly employed.

A) Bacillus punulus D) All of the above

B) Bacillus subtilis E) None of the above
C) Bacillus stearothermophilus
235. The animal source of the Limulus Amoebocyte Lysate (LAL) test is the_____.

A) Rabbit D) Horse
B) Horseshoe crab E) Guinea pigs
C) Monkey
236. One of the prime requisites for parenteral solutions is _____.

A) Freshness D) Safety
B) Clarity E) Convenient
C) Availability
237. Labels on containers of parenteral products must state the following information, EXCEPT

A) Lot number D) Storage conditions and expiry date

B) Name of the preparation E) None of the above
C) Amount of inactive components
238. The risk level of compounded sterile preparations (CSPs) which include non-sterile components and
therefore, must sterilized before being administered is the_____.

A) Low-risk level D) None of the above

B) Medium-risk level E) All of the above
C) High-risk level
239. Injectable sterile products formulated with no binders, diluents or excipients to permit total dissolution and
absorption from the site of implantation is called _____.

A) Implants D) Pills
B) Pellets E) None of the above
C) Hypodermic tablets
240. Ophthalmic solutions and suspensions are sterilized using _____.

A) Autoclave D)High temperatures

B) Bacterial filtration E) All of the above
C) Ionizing radiation
241. Soft contact lenses contain _____% water to enhance its permeability to oxygen.

A) 10% - 20% D) 30% - 80%

B) 50% - 100% E) None of the above
C) 0.1% - 0.2%
242. It is a sample chosen in such a manner that one objective has a good chance of being selected as another.

A) QC sample D) Retention sample

B) Sample for monitoring E) In- process
C) Random sample
243. It is referred to as a step-by-step method on how to go about a job.

A) Specifications D) Formulation
B) Standard operating procedure E) None of the above
C) Official standards
244. This is a concise and precise statement of the ingredients that comprise the product, together with the %
and/or weight of each.

A) Formula D) Materials control

B) Standards E) Concentration
C) Specifications
245. A kind of product defect which may affect the function of the object and thus rendering the product useless
such as the presence of a crack in a bottle.

A) Critical defect D) Internal defect

B) Minor defect E) None of the above
C) Major defect
246. The following are factors that accelerate product instability, EXCEPT

A) Viscosity D) Method of manufacture

B) Moisture E) None of the above
C) Light
247. What is TRUE about expiration date?
1 - It is calculated by using the Arrhenius equation.
2 - It is a direct application and interpretation of the knowledge gained from stability testing.
3 - It does not limit the period during which a preparation is expected to have its labeled potency.
4 - It refers to the first day of the indicated month when it appears on the product label as month and year.

A) 4 only D) 3 & 4
B) 1&2 E) 3 only
C) 2 only
248. The following are chemical causes of product deterioration, EXCEPT

A) Racemization D)Decarboxylation
B) Dissolution E) None of the above
C) Precipitation
249. The problem of declining potency in an unstable preparation can be remedied by_____.

A) Reformulating the formulation. D)Add another ingredient to enhance the potency.

B) Change the active ingredient. E) Increase the concentration of the inert substance.
C) Addition of an overage of the active
ingredient.
250. A 15% decrease in potency of antibiotic products is considered admissible for unstable antibiotics, therefore,
addition of this overage to dry dosage forms should not be exceeded.

A) 15% D) 10%
B) 20% E) 30%
C) 25%
251. If the test results indicate that the raw material meets monograph specifications, the material is_____.

A) Submitted for quarantine D) Kept for storage

B) Returned to the warehouse E) Return to supplier
C) Approved for use
252. Approved raw materials are audited to assure that they are utilized in such a manner that the oldest stock is
used first. The policy employed is called_____.

A) In- process D) First in first out

B) Quarantine E) Random sampling
C) For sampling
253. These packaging materials come in direct contact with the product itself, EXCEPT the

A) Caps D) Seals
B) Plungers E) None of the above
C) Labels
254. Physical inspections for containers include the following criteria, EXCEPT

A) Extractable substances D) Light transmission

B) Finish E) None of the above
C) Leak
255. To check cap tightness, the_____ tester is used.

A) Pressure tester D)None of the above

B) Torque tester E) All of the above
C) Closure tester
256. It is the original document that is used as key in the production of products.

A) Monograph D) Standard operating procedure

B) Master Formula record E) Approved Quarantine Record
C) Batch Production Record
257. Which is not a control test for semisolid preparations?

A) Homogeneity D) Clarity
B) Softening range E) None of the above
C) Viscosity
258. Liquid preparations are subjected to the following control tests:
1- Texture, humidity effect, moisture content
2- Viscosity, isotonicity, pourability
3- Crystallization, precipitation, surface tension
4- Consistency, homogeneity, loss of water

A) 2&3 D) 2 & 4
B) 1&3 E) 1 & 2
C) 3&4
259. Which one of these is not a finely divided solid used as an emulsifying agent?

A) Aluminum hydroxide D) Magnesium trisilicate

B) Bentonite E) None of the above
C) Chondrus
260. These are aqueous liquid preparations which contain suspended, insoluble solid substances and which are
intended for internal use.

A) Mixtures D) Lotions
B) Milks E) Creams
C) Magmas
261. If the parts of a solvent required for one part of solute is from 30-100, the solute is said to be _____.

A) Soluble D) Sparingly soluble

B) Very slightly soluble E) Freely soluble
C) Slightly soluble
262. Which is NOT an advantage of tablets over the oral medications?

A) Precision of dosage D) Convenience of administration

B) Durability E) None o f the above
C) Unbreakability
263. The following are the essential components of a compressed tablet, EXCEPT

A) Bulking agent D) Disintegrant

B) Lubricant E) None of the above
C) Binder
264. The basic elements of a tablet press Are the following, EXCEPT

A) Hopper D) Ejector
B) Feed frame E) None of the above
C) Cam
265. A tablet processing problem wherein the tablet is separated into two or more distinct layers.

A) Chipping D) Picking
B) Capping E) Sticking
C) Lamination
266. It describes the adhesion of the granulation to the die wall.

A) Sticking D) Capping
B) Picking E) Lamination
C) Chipping
267. Variation in the weights of tablets during compression may be caused by
1- The size and distribution of the granules being compressed.
2- Poor flow resulting in incompletely-filled dies.
3- Poor mixing of the granulation.
4- Unequal length of the lower punches.

A) 1 only D) 1, 2 & 3
B) 1&2 E) 1, 2, 3 & 4
C) 2&3
268. The following are reasons for coating solid dosage forms, EXCEPT

A) To compressed reactive ingredients D) To delay or prolong absorption.

together.
B) To mask unpleasant taste. E) None of the above
C) For surface modification.

269. The basic processes used in the application of tablet coatings are the following, EXCEPT

A) Pan coating D) Tablet compression coating

B) Electrostatic coating E) None of the above
C) Dip coating
270. It is a type of suppository that is tapered at one end or both and which resembles a torpedo.

A) Vaginal suppositories D) Pessary suppositories

B) Rectal suppositories E) All of the above
C) Urethral suppositories
271. Which of the following is NOT a specification for an ideal suppository base?

A) Dissolves outside the body cavity D) Stable on storage

B) Nontoxic and non irritating to the E) None of the above
mucus membrane
C) Compatible with a variety of drugs
272. The most commonly used method for producing suppositories where the emulsified ingredients are poured in
a mould and allowed to cool in a refrigerator.

A) Hand moulding D) Compression in a tablet press

B) Cold compression E) Lyophilization
C) Melt moulding
273. The color of the skin is determined by the following factors:
1- The amount of melanin pigment in the epidermis
2- The presence of carotene in the epidermis
3- The proportion of reflected and scattered light
4- The amount of blood in the dermal and subcutaneous blood vessels

A) 1&2 D) 1, 2 & 3
B) 2&3 E) 1, 2, 3 & 4
C) 3&4
274. A class of cosmetic preparations which make water available to the stratum corneum and regulate the rate
and quantity of water uptake by the said layer are referred to as_____.

A) Emollient creams & lotions D) Suntan creams and lotions

B) Hand creams and lotions E) Body creams and lotions
C) Cleansing creams and lotions
275. Which type of creams and lotions that function to ameliorate skin complexion where the skin has become
mottled due to age or drug therapy?

A) Suntan cream D) Hand lotion

B) Skin lightener E) Body cream
C) Emollient cream
276. A cream and lotion preparation that prevents melanogenesis.

A) Suntan cream D) Hand lotion

B) Skin lightener E) Body cream
C) Emollient cream
277. Beeswax contributes to cream consistency and has the lowest melting points which generally form the
softest emulsions. Its melting range is_____.

A) 30º- 50º C D) 10º- 50º C

B) 70º- 100º C E) None of the above
C) 62º- 65º C

278. These ingredients are used to stiffen creams and prevent the bleeding of oils when the oil content is high.
1- Pilomotor agents 3- Ceresin
2- Ozokerite 4- Beeswax

A) 1 & 2 D) 3 & 4
B) 2 & 3 E) 2 & 4
C) 1 & 3
279. The ability to impart a velvety, peach like finish to the face is called____.

A) Bloom D) Absorbency
B) Covering power E) All of the above
C) Slip
280. For compact face powders, the type of binder represented by the following materials such as metallic
stearates may be used.

A) Water-soluble binder D) Dry binder

B) Emulsion binder E) None of the above
C) Oil binder
281. An eye makeup which may be manufactured in the form of cream, stick, liquid powder or pressed cake, and
may be applied dry or wet.

A) Mascara D) Eye cream

B) Eye shadow E) None of the above
C) Eyeliner
282. The basic ingredients of eye makeup include the following, EXCEPT

A) Carnauba wax D) Petrolatum

B) Wax rosin E) None of the above
C) Isopropyl myristate
283. Mouth preparations which are intended for use with a toothbrush for the purpose of cleaning the accessible
surfaces of the teeth are called_____.

A) Gargles D) All of the above

B) Mouthwash E) None of the above
C) Dentifrices
284. It is known as the process of removing relatively intact hair by uprooting.

A) Laser removal D) Depilation

B) Shaving E) None of the above
C) Epilation
285. Shampoo additives were developed to enhance acceptance and performance of shampoos. Antidandruff
agents are added which contain the following ingredients:
1- Sarcosinates 3- Lanolin derivatives
2- Selenium sulphide 4- Zinc pyrithrone

A) 2&4 D) 3 & 4
B) 1&2 E) 1& 4
C) 1&3
286. Shampoos are evaluated by the following performance properties, EXCEPT

A) Foam stability D) Consistency

B) Detergency and cleaning action E) None of the above
C) Body texture and set retention
287. The primary film former used in nail lacquers is _____.

A) Resin D) Nitroparaffins
B) Dioctyl phthalate E) None of the above
C) Nitrocellulose
288. Quality control checks for nail lacquers involve in the following, EXCEPT

A) Drying time D) Water resistance

B) Smoothness of flow E) None of the above
C) Fragrance blend
289. Perfume raw materials may be obtained from
1- Flower oils 3- Animal secretions
2- Resins 4- Isolates from plant materials

A) 1&2 C) 1 only
B) 2&3 D) 1, 2, 3 & 4
290. A fragrance type which is described to be a harmonious combination of two or more floral notes.

A) Bouquet D) Cologne blend

B) Floral E) None of the above
C) Fougere
291. It is the process of verifying, by data and analysis, that the design objectives of a given facility, a system
apparatus or procedures are reliably fulfilled in routine operation.

A) Inspection D) None of the above

B) Validation E) All of the above
C) Evaluation
292. It is the gathering and documentation of sufficient evidence to give reasonable assurance that the process
under review does what it purports to do.

A) Assay validation D) Validation of existing products

B) Process validation E) None of the above
C) Clearing validation
293. Non-compliance to CGMP can result in the following, EXCEPT

A) Quality variation D) All of the above

B) Contamination E) None of the above
C) Mix- ups and errors
294. Current Good manufacturing practice in manufacturing, processing, packing, or holding in the subject
of_____.

A) R.A. 3720 D) A.O. 60 series 1968

B) A.O. 150 series 1971 E) None of the above
C) A.O. 220 series 1974
295. What is NOT TRUE about cleanrooms?
1- Cleanrooms are sterile.
2- The air inside is constantly recirculated through HEPA and ULPA filters to remove internally generated
contaminants.
3- The equipment inside is designed to generate minimal air contamination.
4- Cleanrooms are kept at a positive pressure.

A) 1 only D) 3 & 4
B) 2 only E) 1, 2, 3 & 4
 C) 1&3

296. According to the US FED Cleanrooms Standards, the maximum particles/ ft3 of ≥ 0.5 µm for a Class 100
room is_____.

A) 300 D) 1000
B) 750 E) 3000
C) 100
297. It is the process which involves finding the target ( receptors or enzymes) that causes or leads to the disease
with the use of new scientific approaches.

A) Drug discovery D) Drug manufacture

B) Drug development E) All of the above
C) Clinical trials
298. In the development stage or phase of drugs, the lead compounds are modified and synthesized to perform
the following tasks, EXCEPT

A) To improve their interactions with D) To satisfy the performance criteria

the targets
B) To reduce toxicity E) None of the above
C) To improve pharmacokinetic
performance
299. Which of the following are trends in drug discovery & development?
1- Irrational approach
2- Antisense approach
3- Molecular approach
4- Gene therapy

A) 1&2 D)1, 2, & 4

B) 3 only E) 1, 2, 3 & 4
C) 1, 2 & 3
300. Through the Human Genome project, many novel disease targets have been discovered, which can be
utilized to develop better and more effective drugs. Technologies to discover new drugs include the following,
EXCEPT:

A) High throughput screening D) None of the above

B) Genomics and proteomics E) All of the above
C) Nanotechnology