ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE

PHYSICS
JEE main - Physics

1. Two copper balls, each weighing 10 gm, are kept in air 10 cm apart. If one electron from every 106 atoms is [4]

transferred from one ball to the other, the coulomb force between them is: (atomic weight of copper is 63.5)

a) 2.0 × 106 N b) 2.0 × 1010 N

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c) 2.0 × 104 N d) 2.0 × 108 N

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2. A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical surface of radius R. If the radius is doubled, then the outward [4]
electric flux will AR
a) increase four times b) remain the same

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c) be reduced to half d) be doubled
3. UT
Two small conducting spheres of equal radius have charges +10μ C and -20μ C respectively and placed at a [4]
C

distance R from each other experience force F1. If they are brought in contact and separated to the same
distance, they experience force F2. The ratio of F1 to F2 is:
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a) -2 : 1 b) -8 : 1
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c) 1 : 8 d) 1 : 2
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4. A hollow metal sphere of radius R is uniformly charged. The electric field due to the sphere at a distance r from [4]
the centre:
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a) zero as r increases for r < R, increases as r b) zero as r increases for r < R, decreases as r
increases for r > R increases for r > R

c) decreases as r increases for r < R and for r > d) increases as r increases for r < R and for r >
R R
5. An electric dipole has the magnitude of its charge as q and its dipole moment is p. It is placed in a uniform [4]
electric field E. If its dipole moment is along the direction of the field, the force on it and its potential energy are
respectively:

a) zero and minimum b) 2qE and minimum

c) qE and pE d) qE and maximum

6. A ring of charge with radius 0.5 m having a 0.02 m gap, carries a charge of +1 C. The field at the centre is: [4]

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 a) 2.31 × 108 N/C b) 1.6 × 108 N/C

c) 2.31 × 104 N/C d) 1.6 × 104 N/C

7. A wire of length L (=20 cm), is bent into a semicircular arc. If the two equal halves of the arc were each to be [4]
uniformly charged with charges ± Q, [|Q| = 10 3
ε0 Coulomb where ε is the permittivity (in SI units) of free
0

space] the net electric field at the centre O of the semicircular arc would be:

a) (25 × 103 N/C) ^i b) (50 × 103 N/C) ^j

R
c) (25 × 103 N/C) ^j d) (50 × 103 N/C) ^i

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8. An infinitely long solid cylinder of radius R has a uniform volume charge density ρ . It has a spherical cavity of [4]
radius with its centre on the axis of the cylinder, as shown in the figure. The magnitude of the electric field at
R

2
23ρR
the point which is at a distance 2R from the axis of the cylinder, is given by the expression . The value of k
AR 16kε0

E
is:

UT
C
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a) 7 b) 4

c) 5 d) 6
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9. Two point charges A and B of magnitude +8 × 10-6 C and -8 × 10-6 C respectively are placed at a distance d [4]

apart. The electric field at the middle point O between the charges is 6.4 × 104 NC-1. The distance d between
the point charges A and B is:

a) 4.0 m b) 3.0 m

c) 2.0 m d) 1.0 m

10. A sample of HCl gas is placed in an electric field of 3 × 104 NC-1. The dipole moment of each HCl molecule is [4]

6 × 10-30 Cm. The maximum torque that can act on a molecule is:

a) 0.5 × 10-34 C-2N-m-1 b) 18 × 10-26 N-m

c) 2 × 10-34 C2 N-m d) 2 × 10-34 C2m-N-1

11. The total electric flux leaving spherical surface of radius 1 cm and surrounding an electric dipole is: [4]
2
q
a) 8πr

ε0
b) ε0

2q
c) zero d) ε0

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12. An electric dipole placed In a non-uniform electric field may not experience [4]

a) Only a force but no torque b) Both a torque and a net force

c) No torque and no net force d) Only a torque but no net force

13. A pendulum bob of mass 80 mg carrying a charge of 2 × 10-8 C is at rest in the uniform horizontal electric field [4]
(E) = 20,000 V/m. Find the tension in the thread of the pendulum and the angle it makes with the vertical:

a) 27° 3′, 6.6 × 10-4 N b) 18° 2′, 4.4 × 10-4 N

c) 27° 3′, 8.8 × 10-4 N d) 9° 1′, 2.2 × 10-4 N

→ →
14. Two point dipoles of dipole moment p and p are at a distance x from each other and p ⃗
1 2 1
⃗
∥p 2 . The force [4]
between the dipoles is:
3p1 p2 6p1 p2
a) 1
b) 1

R
3 4
4πε0 x 4πε0 x

8p1 p2 4p1 p2
c) 1
d) 1

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4 4
4πε0 x 4πε0 x

15. Three charges, each of value q, are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle. A fourth charge Q is placed at [4]
the value of Q for which charges will remain stationary is:
–
a) q√3
AR b) -
q

√3

E
q –
c) √3
d) - q√3

16. UT
The acceleration of an electron due to the mutual attraction between the electron and a proton when they are 1.6 [4]
C
o

A apart is,

(me; 9 × 10-31 kg, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C) (Take = 9 × 109 Nm2 C-2)

1
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4πε0
N

a) 1023 m/s2 b) 1022 m/s2

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c) 1025 m/s2 d) 1024 m/s2

17. Dimensional formula for electrical field is ________. [4]

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a) [M1L2T-3A-2] b) [M1L1T-3A-1]
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c) [M0L0T0A0] d) [M1L2T-3A-1]

18. An electron enters an electric field with its velocity in the direction of the electric lines of force. Then: [4]

a) the path of the electron will be a circle b) the velocity of the electron will decrease

c) the velocity of the electron will increase d) the path of the electron will be a parabola
19. The electric charge in accelerated motion produces: [4]

a) electromagnetic radiation only b) an electric field only

c) all of these d) a magnetic field only

20. If an electron is brought toward anothers electron, the electric potential energy of the system: [4]

a) Becomes zero b) Decreases

c) Remains the same d) Increases

21. Figure shows electric field lines in which an electric dipole p ⃗ is placed as shown. Which of the following [4]
statements is correct?

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 a) The dipole will not experience any force. b) The dipole will experience a force towards
left.

c) The dipole will experience a force towards d) The dipole will experience a force upwards.
right.
22. A charged conductor A is kept inside a hollow conductor B in contact with it as shown in figure. Then: [4]

ER
a) same kind of charge is induced on the inner b) opposite charge is induced on the outer
surface of B
RE
c) the whole charge of A gets transferred to the
surface of B

d) the whole charge of A gets transferred to the

TE
inner surface of B outer surface of B
CA
23. If the force between the electron in the first Bohr orbit and the nucleus (proton) in hydrogen atom is F, then the [4]
force between them when the electron is in the second orbit is:
TU
a) F

4
b) 4F
N

c) F

16
d) F

24. Point charges +4q, - q and +4q are kept on the x-axis at points x = 0, x = a and x - 2 a respectively: [4]
I
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ST

a) none of the charges are in equilibrium b) only -q is in stable equilibrium

c) all the charges are in stable equilibrium d) all the charges are in unstable equilibrium
AL

25. Five balls numbered 1 to 5 are suspended using separate threads. Pairs (1, 2), (2, 4) and (4, 1) show electrostatic [4]
IN

attraction, while pairs (2, 3) and (4, 5) show repulsion. Therefore, ball 1 must be:

a) negatively charged b) positively charged

c) neutral d) made of metal

26. Assertion (A): When charges are shared between two bodies, there occurs no loss of charge but there does occur [4]
a loss of energy.
Reason (R): In case of sharing of charges, conservation of energy fails.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false d) A is false but R is true.

27. Assertion (A): Units of electric dipole moment are Cm and units of torque are Nm. [4]
Reason (R): Electric dipole moment and torque are give by p = q (2a) and τ = force × distance respectively.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

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 c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
28. Two spherical conductors of radii r and 2r having surface charge densities −σ and +σ respectively are [4]
connected with each other. Final surface charge density of the smaller sphere is found to be K times that of σ.
What is the value of K?
29. One end of a spring of negligible unstretched length and spring constant k is fixed at the origin (0,0). A point [4]
particle of mass m carrying a positive charge q is attached at its other end. The entire system is kept on a smooth
horizontal surface. When a point dipole p ⃗ pointing towards the charge q is fixed at the origin, the spring gets
stretched to a length l and attains a new equilibrium position (see figure below). If the point mass is now
displaced slightly by Δl << l from its equilibrium position and released, it is found to oscillate at frequency
−−
1

δ
√
k

m
. The value of δ is ________.

R
EE
AR

E
30. Let us suppose that the earth (radius 6400 km) had a net charge equivalent to one electron per (metre)2 of its [4]
surface area. Its potential (in volt) will be: UT
C
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ST
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 ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE

CHEMISTRY
JEE main - Chemistry

1. For an exothermic chemical process occurring in two steps as; [4]

i. A + B ⟶ X (slow);
ii. X ⟶ AB (fast)

R
The progress of the reaction can be best described by:

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a) b)

AR

E
c) All are correct
UT d)
C
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N
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ST

2. The activation energy for a chemical reaction depends upon: [4]

a) nature of reacting species b) concentration of reacting species

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c) reaction d) frequency factor

3. A catalyst is used to [4]

a) Maximise the time of rate of reaction b) Decrease the product

c) Increases the product d) Minimise the time of rate of reaction

4. For a first order reaction A ⟶ B the reaction rate at reactant concentration 0.01 M is found to be 2.0 × 10-5 [4]

mol L-1 s-1. The half-life period of the reaction is:

a) 220 s b) 347 s

c) 300 s d) 30 s
5. Consider the given plots for a reaction obeying Arrhenius equation (0°C < T< 300°C) : ( k and Ea are rate [4]
constant and activation energy, espectively)

1/6
 Choose the correct option.

a) I is wrong but II is right b) Both I and II are correct

c) I is right but II is wrong d) Both I and II are wrong

6. The equation which is balanced and represents the correct product(s) is: [4]

R
excess NaOH
a) Li2O + 2KCl ⟶ 2LiCl + K2O b) [Mg(H2O)6]2+ + (EDTA)4- −−−−−−−→

EE
[Mg(EDTA)]2+ + 6H2O

c) [CoCl (NH3)5]+ + 5H+ ⟶ Co2+ + 5NH + d) CuSO4 + 4KCN ⟶ K2[Cu(CN)4] +

4

K2SO4
AR
+ Cl-

E
7. At room temperature, the reaction between NO and O2 to give NO2 is fast, while that between CO and O2 is [4]
slow. It is due to: UT
C

a) CO is smaller in size than that of NO b) CO is poisonous

c) the activation energy for the reaction, 2NO d) CO is Larger in size than that of NO
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+ O2 → 2NO2 is less than 2CO + O2 →

2CO2
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ST

8. The rate constant (K) for the reaction, 2A + B ⟶ Product was found to be 2.5 × 10-5 litre mol-1 sec-1 after 15 [4]

sec, 2.60 × 10-5 litre mol-1 sec-1 after 30 sec and 2.55 × 10-5 litre mol-1 sec-1 after 50 sec. The order of reaction
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is:

a) 2 b) zero

c) 3 d) 1
9. In the respect of the equation K = Ae −Ea /RT
in chemical kinetics, which one of the following statements is [4]
correct?

a) Ea is energy of activation b) R is Rydberg constant

c) K is equilibrium constant d) A is adsorption factor

10. For a chemical reaction A + B → Product, the order is 1 with respect to A and B. [4]

Rate [A] [B]

mol L-1 s-1 mol L-1 mol L-1

0.10 20 0.5

0.40 x 0.5

0.80 40 y

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 What is the value of x and y?

a) 80 and 4 b) 160 and 4

c) 80 and 2 d) 40 and 4

11. For the reaction 2A + B ⟶ A2B, the rate is k[A]2[B] with k = 2.0 × 10-6 M-2 s-1. Initial concentration of [A] [4]

= 0.2 M and [B] = 0.4 M. Calculate the rate of the reaction when [A] is reduced to 0.12 M.

a) 1.04 × 10-8 M s-1 b) 1.9 × 10-8 M s-1

c) 3.2 × 10-8 M s-1 d) 0.57 × 10-8 M s-1

1 1

12. The rate law of a hypothetical reaction A + B ⟶ C is given by, rate = k[A] 3
[ B] 3
. The overall order of the [4]
reaction is ________.

R
a) 0.67 b) 0.33

c) 2 d) 3

EE
13. From the following data, the activation energy for the reaction is (cal/mol): [4]
H2 + I2 ⟶ 2HI
AR
T, K 1
, K-1 log10 K

E
T

769 1.3 × 10-3 2.9

667 1.5 × 10-3

UT 1.1
C

a) 4 × 104 b) 8 × 104
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c) 2 × 104 d) 3 × 104
LE

14. In a second-order reaction, first order in each reactant A and B, which one of the following reactant mixtures [4]
ST

will provide the highest initial rate?

a) 0.1 mole of A and 0.1 mole of B in 1 litre b) 0.1 mole of A and 0.1 mole of B in 0.1 litre
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solvent solvent

c) 0.1 mole of A and 0.1 mole of B in 0.2 litre d) 0.2 mole of A and 0.2 mole of B in 0. 1 litre
solvent solvent
15. Chemical reaction occurs as a result of collisions between reacting molecules. Therefore, the reaction rate is [4]
given by:

a) total number of collisions occurring in a unit b) total number of effective collisions

volume per second

c) fraction of molecules which possess energy d) fraction of molecules which possess energy
less than the threshold energy more than the threshold energy
16. In the presence of a catalyst, the heat evolved or absorbed during the reaction: [4]

a) increase b) remains unchanged

c) decreases d) may increase or decrease

17. The graph below represents the energy profiles of two different reactions A and B, respectively. Which of the [4]
following statements is incorrect?

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 a) Reaction A has higher activation energy b) Reaction A is faster than reaction B
than reaction B

c) Reaction A is less exothermic than reaction d) Reaction A is slower than reaction B

B

ER
18. For a gaseous phase elementary reaction rate of disappearance of A in a closed container is: A(g) ⟶ Products [4]
(gas). Thus rate of reaction can be given as:
dPA dnA
a) − 1
⋅ b) −
1

RE
RT dt V dt

c) Either of these d) K[A]

19. With reference to the following data calculate the value of rate constant for the reaction at 80oC. [4]

TE
CA
T(K) k(s-1)

312.5 0.11
TU
322.6 0.28
N

a) 2.7 s-1 b) 4.9 s-1

I
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c) 6.8 s-1 d) 3.4 s-1

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20. The rate constant of a first order reaction is 3 × 10-6 sec-1. If initial concentration is 0.10 M, the initial rate is [4]

(Ms-1):
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a) 3 × 10-7 b) 3 × 10-5

c) 3 × 10-8 d) 3 × 10-6

21. The half-life for a zero order reaction having 0.02 M initial concentration of reactant is 100 s. The rate constant [4]

(in mol L-1 s-1) for the reaction is:

a) 1.0 × 10-4 b) 2.0 × 10-4

c) 1.0 × 10-2 d) 2.0 × 10-3

22. The rate constant is numerically the same for three reactions of first, second and third order respectively. Which [4]
one is true for the rate of three reaction, if the concentration of reactant is greater than 1 M:

a) r1 > r2 > r3 b) r1 = r2 = r3

c) all of these d) r1 < r2 < r3

23. Assertion (A): For the reaction: RCI + NaOH (aq) → ROH + NaCI, the rate of reaction is reduced to half when [4]
the concentration of RCI is reduced to half.

4/6
 Reason (R): The rate of reaction is represented by k[RCI] i.e., it is a first order reaction.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

24. Assertion (A): Most probable velocity is the velocity possessed by maximum fraction of molecules at the same [4]
temperature.
Reason (R): On collision, more and more molecules acquire higher speed at the same temperature.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

25. Assertion (A): The addition of catalyst lowers the activation barrier, yet there is no change in the enthalpy [4]

R
change.

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Reason (R): Enthalpy change is equal to the difference in the activation energy for the forward and the
backward reactions.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
AR
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

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c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
26.
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Assertion (A): For a second-order reaction, the graph of [A] vs. t is a straight line. [4]
C

Reason (R): For a second-order reaction, [A] = kt =

1
.
[A]
0

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
IT
N

explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

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c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

ST

27. Assertion (A): Order of the reaction can be zero or fractional. [4]
Reason (R): We cannot determine order from balanced chemical equation.
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a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

28. KClO3 + 6FeSO4 + 3H2SO4 → KCl + 3Fe2(SO4)3 +3H2O [4]
The above reaction was studied at 300 K by monitoring the concentration of FeSO4 in which initial

concentration was 10 M and after half an hour became 8.8 M. The rate of production of Fe2(SO4)3 is ________

× 10-6 mol L-1 s-1. (Nearest integer)

29. The number of correct statement/s from the following is ________. [4]
A. Larger the activation energy, smaller is the value of the rate constant.
B. The higher is the activation energy, higher is the value of the temperature coefficient.
C. At lower temperatures, increase in temperature causes more change in the value of k than at higher
temperature.
D. A plot of In k vs is a straight line with slope equal to − .
1 Ea

T R

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6/6
 ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE

MATHEMATICS
JEE main - Mathematics

1. If f(x) = x3 + sin x, then the function f is [4]

a) an odd function b) a power function

R
c) an even function d) a prime function
2. A function f : R → R satisfies f(x + y) = f(xy) for all x, y and f(− 1
) = −
1
, then f(2017) + f(2018) equals [4]

EE
2 2

a) 1 b) -1

c) − d) 4035
4035

2
AR 2

3. The range of the function f : R - {1, 3} → R defined by f(x) = 2x −5x−3

is [4]

E
2
x −4x+3

a) R - {1, 2} b) R - {3}

c) R - {2}
UT d) R - {1}
C

4. If f(x) = 2017x + 5, then

f(x+k)−f(x)
is [4]
k

a) (2016)(2017) b) 5
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c) 2017

5
d) 2017
LE

5. Let a, b are positive real numbers such that a - b = 10, then the smallest value of the constant K for which [4]
ST

− −− −−−−− −− − −−−−−
2 2
√( x + ax) − √( x + bx) < K for all x > 0, is:

a) 5 b) 2
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c) 4 d) 3
x
a −1
6. If the real valued function f defined as f(x) = n x
is even, then n equals [4]
x (a +1)

a) − b)
1 −2

3 3

c) 1

4
d) 2

7. The sum of all possible values of n where n ∈ N, x > 0 and 10 < n ≤ 100 such that the equation [2x2] + x - n = 0 [4]
has a solution, is equal to:
[Note : [x] denotes largest integer less than or equal to x.]

a) 210 b) 190

c) 175 d) 150

8. If the period of function f defined as f(x) =

cos(sin(nx))

x
, n ∈ N, is 6π, then maximum value that n takes, is [4]
tan( )
n

a) 6 b) 12

c) 3 d) 2

1/3
 9. If f(x) = log e
(
1−x
) ,|x| < 1, then f(
2x

2
) is equal to [4]
1+x 1+x

a) 2f(x2) b) -2f(x)

c) 2f(x) d) (f(x))2
−−−−−

is [4]
|[x]|−2
10. Let [x] denote the greatest integer ≤ x, where x ∈ R. If the domain of the real valued function f(x) = √ |[x]|−3

(−∞ , a) ∪ [b, c) ∪ [4, ∞), a < b < c, then the value of a + b + c is:

a) -3 b) 1

c) 8 d) -2
11. The domain of the function f(x) = is (where [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x) [4]
1

2
√[x] −3[x]−10

a) (-∞, -2) ∪ [6, ∞) b) (-∞, -3] ∪ [5, ∞)

R
c) (-∞, -2) ∪ (5, ∞) d) (-∞, -3] ∪ [6, ∞)

EE
2

12. Let f : R - {2, 6} → R be real valued function defined as f(x) = x +2x+1

2
. The range of f is [4]
x −8x+12

a) (−∞, − 21

4
) ∪ (0, ∞) b) (−∞, −
21

4
] ∪ [1, ∞)
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c) (−∞, − 21
]∪ [
21
, ∞) d) (−∞, −
21
] ∪ [0, ∞)

E
4 4 4

∞
x−3
[4]
13. Let A = {x ∈ R : [x + 3] + [x + 4] ≤ 3}, B = {x ∈ R x
: 3 (∑
3
r
) < 3
−3x
} , where [t] denotes greatest

integer function. Then,

UT r=1
10
C

a) A = B b) A ⊂ B, A ≠ B
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c) B ⊂ C, A ≠ B d) A ∩ B = ϕ

14. sin
−1
(sin
2π
) + cos
−1
(cos
7π
) + tan
−1
(tan
3π
) is equal to: [4]
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3 6 4
ST

a) b)
17π 11π

12 12

c) 31π

12
d) −
3π

4
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15. Let x ∈ (0, 1). The set of all x such that sin-1 x > cos-1 x, is the interval: [4]

a) ( 1
, 1) b) (0,
√3
)
√2 2

c) ( 1
,
1
) d) (0 , 1)
2 √2

16. The value of x satisfying the equation (sin-1 x)3 - (cos-1 x)3 + (sin-1 x) (cos-1 x) (sin- 1 x - cos-1 x) =
π
3

is: [4]
16

a) cos π

8
b) cos
π

c) cos π

5
d) cos
π

12

17. Let f : R → (0, π

] be defined as f(x) = sin-1 ( 4
) then f(x) is: [4]
2
6 4x −12x+17

a) injective as well as surjective b) neither injective nor surjective

c) surjective but not injective d) injective but not surjective

[4]
−1 −1

18. If 0 < x < 1

and sin

α
x
=
cos x
, then the value of sin( 2πα
) is
√2 β α+β

−−−−−−− −−−−−−−
a) 4x√(1 − x 2 2
) (1 − 2x ) b) 2 2
2x√(1 − x ) (1 − 4x )

−−−−−−− −−−−−−−
c) 4√(1 − x 2 2
) (1 − 4x ) d) 2 2
4√(1 − x ) (1 − 2x )

2/3
 The domain of the function f(x) = sin-1( [4]
x −2

19. 8.3

2(x −1)
) is
1−3

a) [2, ∞) b) (−∞, −1] ∪ [1, ∞)

c) (−∞, 0] ∪ [2, ∞) d) (-∞, 0]

20. Equation of the image of the line x + y = sin-1 (a6 + 1) + cos-1 (a4 + 1) - tan-1 (a2 + 1), a ∈ R about x axis is [4]

given by:

a) x - y = 0 b) x - y = π

c) x - y = d) x - y =
π π

2 4

21. The maximum value of the function f(x) = (sin-1(sin x))2 - sin-1 (sin x) is: [4]

a) π

4
(π − 2) b) π

2
(π + 2)

R
c) π

2
(π − 2) d) π

4
(π + 2)

22. If sin-1 1
+ sin-1 2
= sin-1 x, then x is equal to [4]

EE
3 3

a) √5+4√2
b) π

2
9

c) 0 d) √5−4√2
AR 9

23. Let f(x) = sin x + cos x + tan x + arc sin x + arc cos x + arc tan x. If M and m are maximum and minimum values [4]

E
of f(x) then their arithmetic mean is equal to :

a) π
+ sin 1
UT b) π
+ cos 1
C
2 2

c) π

4
+ tan 1 + sin 1 d) π

4
+ tan 1 + cos 1
−−−−−
If cos-1 x = a and sin-1 (2x√1 − x + sec-1( , then tan-1 (2x) is equal to [4]
IT
24. 1 2π
,0<x< 1
N

2
) ) =
2
2x −1 3 √2

a) π
b) π
LE

6 2
ST

c) π

4
d) π

25. The value of 2 cot-1 1

- cot-1 4
is [4]
2 3
AL
IN

a) 3π

2
b) −
π

c) π

4
d) π

26. If 'α' is the only real root of the equation x3 + bx2 + cx + 1 = 0 (b < c), then the value of tan-1 α + tan-1 (α −1
) is [4]
equal to :

a) can't be determined b) π

c) d) 0
−π

[4]
1
f(x)+f( )
β x

27. If a + α = 1, b + β = 2 and af(x) + αf ( = bx + , x ≠ 0, then the value of expression is

1
)
x x 1
x+
x

________.
28. If x, y, z ∈ [-1, 1] such that cos-1 x + cos-1 y + cos-1 z = 3π, then find the values of xy + yz + zx. [4]

29. If cosec-1 x + cosec-1 y + cosec-1 z = −

3π
, find the value of x
+
y
+
z
. [4]
2 y z x

30. Let x = sin(2tan-1 α) and y = sin( 1

tan
−1 4
) . If S = [a ∈ R: y2 = 1 - x], then ∑ 16α
3
is equal to ________. [4]
2 3
α∈S

3/3