Objective questions

1. Acceptance testing will be done by

a. User
b. Quality control
c. Quality assurance
d. Senior management
1. a
2. Main objective of configuration management
a. Maintain baseline for each version
b. Build software libraries
c. Get the right change installed at the right time
2. c
3. Customers will be get supported from these people for their problems
a. Helpdesk
4. Unit testing is a
a. White box testing
b. Black box testing
c. Stress testing
5. a
5. Before doing integration testing this testing must have been done
a. Unit testing
b. Systems testing
c. Stress testing
6.a
6. Cost of quality
a. Appraisal, failure and preventive
7. 4 types of testing
a. System, unit, integration, acceptance
8. There are 7 problem analysis tools. Which of the following is not one
a. Flow chart
b. Scatter plot
c. Variance analysis
11. Given the following costs:
User documentation - $ 1000 Rework - $ 1000
Design - $ 400 Review of User Documents - $ 1000
Code review - $ 1000
The cost of Quality is
a. $3000
b. $4000
c. $5000
12. Metric to measure operational reliability
a. MTBF
b. Defect density
13. The programmer writes a program step-by-step following this:
a. Procedure
b. Checklist
c. Process
d. Check sheet
14.Testing (including fixing the problem) is app. 50% of total product development cost
a. True
b. False
15. JIT is used only for inventory control by Toyota
a. True
b. False
16. What is 6 sigma
a. 34 per 1,000
b. 34 per 1,00,000
c. 34 per 1,000,000
d. 34 per 10,000,000 (its 34 not 3.4 :-P )
17. Mean and median are
a. Central tendency
b. Variation
18. An example of deployment of a quality approach is:
a. The degree to which the approach embodies effective evaluation cycles
b. The appropriate and effective application to all product and service
characteristics
c. The effectiveness of the use of tools, techniques, and methods
d. The contribution of outcomes and effects to quality improvement
e. The significance of improvement to the company’s business
19. The concept of continuous improvement as applied to quality means
a. Employees will continue to get better
b. Processes will be improved by a lot of small improvements
c. Processes will be improved through a few large improvements
d. Improved technology will be added to the process, such as acquiring
CASE tools
e. The functionality of the products will be enhanced
20. Quality is
a. Meeting requirements
b. Zero defects
c. Customer satisfaction
d. All of the above
a. a & c only
21. Systems are audited after implementation to determine whether or not the system
met standards. This is an example of
a. Detective control
b. Quality control
c. Quality Assurance
d. Corrective control
e. None of the above
22. The primary responsibility of quality lies with
a. Senior management
b. Quality control
23. Random causes are assigned to normal variation
a. True
b. False
24. An operator verifies that all production jobs are run. This is
a. Quality control
b. Quality assurance
c. Production planning
d. Disaster recovery
25. The testing intended to show that previously correct software has not been
adversely affected by changes is called:
a. Black-box testing
b. White box testing
c. Regression testing
26. The best phase that testing should begin is
a. After project starts
b. After requirements phase
c. After design phase
 d. After coding
27. Assume you are a new quality assurance manager. You have observed a high failure
rate in production due to defects in the computer programs. If you follow good quality
practices, the approach you would take to reduce the incidence of failure is to:
a. Initiate code inspections to identify defects in code
b. Increase the type and extent of testing to remove defects before
production
c. Classify and count the defects so that you can identify the defect of
highest frequency and eliminate the root cause of the defect
d. Encourage the programmers to try harder to make fewer defects
e. Include individual defect rates in the performance appraisal system

8. The standards that have the greatest acceptance, and the highest compliance
percentage, are normally those standards developed by
a. Senior management
b. The standards committee
c. A quality assurance group
d. The users of the standards
e. Internal auditors
29. Standard is:
a) What
b) When
c) Why
d) Where
30. Your project produces more than 100 defects
a. The project is useless
b. You cannot comment as you do not have much information
31. Your project produces 1000 defects per 150 function points. Now you have
a. Benchmark
b. Baseline
c. Size
32. The cost of correcting defects at the early stage of S/W development life cycle is less
than correcting them at the later stage. TRUE/FALSE
33. Errors in a software are due to :
a. Faulty processes
34. Pareto chart is designed to rank items by frequency.
a) True b) False
35. One of most used QA tool is check sheet
a. True
b. False
36. How do you apply stress to the program?
a. Larger volumes of transactions
b. Changes to transactions
37. The cost allocated for preventing the defects from occurring in right-first-time
a. Preventive
b. Appraisal
c. Failure
d. Direct
38. One attribute of risk is magnitude. What is other
a. User
b. Type
c. Frequency
39. After 5 years a project gave a profit of $ 50000. How will you measure the profit
when the project was initially implemented
a. Present value of money
b. Return on investment
c. Asset depreciation
40. A place where data collected is recorded is
a. Check sheet
b. Histogram
41. Password should be changed
a. On regular basis
b. When you suspect that password is compromised
c. When you leave the place
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
42. On a random basis application systems are audited after implementation to
determine whether or not the system met standards. This is an example of
a. Quality control
b. Detective control
c. Quality Assurance
d. Corrective control
e. None of the above
43. The effort required for locating and fixing an error in an operational program
a. Testability
b. Maintainability
c. Usability
d. Efficiency
44. The contributors to poor quality in an organization are
a. Lack of involvement by management
b. Lack of knowledge about quality
c. Time constraints
d. A and B
45. Definition of Integrity
a) Extent to which a program satisfies its specs and fulfils the user’s mission and goals
b) Effort required for learning, operating, preparing input, interpreting output of a
program
c) Effort required to couple one system with another
d) Extent to which access to software or data by unauthorized persons can be
controlled
e) All of the above
46. Achieving quality is easy. True/False
47. “Failure to enforce standards” as a contributor to poor quality belongs to which
category?
a) Lack of involvement by management
b) Lack of knowledge
48. To achieve quality (i.e., defect free products and services), we require
a) Close cooperation between management and staff
b) Commitment
c) An environment in which quality can flourish
d) All of the above
49. Quality is not a long-term strategy. True/False
50. PDCA cycle is developed by
a) Deming
b) Dr. Shewhart
c) Ishikawa
d) Harold S.Geneen
51. Quality Assurance (QA) and Quality Control (QC) are both necessary to make quality
happen. Of the two QA is more important than QC
A. True
B. False
52. QC is a line function, performed by the same group that produces the goods
A. True
B. False
53. QA is a management function
A. True
B. False
54. QC is a related to the product
A. True
B. False
55. QA is related to the process producing the product
A. True
B. False
56. If you make the process consistent, then the product produced by the process will be
consistent. This is main aim behind
A. Quality Control
B. Quality Assurance
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above
57. Check for defects in product with the primary aim of correcting defects. This is
A. Quality Control
B. Quality Assurance
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above
58. Check for defects in process for the primary aim of correcting or establishing new
process. This is
A. Quality Control
B. Quality Assurance
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above
59. As per ISO protocols, all ISO standards should be confirmed, revised or with drawn
in
a) Every 3 years
b) Every 5 years
c) Every 10 years
d) As required
60. Match the items in Tab A with Tab B.

Tab A Tab B
1. ISO 9000 1. Guidelines for auditing the quality
2. ISO 9001 2. Guide to implement quality systems
3. ISO 9004 3. Describes quality models
4. ISO 10011 4. Introduction and guide to use other ISO 9000 standards
1-4, 2-3, 3-2, 4-1
61. The ISO 9001:2000 standards are based on 8 quality management
principles.
As per ISO 9001 standards, verify the following statements.
A . The top management shall demonstrate its commitment to meet customer
requirements for
Their products and services (True / False).
B. The organization should determine and provide the resources needed to establish
and improve
quality management system (True / False).
C. The organization should ensure that all processes are operated under controlled
conditions and produce outputs that are consistent with organization’s policy and
objectives (True / False).
D. The organization should define and implement measurement, analysis and
improvement processes as a way of demonstrating that the product/service
conforms to specified requirement. (True / False)
62. What are the two types of reviews defined in ISO/IEC 12207
Ans. Joint technical review, Joint management review
63. Management commitment is the single most important requirement for sucessful
implementation of --------------- (answer - Quality Management)
64. Having management commitment does not guarantee quality management success
but improves odds for successful implementation. (True/False)
65. Top down implementation model(waterfall effect) is most successful model for
implementing quality management. (True/false)
66. Committing to quality management means
a.Understand the concept of quality management.
b.Adopt behaviour to show quality management.
c.Accept the need to change the perpective leadership.
d.Provide funds for training.
e.All of the above
67. Which is the first step in establishing the trust among employees in implementation
of quality
a) Actively listening down
b) Talking down
c) A) or B)
d) None of the above
68. Understanding comes after behavior change (True/False)
69. Toyota Production System is also called as
a. Just In Time
b. Join In Time
c. Single Minute Exchange of Dies
d. None of the above
70. Visiting other companies and understanding its quality process reduces the lead-time
for identifying the quality process to be implemented in an organization. True/False
71. Which of the following is the most difficult of the decision making processes?
a) Authority
b) Voting
c) Avoidance
d) Consensus
72. The objective of constructive criticism is
a. to criticize some one on their bad works
b. to improve his performance
c. duty of the project manager
73. Whether it is a must for the listener to listen to all parts of speech? YES
74. Which of the following is discriminating listening
a) Directed at selecting specific pieces of information, not the entire communication.
b) Complete message with minimal distortion
c) To put youself in the speakers situation
d) To analyse what the speaker has said.
e) None of the above.
74. Which of the following is Therapeutic listening
a) Complete message with minimal distortion
b) Directed at selecting specific pieces of information, not the entire communication.
c) To put youself in the speakers situation
d) To analyse what the speaker has said.
e) None of the above.
75. Which of the following help attending to the speaker
a) Maintain eye contact
b) Provide continuous feedback
c) Periodically restate what was said
d) Concentrate exclusively on the speakers communication
e) All the above
76. Which one below is not an attribute of executive management
a) Purposeful
b) Competent
c) Analytical
d) Decisive
e) Meaningful
77. Which attributes were included in establishing status when equated to IT
environment.
a) leadership
b) technical skill
c) years of experience
d) all the above.
78. Quality promotes turning problems into opportunities (True / False)
79. Customer will give up if complaints are not resolved within
(a) 4 Days
(b) 4 Months
(c) 4 Seconds
(d) 4 Minutes

80. Following is part of complaint resolution process

(a) Get on your customer’s wavelength

(b) Follow up with the customer
(c) Establish and initiate an action program
(d) All the above

81. Writing a successful report requires a clear understanding of both

_________________ and _____________

Ans: Report objective and desired action.

82. A good report has no more than ___________ and _______________

Ans: Three objectives and three actions.

83. QA report is designed to

(a) Convey information
(b) Change behavior
(c) Trace problem
(d) None of the above
84. The scope of a IT Quality function includes <<Scribd>>
a. Supporting implementation of quality policy
b. Reducing producer and customer gap
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
85. When the quality processes are mature with defined, improving work processes the
focus of the quality function is on
a. Optimization
b. Product quality
c. Process deployment and compliance
d. All of the above
86. Why are product inspections needed? <<Scribd>>

a. To find out the best worker

b. To find the worst worker
c. To assist the worker in improving quality
d. For objectively appraising workers
e. All of the above
87. Which is the least important skill for a quality manager in the below list?
a. Verbal communication
b. Project management
c. Programming
d. Systems knowledge
e. Knowledge of operations
f. Written communication
88. Which is the best positioning of a quality manager?
a) Reporting to manager of systems/programming
b) Reporting outside the IT function
c) Reporting to manager of computer operations
d) Reporting to IT manager
89. The quality function is normally the weakest when reporting to _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
__
a) Manager of systems/programming
b) Outside of IT function
c) Manager of computer operations
90. Based on research from the Quality Assurance Institute the percent of quality
groups reporting outside the IT function is 15%. YES /NO

Implementing an IT Quality function:

90. The size of the quality function ideally will vary with the size of the organization
(True/False)
91. Obtaining and sustaining support for quality is an ongoing activity -
TRUE/FALSE.
92. Which are the following tasks is not helpful in building support of quality
a. Teach a quality vocabulary
b. Issue a quality newsletter
c. Staffing
d. Meet daily on quality
93. In any organization QA Analyst position will be <<Scribd>>

a. Part time staff position

b. Full time staff position
c. Not required at all
94. QA Analysts have to be trained quality functions YES
95. Which are following disciplines is helpful in performing the quality function
<<Scribd>>

A. Auditing
B. Individual engineering
C. SPC
D. All the above.
96. Which of the below tool help people to determine whether a process is in control or
not <<Scribd>>
a. Run Chart
b. Control Chart
c. Pareto Chart
d. U Chart
97. Which are following tools belong to Quality Tool Box <<Scribd>>

a. Brainstorming
b. Affinity Diagram
c. X-mR chart
d. Pareto Chart
98. What is the most commonly used / Powerful statistical tool?
 Checklist

99. What is a simple list of questions that enables people to follow and verify processes?
Checklist
100. ___________ is a set of tools, which assists in defining, controlling and improving
quality. Quality Toolbox

101. List the tools commonly used by QA Analysts <<Scribd>>

• Brainstorming
• Flow charts
• Cause-and-effect diagram
• Histograms
• Pareto Charts
• Control charts
• Scatter diagrams
102. List few plans, a quality manager can use for driving and continually
maturing the quality environment <<Scribd>>
• Stay abreast with new quality practices
• Study the change in criteria for different quality models
• Frequently review the quality benchmark
• Obtain and Maintain quality related certifications
103. How the role of QA changes as the quality function matures in an
organization?
Quality control to Quality Assurance to Quality consulting

104. Suggest another name for Independent Testing Department

Quality Control Department
105. Quality practitioners working in Quality control department are called
_________.
Inspectors or Testers
106. What are the major activities in the ‘Initial’ phase of quality management
maturation?
• Perform Quality control activity
• QA activities focuses on process definition- but not fully defines and
follows the process
107. _____________ is the prerequisite to improved quality and productivity.
Consistency
108. What are the major activities in the ‘Intermediate’ phase of quality
management maturity?
• Quality control becomes shared responsibility of the customer, worker and
QA analyst
• Process definition and improvement are emphasized and performed
• Quality function and QA analyst acts as a quality consultant
109. How does MBNQA program define an organization which moves towards
optimization?
World-Class
110. What is the main identity of a World-class Organization?
Yield high customer satisfaction at minimum cost.
111. What are the major activities in the ‘Final’ phase of quality management
maturity?
• Workers are assigned responsibilities for process definition, measurement
and improvement
• Role of QA analysts changes to performing Quality consulting to
management and employees in promoting and implementing quality initiatives
112. What are the two major drivers that change the role of the QA analyst
• Management Philosophy used in the IT group
• Personal belief system of managers
113. In the ‘Initial’ phase of quality function maturation, what type of
management exists?
Authoritarian
114. When quality management philosophy matures, the organization moves
from hierarchical structure to _________.
Teams (that are organized and empowered to define, measure and improve
processes.)
115. Flowcharts may be a:
a) Simple High level process flow
b) A detailed task flow
c) Any mix of a and b
d) All of the above

116. Flowcharts are useful to obtain knowledge of a process for improvement. It

helps to document a process so that, inefficiencies and redundancies can be
identified and reduced.
117. A process map is a more detailed flowchart that depicts:
a) Processes
b) Relationship Between Processes
c) Process Owners
d) All the above
118. Flow Charts should reference the following:
a) Process owners, suppliers and Customers
b) Key deliverables
c) Decision points
d) Interfaces
e) Task and Task Sequences
f) Policies, Standards, procedures and Tools
e) All of the above
119. The process of measuring how well a company’s products, services and
practices measure against others is known as benchmarking.
120. Benchmarking can be done against partners who could be
a) Internal Units
b) Competitors
c) “Best in class” or “best in breed” within any industry
d) Any of the above

121. The objective of benchmarking is to identify performance gap and to

determine a realistic improvement goal. <<Scribd>>

122. List the three types of benchmarking

a) Process Benchmarking
b) Product Benchmarking
c) Performance Benchmarking

123. Matrix is a
a) Problem Solving Technique
b) Problem Identifying Technique
c) Problem Cause Identifying Technique
d) Ranking Technique

124. Matrix is also known as _____________ and _____________

Check sheet, matrix diagram

125. The two common types of Matrixes are
a) L-Type and X-Type
b) X-Type and V-Type
c) L-Type and T-Type
d) T-Type and X-Type
126. L-Type matrix compares
a) 2 sets of items
b) 3 sets of items
c) none of the above
127. The Principal Developer of QFD (Quality Function Deployment) is
a) Dr. W. Edwards Deming
b) Dr. Joseph Juran
c) William Scherkenbach
d) Dr. Yoji Akao
e) Dr. Harold S. Geneen
f) None of the above

128. Quality System is an Organized approach to quality with __________,

__________ and _________.
Tools, techniques and methods

129. Comprehensive Quality Deployment includes __________ , _________ ,

_________ and __________
Quality, technology, cost/schedule and reliability

130. Scatter plots are used for

a. Problem solving and understanding
b. Cause and effect relationships
c. Test influence of one variable over the other.
d. All of the above
131. Which of the following use Scatter plots
a. Defect level vs.Skills
b. Cost vs time
c. change response
d. Defect level vs Complexity
e. All of the above
132. The following are not types of scatter plots
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Zero
d. Non zero
133. Which of the following are graphical presentation tools.
a. Table
b. Pie chart
c. Scatter plot
d. Bar chart
e. None of the above
134. Which of the following charts show direction of events
a. Bar chart
b. Run chart
c. Line chart
d. Table
135. Line charts can be used for the following:
a. Like units
b. Like periods
c. Like variables
 d. Related or fixed variables.
138. The following are 2D charts:
a. Bar charts
b. Line chart
c. Run chart
d. Control chart
139. Data precision is not highly required for
a. Line chart
b. Control chart
c. Bar chart
d. pie chart

140. Which of the following chart represents data in percentage

a. stem and leaf chart
b. Bar chart
c. Pie chart
d. Line chart
141. Stem and leaf chart is a variation of
a. Line chart
b. Pie chart
c. Bar chart
d. Control chart
e. None of the above

142. It is practical to use stem and leaf charts when absolute no of values is
a. High(More than 100)
b. Low (Usually 100 or less)
c. Zero
d. None of the above

143. Testing performed by organizations other than the developer is

(a) Unit testing
(b) Integration testing
(c) System testing
(d) Acceptance testing
(e) Independent testing
144. “Validate that the functions meet stated requirements” is
(a)Unit testing
(b) Integration testing
(c) System testing
(d) Acceptance testing
(e) Independent testing
145. “Validate that all units work together according to the system design” is
(a) Unit testing
(b)Integration testing
(c) System testing
(d) Acceptance testing
(e) Independent testing
146. “Validate that system meets the needs of the business” is
(a) Unit testing
(b) Integration testing
(c) System testing
(d) Acceptance testing
(e) Independent testing
147. “Incremental testing” means
(a) White Box testing
(b) Black Box testing
 (c) Top-down testing
(d) Regression testing
(e) Independent testing
148. “Data driven testing may be called as
(a) White Box testing
(b)Black Box testing
(c) Regression testing
(d)Independent testing

149. Logic driven testing may be called as

a. White Box testing
b. Black Box testing
c. Top-down testing
d. Regression testing
e. Independent testing
150. Verification should be performed for
(a) requirements
(b) design
(c) code construction
(d) operation / maintenance
(e)all of the above
151. Validation is mostly used to determine the _______ of the final software /
program
(a)Correctness
(b) Completeness
(c) Consistency
(d) Quality
152. Verification is mostly used to determine the effectiveness / completeness
of the software
153. For small programs, verification is the process of determining the
correspondence between a program and its specifications
True / False

154. As part of configuration management, small changes need not be

documented and controlled.
a. True.
b. False.
155. Someone independent of the team that designed the change should be
involved in testing the final revised program.’’
a. True.
b. False.
156. The primary goal of defect management.
a. Defect correction.
b. Defect prevention.
c. Defect reduction.
d. All of the above.
157. The defect management, unlike the entire s/w development process need
not be risk driven.
a. True.
b. False.
158. The general principles of recording management includes,
a. Preventing defects.
b. Capture and analysis of information should be automated.
c. Should focus on the person who caused the defect.
d. Defect information should be used to improve process.
159. The main purpose of recording defects are
a. To ensure the defect is corrected.
 b. To gather statistics used to develop defect expectations in future applications.
c. To go for continuous improvement.
d. All of the above.
160. Severity of defects should be assigned subjectively, whereas priority
should be assigned objectively.
a. True.
b. False.
161. How many steps will be there in simple Defect Tracking Process (DTP).
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) Just one
162. From the following what are the steps in DTP
a) Execute test and log any discrepancies
b) Draw Fish bone diagram
c) Assign defect to a developer
d) Do causal analysis
163. What are the recommended levels to ‘Prioritize the correction’
a) Critical
b) Major
c) Minor
d) Oversight or inadequate self review
164. Test reports issued periodically include ----------- by severity or priority
a) Summary of all the defects found
b) Summary of all closed defects
c) Summary of all open defects
d) None of the above
165. Test reports are issued to
a) Team alone
b) Team and Management
c) Management alone
d) None of the above
166. Test reports are issued
a) Periodically throughout the testing process
b) At the end of testing process
c) Once in a month
d) Once in the lifetime of a project
167. Defects can also be used for Process Improvement
True / False
168. Today many organizations use defects for Process Improvement
True / False
169. Based on research team findings, using defects for Process Improvement
should include the following
a) Go back to the person who did coding
b) Go back to the process that originated the defect to understand what
caused the defect
c) Go to the other project to know how they dealt with that problem
d) Go back to the verification and validation process, which should have
caught them earlier
170. Human factors dimension alone can have a very large impact on the
effectiveness of the review process
True/False
Page 260-262
171. Standard states
a) what must happen to meet the intent of the policy
b) how to meet the requirements
c) both A and B
 d) None of the above
172. Standards convert intentions into specific rules (true / false)
173. Standards must be
a) measurable
b) attainable
c) necessary
d) nice to have
e) all the above
174. Which of the following determines standards
a) customer requirements
b) internal requirements
c) cost and schedule requirements
d) all the above
175. Which of the following is true

a) procedures are not always required and unless critical, should be minimised
b) skill set and knowledge requirements are prerequisites for performing the
procedure
c) if the procedures are followed ALWAYS standards will be automatically met
d) All of the above
e) none of the above
176. Controls should be designed based on the criticality of the process and
what needs to be checked (True / false)
177. Quality control procedures are
a) preventive costs
b) appraisal costs
c) failure costs
d) none of the above
Page 263-265
178. Measurement provides quantitative feedback to an organisation about
whether it is achieving its goals and moving towards its results (true / false)
179. The purpose of process improvement is
a) to change the process
b) to reduce the frequency of defects including process ineffectiveness
c) both a and b
d) none of the above
180. Process improvement uses facts(measurement results) to identify the root
causes of problems.
(true / false )
181. The long range objective for process improvement is to
a) eliminate the need for quality assurance activities
b) eliminate the need for quality control activities
c) both a and b
d) none of the above
Page 269-270
182. If the control limits are within the specification limits, the process is
capable of satisfying the customer. (True/False)
183. Does the process improvement plan need approval? If yes, who approves
it ?
Yes, Senior management
Page 274-276
184. Measure is the basic building block for measurement program.
185. Metrics is a derived unit of measurement
186. What are the two types of measurement?
Objective and Subjective Measurement
Objective measurement uses hard data that can be obtained by counting, weighing etc.
Subjective measurement is normally observed or perceived
187. What is Nominal data?
Nominal data cannot be subjected to arithmetic operations of any type and the
values cannot be ranked in any natural order.
188. What is Ordinal data?
Ordinal data can be ranked, but differences or ratios between values are not
meaningful.
189. What is interval data?
Interval data can be ranked and can exhibit meaningful differences between values
190. Give an example for interval data?
T.J. McCabe’s complexity metric is an example for interval data.
191. What is Ratio Data?
Ratio data has absolute zero and meaningful ratios can be calculated.
192. For what are the measurement dashboards or key indicators used for?
Measurement dashboards or key indicators are used to monitor progress and to
initiate change.

193. Before approving for use, what are the tests that the measures and
metrics have to undergo?
1) Reliability – Refers to the consistency of measurement
2) Validity – indicates the degree to which a measure actually measures
3) Ease of Use and Simplicity
4) Timeliness – Refers whether the information can be reported in sufficient time to
impact the decisions needed to manage effectively
5) Calibration - indicates the modification of a measurement so it becomes more
valid
194. How to know a measurement is good?
The measures and the resulting metrics should be
1) Simple and precisely definable
2) Objective
3) Easily Obtainable at reasonable cost
4) Valid, measuring what they are intended to measure
5) Robust, being relatively insensitive to intuitively small changes in the process
or product
Page 280-282
195. Give 2 examples of metrics for complexity measurement s?
a) Cyclomatic complexity
b) Knots
196. A knot is defined as a necessary crossing of directional lines in the graph.
197. The quality characteristics for software that have received considerable
attention are correctness, reliability and maintenance.
198. Common causes are causes of variation that can be controlled by
improving work processes.
199. Special causes are causes of variation that must be controlled outside the
process.
200. Statistical tools are the only methods available to objectively quantify
variation.
Page 286-288
201. How many Components are in Risk and name all of those Components?
Three components
- The event that could occur – the risk
- The probability that the event will occur – the likelihood
- The impact or consequence of the event if it occurs – the penalty
202. Risks can be categorized as one of the following:
- Technical
- Programmatic or performance
- Supportability or environment
- Cost
 - Schedule
203. How many Characteristics does Risk has and what are they?
Five Characteristics
- Situational
- Time based
- Interdependent
- Magnitude dependent
- Value based
204. PMBOK stands for?
Project Management Body of Knowledge
205. How many processes are there to address risk management as per
PMBOK?
Four processes
- Risk Identification
- Risk Qualification
- Risk Response Development
- Risk Response Control
206. External risks can be controlled or influenced by the project team
------------ TRUE/FALSE
207. Which of the following document will be required as a source of input
when considering a list of possible risks?
a) Product documentation b) Project documentation c) Historical Information d)
All of the above
Page 292-294

208. In a traditional waterfall methodology, most risk management activity

occurs close to milestone. True/false
209. In a spiral development model the risk management activity falls in the
explicit risk management portion. True/false
210. Risk management is an independent auditing process. True/False
211. Risk should be the sole responsibility of project manager. True/False
212. Within many software development organizations risk management
remains ad hoc and incomplete.
213. Testing strategies is included in short term risk management. True/False
214. Who should be involved in determining risk management
a. Customer
b. Management
c. Development team
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
215. Mitigating the risk by
a. Minimizing the probability of occurrence
b. Minimizing the value of impact
c. Deflecting the risk elsewhere
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
Page 298-300
216. A measurement program is defined as the
----------------------------------------
Ans: Entire set of activities that occur around quantitative data.
217. Mature organization use quantitative data to determine
a. Requirements are complete
b. To prevent problems
c. Budget
d. Schedule and project status
e. All of the above
218. Immature organization use quantitative data to determine
 a. Requirements are complete
b. To prevent problems
c. Budget
d. Schedule and project status
e. All of the above
219. What are four major uses of Measurement?’
Ans: 1.Manage and control the process
2. Manage and control the product (review and testing)
3. Improve the process (quantitative data gathered during process execution can
identify the weaknesses and therefore opportunities for improvement)
4. Manage the risks
220. Same software development process may be followed to produce two
different applications. - True/False

221. What is risk?

Ans: Risk is a chance for something to go wrong.

222. How do we manage control and product?
Ans: Measure Quality by no.of defects, Mean time to failure (MTTF) Mean time to
repair
(MTTR)
Measure Performance by technical performance, measures specified by
customer
and management.
223. How do we improve the process?
Ans: Identify the current performance, find how cost-efficient is the process. By
measuring Time and effort.
224. How do we manage risks?
Ans: Identify the risks, its frequency, probability of risks occurring and impact of each
risk if it occurs derive risk management plan.
225. What are the four phases in installing a measurement program?
Ans: 1.build the measurement base
2.Manage towards results
3. Manage by process
4. Management by fact
226. What are the key points in first phase of implementing a measuring
program?
Ans:1. Define the objectives for the measurement program

2. Create an environment receptive to measurement (establish SLA between IT and

users, establish quality measurement environment)

3. Define the measurement hierarchy

Three levels of quantitative data are mapped to 3-level organization tier.

a. Metrics – used by Line management such as variance between actual and
budgeted
cost, user satisfaction, defects rates per LOC.
b. Measures – Staff management uses basic measures such as product size,
cycle time or defect count.
c. Strategic results – Senior management uses strategic results dashboard to
manage the IT function and track to mission, vision and goals.

227. What do we mean by manage towards results?

Ans: a. Identify goals for desired business results

b. Means for measuring each business result
228. What are the five steps in manage towards results phase?
Ans: a. Identify desired business results. If each has subject, action, target value and
time frame, as it is much easier to identify measure for each.

b. Identify current baseline

c. Select a measure or metric for each result. Should be only 3 to 5 but not greater
than 7

d. Consider tradeoff between the results. For example consider the desired result
Complete on time might affect Easy-to-read documentation.

e. Based on baseline and desired result, determine a goal for each result metric.
(Bench marking tool is best for this).

229. Quality is an attribute of

a) Product
b) Process
c) Standard
d) Policy
230. What does “IEC” expands to (E.g. As used with ISO/IEC 12207)?
a) International Electronics Committee
b) International Engineers Confederation
c) International Electrotechnical Commission
d) Internal Electronics Association
231. Which of the following defines the “SPICE”?
a) SEI CMM
b) ISO/EIA 12207
c) ISO 9001:2000
d) ISO/IEC TR 15504
232. The two components of the “Manage By Fact” process are
a) Meeting the desired results
b) Managing to meet the customer requirements on fact gathering
c) Managing the process to drive the results
d) A & C
e) B & C
233. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a ‘Service Level
Agreement’?
a) It defines the obligations of the services/product provider towards the customer
b) It has terms for maintenance of the product/service
c) It does not mention the obligation of the customer
d) None of the above
234. Function point analysis involves
a) Amount of information processing function
b) System characteristics
c) Degree of influence
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
235. Why does it help to visit other companies to identify effective Quality
practices?
a) Reuse organizational learning
b) Continually benchmark
c) Interact with other Quality professionals
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
236. Which step of the listening process requires to give continuous feedback
a) Hearing the speaker
b) Attending to the speaker
c) Understanding the speaker
237. Any additional feature required by the customer, which is not mentioned
in the requirements is a(n) __________ from the producers' point of view:
a) enhancement
b) defect
c) modification
d) None of the above
238. What are the three Cs in the today’s IT workplace (of QA profession within
IT)
a) Completeness, Change and Conformance
b) Change, Conformance and Configuration
c) Change, Complexity and Competition
d) None of the above
239. Audit plan is prepared during the definition phase.
a) True
b) False
240. Who created the theory of FIRO
a) James Baehler
b) W.C. Shutz
c) Taichi Ohno
d) Dr. Ishikawa
241. Given the following costs:
Requirements analysis - $ 1000 Rework - $ 700
System Testing - $ 500 Phase Reviews - $ 650
Code review - $ 500 Review of User Documents - $ 600
Continuing Edn. Programs. - $ 800 Design - $ 400
Client Entertainment - $ 800
The cost of Quality is
a) $ 4500
b) $ 1100
c) $ 1600
d) $ 3750
e) $ 3500
242. In an organization, the process is stabilized and documentation exists.
What is the rating for this level?
a) level 1
b) level 2
c) level 3
d) level 4
e) level 5
243. Malcolm Balridge who was a defense secretary invented MBNQA
a) True
b) False
244. Industry accepted definitions of quality are “conformance to
requirements” (from Philip Crosby) and “fit for use” (from Dr. Joseph Juran and
Dr. W. Edwards Deming). These two definitions are contradictory.
a) True
b) False
245. Most Information Technology (IT) groups have the quality gaps between:
----------------------.
a) Producer gap
b) Supplier gap
c) Customer gap
d) Provider gap
e) A & C
f) A & B
246. A major premise of a quality management environment is an emphasis on
continuous improvement. The approach to continuous improvement is best
illustrated using the -----------------------------, which was developed in the
1930s by Dr. Shewhart of the Bell System.
a) System development life cycle
b) PDCA Cycle
c) Quality Improvement Cycle
d) Product Life Cycle
247. The structure and application of controls must be clear to all parties
concerned. In this respect, two levels of control exist within an environment:
a) Management controls.
b) Application controls
c) System Controls
d) Quality controls
e) A & B
f) B & C
248. Defects are recorded ________________
a) to report status of the application
b) to gather statistics used to develop defect expectations in future applications
c) to improve the software development process.
d) to ensure the defect is corrected
e) All of the above
249. The system design SDLC phase is immediately followed by
a) Initiation
b) Definition
c) Evaluation
d) Programming and training
e) Operation
250. Resource planning, audit planning, estimation, scheduling are the some of
the tasks carried out in
a) Initiation phase
b) System design phase
c) Definition Phase
d) Evaluation phase
251. Internal control encompasses the plan of organization and all of the
methods and measures adopted within a business to:
a) Safeguard its assets
b) Promote operational efficiency
c) Check the accuracy and reliability of accounting data
d) Encourage adherence to prescribed policies
All of the above
e) None of the above
252. As part of management control, the division of responsibilities provide
a) efficiencies derived from specialization
b) cross-check that promote accuracy without duplication or wasted effort
c) safeguarding of assets
d) enhances the effectiveness of a management control system
All of the above
e) None of the above
251. System reviews and software testing are examples of _____________.
a) Quality Control
b) Quality Assurance
c) Quality Audits
d) None of the above
252. The ___________ is the process used to verify and validate the system
structurally and functionally.
a) Tester’s workbench
b) Developer’s workbench
c) Owner’s workbench
d) Manager’s workbench
253. ___________ testing is done without executing the code.
a) Regression
b) Unit
c) System
d) Static
254. Identification of defects within the stage or phase of the project where
they originate, rather than in later test stages is referred to as
_______________.

a) Stage containment
b) Early catch
c) Defect Prevention
d) Defect containment
255. Informal, unstructured reviews of the program source code against
specifications and standards to find defects and verify coding techniques are
called __________ .
a) Inspection
b) Buddy reviews
c) Code walkthrough
d) Peer Review
256. Which of the following is not a white box testing technique
a) Statement coverage
Equivalence partitioning
b) decision/condition coverage
c) multiple condition coverage
257. ____________ is the way of Incremental testing which begins testing
from top of the module hierarchy and works down to the bottom using interim
stubs to simulate lower interfacing modules or programs.
a) Bottom-up
b) Top-down
c) Lateral
d) Block-by-block

258. Which of the following task is not performed by V&V management

a) Create the software V&V plan
b) Conduct Management Review of V & V
c) Support Management and Technical Reviews
d) Interface with Organizational and Supporting Processes
Conduct In-process reviews
259. Awareness Trainings should be limited to
a) 1/2 hour
b) 1 hour
c) 2 hour
d) 3 hour
e) 3-4 hour
260. The ultimate goal of JIT is supply each process –
a) the exactly required item
b) in exactly required quantity
c) at exactly required time
d) All three
261. Pull system means –
a) Quickly changing work capabilities
b) Reducing errors, defects, waste
c) Data is moved forward when it is needed by next operation.
262. Mercury's test director is a tool to support ____________ tracking
process.
a) Requirements
b) Defect
c) Change Requests
d) Leave taken by testers
263. Probability of a software failure -----------
a) Defect rate
Reliability
b) Correctness
c) Testability
264. Who is responsible for risk management?
a) Team members
b) Project Leader
Project Manager
c) Program Manager
265. Major uses of quantitative data
a) Manage and control the process
b) Manage and control the product
c) Improve the product
d) Manage the risks
All of the above
266. Function Points
a) measure of the system size
b) can be used to compare different kinds of application systems
c) together with past data can be used to estimate future effort
d) all of the above
e) none of the above
267. Workbenches are also called _____________
a) Phases
b) Steps
c) Tasks
All of the above
d) None of the above
268. Five components of a process represent the vocabulary of process
management –
a) Policy, Procedures, Training, Input and Output/deliverables.
b) Vision, Mission, Objectives, Goals, and Process
c) Policy, Standards, Inputs, Procedures and Output/deliverables.
d) Policy, Guidelines, Procedures, Standards and Milestones
269. Business Control model includes three general areas of control –
a) Management processes Control, Work processes Control and Check
Processes Control.
b) Statistical Process Control, Statistical Quality Control and Statistical Product Control
c) Process Control, Product Control and Environment Control
d) Quality Control, Management Control and Customer Control
270. A standard must be _________________________
a) Smart, Measurable, and Time-bound
b) Measurable, Achievable and Clear
c) Approved, Available and Attainable
d) Measurable, Attainable and Critical
271. Most important requirement for successful implementation of quality
management is:
a) Employee Awareness and Commitment,
b) Succesful Deployment of Qulaity Function,
c) Management Commitment,
d) Commitments from people involved in Quality Group
271. Slowest group and weakest link in most quality management efforts in an
organization is:
a) Executive Management
b) Middle Management
c) Line Management
d) Other Employees
271. The management effort to create a new culture, which encourages and
accepts changes and allows all people to work together to maximize their
contributions to quality management is a
a) Mission
a) Vision
b) Goal
c) Policy
d) Objective
272 What is the number one skill for a QA Analyst
a) Verbal Communication
b) Written Communication
c) Listening
d) Leadership
273 Each Key Process Area is organized in to 5 sections called .............. .And
they are ........ ,........... ,........, ........., ..........
(27) Common Features. Figure 3-2 in pg 3-7

commitment to perform, ability to perform, activities performed, directing

implementation, verifying implementation.
274. What is NIST?
National Institute of Science and Technology
National Institute of Standards and Technology.
National Institute for Software Technology
National Institute for Software and Technology
275. The ISO 9000:1994 family of Standards contained...... (number)standards
and documents.
18
24
20
22
276. Which are the four primary standards of IS0 9000?
ISO 9000, ISO 9001, ISO 9004, ISO 10010
ISO 9000, ISO 9001, ISO 9006, ISO 10011
ISO 9000, ISO 9001, ISO 9004, ISO 10011
ISO 9000, ISO 9001, ISO 9004, ISO 10054
277. What are the 4 views of Software Development?
Requirements View, Design View, Coding View, Testing View
Manager View, Developer View, SQA View, Customer View
Contract View, Operating View, Engineering View, Supporting View
All of the above
None of the above
278. List out the six phases that are involved in a SDLC?
A) Initiation - Phase I
B) Definition - Phase II
C) System Design - Phase III
D) Programming and training - Phase IV
E) Evaluation and Acceptance - Phase V
F) Installation and Operation - Phase VI
279. Producer Views Quality is meeting --------------------------------------.
A) Whether the Product or Service Does What the Customer Needs
B) Product Has Zero Defects
C) Producer's Requirements or Specifications
D) Conformance to Requirements
280. As a Quality Assurance professional, you will be doing
a) Reviews, Walk-throughs , and inspections
b) Unit Testing
c) Statistical Process Control
Identify the weak areas in a SDLC, take corrective action, so as to ensure it
does not occur again
281. "Benchmarking" is
a) A measure of the current position of your project/product
b) Measure of the present position of your project/product compared to a
previous state
c) A measure of the present position of your project/product compared against a
future (estimated) state
d) A measure of your product compared to an existing industry standard.
282. The Management Cycle, As Per The --------------------------, comprises Of
Plan, Do, Check And Act.
A) QAI's Quality Improvement Model
B) ISO 9000
C) SEI Model
283. Which, of the four given below, is not one of Dr. Edward Deming's 14
Quality Principles?
a. Give adequate training
b. Have a number of numerical goals set
c. Work as one team. (Sink differences)
d. Senior Management must push all other points constantly and consistently
284. Cost of Quality (COQ) includes
b) Preventive, detective & control
a) Preventive, appraisal & failure
c) Preventive, Corrective & Control
285. Quality without timeliness and cost consideration is
________________
1. Meaningless
2. Beneficial
3. One of product deficiencies
4. Cheaper
286. Quality is ----------------'s responsibility.
a. Nobody
b. Everybody
c. Somebody
d. Customer
287. AQL means –
a) Allowable Quality Level
b) Allocated Quality Level
c) Acceptable Quality Level
d) Allowed Quality Level
288. The concept that is an integral part of information technology
function is –
a) Meeting the requirements
b) Producing a quality product
c) Customer's view of quality is the correct view quality.
289. Six sigma quality is -
a) 1.2 Defects per million lines of code
b) 3.4 Defects per million lines of code
 c) 6.1 Defects per million lines of code
290. Middle Level Management is ___________ and ____________
a. Visionary and tactical
b. Visionary and directional
c. Directional and tactical
291. Quality assurance is a ____________ function.
a) line
b) staff
c) line & staff
292. Manufacturing Companies include
a) Agriculture
b) Mining
c) Construction
d)All the above
293. The total maximum points for MBNQA criteria is

a) 100 points
b) 500 points
c) 1000 points
d) 10000 points
294. Leadership category in MBNQA includes
a) Leadership system
b) Societal Responsibilities
c) Community Involvement
d) a,b & c
e) a & b only.
295. Organization at initial level can improve their performance by instituting
a) Project Management
b) Management Oversight
c) Quality Assurance
d) Change Control
e) All the above
f) Only a,b, & d
296. The number and types of measures for quality results depend upon
factors such as
a the company's size
b types of products and services
c competitive environment
d all the above
297. The tactics which should be incorporated while giving constructive
criticism are
A) Do it privately
B) Have the facts
C) Be prepared to help the worker to improve his/her performance
D) Be specific on expectation
E) Follow a specific process in giving criticism
F) A B C & E
G) All the above
298. People don't listen because they are
A) very impatient
B) too busy rehearsing what they will say next
C) self conscious
D) external stimuli
E) lack of motivation
F) all the above
299. The ability to apply beliefs, standards, guidelines, policies, procedures
and values to a decision in a specific set of circumstances is known as
 A) Motivation b) Recognition c) Judgment d) Time
Management.
300. The complaint resolution processes are
a. get on your customers wave length
b. get the facts
c. establish and initiate an action program
d. Follow up with your customer
e. all the above
301. JIT was developed by
a) Dr. W. Edward deming
b) Dr. Leonard Zunin
c) Taiicho Ohno
d) Malcom Baldrige
302. Pareto concept was developed by –
a. Taiichi ohno
b. Edward Deming
c. Malcolm Baldrige
Joseph Juran
d. Pareto
303. What are the intrepretations of 80 - 20 rule/pareto analysis?
a. 20% Of organisation's customers account for 80% of its revenue.
b. 20% Of organisation's products produce 80% of profits.
c. 3.80% of customers' complaints by volume are 20% of problems by
categories.
304. What are the types of functions in FP?
A)External input type
B)external output type
C)logical internal file type
D)external interface file type
E)external inquiry type
305. What are the ways in which QA analyst can estimate frequency/severity of
events?
1.Judgemental sampling. 2. Statistical sampling.
306. Passwords should be changed
on regular basis
a. When you forget the password
b. when you leave the workplace
all of the above
c. none of the above
307. Which of the following techniques is most effective in encouraging
participation of attendees in a meeting:
a. Role playing & requesting solutions
b. having the moderator to play the devil's role
c. requiring participation
308. Methods used to determine whether or not the process is under control
and is helpful in identifying root cause of process problems which are
causing defects
a. Prioritisation matrix
b. statistical process control
c. pareto chart
d. control charts
309. The concept that is an integral part of information technology function is
–
a) Meeting the requirements
b) Producing a quality product
c) Customer's view of quality is the correct view quality.
310. The Juran Trilogy refers to:
 a) Quality Management, Quality Coordination, Continuous improvement
b) Quality planning, Quality Control, Quality improvement
c) Qualitative Management, Quantitative Management, Continuous improvement
d) Quality Assurance, Quality Control, Quality Audits
311. MBNQA Award criteria does not include
a) Leadership
b) Technology
c) Human Resources
d) Process Management
312. The three evaluation dimensions of Malcolm Baldrige National Quality
Award are
a) Leadership, Strategic Planning, Business Results
b) Approach, Deployment, Results
c) Strategic Planning, Process Management, Business Results
d) Planning, Implementation, Feedback

313. Developing and asking questions for the purpose of collecting oral
data to be used in an analysis or evaluation is called as
a) Negotiation
b) Facilitation
c) Interviewing
d) Effective listening
314. The tactics, which should be incorporated while giving constructive
criticism, are
a) Do it privately
b) Have the facts
c) Be prepared to help the worker to improve his/her performance
d) Be specific on expectation
e) Follow a specific process in giving criticism
f) A B C & E
g) all the above
315. The ability to apply beliefs, standards, guidelines, policies, procedures
and values to a decision in a specific set of circumstances is known as
a) Motivation
b) Recognition
c) Judgment
d) Time Management.
316. A service level agreement becomes a contract when the provider of
service and customer are not in the same organization.
a) True
b) False
317. If the variation due to common causes results in a process operating
outside of the customer specifications, the process is called
a) Incapable
b) Noncapable
c) Meaningless
d) Useless
318. Which of the following is not a description of the charter of quality
function?
a) the person who is nominated by quality department to prepare quality
charts
b) management’s authorization to make quality happen
c) a job description for the quality function
d) explicitly explains to all the affected parties the function’s scope and
responsibilities.
319. According to SEI of CMU, to move from Maturity level 1 to level 3
a) it takes atleast 1 year
 b) it takes atleast 3 years
c) it can be atmost 5 years
d) it depends on the Assessment process and Auditor
320. A successful Leader should always be open and honest
a) True
b) False
c) It depends
d) Need not be always
321. Function point analysis requires information on hardware and software for
the application system.
a) True
b) False
322. ______________ is a visual tool used to determine and understand the
forces that drive and restrain a change.
a) Process Map
b) Cause and Effect Diagram
c) Force Field analysis
d) Matrix
323. Acceptable Quality Level Is To Accept Some Level Of Defects As Normal
And Acceptable, As Many Believe That Defect Free Information Technology
Products Are Not Practical Or Economical.
a) False
b) True
324. Internal control encompasses the plan of organization and all of the
methods and measures adopted within a business to:
a) Safeguard its assets
b) Promote operational efficiency
c) Check the accuracy and reliability of accounting data
d) Encourage adherence to prescribed policies
e) All of the above
f) None of the above
325. To reduce risk associated with introducing changes to an application,
________ testing should be conducted during all stages of testing after a
functional improvement or repair has been made.
a) Unit
b) System
c) Regression
d) Thread
326. Which of the following task is not performed by V&V management
a) Create the software V&V plan
b) Conduct Management Review of V & V
c) Support Management and Technical Reviews
d) Interface with Organizational and Supporting Processes
Conduct In-process reviews
327. Project team feels that an extra feature or a function is needed in the
system but not included in the specifications. From quality point of view, this is
considered --------------------------------.
a. a correction
b. a failure
c. a change
d. an enhancement
e. a defect
328. Our products must be corrected so that they will eventually meet our
customers' true quality needs.
T/F
327. We can produce products at our convenience and at any cost
T/F
328. Those responsible for quality must include –
1. Cost consideration
2. Delivery at required time
3. At required quality
4. 1 & 2
5. 2 & 3
6. All the above
329. Management must create an _______________ a
_______________for quality to happen.

1. Environment , enthusiasm
2. Principles, reward
3. Empowerment, rewards
330. Management must make quality number one and then
reward quality work.
T/F
331. Monetary and non monetary rewards can be considered by management to
make people enjoy what they are doing.
T/F
332. Product inspections and testing can be eliminated by building
processes to eliminate root causes of def and producing defect free products.
T/F
333. The following comprise the processes - Which is correct
1.Policies, standards, procedures
2.standards, procedures, policies
3.Procedures, policies, standards
4.Policies, procedures, standards
334. Quality is not an attribute of product. F
335. Quality can be controlled only if it is measured. T
336. Judgment is an audit function T
337. Non conformance must be detected as early as possible - T/F
338 The concept that is an integral part of information technology function
is –
1. Meeting the requirements
2. Producing a quality product
3. Customer's view of quality is the correct view quality.
339. The topics of standards and nonconformance should be discussed in
every meeting to improve quality. T/F
340. Everyone should be involved in quality improvement programs. T/F
341. The responsibility of supervisor –
1. Teach subordinates how to perform
2. To evaluate subordinate performance
3. Assist and support workers until they become proficient
4. 1 &2
5. 1 & 3
6. 2 & 3
7. 1, 2 and 3
342. It is better to deal with more number of vendors. F
343. Baselining is quantitatively determining what you want to be F
344. Analysis is performed before baselining is done. F
347. Analysis is done to determine which area is in need of improvement. T
348. Vision provides an umbrella for focusing all the plans in order to achieve
constancy of purpose. T
349. Six sigma quality is –
1. 1.2 Defects per million lines of code
2. 3.4 Defects per million lines of code
3. 6.1 Defects per million lines of code
350. The three levels of management are –
1. Lower, middle and upper
2. Executive, middle, line
351. Tools supporting processes to be ensured rather than processes
supporting tools.
T/F
352. Quality control is the responsibility of people who evolves the processes.
F
353. Quality defect is non conformance to standards. T
354. Verification activity is a tactic analysis. T
354. Common verification techniques are -
1.Walkthroughs, checkpoint reviews, inspections
2.Test plan, test execution
355. Match:
1. Strategic - a. Operational management
2. Tactical - b. Executive management
3. Operational - c. Middle management
1-b, 2-c, 3-a
356. Management must retain decision making authority to identify and
resolve problems. T
357. Seven core processes are –
1.Baseline, analyse, vision and plan
2.Establish a TQM process
3.Install and improve processes
4.Control quality (walkthrough, reviews and inspections
5.Quality control (validation-test plan/test execution)
6.Perform quantitative analysis
7.Perform continuous improvement
358. Plan - Baseline, plan - approach part
Do - Set short term objectives , compare results, targets, revise approach if
required
Check & act - check results, replan and recheck
Results - final results
Approach is repeatable.
359. Many technical personnel believe that standards inhibit their creativity.
(True/False)
360. Achieving quality (defect-free products and services) is easy. (True/False)
361. The challenge of making quality happen is
a) a miniscule challenge
b) a monumental challenge
362. In Zero defect movement all responsibilities and defects are borne by the
workers. (True/False)
363. The word "kick-off" is used in
a) Zero Defect Movement
b) Deming's Circle
c) QAI's Quality Improvement Model
364. Dr. W. Edwards Deming has stated that it takes ____________ years to
change a culture from an emphasis on productivity to an emphasis on quality.
(10 years/20 years/2 to 5 years/none of these)
365. Quality means meeting requirements. This is ____________view.
(producer's /customer's )
366. Quality means fit for use. This is ________________view.
(producer's /customer's )
367. Which one of the following definitions of quality is more important.
a)Quality means meeting requirements.
b)Quality means fit for use.
368. Quality control is a line function.
369. Quality assurance is a staff function.
370. By what other two names is PDCA process referred to?
Deming’s wheel, management cycle.
371. What does "Going Around the PDCA Circle" connote?
Continuous improvement
372. The no of principles in Dr. W. Edwards Deming's quality
principles is ____________. (8/10/12/14/16)