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VTU-ETR Seat No.

Question Paper Version : A

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi


Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. ( Research) May – 2024
Electronics and Communication /
Telecommunication Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES


1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No, branch and branch code are not already printed on the
OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Scientific calculator is only permitted. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary
action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered
for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet and the question paper booklet to the Room Invigilator while
leaving the examination hall.
PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 Marks]
1. Which of the following research is also known as collaborative research?
a) Analytical research b) Applied research
c) Action research d) Descriptive research

2. Cross-sectional surveys are divided into two types, which are?


a) Exploratory and causal b) Functional and Dysfunctional
c) Relational and logical d) Descriptive and analytical

3. What are the main purposes of data analysis?


a) Description b) Construction of Measurement Scale
c) Generating empirical relationships d) Explanation and prediction

4. __________ involve a set of predetermined questions and highly standardized techniques of


recording?
a) Structured interview b) Unstructured interview
c) Interview guided d) All of these

5. Which of the following is a primary step in social science research?


a) Preparing the Research Design b) Developing the Research Hypothesis
c) Formulation of research problem d) Execution of the Project

6. Find an example of probability sampling.


a) Convenience or accidental sampling b) Purposive or judgmental sampling
c) Quota sampling d) Stratified random sampling

7. Which of the following is not a data collection method?


a) Observation b) Schedules
c) Interview d) Research question

8. The term ‘ethno’ refers to


a) Geographical area b) Social life c) Cultural group d) People or culture

9. Ogives is also known as?


a) Cumulative frequency curves b) Frequency distributions
c) Transcendental Curve d) All of these

10. Which of the following strategies is used to determine how common, widespread, or pervasive a
certain trait, phenomenon, attitude, or opinion is in a demographic population?
a) Cross-sectional descriptive survey b) Factorial survey method
c) Total survey design d) Pooled surveys

11. Quantitative research involves conducting research using the following :


a) Feelings and hidden emotions, expectations b) Facts, Numbers and numerical data
c) Humour and gratitude d) Ethics, Accuracy and discipline
Ver-A : EC/TC 1 of 10
12. Which of the following best describes quantitative research?
a) the collection of non-numerical data
b) an attempt to confirm the researcher’s hypotheses
c) exploratory research
d) research that attempts to generate a new theory

13. Which of the following includes examples of quantitative variables?


a) age, temperature, income, height
b) grade point average, anxiety level, reading performance
c) gender, religion, ethnic group
d) both a and b

14. Quantitative research only works if


a) You talk to the right number of people
b) You talk to the right type of people
c) You ask the right question and analyse the data you get in the right way
d) All of the above

15. An image, perception or concept that is capable of measurement is called _______


a) Scale b) Hypothesis c) Type d) Variable

16. Why do you need to review the existing literature?


a) To make sure you have a long list of references
b) Because without it, you could never reach the required word-count
c) To help in your general studying
d) To find out what is already known about your area of interest

17. To pursue the research, which of the following is priorly required?


a) Developing a research design b) Formulating a research question
c) Deciding about the data analysis procedure d) Formulating a research hypothesis

18. A statement of the quantitative research question should:


a) Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question (the researcher will
address)
b) Help the research in selecting appropriate participants, research methods, measures and
materials
c) Specify the variables of interest
d) None of the above

19. Concept is of two types


a) Abstract and coherent b) Concrete and coherent
c) Abstract and concrete d) None of these

20. _________ is concerned with discovering and testing certain variables with respect to their
association or disassociation.
a) Exploratory b) Descriptive
c) Diagnostic d) Descriptive and diagnostic

21. In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis’ is followed by


a) Statement of Objectives b) Analysis of Data
c) Selection of Research Tools d) Collection of Data
Ver-A : EC/TC 2 of 10
22. The data of research is _______
a) Qualitative only b) Quantitative only c) Neither of them d) Both a and b

23. _______- test is used to prove hypothesis of smaller sample.


a) t b) f c) z d) P

24. _____ tailed test is used when the researcher’s interest is primarily on one side of the issue.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

25. ______ is a part of the universe that can be used as respondents to survey.
a) Frame b) Sample c) Hypothesis d) Population

26. _______ Hypothesis states that there is no relationship between two or more variables
a) Null b) Alternative c) Negative Page d) Positive

27. _______ research helps to solve practical problems.


a) Qualitative b) Applied c) Basic d) Descriptive

28. The final stage in a survey is


a) Field work b) Assignment c) Calculation d) Reporting

29. ______ mean refers to the value obtained by dividing the sum of the values of all items by the
total
a) number of items b) Arithmetic c) Geometric d) Harmonic

30. _______ is used to analyse differences between group means and the associated procedures
a) ANOVA b) Chi square c) Z-test d) correlation

31. Z test is used to test hypothesis when the sample size is ______
a) more than 30 b) less than 30 c) less than 50 d) none of these

32. The mode of 2, 5, 6, 4, 2, 7, 2, 5 is


a) 5 b) 6 c) 2 d) 7

33. Hypothesis should be ______


a) Any statement b) Empirically testable
c) Not empirically testable d) Can’t say

34. What is the purpose of doing research?


a) To identify problem b) To find the solution
c) Both a and b d) None of these

35. Which ONE of these sampling methods is a probability method?


a) Quota b) Judgment
c) Convenience d) Simple random

36. _______ is the first step of the Research process


a) Formulation of a problem b) Collection of Data
c) Editing and Coding d) Selection of a problem

Ver-A : EC/TC 3 of 10
37. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistics,
the test is called
a) One-tailed b) Two-tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed

38. The standard deviation is always ______


a) Negative b) Positive c) Sometimes negative d) None of these

39. Mean, Median and Mode are


a) Measures of deviation b) Measures of dispersion
c) Measures of control tendency d) Measures of central tendency

40. A tentative proposition subject to test is


a) Variable b) Hypothesis c) Data d) Concept

41. A Hypothesis that develops while planning the research is


a) Null Hypothesis b) Working Hypothesis
c) Relational Hypothesis d) Descriptive Hypothesis

42. The fullform of APA is ______


a) American Physical Association b) American Psychological Association
c) American Psychological Amendment d) American Psychological Agreement

43. Questions in which only two alternatives are possible is called


a) Dichotomous questions b) Open-ended questions
c) Structured questions d) MCQs

44. Questionnaire is a
a) Research method b) Measurement technique
c) Tool for data collection d) Data analysis technique

45. Which of the following order is recommended in the flowchart of the research process?
a) Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem
b) Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis
c) Formulate Hypothesis, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Sampling Design
d) Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data

46. If 0 < r < 1 means there is ______


a) Negative correlation b) Positive correlation
c) No correlation d) All of these

47. _______ is a process of checking errors and omissions in data collection.


a) Editing b) Coding c) Tabulation d) None of these

48. _______ is the difference between highest and lowest value in a series of data.
a) Median b) Range c) Mode d) None of these

49. If Ho is true and we reject it is called


a) Type-I error b) Type-II error c) Standard error d) None of these

50 Sending a Questionnaire to a respondent with a request to complete and return by post is called
a) Interview b) Observation c) A Mail Survey d) Panel

Ver-A : EC/TC 4 of 10
PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Electronics and Communication Engineering /
Telecommunication Engineering)
[50 MARKS]

51. If three resistance each of 9 is connected in delta form, the equivalent resistance converted to
star is :
a) 27 b) 3 c) 5 d) 4.2

52. The resonant frequency in a series resonant circuit is


1 1 1 1
a) b) c) d)
2LC 2 LC 2(LC) 2 4LC

53. 2 port equation of h parameter is :

V1  h11I 2  h12V2 V1  h11I1  h12V2


a) b)
I1  h 21V1  h 22V1 I2  h 21I1  h 22V2

V1  h11I1  h12V2 V1  h11I2  h12V2


c) d)
I2  h 21V1  h 22V2 I2  h 21V1  h 22V2

di(0 )
54. Compute i(0+) and for the circuit given the switch is closed at t = 0.
dt

a) OA and 15A/S b) 1A and 6A/S c) 3A and 8A/S d) 0A and 10A/S

55. Load is replaced by ______ in thevenins theorem and ______ in nortons theorem respectively
a) Open circuit and short circuit
b) Short circuit and open circuit
c) Unchanged and unchanged
d) depends on biasing

Ver-A : EC/TC 5 of 10
t
 aT
56. Find the Fourier transform of the signal x (t )  e u (T)dT

1 1 1
a) x ()    () b) x () 
j(a  j) a j(a  j)

1 1 1
c) x ()    () d) x ()   ()
(a  j) a a


57. Consider the sequence x (n )   (n  4m) , the value of Fourier coefficient X(K) for K = 4
m  
is :
1 1 j
a) X(k )  b) X(k )  c) X(k )  d) = 2 + j2
2 4 2

58. The relation between analog and digital frequency of a Bilinear transformation is
a) inphase b) non-linear c) Bilinear d) out of phase

59. Check whether the system x(n) = n[x(n)]2 is :


a) linear b) time invariant c) delayed system d) time variant

a n , n  0
60. The z – transform of x (n )  
 0, n  0
1 z z2 z(z  1)
a) 1
b) c) d)
1  az az z 1 z 1

61. A photo diode is normally _____ biased and works in _____ quadrant of I –V characteristic

a) forward bias, I b) reverse bias, III c) reverse bias, IV d) forward bias, II

62. On applying on electric field of intensity 10V/cm across a semiconductor at a certain


temperature the average drift velocity of free electrons is measured to be 70m/s electron
mobility is :

a) 7  104cm2/Vs b) 700cm2/Vs c) 70cm2/Vs d) 700cm/Vs

63. The controlling parameters in IGBT is


a) IG b) VGE c) IC d) VCE

Ver-A : EC/TC 6 of 10
64. A MOS capacitor has a high frequency C–V curve at (T = 300K) with ms = 0V and no oxide
charges. The flat band, inversion and accumulation conditions are represented by the points
(As in Figure shown below)

a) P Q R b) Q R P c) R P Q d) Q P R

65. The 2 important characteristics of CMOS devices are :


a) high noise immunity
b) Low static power consumption
c) High resistivity
d) Both high noise immunity and low static power consumption

66. In advanced power supply design, what technique is employed to active ultra-low ripple and
noise in regulated outputs
a) Feed forward compensation
b) Active damping
c) synchronous rectification m
d) Capacitance multiplied

67. What advanced technique can be employed in multi-stage MOSFET amplifier to mitigate the
effects of parasitic capacitances and miller effect
a) common gate configuration
b) cascade topology
c) source degeneration
d) Body-effect compensation

68. What advanced technique can be employed in fn generators to active prices frequency control
and stability
a) Phase – Backed Loop (PLL)
b) Voltage – controlled oscillator (VCO)
c) Frequency modulation (VM)
d) Amplitude modulator (AM)

69. When analysis the frequency response of a single–stage BJT amplifier, which factor primarily
determining the upper cut-off frequency
a) Junction capacitance b) Transcondutance (gm)
c) Collector Resistance (RC) d) Early Voltage (VA)

70. Which component in a 555 timer circuit primarily determine the o/p frequency in astable mode
a) Timing Capacitor (C) b) Timing resistor (R)
c) Threshold Voltage (Vth) d) Trigger Voltage (Vtrg)

Ver-A : EC/TC 7 of 10
71. Consider two 4-variable functions f1 and f2 which are expressed as :
F1(A, B, C, D) = m(1, 3, 4, 11) + d(2, 7, 8, 12, 14, 15)
F2(A, B, C, D) = m(5, 7, 13, 14, 15)  d(1, 2, 3, 9)
The output function F  F1  F2 can be expressed as
a) m(0, 6, 10) + d(2, 8, 9, 12)
b) m(0, 6) + d(2, 8, 9, 12)
c) m(6, 10) + d(2, 3, 5, 12)
d) m(2, 3, 4, 12, 15) + d(8, 9, 10)

72. The number o 2-to 4 decoders required to implement a BCD to decimal decoder is _____
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 2

73. The characteristic equation of XY flip-flop whose truth table is given by


X Y Q
0 0 0
0 1 Q
1 0 Q
1 1 1
a) (X  Y ) b) XQ + XY + Y Q c) Y  Q d) XQ + Y Q

74. Three MOD – 10 counters are cascaded. Determine the output frequency if the input frequency
is 1KHz.
a) 0.5KHz b) 1KHz c) 1HZ d) 1MHz

75. The number of 2 input NOR gates required to realize the Boolean function F = ab + bc + ac are
a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 7

76. In a signal flow graph lops are said to be un-touching if


a) They do not touch alternate nodes
b) They do not touch any node
c) They do not posses any common node
d) they posses are common node

77. The characteristics equation for a system is given as 2s3 + s2 – 3s + 10 = 0, state why the
system is stable or unstable?
a) stable because all root is in right –half of s-plane
b) unstable because there are two roots in the right-half of S-plane
c) stable because all the roots are in the left-side of S-plane
d) unstable because are root is in the right-half of S-plane

78. Gain margin in the magnitude versus phase plot of G(Jw)  H(jw) is the distance measured in
decibels from
a) The phase cross-over to the critical point at 0dB and – 180
b) The gain cross-over to the critical point at 0dB and – 180
c) The gain cross-over to the point at 0dB and – 90
d) The gain cross-over to the point at 0dB and – 270

Ver-A : EC/TC 8 of 10
79. A compensating networks is added to
a) sleep the locus of the roots constant as a system parameter is varied
b) alter the locus of the roots as a system parameter is varied
c) alter the locus without changing the positive of poles and zero
d) keep the locus of the roots constant and not alter the positive of the poles to zeros

80. The steady-state error is the error where


a) The time period is into less there are microsecond
b) The time period is large and the transient response has decayed
c) The time period is large but the transient response is still persisting
d) The time period is large but there oscillating beahviour of the output

81. Consider a communication system employing a repeater to compensate for channel loss :
Transmitter  Lossy channel  Amplifier 
In this case, a signal is transmitted through a 10km coaxial line channel which exhibits a loss
of 2dB/km. The transmitted signal power is –30dBw (simply 1milliwatt). Determine the power
at the output of an amplifier that has a gain of 15dB.
a) –65dBw b) –35dBw c) 25dBw d) –25dBw

82. Assume in a stop and wait protocol the bandwidth of the line is 1 Mbps and 1 bit takes 20
milliseconds to make a round trip. If the system data packets are 1000 bits in length. What is
the utilization percentage of the link?
a) 5 b) 20 c) 2 d) 50

83. A telephone subscriber must have SNRdB above 40. What is the minimum number if bits per
sample?
a) 7 b) 5 c) 4 d) 10

84. The probability of bit error of a BFSK modulation scheme with the transmitted signal energy
per bit Eb, in an additive white Gaussian Noise channel having one sided power spectral
density No is :
1  E  1  Eb 
a) erfc b  b) erfc 

2  2 N 0 2  2 N 0 

1 E  1  Eb 
c) erfc b  d) erfc 

2  N0  2  N 0 

85. Two carriers of 2 GHz and 4GHz respectively are frequency modulated by a signal of 10KHz
such that bandwidth of the FM signal in the two cases are same. The peak deviation in the two
cases are in the ratio of :
a) 1 : 8 b) 1 : 2 c) 2 : 1 d) 1 : 1

86. The equation for modified Ampere’s law by Maxwell for time varying field as
  D
a)   H  0 b)   H  J 
t
  
c)   H  Pv d)   H  J

Ver-A : EC/TC 9 of 10
87. The perfect matched condition for an ideal N-port network, the diagonal elements of s matrix
are
a) Zero’s b) One’s c) Infinity d) None

88. The radiation resistance of a short dipole having length L = 5m at frequency f = 30MHz
a) 10 b) 25 c) 50 d) 75

89. A 50 lossless line connects a matched signal to a load of 100, the VSWR of the load is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 

90. In Yagi antenna, increase in number of directors results in


a) Increases the gain and increase beam width
b) Decreases the gain and increase beam width
c) Decreases the gain and decrease beam width
d) Increases the gain and decrease beam width

91. Which one of the following determines the enabling and sequencing of the operations?
a) Control unit b) Data-path c) Both a and b d) None

92. In the case of zero-adder instruction method the operands are stored in
a) Registers b) Accumulator c) Push down stack d) Cache

93. If half adders and full adders are implemented using gates, then for the addition of two 17-bit
(using minimum number of gates) the number of half adders and full adders required will be
a) 0, 17 b) 16, 1 c) 1, 16 d) 8, 8

94. What is the range of the exponent E in IEEE 754 double precision (binary 64) format
a) –1022  E  1022 b) –1023  E  1023
c) –1023  E  1022 d) –1022  E  1023

95. Parallel computing can include


a) Single computer with multiple processor
b) Arbitory member of computers connected by a network
c) Combination of both a and b
d) none

96. In 8086 micro processor the following has the highest priority among all types of interrupts
a) DIV.0 b) TYPE255 c) OVERFLOW d) NM1

97. In 8086 the BIU perfects the instruction from memory and store them in _____
a) Register b) Memory c) Queue d) Stack

98. In ARM processor fetching instructions from SRAM takes ______ clock cycles
a) 1 b) 5 c) 16 d) 24

99. In ARM processor ______ is used to organize memory


a) MMU b) MPU c) MCU d) none

100. THUMB instruction is related to ______ bit


a) 16 b) 32 c) 64 d) 08
*****

Ver-A : EC/TC 10 of 10
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : B

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi


Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. ( Research) May – 2024
Electronics and Communication /
Telecommunication Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES


1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No, branch and branch code are not already printed on the
OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Scientific calculator is only permitted. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary
action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered
for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet and the question paper booklet to the Room Invigilator while
leaving the examination hall.
PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 Marks]
1. A Hypothesis that develops while planning the research is
a) Null Hypothesis b) Working Hypothesis
c) Relational Hypothesis d) Descriptive Hypothesis

2. The fullform of APA is ______


a) American Physical Association b) American Psychological Association
c) American Psychological Amendment d) American Psychological Agreement

3. Questions in which only two alternatives are possible is called


a) Dichotomous questions b) Open-ended questions
c) Structured questions d) MCQs

4. Questionnaire is a
a) Research method b) Measurement technique
c) Tool for data collection d) Data analysis technique

5. Which of the following order is recommended in the flowchart of the research process?
a) Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem
b) Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis
c) Formulate Hypothesis, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Sampling Design
d) Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data

6. If 0 < r < 1 means there is ______


a) Negative correlation b) Positive correlation
c) No correlation d) All of these

7. _______ is a process of checking errors and omissions in data collection.


a) Editing b) Coding c) Tabulation d) None of these

8. _______ is the difference between highest and lowest value in a series of data.
a) Median b) Range c) Mode d) None of these

9. If Ho is true and we reject it is called


a) Type-I error b) Type-II error c) Standard error d) None of these

10. Sending a Questionnaire to a respondent with a request to complete and return by post is called
a) Interview b) Observation c) A Mail Survey d) Panel

11. Z test is used to test hypothesis when the sample size is ______
a) more than 30 b) less than 30 c) less than 50 d) none of these

12. The mode of 2, 5, 6, 4, 2, 7, 2, 5 is


a) 5 b) 6 c) 2 d) 7
Ver-B : EC/TC 1 of 5
13. Hypothesis should be ______
a) Any statement b) Empirically testable c) Not empirically testable d) Can’t say

14. What is the purpose of doing research?


a) To identify problem b) To find the solution c) Both a and b d) None of these

15. Which ONE of these sampling methods is a probability method?


a) Quota b) Judgment c) Convenience d) Simple random

16. _______ is the first step of the Research process


a) Formulation of a problem b) Collection of Data
c) Editing and Coding d) Selection of a problem

17. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistics,
the test is called
a) One-tailed b) Two-tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed

18. The standard deviation is always ______


a) Negative b) Positive c) Sometimes negative d) None of these

19. Mean, Median and Mode are


a) Measures of deviation b) Measures of dispersion
c) Measures of control tendency d) Measures of central tendency

20. A tentative proposition subject to test is


a) Variable b) Hypothesis c) Data d) Concept

21. Quantitative research involves conducting research using the following :


a) Feelings and hidden emotions, expectations
b) Facts, Numbers and numerical data
c) Humour and gratitude
d) Ethics, Accuracy and discipline

22. Which of the following best describes quantitative research?


a) the collection of non-numerical data
b) an attempt to confirm the researcher’s hypotheses
c) exploratory research
d) research that attempts to generate a new theory

23. Which of the following includes examples of quantitative variables?


a) age, temperature, income, height
b) grade point average, anxiety level, reading performance
c) gender, religion, ethnic group
d) both a and b

24. Quantitative research only works if


a) You talk to the right number of people
b) You talk to the right type of people
c) You ask the right question and analyse the data you get in the right way
d) All of the above
Ver-B : EC/TC 2 of 5
25. An image, perception or concept that is capable of measurement is called _______
a) Scale b) Hypothesis c) Type d) Variable

26. Why do you need to review the existing literature?


a) To make sure you have a long list of references
b) Because without it, you could never reach the required word-count
c) To help in your general studying
d) To find out what is already known about your area of interest

27. To pursue the research, which of the following is priorly required?


a) Developing a research design b) Formulating a research question
c) Deciding about the data analysis procedure d) Formulating a research hypothesis

28. A statement of the quantitative research question should:


a) Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question (the researcher will
address)
b) Help the research in selecting appropriate participants, research methods, measures and
materials
c) Specify the variables of interest
d) None of the above

29. Concept is of two types


a) Abstract and coherent b) Concrete and coherent
c) Abstract and concrete d) None of these

30. _________ is concerned with discovering and testing certain variables with respect to their
association or disassociation.
a) Exploratory b) Descriptive
c) Diagnostic d) Descriptive and diagnostic

31. Which of the following research is also known as collaborative research?


a) Analytical research b) Applied research
c) Action research d) Descriptive research

32. Cross-sectional surveys are divided into two types, which are?
a) Exploratory and causal b) Functional and Dysfunctional
c) Relational and logical d) Descriptive and analytical

33. What are the main purposes of data analysis?


a) Description b) Construction of Measurement Scale
c) Generating empirical relationships d) Explanation and prediction

34. __________ involve a set of predetermined questions and highly standardized techniques of
recording?
a) Structured interview b) Unstructured interview
c) Interview guided d) All of these

35. Which of the following is a primary step in social science research?


a) Preparing the Research Design b) Developing the Research Hypothesis
c) Formulation of research problem d) Execution of the Project
Ver-B : EC/TC 3 of 5
36. Find an example of probability sampling.
a) Convenience or accidental sampling b) Purposive or judgmental sampling
c) Quota sampling d) Stratified random sampling

37. Which of the following is not a data collection method?


a) Observation b) Schedules c) Interview ) Research question

38. The term ‘ethno’ refers to


a) Geographical area b) Social life c) Cultural group d) People or culture

39. Ogives is also known as?


a) Cumulative frequency curves b) Frequency distributions
c) Transcendental Curve d) All of these

40. Which of the following strategies is used to determine how common, widespread, or pervasive a
certain trait, phenomenon, attitude, or opinion is in a demographic population?
a) Cross-sectional descriptive survey b) Factorial survey method
c) Total survey design d) Pooled surveys

41. In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis’ is followed by


a) Statement of Objectives b) Analysis of Data
c) Selection of Research Tools d) Collection of Data

42. The data of research is _______


a) Qualitative only b) Quantitative only c) Neither of them d) Both a and b

43. _______- test is used to prove hypothesis of smaller sample.


a) t b) f c) z d) P

44. _____ tailed test is used when the researcher’s interest is primarily on one side of the issue.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

45. ______ is a part of the universe that can be used as respondents to survey.
a) Frame b) Sample c) Hypothesis d) Population

46. _______ Hypothesis states that there is no relationship between two or more variables
a) Null b) Alternative c) Negative Page d) Positive
47. _______ research helps to solve practical problems.
a) Qualitative b) Applied c) Basic d) Descriptive

48. The final stage in a survey is


a) Field work b) Assignment c) Calculation d) Reporting

49. ______ mean refers to the value obtained by dividing the sum of the values of all items by the
total
a) number of items b) Arithmetic c) Geometric d) Harmonic

50 _______ is used to analyse differences between group means and the associated procedures
a) ANOVA b) Chi square c) Z-test d) correlation
Ver-B : EC/TC 4 of 10
PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Electronics and Communication Engineering /
Telecommunication Engineering)
[50 MARKS]
51. Which one of the following determines the enabling and sequencing of the operations?
a) Control unit b) Data-path c) Both a and b d) None

52. In the case of zero-adder instruction method the operands are stored in
a) Registers b) Accumulator c) Push down stack d) Cache

53. If half adders and full adders are implemented using gates, then for the addition of two 17-bit
(using minimum number of gates) the number of half adders and full adders required will be
a) 0, 17 b) 16, 1 c) 1, 16 d) 8, 8

54. What is the range of the exponent E in IEEE 754 double precision (binary 64) format
a) –1022  E  1022 b) –1023  E  1023
c) –1023  E  1022 d) –1022  E  1023
55. Parallel computing can include
a) Single computer with multiple processor
b) Arbitory member of computers connected by a network
c) Combination of both a and b
d) none
56. In 8086 micro processor the following has the highest priority among all types of interrupts
a) DIV.0 b) TYPE255 c) OVERFLOW d) NM1

57. In 8086 the BIU perfects the instruction from memory and store them in _____
a) Register b) Memory c) Queue d) Stack

58. In ARM processor fetching instructions from SRAM takes ______ clock cycles
a) 1 b) 5 c) 16 d) 24

59. In ARM processor ______ is used to organize memory


a) MMU b) MPU c) MCU d) none

60. THUMB instruction is related to ______ bit


a) 16 b) 32 c) 64 d) 08
61. Consider a communication system employing a repeater to compensate for channel loss :
Transmitter  Lossy channel  Amplifier 
In this case, a signal is transmitted through a 10km coaxial line channel which exhibits a loss
of 2dB/km. The transmitted signal power is –30dBw (simply 1milliwatt). Determine the power
at the output of an amplifier that has a gain of 15dB.
a) –65dBw b) –35dBw c) 25dBw d) –25dBw
62. Assume in a stop and wait protocol the bandwidth of the line is 1 Mbps and 1 bit takes 20
milliseconds to make a round trip. If the system data packets are 1000 bits in length. What is
the utilization percentage of the link?
a) 5 b) 20 c) 2 d) 50
Ver-B : EC/TC 5 of 10
63. A telephone subscriber must have SNRdB above 40. What is the minimum number if bits per
sample?
a) 7 b) 5 c) 4 d) 10

64. The probability of bit error of a BFSK modulation scheme with the transmitted signal energy
per bit Eb, in an additive white Gaussian Noise channel having one sided power spectral
density No is :
1  E  1  Eb 
a) erfc b  b) erfc 

2  2N 0  2  2N 0 
1 E  1  Eb 
c) erfc b  d) erfc 

2  N0  2  N 0 

65. Two carriers of 2 GHz and 4GHz respectively are frequency modulated by a signal of 10KHz
such that bandwidth of the FM signal in the two cases are same. The peak deviation in the two
cases are in the ratio of :
a) 1 : 8 b) 1 : 2 c) 2 : 1 d) 1 : 1

66. The equation for modified Ampere’s law by Maxwell for time varying field as
  D
a)   H  0 b)   H  J 
t
  
c)   H  Pv d)   H  J

67. The perfect matched condition for an ideal N-port network, the diagonal elements of s matrix
are
a) Zero’s b) One’s c) Infinity d) None

68. The radiation resistance of a short dipole having length L = 5m at frequency f = 30MHz
a) 10 b) 25 c) 50 d) 75

69. A 50 lossless line connects a matched signal to a load of 100, the VSWR of the load is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 

70. In Yagi antenna, increase in number of directors results in


a) Increases the gain and increase beam width
b) Decreases the gain and increase beam width
c) Decreases the gain and decrease beam width
d) Increases the gain and decrease beam width

71. A photo diode is normally _____ biased and works in _____ quadrant of I –V characteristic

a) forward bias, I b) reverse bias, III c) reverse bias, IV d) forward bias, II

72. On applying on electric field of intensity 10V/cm across a semiconductor at a certain


temperature the average drift velocity of free electrons is measured to be 70m/s electron
mobility is :

a) 7  104cm2/Vs b) 700cm2/Vs c) 70cm2/Vs d) 700cm/Vs


Ver-B : EC/TC 6 of 10
73. The controlling parameters in IGBT is
a) IG b) VGE c) IC d) VCE

74. A MOS capacitor has a high frequency C–V curve at (T = 300K) with ms = 0V and no oxide
charges. The flat band, inversion and accumulation conditions are represented by the points
(As in Figure shown below)

a) P Q R b) Q R P c) R P Q d) Q P R

75. The 2 important characteristics of CMOS devices are :


a) high noise immunity
b) Low static power consumption
c) High resistivity
d) Both high noise immunity and low static power consumption

76. In advanced power supply design, what technique is employed to active ultra-low ripple and
noise in regulated outputs
a) Feed forward compensation
b) Active damping
c) synchronous rectification m
d) Capacitance multiplied

77. What advanced technique can be employed in multi-stage MOSFET amplifier to mitigate the
effects of parasitic capacitances and miller effect
a) common gate configuration
b) cascade topology
c) source degeneration
d) Body-effect compensation

78. What advanced technique can be employed in fn generators to active prices frequency control
and stability
a) Phase – Backed Loop (PLL) b) Voltage – controlled oscillator (VCO)
c) Frequency modulation (VM) d) Amplitude modulator (AM)

79. When analysis the frequency response of a single–stage BJT amplifier, which factor primarily
determining the upper cut-off frequency
a) Junction capacitance b) Transcondutance (gm)
c) Collector Resistance (RC) d) Early Voltage (VA)

80. Which component in a 555 timer circuit primarily determine the o/p frequency in astable mode
a) Timing Capacitor (C) b) Timing resistor (R)
c) Threshold Voltage (Vth) d) Trigger Voltage (Vtrg)
Ver-B : EC/TC 7 of 10
81. If three resistance each of 9 is connected in delta form, the equivalent resistance converted to
star is :
a) 27 b) 3 c) 5 d) 4.2

82. The resonant frequency in a series resonant circuit is


1 1 1 1
a) b) c) d)
2LC 2 LC 2(LC) 2 4LC

83. 2 port equation of h parameter is :

V1  h11I 2  h12V2 V1  h11I1  h12V2


a) b)
I1  h 21V1  h 22V1 I2  h 21I1  h 22V2

V1  h11I1  h12V2 V1  h11I2  h12V2


c) d)
I2  h 21V1  h 22V2 I2  h 21V1  h 22V2

84. di(0 )
Compute i(0+) and for the circuit given the switch is closed at t = 0.
dt

a) OA and 15A/S b) 1A and 6A/S c) 3A and 8A/S d) 0A and 10A/S

85. Load is replaced by ______ in thevenins theorem and ______ in nortons theorem respectively
a) Open circuit and short circuit
b) Short circuit and open circuit
c) Unchanged and unchanged
d) depends on biasing

t
 aT
86. Find the Fourier transform of the signal x (t )  e u (T)dT

1 1 1
a) x ()    () b) x () 
j(a  j) a j(a  j)

1 1 1
c) x ()    () d) x ()   ()
(a  j) a a

Ver-B : EC/TC 8 of 10
87. 
Consider the sequence x (n )   (n  4m) , the value of Fourier coefficient X(K) for K = 4
m  
is :
1 1 j
a) X(k )  b) X(k )  c) X(k )  d) = 2 + j2
2 4 2

88. The relation between analog and digital frequency of a Bilinear transformation is
a) inphase b) non-linear c) Bilinear d) out of phase

89. Check whether the system x(n) = n[x(n)]2 is :


a) linear b) time invariant c) delayed system d) time variant

90. a n , n  0
The z – transform of x (n )  
 0, n  0
1 z z2 z(z  1)
a) 1
b) c) d)
1  az az z 1 z 1

91. Consider two 4-variable functions f1 and f2 which are expressed as :


F1(A, B, C, D) = m(1, 3, 4, 11) + d(2, 7, 8, 12, 14, 15)
F2(A, B, C, D) = m(5, 7, 13, 14, 15)  d(1, 2, 3, 9)
The output function F  F1  F2 can be expressed as
a) m(0, 6, 10) + d(2, 8, 9, 12)
b) m(0, 6) + d(2, 8, 9, 12)
c) m(6, 10) + d(2, 3, 5, 12)
d) m(2, 3, 4, 12, 15) + d(8, 9, 10)

92. The number o 2-to 4 decoders required to implement a BCD to decimal decoder is _____
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 2

93. The characteristic equation of XY flip-flop whose truth table is given by


X Y Q
0 0 0
0 1 Q
1 0 Q
1 1 1
a) (X  Y ) b) XQ + XY + Y Q c) Y  Q d) XQ + Y Q

94. Three MOD – 10 counters are cascaded. Determine the output frequency if the input frequency
is 1KHz.
a) 0.5KHz b) 1KHz c) 1HZ d) 1MHz

95. The number of 2 input NOR gates required to realize the Boolean function F = ab + bc + ac are
a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 7
Ver-B : EC/TC 9 of 10
96. In a signal flow graph lops are said to be un-touching if
a) They do not touch alternate nodes
b) They do not touch any node
c) They do not posses any common node
d) they posses are common node

97. The characteristics equation for a system is given as 2s3 + s2 – 3s + 10 = 0, state why the
system is stable or unstable?
a) stable because all root is in right –half of s-plane
b) unstable because there are two roots in the right-half of S-plane
c) stable because all the roots are in the left-side of S-plane
d) unstable because are root is in the right-half of S-plane

98. Gain margin in the magnitude versus phase plot of G(Jw)  H(jw) is the distance measured in
decibels from
a) The phase cross-over to the critical point at 0dB and – 180
b) The gain cross-over to the critical point at 0dB and – 180
c) The gain cross-over to the point at 0dB and – 90
d) The gain cross-over to the point at 0dB and – 270

99. A compensating networks is added to


a) sleep the locus of the roots constant as a system parameter is varied
b) alter the locus of the roots as a system parameter is varied
c) alter the locus without changing the positive of poles and zero
d) keep the locus of the roots constant and not alter the positive of the poles to zeros

100. The steady-state error is the error where


a) The time period is into less there are microsecond
b) The time period is large and the transient response has decayed
c) The time period is large but the transient response is still persisting
d) The time period is large but there oscillating beahviour of the output

Ver-B : EC/TC 10 of 10
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : C

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi


Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. ( Research) May – 2024
Electronics and Communication /
Telecommunication Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES


1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No, branch and branch code are not already printed on the
OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Scientific calculator is only permitted. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary
action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered
for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet and the question paper booklet to the Room Invigilator while
leaving the examination hall.
PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 Marks]
1. Z test is used to test hypothesis when the sample size is ______
a) more than 30 b) less than 30 c) less than 50 d) none of these

2. The mode of 2, 5, 6, 4, 2, 7, 2, 5 is
a) 5 b) 6 c) 2 d) 7

3. Hypothesis should be ______


a) Any statement b) Empirically testable
c) Not empirically testable d) Can’t say

4. What is the purpose of doing research?


a) To identify problem b) To find the solution
c) Both a and b d) None of these

5. Which ONE of these sampling methods is a probability method?


a) Quota b) Judgment c) Convenience d) Simple random

6. _______ is the first step of the Research process


a) Formulation of a problem b) Collection of Data
c) Editing and Coding d) Selection of a problem

7. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistics,
the test is called
a) One-tailed b) Two-tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed

8. The standard deviation is always ______


a) Negative b) Positive c) Sometimes negative d) None of these

9. Mean, Median and Mode are


a) Measures of deviation b) Measures of dispersion
c) Measures of control tendency d) Measures of central tendency

10. A tentative proposition subject to test is


a) Variable b) Hypothesis c) Data d) Concept

11. Which of the following research is also known as collaborative research?


a) Analytical research b) Applied research
c) Action research d) Descriptive research

12. Cross-sectional surveys are divided into two types, which are?
a) Exploratory and causal b) Functional and Dysfunctional
c) Relational and logical d) Descriptive and analytical

13. What are the main purposes of data analysis?


a) Description b) Construction of Measurement Scale
c) Generating empirical relationships d) Explanation and prediction

Ver-C : EC/TC 1 of 10
14. __________ involve a set of predetermined questions and highly standardized techniques of
recording?
a) Structured interview b) Unstructured interview
c) Interview guided d) All of these

15. Which of the following is a primary step in social science research?


a) Preparing the Research Design b) Developing the Research Hypothesis
c) Formulation of research problem d) Execution of the Project

16. Find an example of probability sampling.


a) Convenience or accidental sampling b) Purposive or judgmental sampling
c) Quota sampling d) Stratified random sampling

17. Which of the following is not a data collection method?


a) Observation b) Schedules
c) Interview d) Research question

18. The term ‘ethno’ refers to


a) Geographical area b) Social life c) Cultural group d) People or culture

19. Ogives is also known as?


a) Cumulative frequency curves b) Frequency distributions
c) Transcendental Curve d) All of these

20. Which of the following strategies is used to determine how common, widespread, or pervasive a
certain trait, phenomenon, attitude, or opinion is in a demographic population?
a) Cross-sectional descriptive survey b) Factorial survey method
c) Total survey design d) Pooled surveys

21. A Hypothesis that develops while planning the research is


a) Null Hypothesis b) Working Hypothesis
c) Relational Hypothesis d) Descriptive Hypothesis

22. The fullform of APA is ______


a) American Physical Association b) American Psychological Association
c) American Psychological Amendment d) American Psychological Agreement

23. Questions in which only two alternatives are possible is called


a) Dichotomous questions b) Open-ended questions
c) Structured questions d) MCQs

24. Questionnaire is a
a) Research method b) Measurement technique
c) Tool for data collection d) Data analysis technique

25. Which of the following order is recommended in the flowchart of the research process?
a) Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem
b) Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis
c) Formulate Hypothesis, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Sampling Design
d) Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data
Ver-C : EC/TC 2 of 10
26. If 0 < r < 1 means there is ______
a) Negative correlation b) Positive correlation
c) No correlation d) All of these

27. _______ is a process of checking errors and omissions in data collection.


a) Editing b) Coding c) Tabulation d) None of these

28. _______ is the difference between highest and lowest value in a series of data.
a) Median b) Range c) Mode d) None of these

29. If Ho is true and we reject it is called


a) Type-I error b) Type-II error c) Standard error d) None of these

30. Sending a Questionnaire to a respondent with a request to complete and return by post is called
a) Interview b) Observation c) A Mail Survey d) Panel

31. In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis’ is followed by


a) Statement of Objectives b) Analysis of Data
c) Selection of Research Tools d) Collection of Data

32. The data of research is _______


a) Qualitative only b) Quantitative only c) Neither of them d) Both a and b

33. _______- test is used to prove hypothesis of smaller sample.


a) t b) f c) z d) P

34. _____ tailed test is used when the researcher’s interest is primarily on one side of the issue.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

35. ______ is a part of the universe that can be used as respondents to survey.
a) Frame b) Sample c) Hypothesis d) Population

36. _______ Hypothesis states that there is no relationship between two or more variables
a) Null b) Alternative c) Negative Page d) Positive

37. _______ research helps to solve practical problems.


a) Qualitative b) Applied c) Basic d) Descriptive

38. The final stage in a survey is


a) Field work b) Assignment c) Calculation d) Reporting

39. ______ mean refers to the value obtained by dividing the sum of the values of all items by the
total
a) number of items b) Arithmetic c) Geometric d) Harmonic

40. _______ is used to analyse differences between group means and the associated procedures
a) ANOVA b) Chi square c) Z-test d) correlation

41. Quantitative research involves conducting research using the following :


a) Feelings and hidden emotions, expectations b) Facts, Numbers and numerical data
c) Humour and gratitude d) Ethics, Accuracy and discipline

Ver-C : EC/TC 3 of 10
42. Which of the following best describes quantitative research?
a) the collection of non-numerical data
b) an attempt to confirm the researcher’s hypotheses
c) exploratory research
d) research that attempts to generate a new theory

43. Which of the following includes examples of quantitative variables?


a) age, temperature, income, height
b) grade point average, anxiety level, reading performance
c) gender, religion, ethnic group
d) both a and b

44. Quantitative research only works if


a) You talk to the right number of people
b) You talk to the right type of people
c) You ask the right question and analyse the data you get in the right way
d) All of the above

45. An image, perception or concept that is capable of measurement is called _______


a) Scale b) Hypothesis c) Type d) Variable

46. Why do you need to review the existing literature?


a) To make sure you have a long list of references
b) Because without it, you could never reach the required word-count
c) To help in your general studying
d) To find out what is already known about your area of interest

47. To pursue the research, which of the following is priorly required?


a) Developing a research design
b) Formulating a research question
c) Deciding about the data analysis procedure
d) Formulating a research hypothesis

48. A statement of the quantitative research question should:


a) Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question (the researcher will
address)
b) Help the research in selecting appropriate participants, research methods, measures and
materials
c) Specify the variables of interest
d) None of the above

49. Concept is of two types


a) Abstract and coherent b) Concrete and coherent
c) Abstract and concrete d) None of the above

50 _________ is concerned with discovering and testing certain variables with respect to their
association or disassociation.
a) Exploratory b) Descriptive c) Diagnostic d) Descriptive and diagnostic

Ver-C : EC/TC 4 of 10
PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Electronics and Communication Engineering /
Telecommunication Engineering)
[50 MARKS]

51. Consider two 4-variable functions f1 and f2 which are expressed as :


F1(A, B, C, D) = m(1, 3, 4, 11) + d(2, 7, 8, 12, 14, 15)
F2(A, B, C, D) = m(5, 7, 13, 14, 15)  d(1, 2, 3, 9)
The output function F  F1  F2 can be expressed as
a) m(0, 6, 10) + d(2, 8, 9, 12)
b) m(0, 6) + d(2, 8, 9, 12)
c) m(6, 10) + d(2, 3, 5, 12)
d) m(2, 3, 4, 12, 15) + d(8, 9, 10)

52. The number o 2-to 4 decoders required to implement a BCD to decimal decoder is _____
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 2

53. The characteristic equation of XY flip-flop whose truth table is given by


X Y Q
0 0 0
0 1 Q
1 0 Q
1 1 1
a) (X  Y ) b) XQ + XY + Y Q c) Y  Q d) XQ + Y Q

54. Three MOD – 10 counters are cascaded. Determine the output frequency if the input frequency
is 1KHz.
a) 0.5KHz b) 1KHz c) 1HZ d) 1MHz

55. The number of 2 input NOR gates required to realize the Boolean function F = ab + bc + ac are
a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 7

56. In a signal flow graph lops are said to be un-touching if


a) They do not touch alternate nodes
b) They do not touch any node
c) They do not posses any common node
d) they posses are common node

57. The characteristics equation for a system is given as 2s3 + s2 – 3s + 10 = 0, state why the
system is stable or unstable?
a) stable because all root is in right –half of s-plane
b) unstable because there are two roots in the right-half of S-plane
c) stable because all the roots are in the left-side of S-plane
d) unstable because are root is in the right-half of S-plane

Ver-C : EC/TC 5 of 10
58. Gain margin in the magnitude versus phase plot of G(Jw)  H(jw) is the distance measured in
decibels from
a) The phase cross-over to the critical point at 0dB and – 180
b) The gain cross-over to the critical point at 0dB and – 180
c) The gain cross-over to the point at 0dB and – 90
d) The gain cross-over to the point at 0dB and – 270

59. A compensating networks is added to


a) sleep the locus of the roots constant as a system parameter is varied
b) alter the locus of the roots as a system parameter is varied
c) alter the locus without changing the positive of poles and zero
d) keep the locus of the roots constant and not alter the positive of the poles to zeros

60. The steady-state error is the error where


a) The time period is into less there are microsecond
b) The time period is large and the transient response has decayed
c) The time period is large but the transient response is still persisting
d) The time period is large but there oscillating beahviour of the output

61. Which one of the following determines the enabling and sequencing of the operations?
a) Control unit b) Data-path c) Both a and b d) None

62. In the case of zero-adder instruction method the operands are stored in
a) Registers b) Accumulator c) Push down stack d) Cache

63. If half adders and full adders are implemented using gates, then for the addition of two 17-bit
(using minimum number of gates) the number of half adders and full adders required will be
a) 0, 17 b) 16, 1 c) 1, 16 d) 8, 8

64. What is the range of the exponent E in IEEE 754 double precision (binary 64) format
a) –1022  E  1022 b) –1023  E  1023
c) –1023  E  1022 d) –1022  E  1023

65. Parallel computing can include


a) Single computer with multiple processor
b) Arbitory member of computers connected by a network
c) Combination of both a and b
d) none

66. In 8086 micro processor the following has the highest priority among all types of interrupts
a) DIV.0 b) TYPE255 c) OVERFLOW d) NM1

67. In 8086 the BIU perfects the instruction from memory and store them in _____
a) Register b) Memory c) Queue d) Stack

68. In ARM processor fetching instructions from SRAM takes ______ clock cycles
a) 1 b) 5 c) 16 d) 24

69. In ARM processor ______ is used to organize memory


a) MMU b) MPU c) MCU d) none
Ver-C : EC/TC 6 of 10
70. THUMB instruction is related to ______ bit
a) 16 b) 32 c) 64 d) 08
71. Consider a communication system employing a repeater to compensate for channel loss :
Transmitter  Lossy channel  Amplifier 
In this case, a signal is transmitted through a 10km coaxial line channel which exhibits a loss
of 2dB/km. The transmitted signal power is –30dBw (simply 1milliwatt). Determine the power
at the output of an amplifier that has a gain of 15dB.
a) –65dBw b) –35dBw c) 25dBw d) –25dBw

72. Assume in a stop and wait protocol the bandwidth of the line is 1 Mbps and 1 bit takes 20
milliseconds to make a round trip. If the system data packets are 1000 bits in length. What is
the utilization percentage of the link?
a) 5 b) 20 c) 2 d) 50

73. A telephone subscriber must have SNRdB above 40. What is the minimum number if bits per
sample?
a) 7 b) 5 c) 4 d) 10

74. The probability of bit error of a BFSK modulation scheme with the transmitted signal energy
per bit Eb, in an additive white Gaussian Noise channel having one sided power spectral
density No is :
1  E  1  Eb 
a) erfc b  b) erfc 

2  2 N 0 2  2 N 0 

1 E  1  Eb 
c) erfc b  d) erfc 

2  N0  2  N 0 

75. Two carriers of 2 GHz and 4GHz respectively are frequency modulated by a signal of 10KHz
such that bandwidth of the FM signal in the two cases are same. The peak deviation in the two
cases are in the ratio of :
a) 1 : 8 b) 1 : 2 c) 2 : 1 d) 1 : 1

76. The equation for modified Ampere’s law by Maxwell for time varying field as
  D
a)   H  0 b)   H  J 
t
  
c)   H  Pv d)   H  J
EE – 5 of 6
77. The perfect matched condition for an ideal N-port network, the diagonal elements of s matrix
are
a) Zero’s b) One’s c) Infinity d) None

78. The radiation resistance of a short dipole having length L = 5m at frequency f = 30MHz
a) 10 b) 25 c) 50 d) 75

79. A 50 lossless line connects a matched signal to a load of 100, the VSWR of the load is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 

Ver-C : EC/TC 7 of 10
80. In Yagi antenna, increase in number of directors results in
a) Increases the gain and increase beam width
b) Decreases the gain and increase beam width
c) Decreases the gain and decrease beam width
d) Increases the gain and decrease beam width

81. A photo diode is normally _____ biased and works in _____ quadrant of I –V characteristic

a) forward bias, I b) reverse bias, III c) reverse bias, IV d) forward bias, II

82. On applying on electric field of intensity 10V/cm across a semiconductor at a certain


temperature the average drift velocity of free electrons is measured to be 70m/s electron
mobility is :
a) 7  104cm2/Vs b) 700cm2/Vs c) 70cm2/Vs d) 700cm/Vs

83. The controlling parameters in IGBT is


a) IG b) VGE c) IC d) VCE

84. A MOS capacitor has a high frequency C–V curve at (T = 300K) with ms = 0V and no oxide
charges. The flat band, inversion and accumulation conditions are represented by the points
(As in Figure shown below)

a) P Q R b) Q R P c) R P Q d) Q P R

85. The 2 important characteristics of CMOS devices are :


a) high noise immunity
b) Low static power consumption
c) High resistivity
d) Both high noise immunity and low static power consumption

86. In advanced power supply design, what technique is employed to active ultra-low ripple and
noise in regulated outputs
a) Feed forward compensation
b) Active damping
c) synchronous rectification
d) Capacitance multiplied

87. What advanced technique can be employed in multi-stage MOSFET amplifier to mitigate the
effects of parasitic capacitances and miller effect
a) common gate configuration
b) cascade topology
c) source degeneration
d) Body-effect compensation
Ver-C : EC/TC 8 of 10
88. What advanced technique can be employed in fn generators to active prices frequency control
and stability
a) Phase – Backed Loop (PLL)
b) Voltage – controlled oscillator (VCO)
c) Frequency modulation (VM)
d) Amplitude modulator (AM)

89. When analysis the frequency response of a single–stage BJT amplifier, which factor primarily
determining the upper cut-off frequency
a) Junction capacitance b) Transcondutance (gm)
c) Collector Resistance (RC) d) Early Voltage (VA)

90. Which component in a 555 timer circuit primarily determine the o/p frequency in astable mode
a) Timing Capacitor (C) b) Timing resistor (R)
c) Threshold Voltage (Vth) d) Trigger Voltage (Vtrg)

91. If three resistance each of 9 is connected in delta form, the equivalent resistance converted to
star is :
a) 27 b) 3 c) 5 d) 4.2

92. The resonant frequency in a series resonant circuit is


1 1 1 1
a) b) c) d)
2LC 2 LC 2(LC) 2 4LC

93. 2 port equation of h parameter is :

V1  h11I 2  h12V2 V1  h11I1  h12V2


a) b)
I1  h 21V1  h 22V1 I2  h 21I1  h 22V2

V1  h11I1  h12V2 V1  h11I2  h12V2


c) d)
I2  h 21V1  h 22V2 I2  h 21V1  h 22V2

di(0 )
94. Compute i(0+) and for the circuit given the switch is closed at t = 0.
dt

a) OA and 15A/S b) 1A and 6A/S c) 3A and 8A/S d) 0A and 10A/S

Ver-C : EC/TC 9 of 10
95. Load is replaced by ______ in thevenins theorem and ______ in nortons theorem respectively
a) Open circuit and short circuit
b) Short circuit and open circuit
c) Unchanged and unchanged
d) depends on biasing

t
 aT
96. Find the Fourier transform of the signal x (t )  e u (T)dT

1 1 1
a) x ()    () b) x () 
j(a  j) a j(a  j)

1 1 1
c) x ()    () d) x ()   ()
(a  j) a a


97. Consider the sequence x (n )   (n  4m) , the value of Fourier coefficient X(K) for K = 4
m  
is :
1 1 j
a) X(k )  b) X(k )  c) X(k )  d) = 2 + j2
2 4 2

98. The relation between analog and digital frequency of a Bilinear transformation is
a) inphase b) non-linear c) Bilinear d) out of phase

99. Check whether the system x(n) = n[x(n)]2 is :


a) linear b) time invariant c) delayed system d) time variant

a n , n  0
100. The z – transform of x (n )  
 0, n  0
1 z z2 z(z  1)
a) 1
b) c) d)
1  az az z 1 z 1

Ver-C : EC/TC 10 of 10
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : D

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi


Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. ( Research) May – 2024
Electronics and Communication /
Telecommunication Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES


1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No, branch and branch code are not already printed on the
OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Scientific calculator is only permitted. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary
action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered
for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet and the question paper booklet to the Room Invigilator while
leaving the examination hall.
PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 Marks]

1. In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis’ is followed by


a) Statement of Objectives b) Analysis of Data
c) Selection of Research Tools d) Collection of Data

2. The data of research is _______


a) Qualitative only b) Quantitative only c) Neither of them d) Both a and b

3. _______- test is used to prove hypothesis of smaller sample.


a) t b) f c) z d) P

4. _____ tailed test is used when the researcher’s interest is primarily on one side of the issue.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

5. ______ is a part of the universe that can be used as respondents to survey.


a) Frame b) Sample c) Hypothesis d) Population

6. _______ Hypothesis states that there is no relationship between two or more variables
a) Null b) Alternative c) Negative Page d) Positive

7. _______ research helps to solve practical problems.


a) Qualitative b) Applied c) Basic d) Descriptive

8. The final stage in a survey is


a) Field work b) Assignment c) Calculation d) Reporting

9. ______ mean refers to the value obtained by dividing the sum of the values of all items by the
total
a) number of items b) Arithmetic c) Geometric d) Harmonic

10. _______ is used to analyse differences between group means and the associated procedures
a) ANOVA b) Chi square c) Z-test d) correlation

11. A Hypothesis that develops while planning the research is


a) Null Hypothesis b) Working Hypothesis
c) Relational Hypothesis d) Descriptive Hypothesis

12. The fullform of APA is ______


a) American Physical Association b) American Psychological Association
c) American Psychological Amendment d) American Psychological Agreement

13. Questions in which only two alternatives are possible is called


a) Dichotomous questions b) Open-ended questions
c) Structured questions d) MCQs
Ver-D : EC/TC 1 of 10
14. Questionnaire is a
a) Research method b) Measurement technique
c) Tool for data collection d) Data analysis technique

15. Which of the following order is recommended in the flowchart of the research process?
a) Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem
b) Sampling Design, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis
c) Formulate Hypothesis, Process Data, Identify Research Problem, Sampling Design
d) Identify Research Problem, Formulate Hypothesis, Sampling Design, Process Data

16. If 0 < r < 1 means there is ______


a) Negative correlation b) Positive correlation
c) No correlation d) All of the above

17. _______ is a process of checking errors and omissions in data collection.


a) Editing b) Coding c) Tabulation d) None of these

18. _______ is the difference between highest and lowest value in a series of data.
a) Median b) Range c) Mode d) None of these

19. If Ho is true and we reject it is called


a) Type-I error b) Type-II error c) Standard error d) None of these

20. Sending a Questionnaire to a respondent with a request to complete and return by post is called
a) Interview b) Observation c) A Mail Survey d) Panel

21. Z test is used to test hypothesis when the sample size is ______
a) more than 30 b) less than 30 c) less than 50 d) none of these

22. The mode of 2, 5, 6, 4, 2, 7, 2, 5 is


a) 5 b) 6 c) 2 d) 7

23. Hypothesis should be ______


a) Any statement b) Empirically testable
c) Not empirically testable d) Can’t say

24. What is the purpose of doing research?


a) To identify problem b) To find the solution
c) Both a and b d) None of these

25. Which ONE of these sampling methods is a probability method?


a) Quota b) Judgment
c) Convenience d) Simple random

26. _______ is the first step of the Research process


a) Formulation of a problem b) Collection of Data
c) Editing and Coding d) Selection of a problem

27. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistics,
the test is called
a) One-tailed b) Two-tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed
Ver-D : EC/TC 2 of 10
28. The standard deviation is always ______
a) Negative b) Positive c) Sometimes negative d) None of these

29. Mean, Median and Mode are


a) Measures of deviation b) Measures of dispersion
c) Measures of control tendency d) Measures of central tendency

30. A tentative proposition subject to test is


a) Variable b) Hypothesis c) Data d) Concept

31. Quantitative research involves conducting research using the following :


a) Feelings and hidden emotions, expectations b) Facts, Numbers and numerical data
c) Humour and gratitude d) Ethics, Accuracy and discipline

32. Which of the following best describes quantitative research?


a) the collection of non-numerical data
b) an attempt to confirm the researcher’s hypotheses
c) exploratory research
d) research that attempts to generate a new theory

33. Which of the following includes examples of quantitative variables?


a) age, temperature, income, height
b) grade point average, anxiety level, reading performance
c) gender, religion, ethnic group d) both a and b

34. Quantitative research only works if


a) You talk to the right number of people b) You talk to the right type of people
c) You ask the right question and analyse the data you get in the right way
d) All of the above

35. An image, perception or concept that is capable of measurement is called _______


a) Scale b) Hypothesis c) Type d) Variable

36. Why do you need to review the existing literature?


a) To make sure you have a long list of references
b) Because without it, you could never reach the required word-count
c) To help in your general studying
d) To find out what is already known about your area of interest

37. To pursue the research, which of the following is priorly required?


a) Developing a research design b) Formulating a research question
c) Deciding about the data analysis procedure d) Formulating a research hypothesis

38. A statement of the quantitative research question should:


a) Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question (the researcher will
address)
b) Help the research in selecting appropriate participants, research methods, measures and
materials
c) Specify the variables of interest
d) None of the above
Ver-D : EC/TC 3 of 10
39. Concept is of two types
a) Abstract and coherent b) Concrete and coherent
c) Abstract and concrete d) None of these

40. _________ is concerned with discovering and testing certain variables with respect to their
association or disassociation.
a) Exploratory b) Descriptive
c) Diagnostic d) Descriptive and diagnostic

41. Which of the following research is also known as collaborative research?


a) Analytical research b) Applied research
c) Action research d) Descriptive research

42. Cross-sectional surveys are divided into two types, which are?
a) Exploratory and causal b) Functional and Dysfunctional
c) Relational and logical d) Descriptive and analytical

43. What are the main purposes of data analysis?


a) Description b) Construction of Measurement Scale
c) Generating empirical relationships d) Explanation and prediction

44. __________ involve a set of predetermined questions and highly standardized techniques of
recording?
a) Structured interview b) Unstructured interview
c) Interview guided d) All of these

45. Which of the following is a primary step in social science research?


a) Preparing the Research Design b) Developing the Research Hypothesis
c) Formulation of research problem d) Execution of the Project

46. Find an example of probability sampling.


a) Convenience or accidental sampling b) Purposive or judgmental sampling
c) Quota sampling d) Stratified random sampling

47. Which of the following is not a data collection method?


a) Observation b) Schedules
c) Interview d) Research question

48. The term ‘ethno’ refers to


a) Geographical area b) Social life
c) Cultural group d) People or culture

49. Ogives is also known as?


a) Cumulative frequency curves b) Frequency distributions
c) Transcendental Curve d) All of these

50 Which of the following strategies is used to determine how common, widespread, or pervasive a
certain trait, phenomenon, attitude, or opinion is in a demographic population?
a) Cross-sectional descriptive survey b) Factorial survey method
c) Total survey design d) Pooled surveys

Ver-D : EC/TC 4 of 10
PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Electronics and Communication Engineering /
Telecommunication Engineering)
[50 MARKS]

51. Consider a communication system employing a repeater to compensate for channel loss :
Transmitter  Lossy channel  Amplifier 
In this case, a signal is transmitted through a 10km coaxial line channel which exhibits a loss
of 2dB/km. The transmitted signal power is –30dBw (simply 1milliwatt). Determine the power
at the output of an amplifier that has a gain of 15dB.
a) –65dBw b) –35dBw c) 25dBw d) –25dBw

52. Assume in a stop and wait protocol the bandwidth of the line is 1 Mbps and 1 bit takes 20
milliseconds to make a round trip. If the system data packets are 1000 bits in length. What is
the utilization percentage of the link?
a) 5 b) 20 c) 2 d) 50

53. A telephone subscriber must have SNRdB above 40. What is the minimum number if bits per
sample?
a) 7 b) 5 c) 4 d) 10

54. The probability of bit error of a BFSK modulation scheme with the transmitted signal energy
per bit Eb, in an additive white Gaussian Noise channel having one sided power spectral
density No is :
1  E  1  Eb 
a) erfc b  b) erfc 

2  2N 0  2  2N 0 
1 E  1  Eb 
c) erfc b  d) erfc 

2  N0  2  N0 

55. Two carriers of 2 GHz and 4GHz respectively are frequency modulated by a signal of 10KHz
such that bandwidth of the FM signal in the two cases are same. The peak deviation in the two
cases are in the ratio of :
a) 1 : 8 b) 1 : 2 c) 2 : 1 d) 1 : 1

56. The equation for modified Ampere’s law by Maxwell for time varying field as
  D
a)   H  0 b)   H  J 
t
  
c)   H  Pv d)   H  J

57. The perfect matched condition for an ideal N-port network, the diagonal elements of s matrix
are
a) Zero’s b) One’s c) Infinity d) None

Ver-D : EC/TC 5 of 10
58. The radiation resistance of a short dipole having length L = 5m at frequency f = 30MHz
a) 10 b) 25 c) 50 d) 75

59. A 50 lossless line connects a matched signal to a load of 100, the VSWR of the load is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 

60. In Yagi antenna, increase in number of directors results in


a) Increases the gain and increase beam width
b) Decreases the gain and increase beam width
c) Decreases the gain and decrease beam width
d) Increases the gain and decrease beam width

61. If three resistance each of 9 is connected in delta form, the equivalent resistance converted to
star is :
a) 27 b) 3 c) 5 d) 4.2

62. The resonant frequency in a series resonant circuit is


1 1 1 1
a) b) c) d)
2LC 2 LC 2(LC) 2 4LC

63. 2 port equation of h parameter is :

V1  h11I 2  h12V2 V1  h11I1  h12V2


a) b)
I1  h 21V1  h 22V1 I2  h 21I1  h 22V2

V1  h11I1  h12V2 V1  h11I2  h12V2


c) d)
I2  h 21V1  h 22V2 I2  h 21V1  h 22V2

64. di(0 )
Compute i(0+) and for the circuit given the switch is closed at t = 0.
dt

a) OA and 15A/S b) 1A and 6A/S c) 3A and 8A/S d) 0A and 10A/S

65. Load is replaced by ______ in thevenins theorem and ______ in nortons theorem respectively
a) Open circuit and short circuit b) Short circuit and open circuit
c) Unchanged and unchanged d) depends on biasing

Ver-D : EC/TC 6 of 10
66. t
 aT
Find the Fourier transform of the signal x (t )  e u (T)dT

1 1 1
a) x ()    () b) x () 
j(a  j) a j(a  j)

1 1 1
c) x ()    () d) x ()   ()
(a  j) a a

67. 
Consider the sequence x (n )   (n  4m) , the value of Fourier coefficient X(K) for K = 4
m  
is :
1 1 j
a) X(k )  b) X(k )  c) X(k )  d) = 2 + j2
2 4 2

68. The relation between analog and digital frequency of a Bilinear transformation is
a) inphase b) non-linear c) Bilinear d) out of phase

69. Check whether the system x(n) = n[x(n)]2 is :


a) linear b) time invariant c) delayed system d) time variant

70. a n , n  0
The z – transform of x (n )  
 0, n  0
1 z z2 z(z  1)
a) 1
b) c) d)
1  az az z 1 z 1

71. Which one of the following determines the enabling and sequencing of the operations?
a) Control unit b) Data-path c) Both a and b d) None

72. In the case of zero-adder instruction method the operands are stored in
a) Registers b) Accumulator c) Push down stack d) Cache

73. If half adders and full adders are implemented using gates, then for the addition of two 17-bit
(using minimum number of gates) the number of half adders and full adders required will be
a) 0, 17 b) 16, 1 c) 1, 16 d) 8, 8

74. What is the range of the exponent E in IEEE 754 double precision (binary 64) format
a) –1022  E  1022 b) –1023  E  1023
c) –1023  E  1022 d) –1022  E  1023

75. Parallel computing can include


a) Single computer with multiple processor
b) Arbitory member of computers connected by a network
c) Combination of both a and b d) none

76. In 8086 micro processor the following has the highest priority among all types of interrupts
a) DIV.0 b) TYPE255 c) OVERFLOW d) NM1
Ver-D : EC/TC 7 of 10
77. In 8086 the BIU perfects the instruction from memory and store them in _____
a) Register b) Memory c) Queue d) Stack

78. In ARM processor fetching instructions from SRAM takes ______ clock cycles
a) 1 b) 5 c) 16 d) 24

79. In ARM processor ______ is used to organize memory


a) MMU b) MPU c) MCU d) none

80. THUMB instruction is related to ______ bit


a) 16 b) 32 c) 64 d) 08
81. Consider two 4-variable functions f1 and f2 which are expressed as :
F1(A, B, C, D) = m(1, 3, 4, 11) + d(2, 7, 8, 12, 14, 15)
F2(A, B, C, D) = m(5, 7, 13, 14, 15)  d(1, 2, 3, 9)
The output function F  F1  F2 can be expressed as
a) m(0, 6, 10) + d(2, 8, 9, 12) b) m(0, 6) + d(2, 8, 9, 12)
c) m(6, 10) + d(2, 3, 5, 12) d) m(2, 3, 4, 12, 15) + d(8, 9, 10)

82. The number o 2-to 4 decoders required to implement a BCD to decimal decoder is _____
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 2

83. The characteristic equation of XY flip-flop whose truth table is given by


X Y Q
0 0 0
0 1 Q
1 0 Q
1 1 1
a) (X  Y ) b) XQ + XY + Y Q c) Y  Q d) XQ + Y Q

84. Three MOD – 10 counters are cascaded. Determine the output frequency if the input frequency
is 1KHz.
a) 0.5KHz b) 1KHz c) 1HZ d) 1MHz

85. The number of 2 input NOR gates required to realize the Boolean function F = ab + bc + ac are
a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 7

86. In a signal flow graph lops are said to be un-touching if


a) They do not touch alternate nodes b) They do not touch any node
c) They do not posses any common node d) they posses are common node

87. The characteristics equation for a system is given as 2s3 + s2 – 3s + 10 = 0, state why the
system is stable or unstable?
a) stable because all root is in right –half of s-plane
b) unstable because there are two roots in the right-half of S-plane
c) stable because all the roots are in the left-side of S-plane
d) unstable because are root is in the right-half of S-plane

Ver-D : EC/TC 8 of 10
88. Gain margin in the magnitude versus phase plot of G(Jw)  H(jw) is the distance measured in
decibels from
a) The phase cross-over to the critical point at 0dB and – 180
b) The gain cross-over to the critical point at 0dB and – 180
c) The gain cross-over to the point at 0dB and – 90
d) The gain cross-over to the point at 0dB and – 270

89. A compensating networks is added to


a) sleep the locus of the roots constant as a system parameter is varied
b) alter the locus of the roots as a system parameter is varied
c) alter the locus without changing the positive of poles and zero
d) keep the locus of the roots constant and not alter the positive of the poles to zeros

90. The steady-state error is the error where


a) The time period is into less there are microsecond
b) The time period is large and the transient response has decayed
c) The time period is large but the transient response is still persisting
d) The time period is large but there oscillating beahviour of the output

91. A photo diode is normally _____ biased and works in _____ quadrant of I –V characteristic

a) forward bias, I b) reverse bias, III c) reverse bias, IV d) forward bias, II

92. On applying on electric field of intensity 10V/cm across a semiconductor at a certain


temperature the average drift velocity of free electrons is measured to be 70m/s electron
mobility is :

a) 7  104cm2/Vs b) 700cm2/Vs c) 70cm2/Vs d) 700cm/Vs

93. The controlling parameters in IGBT is


a) IG b) VGE c) IC d) VCE

94. A MOS capacitor has a high frequency C–V curve at (T = 300K) with ms = 0V and no oxide
charges. The flat band, inversion and accumulation conditions are represented by the points
(As in Figure shown below)

a) P Q R b) Q R P c) R P Q d) Q P R

95. The 2 important characteristics of CMOS devices are :


a) high noise immunity b) Low static power consumption
c) High resistivity
d) Both high noise immunity and low static power consumption
Ver-D : EC/TC 9 of 10
96. In advanced power supply design, what technique is employed to active ultra-low ripple and
noise in regulated outputs
a) Feed forward compensation b) Active damping
c) synchronous rectification m d) Capacitance multiplied

97. What advanced technique can be employed in multi-stage MOSFET amplifier to mitigate the
effects of parasitic capacitances and miller effect
a) common gate configuration
b) cascade topology
c) source degeneration
d) Body-effect compensation

98. What advanced technique can be employed in fn generators to active prices frequency control
and stability
a) Phase – Backed Loop (PLL)
b) Voltage – controlled oscillator (VCO)
c) Frequency modulation (VM)
d) Amplitude modulator (AM)

99. When analysis the frequency response of a single–stage BJT amplifier, which factor primarily
determining the upper cut-off frequency
a) Junction capacitance b) Transcondutance (gm)
c) Collector Resistance (RC) d) Early Voltage (VA)

100. Which component in a 555 timer circuit primarily determine the o/p frequency in astable mode
a) Timing Capacitor (C) b) Timing resistor (R)
c) Threshold Voltage (Vth) d) Trigger Voltage (Vtrg)

*****

Ver-D : EC/TC 10 of 10

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