APEAPCET2024 InstructionBooklet Agriculture Pharmacy BSC Nursing V3
APEAPCET2024 InstructionBooklet Agriculture Pharmacy BSC Nursing V3
APEAPCET2024 InstructionBooklet Agriculture Pharmacy BSC Nursing V3
INSTRUCTION BOOKLET
AGRICULTURE, PHARMACY and B.Sc(Nursing)
AP EAPCET-2024
FOR ENTRANCE TEST RELATING TO PROFESSIONAL COURSES IN
A) B.Sc.(Ag.)/B.Sc.(Hort.)/B.V.Sc.&AH/B.F.Sc./B.Tech.(FST)/B.Sc.(CA&BM)
B) B.Pharm./B.Tech.(Bio-Technology)(Bi.P.C.)
C) Pharm-D(Bi.P.C)
D) B.Sc.(Nursing) (Bi.P.C.)
Note:
Information about the Entrance test is also available in the Website https://cets.apsche.ap.gov.in.
❖ The Test will be conducted from 16-05-2024 to 17-05-2024 in two sessions every day
i.e. 9:00 A.M. to 12:00 Noon. and 2:30 P.M to 5:30 P.M through Online Test mode
only.
❖ All questions are of objective type (multiple choice) only and each question carries one
mark. The syllabus in Biology, Physics, and Chemistry is furnished in Annexure-I. The
model questions are given in Annexure-II.
❖ A sample/mock test will be available on https://cets.apsche.ap.gov.in for practice purpose
and to give the candidate a look and feel of the On-Line (Computer Based) Examination.
Candidates satisfying the following requirements shall be eligible to appear for AP EAPCET-
2024:
1. Candidates should be of Indian Nationality or Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) / Overseas
Citizen of India (OCI) Card Holders.
2. Candidates should belong to the state of Andhra Pradesh / Telangana. The candidates
should satisfy Local / Non-Local status requirements as laid down in the Andhra Pradesh
/Telangana. Educational Institutions (Regulation of Admission) order, 1974 as
subsequently amended (See Annexure III).
3. Candidate should obtain at least 45%marks (40% in case of candidate belonging to reserved
category) in the subjects specified taken together in the qualifying examination.
4. For B.V.Sc. & A.H. / B.Sc. (Ag) / B.Sc. (Hort) / B.F.Sc. / B.Tech. (FS&T) / B.Sc (Nursing)
courses: Candidates should have passed intermediate examination (10+2 pattern) or any
examination recognized as equivalent there to by the Board of Intermediate Education,
Andhra Pradesh/ Telangana, with any two / three of the subjects indicated against each
course, noted below. However, the candidates who have appeared for the Final Year
Intermediate Examination (10+2 Pattern) and who are awaiting their results may also
apply for AP EAPCET 2024, but their ranks obtained in AP EAPCET 2024 will be valid
only if they pass the Intermediate Examination.
With any two of the subjects:
Note: i) Irrespective of the subjects taken at the qualifying examination, candidates seeking
admission to the above courses should appear for Biology, Physics, and Chemistry in AP
EAPCET-2024. (AP Category).
ii) Candidates should have completed 17 years of age as of 31st December of the year of
admission (2024) and an upper age limit of 22 years for all the candidates and 25 years in
respect of SC/ST candidates as of 31st December of the year of admission (2024).
For B. Pharm Course:
i. Candidates should have passed the intermediate examination (10+2 pattern) with Biology,
Physics, and Chemistry as options, conducted by the Board of Intermediate Education, Andhra
Pradesh/ Telangana or equivalent. However, the candidates who have appeared for the Final
Year Intermediate Examination (10+2 Pattern) and who are awaiting their results may also
apply for AP EAPCET - 2024, but their ranks obtained in AP EAPCET - 2024 will be valid
only if they pass the Intermediate Examination.
Candidates should have completed 16 years of age by the date of commencement of admission
or on such other date as may be notified by the CET committee. There is no upper age limit.
The minimum age for admission shall be 17 years on 31st December of the year in which
admission is sought. There is no upper age limit.
a) The Convener, AP EAPCET – 2024 reserves the right to reject the application of the
candidate at any stage, if:
(I) The Online Application Form is incomplete.
(IV) The Online Application Form is submitted after the due date.
b) The Convener is not responsible for non-receipt of application by the notified date
and time for any reason.
The question paper contains questions in the “English” and “Telugu” medium only.
Candidates, who have studied the qualifying examination in Urdu medium and wish to avail
assistance for translating the questions into Urdu, will be allotted a Test Centre at Kurnool
only. In case of ambiguity in the Telugu Question, the Question given in English shall be taken
as final.
V. REGISTRATION FEE:
Payment of Registration Fee for submission of Online Application Form is the first step and
the Registration Fee is Rs.600/-for students belonging to the open category (for SC/ST
Candidates Rs.500/- and for BC Candidates Rs.550/-) which has to be paid through any kind
of Online Payment Modes (Credit Card/ Debit Card/Net Banking/ AP Online / TS Online etc) from
any Recognized Bank.
The following information must be kept ready for filling the details during Online submission:
a. Hall ticket Number of Qualifying Examination
b. Hall ticket Number of S.S.C. or equivalent
c. Date of Birth
d. Caste Certificate in case of SC/ST/BC candidates
e. Aadhar Number
f. PH, NCC, Sports, etc.
g. Income Certificate (Upto One Lakh or Upto Two Lakhs or More than Two Lakhs
(Rupees))
h. Ration Card
i. Study or Residence or relevant certificate for proof of local status(last 12 years)
Online submission:
A candidate has to pay Rs.600/- as Registration Fee (for SC/ST Candidates Rs 500/- and for
BC Candidates Rs 550/-) and late fee (if applicable) by opting any kind of Online Payment Modes
(Credit Card/ Debit Card/Net Banking/ AP Online / TS Online etc.) from any Recognized Bank. After
filling out the Online Application Form with the required details, the candidate is required to
verify all the details carefully and press Submit button. Filled in Online Application Form will
be generated which contains Registration Number along with filled in details. The candidate is
required to take a printout of the Filled in Online Application Form and it is to be submitted to
the Invigilator during the examination after affixing a recent color photograph duly attested
by a Gazetted Officer or Principal of the College where studied qualifying examination.
The candidate should use the Registration Number for future correspondence.
Mere appearance and qualifying at AP EAPCET-2024 do not confer any right for admission
into professional courses. The candidate has to fulfill the eligibility criteria laid down in the
relevant G.O at the time of admission.
The qualifying percentage of marks for the AP EAPCET-2024 is 25% of the maximum marks
considered for the ranking. However, for candidates belonging to Scheduled Caste and
Scheduled Tribe, no minimum qualifying mark is prescribed. But their admission will be limited
to the extent of seats reserved for such categories (vide G.O.Ms.No.179, LEN&TE,
dated16.06.1986).
The minimum qualifying criteria of entrance test as per the Indian Nursing Council {Revised
Regulations and Curriculum for B.Sc.,(Nursing) Program – Corrigendum}, Regulations, 2022
dated 08/04/2022:
General - 50th percentile
SC/ST/OBC - 40th percentile
General-PwD - 45th percentile
SC/ST/OBC/-PwD - 40th percentile
1. Evaluation: Every care will be taken to avoid errors in the evaluation, checking, scrutiny,
tabulation, normalization and ranking.
2. Ranking:
a. Candidates shall be ranked based on the EAPCET normalized marks (75% weightage) and
10+2 (25%weightage) in the order of merit as explained in Annexure-IV and Annexure-V.
b. The rank obtained in AP EAPCET-2024 is valid for admission to the courses mentioned in
the application form for the academic year 2024-2025 only.
c. The rank card shall be downloaded from the website https://cets.apsche.ap.gov.in.
d. Rank obtained with the benefit of relaxation of the minimum qualifying marks at AP
EAPCET - 2024 by any candidate claiming as SC/ST Category will be canceled in case the
claim is found to be invalid at the time of admission to any course of study in any
participating University/Institution.
XI. The candidates should preserve the Filled in Online Application Form, the Hall Ticket and
the Rank Card to produce them when called for verification.
XII. Any malpractice in AP EAPCET - 2024 will be dealt with as per rules in force vide G.O.
Ms. No: 114, Edn / (IE) Dt: 13thMay1997 for the CET.
XIII. In any litigation concerning AP EAPCET-2024 Test, Convener is the person to sue and
be sued. The Convener (Examination), AP EAPCET – 2024 is not responsible for the allotment
of seats at the time of admissions. The Commissioner of Technical Education, Andhra Pradesh
is the Convener for the Admissions.
Counseling under Competent Authority Quota for admission into B.Sc(Nursing) – 4 Year
Degree course will by conducted by Dr. Y.S.R. University of Health Sciences, Vijayawada,
Andhra Pradesh. Qualified candidates seeking admission into B.Sc (Nursing) course have to
apply online to the Admission Notification that will be issued separately by the University. For
latest updates on admissions candidates are requested to regularly visit University website:
http://drysruhs.edu.in/
XIV. Any litigation concerning APEAPCET-2024 shall be subject to the jurisdiction of the
A.P. High Court, Amaravathi only.
i) Hall Ticket, ii) Filled in Online Application Form, iii) A good Ball Point Pen (for rough
work, working sheets will be provided by the Test Centre), and iv) Attested copy of Caste
certificate (in case of SC/ST category candidates only).
g. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, Calculators, DocuPen, Slide Rules,
Log Tables, Electronic Watches with facilities of calculator, printed or written material, bits of
papers, mobile phone, pager or any other device, except the Hall Ticket, document as required
under point no. 2.(f) inside the Examination Room/Hall. If any candidate is in possession of
any of the above items, his/her candidature will be treated as an unfair means and his/her
current examination will be canceled & he/she will also be debarred for future examination(s)
& the equipment will be seized.
GUIDELINES TO CANDIDATES
1. Please check the Hall ticket carefully for your Name, Date of Birth, Gender, Category,
Test Centre Name, Date, and Time of examination.
2. Candidates are advised to reach the venue at least 2 hours before the examination to
complete the frisking and registration formalities well before the time. The registration
desk will be closed 05 minutes before the examination.
3. The candidate must show, on demand, the Hall Ticket for admission in the examination
room/hall. A candidate who does not possess the Hall Ticket issued by the Convener, AP
EAPCET - 2024, shall not be permitted for the examination under any circumstances by
the Centre Superintendent.
4. No candidate, under any circumstances, will be allowed to enter the Examination Centre
after the commencement of the examination.
5. A seat indicating the Hall Ticket number will be allocated to each candidate. Candidates
should find out and occupy their allotted seats only. Any candidate found to have changed
room or the seat on his/her own other than allotted, his/her candidature shall be canceled
and no plea would be accepted for it.
6. The candidate should ensure that the question paper is available on the computer in English
and Telugu languages only.
7. No Candidate will be allowed to carry any baggage inside the Examination Centre. The
Convener, AP EAPCET-2024 will not be responsible for any belongings stolen or lost at
the premises.
8. Smoking and eating are strictly prohibited in the examination room.
9. Tea, coffee, cool drinks or snacks are not allowed to be taken into the examination rooms
during examination hours.
10. Approach the Centre Superintendent/Invigilator in the room for any technical assistance, first
aid emergency, or any other information during the examination.
11. No candidate, without the special permission of the Centre Superintendent or the
Invigilator concerned, will leave his/her seat or Examination Room until the full duration
of the Examination. Candidates must follow the instructions strictly as instructed by the
Centre Superintendent/Invigilators.
12. For any queries or issues regarding computer-based examination, the candidates may
contact helpline numbers which will be available on the https://cets.apsche.ap.gov.in
website.
INSTRUCTIONS FOR ONLINE (COMPUTER BASED) EXAMINATION
The On-Line (Computer Based) Examination will be conducted as per the following
schedule.
1. The test will start exactly at the time mentioned in the Hall Ticket and an announcement to
this effect will be made by the invigilator.
2. The Entrance test is conducted for duration of 3 hours and the question paper consists of a
total of 160 questions comprising of 80 Biology (Botany-40, Zoology-40), 40 questions in
Physics, and 40 questions in Chemistry. All questions are having equal weightage.
3. There is only one correct response for each question out of four responses given.
4. There is no negative marking and No deduction from the total score will be made if no
response is indicated for a question.
5. All calculations/writing work is to be done only in the rough sheet provided at the center
and on completion of the test candidates must hand over the rough sheets to the invigilator
on duty in the Room/Hall. The candidates shall write their Hall Ticket number on the rough
sheets used by them.
6. During the examination time, the invigilator will check the Hall ticket of the candidate to
satisfy himself/herself about the identity of each candidate.
7. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Convener, AP EAPCET-
2024 with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will
be dealt with as per rules.
8. The candidates must sign and give his/her Left- Hand Thumb impression on the
Attendance Sheet at the appropriate place.
The following Proforma I, II and III are to be submitted at the time of counseling to claim
nativity, community and local status.
PROFORMA–I
REVISED PROFORMA AS PER G.O.Ms.No.58, SOCIAL WELFARE (J) DEPT. DATED
12.05.1997ANDHRA PRADESH GAZETTE EXTRA ORDINARY PART-I
Serial No. FORM III
Certificate No.:
Signature
Date
(Seal) Name in Capital letters:
Designation:
Explanatory Note:
1) While mentioning the community, the competent Authority must mention the sub-caste
(incase of SCs) and Sub-Tribe or Sub- Group (in case of STs) as listed out in the SCs and
STs (Amendment) Act, 1976.
PROFORMA–II
1. It is hereby certified
a. That Sri/Smt/Kum son/ daughter of
b. That in the 7years, immediately preceding the commencement of the afore said examination
he/she has resided in the following place/places falling within the area in respect of the
AU/OU/SVU region (Tick appropriate one).
S.No. Period Village Mandal District
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
2. The above candidate is, therefore, a local candidate in relation to the area specified in
Paragraph 3(1)(2)(3) of the Andhra Pradesh Educational Institution (Regulation of
Admissions) Order 1974 as amended.
Officer of the Revenue Department
(Issued by the competent authority of Revenue Dept.)
Date: (OFFICE SEAL)
PROFORMA–III
(A) Certificate to be furnished when the candidate has resided in the state for a period of 10 years (Read
Instructions under 3(a) of Annexure(III) of Instruction Booklet of admission)
(B) Certificate to be furnished when either of the parents of the candidate has resided in the state for a
period of 10years. (Read Instructions under 3(b) of Annexure (III) of Instruction Booklet of admission)
This is to certify that Sri/Smt. , Father /Mother of
a candidate seeking admission into professional courses (Engineering stream & Agricultural and
Pharmacy stream) through AP EAPCET - 2024 for the Academic Year 2024-25, is a resident of
(Place) in (District) of Andhra Pradesh / Telangana for a total period of 10years from
the year to excluding the periods of study outside the state.
Place: Signature of the Competent
Date: Authority from Revenue Dept.
Office Seal:
(C) Certificate to be furnished when the parent/ spouse is an employee of the State or Central
Government or Quasi-Government Organization. (Read Instructions under 3 (c) and 3(d) of Annexure
(III) of Instruction Booklet of admission)
This is to certify that Sri/Smt.
Father/Mother of
a candidate seeking admission in to professional courses (Engineering stream & Agricultural and
Pharmacy stream) through AP EAPCET - 2024 for the Academic Year 2024-25, is presently employed
in Andhra Pradesh State in the Organization from till to-date. This Organization
is a State/Central/Quasi Government Organization in the State of Andhra Pradesh
/ Telangana.
Place: Signature of the Competent
Date: Authority from Revenue Dept.
Office Seal:
ANNEXURE-I
NOTE:
❖ The details of the syllabus in which the exam will be conducted are furnished below for the
convenience of students.
❖ The syllabus is applicable to students of both the current and previous batches of Intermediate
Course, who desire to appear for AP EAPCET-2024.
APEAPCET 2024 - BOTANY SYLLABUS
SUBJECT: BOTANY
UNIT-IX: MICROBIOLOGY:
Bacteria: Morphology of Bacteria, Bacterial cell structure - Nutrition, Reproduction-Sexual
Reproduction, Conjugation, Transformation, Transduction, The importance of Bacteria to
Humans.
Viruses: Discovery, Classification of Viruses, structure of Viruses, Multiplication of
Bacteriophages – the lytic cycle, The Lysogenic Cycle, Viral diseases in Plants, Viral diseases in
Humans.
UNIT- X: GENETICS:
Principles of Inheritance and Variation: Mendel’s Experiments, Inheritance of one gene
(Monohybrid Cross)-Back cross and Test cross, Law of Dominance, Law of Segregation or Law
of purity of gametes, Deviations from Mendelian concept of dominance - Incomplete
Dominance, Co- dominance, Explanation of the concept of dominance, Inheritance of two genes-
Law of Independent Assortment, Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance, Linkage and
Recombination, Mutations, Significance of mutations.
UNIT-XII: BIOTECHNOLOGY:
Principles and processes of Biotechnology: Principles of Biotechnology-Construction of the
first artificial recombinant DNA molecule, Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology-Restriction
Enzymes, Cloning Vectors, Competent Host (For Transformation with Recombinant DNA),
Processes of Recombinant DNA Technology- Isolation of the Genetic Material (DNA),
Cutting of DNA at Specific Locations, Separation and isolation of DNA fragments, Insertion
of isolated gene into a suitable vector, Amplification of Gene of Interest using PCR, Insertion of
Recombinant DNA into the Host, Cell/Organism, Selection of Transformed host cells,
Obtaining the Foreign Gene Product, Downstream Processing.
Biotechnology and its applications: Biotechnological Applications in Agriculture-Bt Cotton,
Pest Resistant Plants, Other applications of Biotechnology - Insulin, Gene therapy, Molecular
Diagnosis, ELISA, DNA fingerprinting, Transgenic plants, Bio-safety and Ethical issues-
Biopiracy.
SUBJECT: ZOOLOGY
UNIT-7: Periplaneta americana: Habitat and Habit, External features, Locomotion, Digestive
System, Circulatory System, Respiratory System, Excretory System, Nervous System and Sense
Organs, Reproductive System.
13-B) Reproductive Health: Need for reproductive health and prevention of sexually transmitted
diseases (STD); Birth control - Need and methods, contraception, and medical termination of
pregnancy (MTP); Amniocentesis; infertility and assisted reproductive technologies - IVF-ET,
ZIFT, GIFT, AI, ICSI.
UNIT-14: GENETICS:
Heredity and variations. Mendel’s laws of inheritance with reference to Drosophila(Drosophila
melanogaster- Grey, Black body colour; Long, Vestigial wings), Pleiotrophy, Multiple alleles and
inheritance blood groups, Rh-factor, Codominance ( Blood groups as example), elementary idea of
polygenic inheritance, skin colour in humans, sex- determination- in humans, birds, Fumea, genic
balance theory of sex determination, Haplodiploidy in honey bees; Sex linked inheritance-
Haemophilia and colorblindness, Mendelian disorders in humans- Thalassemia, Haemophilia,
Sickle cell anaemia, cystic fibrosis, Phenylketonuria, Alkaptonuria; Chromosomal disorders- Down
syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, Klinefelter’s syndrome; Genome, Human genome project, and
DNA finger printing.
SUBJECT: PHYSICS
1. PHYSICAL WORLD: What is physics? Scope and excitement of physics. Physics, technology
and society, Fundamental forces in nature, Nature of physical laws
3. MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE: Position, path length and displacement, average velocity
and average speed, instantaneous velocity and speed, acceleration, kinematic equations for
uniformly accelerated motion, relative velocity.
4. MOTION IN A PLANE: Scalars and vectors, position and displacement vectors, equality of
vectors, multiplication of vectors by real numbers, addition and subtraction of vectors - graphical
method, resolution of vectors, vector addition - analytical method, motion in a plane, position vector
and displacement, velocity, acceleration, motion in a plane with constant acceleration, relative
velocity in two dimensions, projectile motion, equation of path of a projectile, time of maximum
height, maximum height of a projectile, horizontal range of projectile, uniform circular motion.
5. LAWS OF MOTION: Aristotle’s fallacy, Laws of inertia, Newton’s first law of motion,
Newton’s second law of motion- momentum, impulse, Newton’s third law of motion, conservation
of momentum,Equilibrium of a particle, Common forces in mechanics, friction, types of friction,
static, kinetic and rolling frictions, Circular motion, Motion of a car on a level road, Motion of a
car on a banked road, solving problems in mechanics.
6. WORK, ENERGY AND POWER: The Scalar Product, Notions of work and kinetic energy,
The work-energy theorem, Work, Kinetic energy, Work done by a variable force, The work-energy
theorem for a variable force, The concept of Potential Energy, The conservation of Mechanical
Energy, The Potential Energy of a spring, Various forms of energy, Heat, Chemical Energy,
Electrical Energy, The Equivalence of Mass and Energy, Nuclear Energy, The Principle of
Conservation of Energy, Power, Collisions, Elastic and Inelastic Collisions, Collisions in one
dimension, Coefficient of Restitution and its determination, Collisions in Two Dimensions.
9. GRAVITATION: Kepler’s laws, Universal law of gravitation, central forces, the gravitational
constant, Acceleration due to gravity of the earth, Acceleration due to gravity below and above the
surface of earth, Gravitational potential energy, Escape speed, Orbital Speed, Earth satellites,
Energy of an orbiting satellite, Geostationary and polar satellites, Weightlessness.
10. MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF SOLIDS: Elastic behavior of solids, Stress and strain,
Hooke’s law, Stress-strain curve, Elastic moduli, Young’s Modulus, Determination of Young’s
Modulus of the Material of a Wire, Shear Modulus, Bulk Modulus, Poisson’s ratio, Elastic potential
energy in a stretched wire, Applications of elastic behavior of materials.
14. KINETIC THEORY: Molecular nature of matter, Behaviour of gases, Boyle’s Law, Charles’
Law, Kinetic theory of an ideal gas, Pressure of an Ideal Gas, Kinetic interpretation of temperature,
Law of equipartition of energy, Specific heat capacity, Monatomic Gases, Diatomic Gases,
Polyatomic Gases, Specific Heat Capacity of Solids, Specific Heat Capacity of Water, Mean free
path.
15. WAVES: Transverse and longitudinal waves, wave displacement relation in a progressive
wave, amplitude and phase, wavelength and angular wave number, period, angular frequency and
frequency, the speed of a travelling wave, speed of a transverse wave on stretched string, speed of
a longitudinal wave (speed of sound), the principle of superposition of waves, reflection of waves,
standing waves and normal modes, beats, Doppler effect – source moving & Observer stationary,
observer moving and source stationary, both observer and source are moving, applications of
Doppler effect.
16. RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS: Reflection of Light by Spherical Mirrors,
Sign convention, Focal length of spherical mirror, Mirror equation, refraction, total internal
reflection, total internal reflection in nature and its technological applications, refraction at spherical
surfaces and by lenses, power of a lens, combination of thin lenses in contact, refraction through a
prism, dispersion by a prism, natural phenomena due to sunlight – Rainbow, Scattering of light,
optical instruments, the eye, the simple and compound microscopes, refracting telescope and
Cassegrain reflecting telescope.
17. WAVE OPTICS: Huygens principle, refraction and reflection of plane waves using Huygens
principle, refraction in a rarer medium (at the denser medium boundary), reflection of a plane wave
by a plane surface, the Doppler effect, coherent and incoherent addition of waves, interference of
light waves and Young‘s experiment, Diffraction, Single slit, resolving power of optical
instruments, the validaity of ray optics, Polarization by scattering, Polarisation by reflection, plane
polarized light, polaroids
18. ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS: Electric charge, conductors and insulators, charging
by induction, basic properties of electric charges, additivity of charges, conservation of charge,
quantization of charge, Coulomb’s law, forces between multiple charges, electric field, electric field
due to a system of charges, physical significance of electric field, electric field lines, electric flux,
electric dipole, the field of an electric dipole for points on the axial line and on the equatorial plane,
physical significance of dipoles, dipole in a uniform external field, continuous charge distribution,
Gauss’s law, Applications of Gauss’s Law infinitely long straight uniformly charged wire, infinite
plane sheet , field due to uniformly charged thin spherical shell.
20. CURRENT ELECTRICITY: Electric current, electric current in conductors, Ohm’s law, drift
of electrons and the origin of resistivity, mobility, limitations of Ohm’s law, resistivity of various
materials, colour code of resistors, Temperature dependence of resistivity, electrical energy, power.
Combination of Resistors, Series and Parallel, Cells, EMF, internal resistance, cells in series and in
parallel, Kirchhoff’s rules, Wheatstone Bridge, Meter Bridge, Potentiometer.
21. MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM: Magnetic force, sources and fields, magnetic
field, Lorentz force, magnetic force on a current carrying conductor, motion in a magnetic field,
helical motion of charged particles, motion in combined electric and magnetic fields, , velocity
selector, cyclotron, magnetic field due to a current element, Biot – Savart’s law, Magnetic field on
the axis of a circular current loop, Ampere’s circuital law, the solenoid and the toroid, force between
two parallel current carrying conductors, the ampere (UNIT), torque on current loop, magnetic
dipole, torque on a rectangular current loop in a uniform magnetic field, circular current loop as a
magnetic dipole, the magnetic dipole moment of a revolving electron, the Moving Coil
Galvanometer; conversion into ammeter and voltmeter.
22. MAGNETISM AND MATTER: The bar magnet, the magnetic field lines, bar magnet as an
equivalent solenoid, The dipole in a uniform magnetic field, the electrostatic analog, Magnetism
and Gauss’s Law, The Earth’s magnetism, magnetic declination and dip, magnetization and
magnetic intensity, magnetic properties of materials – Diamagnetism, Paramagnetism and
Ferromagnetism, permanent magnets and electromagnets.
23. ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION: The experiments of Faraday and Henry, magnetic
flux, Faraday’s Law of induction, Lenz’s law and conservation of energy, motional electromotive
force, energy consideration - a quantitative study, Eddy currents, inductance, mutual inductance,
self-inductance, AC generator.
27. ATOMS: Alpha particle scattering and Rutherford’s nuclear model of atom, alpha particle
trajectory, electron orbits, atomic spectra, spectral series, Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, energy
levels, Franck – Hertz experiment, the line spectra of the hydrogen atom, deBroglie’s explanation
of Bohr’s second postulate of quantization.
28. NUCLEI: Atomic masses and composition of nucleus, discovery of neutron, size of the
nucleus, Mass - Energy, Nuclear Binding Energy, Binding energy of Nuecleon and its variation
with Mass Number,Nuclear Force, Radioactivity - Law of radioactive decay, half life and mean life
of a Radioactive material, Alpha decay, Beta decay and Gamma decay, Nuclear Energy, Fission,
Nuclear reactor, nuclear fusion, energy generation in stars, controlled thermonuclear fusion.
SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY
Unit-1: ATOMIC STRUCTURE: Sub Atomic particles, Atomic models, Developments to the
Bohr’s model of atom; Wave nature of electromagnetic radiation; Particle nature of
electromagnetic radiation, Planck’ s quantum theory; Evidence for the quantized electronic Energy
levels : Atomic spectra, Bohr’s model for Hydrogen atom; Explanation of line spectrum of
hydrogen; Limitations of Bohr’s model; Quantum mechanical considerations of sub atomic
particles; Dual behaviour of matter; Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle; Quantum mechanical
model of an atom. Important features of Quantum mechanical model of atom; Orbitals and
quantum numbers; Shapes of atomic orbitals; Energies of orbitals; Filling of orbitals in atoms.
Aufbau Principle, Pauli’s exclusion Principle and Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity;
Electronic configurations of atoms; Stability of half-filled and completely filled orbitals.
Unit-8: HYDROGEN AND ITS COMPOUNDS: Position of hydrogen in the periodic table;
Dihydrogen-Occurrence and Isotopes; Preparation and properties of dihydrogen, uses of H2,
Hydrides: Ionic, covalent, and non-stoichiometric hydrides; Water: Physical properties; structure
of water, ice. Chemical properties of water; hard and soft water, Temporary and permanent
hardness of water; Hydrogen Peroxide: Preparation, properties, structure, storage and uses. Heavy
Water; Hydrogen as a fuel.
1. Assertion (A): In the leaves of the sugarcane C3 and C4 cycles are spatially separated.
Reason (R): Hatch and Slack pathway occurs in bundle sheath cells and Calvin
cycle in mesophyll cells.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true.(R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of(A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
4) (A) is false but (R) is true
2. Arrange the following in the order of their occurrence in the life cycle of an angio- spermic
plant:
I. Primary Endosperm Nucleus II. Microsporogenesis
III. Xenogamy IV. Pericarp
The correct sequence is:
1) I, III, II, IV 2) III, I, IV, II
3) II, III, I, IV 4) IV, I, II, III
3. If one strand of DNA molecule has the nucleotide sequence TACAATCGGTAA, the
new stand synthesized in transcription will have the nucleotide sequence as:
1) ATGTTAGCCATT 2) TACAATCGG TAA
3) AUGUUA GCC AUU 4) TUCUUTCGG TUU
2. Identify the sequence of leg parts of cockroach from base to tip of the leg
A) TibiaB)Coxa C)Tarsus D)Femur E) Trochanter
Correct sequence is
1) B-A-D-E-C 2) B-E-D-A-C 3)A-D-C-B-E 4)A-C-B-E-D
4. Matching type
SET-I SET-II
Scientific names Common Names
A) Pinctada I)Elephant tusk shell
B) Mytilus II) Seahare
C) Dentalium III) PearlOyster
D) Aplysia IV) Marinemussel
V) Ship worm
Identify the correct match between SET-I and SET-II
A B C D
1)III IV II I
2)III I II V
3)III IV I II
4)III V II IV
1. A particle starts from origin at t=0 with a velocity of 10 im/s and moves in x-y plane
under the action of force which produces a constant acceleration of (2i + 3j) m/s2 .The y
– coordinate in meters of the particle at the instant its x-coordinate is 24mbecomes
(1) 12 (2) 6 (3) 18 (4) 3
0 0
2. When 0.2 kg of ice at 0 C mixed with 0.5 kg of water at 60 C in a container\, the
resulting temperature is 100C. The heat of fusion of ice (Swater =4.186J/kg/K)
(1) 1.31 X105J/kg (2) 2.62 X105J/kg
(3) 10.46 X105J/kg (4) 5.23 X105J/kg
3. 5 bulbs each of 100 W are connected across 220 V power supply for domestic
application. If each unit costs Rs.4 then the cost per day in Rs. is
(1) 48 (2) 24 (3) 96 (4) 12
4. A solenoid of length 1.0m has a radius of 1cm and is made up of 1000 turns. It carries a
current of 2.5A. The magnitude of the magnetic field inside the solenoid in Tesla is
(1) πx10-3 (2)πx10-4 (3)πx10-6 (4)πx10-5
MODEL QUESTIONSCHEMISTRY
Where, during the whole or any part of the four consecutive academic years in which he/she
appeared, or first appeared in the relevant qualifying examination, he/she has not studied in
any educational institutions, if he/she resided in that local area for a period of not less than four
years immediately preceding the date of commencement of the relevant qualifying examination
in which he/she appeared, or first appeared, as the case may be.
2. A candidate who is not regarded as local candidate under clause (1) above in relation to
any local area shall,
If he/she studied in the educational institutions in the state for a period of not less than seven
consecutive academic years ending with the academic year in which he/she appeared or first
appeared for the relevant qualifying examination as the case may be, be regarded as a local
candidate in relation to
i. Such local area where he/she studied for the maximum period out of period of seven
years.
OR
ii. Where the period of his/her study in two or more local areas is equal, such local
area where he/she studied last in such equal periods.
If during the whole or any part of the seven consecutive academic years ending with the
academic year in which he/she appeared or first appeared for the relevant qualifying
examination, he/she has not studied in the educational institutions, in any local area, but has
resided in the state during the whole of the said period of seven years, be regarded as a local
candidate in relation to
i. Such local area where he/she has resided for the maximum period out of the said
period of seven years.
OR
ii. Where the period of his/her residence in two or more local areas is equal such local
area where he/she had resided last in such periods.
Note:
1. Local area in respect of Andhra University (A.U. area) includes Nagarjuna University area.
In respect of Sri Venkateswara University (S.V.U. area), it includes Sri Krishna Devaraya
University area. In respect of Osmania University (O.U. area), it includes Kakatiya University
area. (Table showing the Local Areas of new districts of AP is given below).
2. The Candidate belonging to PIO / OCI category will be considered as under non local
category only.
3. Candidates coming under any of the categories given below and not satisfying the
conditions mentioned in 1 or 2 above are treated as„ Non-Local‟ to all the three University
areas specified above.
a. Candidates who have resided in the state of A.P. for a total period of 10 years or more
excluding the period of study outside this state.
OR
b. Candidates either of whose parents has resided in this state for a total period of 10 years or
more excluding the periods of employment outside the state
OR
c. Candidates either of whose parents is employed in the State of A.P. or Central Government
Public Sector Corporations, Local Bodies, Universities and other similar quasi Government
Institutions within this state, at the time of submitting the application
OR
d. Candidates who are spouses of those employed in the State of A.P. or Central Government,
Public Sector Corporations, Local Bodies, Universities and other similar quasi Government
Institutions within this state, at the time of submitting the application.
For full details refer G.O.No.646, dated10.07.1979.
Note:
Blank Proforma III is provided for submitting relevant information regarding Local/Non-
Local status of candidates.
Candidates are aware that the APEAPCET-2024 (MPC and Bi.PC Streams) will be conducted
from 16-05-2024 to 23-05-2024 in multiple sessions.
APEAPCET-2024 is being conducted in multiple sessions based on the same syllabus, same
pattern for candidates having the same eligibility criteria. A candidate will be eligible to appear
only in one session. Since the question paper will be different for each session, there is a
possibility that the candidates compare themselves about the variation in the difficulty level of
questions. However, it may be noted that utmost care will be taken so that all the papers are of
same standard. Further, it is decided to adopt a normalization process to eliminate any such
variations in the difficulty level of various sessions.
What is Normalization?
Normalization, as used in the Indian context, is a process for ensuring the students are neither
advantaged nor disadvantaged by the difficulty of examinations conducted in multiple sessions.
This process is based on a simple formula that has been adopted as recommended by the experts
from reputed educational institutions at all India level and Universities. The process is being
implemented in other all India / Nationwide entrance tests for admission into undergraduate
and graduate professional courses. The normalization process ranks all the candidates across all
sessions on a comparative scale. In any normalization process, the marks of the easier session
may be reduced marginally and the marks of the harder paper may increase marginally on the
global level, depending on the average performance in each session. If there is no much
difference in the averages between the two sessions then there won‟t be much difference in the
normalized marks as well. Normalizing marks would justify the candidates while protecting
their actual performance.
The following is based on a sample data to explain the normalization process. The data is based
on almost equal number of candidates in all the four sessions. The normalization is shown
subject wise so that students get the benefit based on subject wise performance rather than the
entire paper in a session.
Averages and Standard Deviations in a particular session and averages of top 0.1% candidates
of a particular session, Global Average and Standard Deviations of all sessions together,
Averages of top 0.1% candidates in all sessions is given in Table
1. Example data of normalized marks is shown in Table 2 to Table 5.
Table1: Averages and Standard Deviations of sample data
Maths Physics Chemistry
Avg 27.01245 11.44816 13.56629
For the preparation of merit list, in case of more than one student securing the same combined
score obtained as mentioned above, the tie shall be resolved to decide the relative ranking by
successively considering the following
The weightage of marks in the case of candidates belonging to the category of Persons of Indian
Origin (PIO) / Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) Card Holders, will be decided by a committee
constituted by the competent authority.