Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi: VTU-ETR Seat No

VTU-ETR Seat No.
Question Paper Version : A
Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) November – 2022
Aerospace/Aeronautical Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
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question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 MARKS]
1. Research conducted to solve an immediate problem is
a) Fundamental Research b) Analytical Research
c) Action Research d) Survey
2. Research pertaining to pure mathematics or natural laws is the example of

a) Qualitative Research b) Empirical Research
c) Analytical Research d) Fundamental Research
3. Research to study the effect of certain Policies, Plans and Program is

a) Applied Research b) Descriptive Research
c) Evaluation Research d) Causal Research
4. The first step of Research process is

a) Research design b) Analysis of data
c) Review of literature d) Identification of research problem
5. Which of the following helps to compare two or more variables

a) Classification b) Tabulation c) Survey d) Literature review
6. Choose the best answer, which is the most reliable source of information for your literature
review :
a) A TV documentary b) A Newspaper article
c) A peer reviewed research article d) A relevant chapter from a text book
7. Which literature review involves time line based collection of literature review
a) Narrative method b) Systematic method
c) Meta – analysis method of literature review
d) Meta – synthesis method of literature review.
8. Narrative literature review method is also known as

a) Advanced method b) Scientific method
c) Traditional method d) Systematic method.
9. A review of the literature should sort out the information into a _____framework
a) Conceptual b) Selective c) Theoretical d) Universal
10. The internet should not be used for finding published literature
a) True b) False
11. Which one among the following is the most comprehensive source of population data?
a) National sample surveys b) Demographic health surveys
c) National family health surveys d) Census
12. Which one is called non – probability sampling?

a) Cluster sampling b) Systematic sampling
c) Stratified sampling d) Quota sampling
VER A : AE – 1 of 10
13. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement
a) Interval b) Ratio c) Nominal d) Ordinal
14. Absolute zero exists in
a) Ratio scale b) Interval scale c) Nominal scale d) Ordinal scale
15. Which data is cheaper to collect?

a) Primary data b) Collective data c) New data d) Secondary data
16. After the data has been processed and analysed, the research process requires
a) Interpretation of data b) Presentation of data
c) Reporting of data d) Testing of data
17. The process of marking segments of data with symbols, descriptive words or category names is
known as
a) Concurring b) Coding c) Coloring d) Segmentation
18. The most repeated value in the series is called as

a) Mean b) Mode c) Median d) Range
19. A study in statistics that helps to interpret the variability of data known as
a) Standard deviation b) The measure of central tendency
c) The measure of dispersion d) None of the above
20. For a frequency distribution of a variable X, mean = 32 and median = 30. The distribution is
a) Positive skewed b) Negatively skewed c) Mesokurtic d) Platykurtic
21. Which among the following is a probability sampling method?

a) Judgemental sampling b) Quota sampling
c) Simple random sampling d) Convenience sampling
22. The difference between a static and the parameters is called as

a) Non - random b) Probability c) Sampling error d) Random
23. Sampling error increases as we increases the sampling size

a) True b) False c) True to some extent d) None of the above
24. Population under research study is referred as

a) Standard Population b) Final Population
c) Infinite Population d) Target Population
25. The process of finding true but unknown value of population parameter is called as
a) Statistical inference b) Estimation
c) Guess d) Biased
26. Arrange the following steps in the process of hypothesis testing in proper sequence
A) Select the level of significance B) Setup null and alternative hypothesis
C) Establish the decision rule D) Performance computations
E) Select test statistics F) Draw conclusion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a) A, B, C, D, E, F b) A, B, E, D, C, F c) B, A, C, D, E, F d) B, A, E, C, D, F
27. Which among the following is non parametric statistics?
a) t - test b) F - test
c) 2 - test d) Spearman’s rank order correlation
28. Which test is normally applied for qualitative data :

a) ‘ t’ test b) ‘F’ test c) X2 Chi – square test d) ‘z’ test
29. An investigator commits Type – 1 error in testing hypothesis when he / she

a) Accepts null hypothesis when it is false b) Rejects null hypothesis when it is true
c) Accepts null hypothesis when it is true d) Rejects null hypothesis when it is false
30. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistic,
the test is called
a) One tailed b) Two tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed
31. What is the function of a post test in ANOVA

a) Describe those groups that have reliable difference between group means
b) Set the critical value for the ‘F’ test (or Chi – Square)
c) Determine if any statistically significant group differences have occurred
d) None of these
32. In ANOVA procedure ‘Factor’ refers to

a) The dependent variable b) The independent variable
c) Different levels of a treatment d) The critical value of F
33. In the ANOVA ‘treatment’ refers to

a) Experimental units b) Different levels of a factor
c) a factor d) Applying antibiotic to a wound
34. When conducting an ANOVA , F DATA will always fall within what range?
a) Between 0 and infinity b) Between 0 and 1
c) Between negative infinity and infinity d) Between 1 and infinity
35. In one way ANOVA which of the following is used within F – ratio as a measurement of the
variance F individual observations
a) SSE b) MSE c) MSRT d) None of the above
36. In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is

a) The independent variable b) The dependent variable
c) Usually denoted by x d) Usually denoted by r
37. If the regression equation is equal to Y = 23.6 – 54.2x, then 23.6 is the ____ while – 54.2 is the
____ of the regression line.
a) Slope, intercept b) Slope, regression coefficient
c) Intercept , slope d) Radius, intercept
38. How many coefficients do you need to estimate in a simple linear regression model (one
independent variable).
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
39. Which of the following is not the part of the exploratory factor analysis process
a) Extracting factors
b) Determining the number of factors before the analysis.
c) Rotating the factors d) Refining and interpreting the factors
40. If a researcher wanted to determine which variable were associated with which factors she/he
would look at
a) Factor scores b) Factor loadings c) Factor d) Factor associations
41. What is a complementary event for “At least one head appears” if two coins are tossed
simultaneously?
a) Exactly one head appears b) Atleast one tail appears
c) Atmost one tail appears d) None head appears
42. A bag contains 7 Red and 4 Blue Balls. Two Balls are drawn at random with replacement. The
probability of getting the Balls of different colors is :
a) 28/121 b) 56/121 c) ½ d) None of the above
43. If two coins are tossed simultaneously, what is the probability of getting atleast one head?
a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/4 d) 3/4
44. What are Independent Events?

a) If the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another
b) If the outcome of one event affects the outcome of another
c) Any one of the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another.
d) Any one of the outcome of one event does affect the outcome of another
45. In class, 30% of students study Hindi, 45% study Maths and 15% study Both Hindi and Maths.
If a student is randomly selected, what is the probability that he/she study Hindi and Maths?
a) 1/5 b) 3/5 c) 2/5 d) 2/7
46. The normal distribution

a) Mean = Variance = 1 b) Standard deviation = Variance = 0
c) Mean = 0 , Variance = 1 d) Mean = Standard deviation
47. The shape of normal distribution curve

a) Bell shaped b) Flat c) Circular d) Spilled
48. In a Binomial distribution, if ‘n’ is the number of trials and ‘p’ is the probability success, then
the mean value is
a) np b) n c) p d) np (1-p)
49. If ‘m’ is the Poisson distribution, the standard deviation is

a) (sqrt{m}) b) m2 c) m d) m/2
50. The mean of hypergeometric distribution is

a) n* K / N-1 b) n* K-1 / N c) n-1* K / N d) n* K / N
PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Aerospace/Aeronautical Engineering)
[50 MARKS]
51. Bernoulli’s equation is applied to

a) Venturimeter b) Orifice meter c) Pitotube meter d) All of the above
52. In a stream line steady flow, two points A and B on a stream line are 1m apart and the flow
velocity varies uniformly from 2m/s to 5m/s. What is the acceleration of fluid at B?
a) 3m/s2 b) 6m/s2 c) 9m/s2 d) 15m/s2
53. A vertical triangular plane area, submerged in water with one side in the free surface, vertex
downward and latitude ‘h’ was the pressure centre below the free surface is given by
a) h/4 b) h/3 c) 2h/3 d) h/2
54. Consider a straight wing with rectangular planform of aspect ratio 10 and with a NACA 0012
airfoil. The span effectiveness factor for this wing is 0.95. Assume the flow to be
incompressible and governed by thin airfoil theory. The lift co-efficient of the wing at an angle
of attack of 6 deg is _____
a) 0.752 b) 0.925 c) 0.543 d) 0.679
55. A pilot was flying a single engine propeller aircraft and maintain a steady level flight at a lift
co-efficient, CL = 0.5 at an altitude of 500m. Due to some emergency at the same altitude the
plot had to full deploy the landing gear. If the pilot wants to maintain steady level flight at the
same CL = 0.5 and at the same altitude, which of the following control action should the pilot
undertake :
a) move elevator up and decrease the throttle
b) move elevator up and increase the throttle
c) move elevator down and increase the throttle
d) move elevator down and decrease the throttle
56. The pitch angle and the angle of attack for a fixed wing aircraft are equal during
a) wings level constant altitude flight
b) uncelebrated flight in climb
c) unaccelerated flight in descent
d) landing
57. The damping ratio in phugoid motion for gliders is usually less compared to powered aircraft
because
a) gliders are unpowered
b) gliders are light
c) lift to drag ratio is higher for gliders
d) gliders fly at low speed.
58. The load factor of an aircraft turning at a constant altitude is 2. The co-efficient of lift required
for turning flight as compared to level flight at the same speed will be
a) same b) half c) double d) four times
59. A pithin airfoil is mounted in a low speed subsonic wind tunnel, in which the mach number is
0.1. At a point on the airfoil, the pressure co-efficient is measured to be –1.2. If the flow
velocity is increased such that the free-stream Mach number is 0.6, the pressure co-efficient at
the same point on the airfoil will approximately be :
a) –3.5 b) –2.9 c) –1.5 d) –0.75
60. A NACA 0012 airfoil has a trailing edge flap. The airfoil is operating at an angle of attack of
5 degrees with un-deflected flap. If the flap is row deflected by 5 degrees downwards, the CL
Versus  curve
a) shift right and slope increases
b) shift left and slope increases
c) shift lift and slope stays the same
d) shift right and slope stays the same
61. A Rod of length ‘L’ and diameter ‘D’ subjected to tensile load ‘P’ which of the following is
sufficient to calculate the resulting change in diameter
a) Young’s modulus
b) Shear modulus
c) Poisson’s Ratio
d) Both Young’s modulus and shear modulus
62. Maximum bending moment for simply supported beam with udl over entire length of beam. If
W = Weight of bema and L = length of beam is
a) WL/8 b) WL2/8 c) WL/4 d) WL2/4
63. Magnitude of stress induced in a shaft due to applied torque varies.

a) From maximum at the centre to zero at the circumference
b) From zero at the centre to maximum at the circumference
c) From maximum at the centre to minimum but not zero at the circumference
d) From minimum but not zero at the centre to zero at the circumference
64. Virtual work refer to

a) Virtual work done by Virtual force
b) Actual work done by Actual force
c) Virtual work done by Actual force
d) Actual work done by Virtual force
65. Strain Energy stored in a material when it is strained with in is elastic limit is termed as
a) Impedance b) Elasticity c) Resilience d) Toughness
66. The allowable stress amplitude for low carbon steel is  225N/mm2 and its ultimate tensile
stress is 750N/mm2. The steel is subjected to a repeated cycle of stress in which the maximum
stress is zero. As per Goodman the safe range of stress based is :
a) 150N/mm2 b) 246N/mm2 c) 346N/mm2 d) 422N/mm2
67. There need be no connection between any unit load system and applied load system, and each
unit load system must be linearly independent of all other unit load systems used in that
analysis of the indeterminate structure
a) Both the statement are incorrect
b) Both the statement are correct
c) First statement is correct but second is wrong
d) First statement is incorrect but second is correct
68. The dimension of a cross section of a beam is shown in below diagram. If the beam is
subjected to negatives bending moment of 100kN/m applied in a vertical plane, then the
distribution of direct stresses through the depth of the section is :
a) 39N/mm2(Tension), 39N/mm2 (Compression)

b) 50N/mm2(Compression), 50N/mm2(Tension)
c) 100N/mm2(Compression), 100N/mm2(Tension)
d) 78N/mm2(Tension), 78N/mm2 (Compression)
69. An aircraft wing is idealized as a cantilever beam of constant width and length l with a tip
mass weight W(Newton’s) and has a uniformly distributed loading of q0(Newton’s/m) as
shown in below diagram Flexural rigidity = EI and q0l = low
The upward deflection of the tip of the aircraft wing under the given loading can b expressed
as:
Wl
K
EI
The value of K is _____. (two decimal)
a) 1 b) 0.91 c) 10 d) 91
70. An aluminum (2024 – T651) split beam has following dimensions :

h = 1  10 –2m, t = 2  10–2m and a = 5  10 –2m. If KIC = 24  10 6Pa m , v = 0.3, then the
critical load Pcr that would cause fracture is :
a) 1.32  103N b) 2.64  10 3N c) 3.96  103N d) 5.28 103N
71. Choose the correct statement

a) in free expansion, the work down = Pdv
b) in free expansion, enthalpy of fluid changes during the process
c) in adiabatic expansion, the heat is supplied or rejected to the surrounding
d) in free expansion, the external heat supplied is zero and external work done is also zero
72. For the same expansion ratio, work done by the gas in case of adiabatic process is
a) more than the work done in case of isothermal process
b) less than the work done in case of isothermal process
c) same as in case of isothermal process
d) none of the above
73. Second law of thermodynamics defines
a) Heat b) Entropy c) Enthalpy d) Work
74. The efficiency of the Carnot cycle may be increased by

a) Increasing the highest temperature
b) Decreasing the lowest temperature
c) Increasing the lowest temperature
d) both (a) and (b)
75. In which of the following cycles, a heat exchanger is used?

a) Stirling cycle b) Diesel cycle c) Carnot cycle d) Otto cycle
76. The working of jet propulsion is based on

a) impulse principle
b) centrifugal principle
c) reaction principle
d) centripetal principle
77. The exit blade angle (2) for a forward curved blade should be
a) > 90 b) = 90 c) < 90 d) can be any angle
78. The propulsive efficiency of a turbojet engine as a function of speed ratio,  is given by
1  1  2 2
a) b) c) d)
2 2 1  1 
79. In the axial flow compressor the absolute velocity in the stator
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Initially increases and then decreases
d) remains constant
80. The purpose of any aircraft gas turbine inlet is to provide

a) Sufficient air supply to the compressor
b) to have minimum drag force
c) reduction in velocity
d) all of the above
81. Which of the following specification is used in manufacturing fuselage, oil tank and Wings of
an aircraft?
a) 1111 – Z b) 2024 – T4 c) 2011 – X2 d) 1214 – A
82. Non – Metallic matenals are primarily used in manufacturing of

a) Fuselage
b) Engine
c) Wing tips and stabilizer top
d) Seats
83. Which of the following is not an aluminium alloy?

a) Al - Sc b) Al – Zn c) Al - Mn d) Al – U
84. Which of the following is not true about an airframe made with carbon – fiber composite?
a) Decrease drag
b) Decrease thrust
c) Higher cabin pressurization
d) Higher Wing aspect ratio
85. What is the approximate ratio of fatigue strength to the tensile strength?
a) 1 : 2 b) 1 : 3 c) 1: 4 d) 2 : 1
86. A statistically–stable aircraft has a C L   5 ( is measured in radius,  = angle of attack). The

co-efficient of moment of the aircraft about the centre of gravity is given as C M eg  0.05  4 .
The mean aerodynamic chord of the aircraft wing is 1m. The location (positive towards more)
of the neutral point of the aircraft form the center of gravity is _____ (in m)
a) –0.8 b) –0.6 c) –0.7 d) –0.5
87. The pilot of a conventional airplane that is flying steady and level at some altitude, deflects the
port side aileron up and the starboard aileron down. The aircraft will then
a) pitch nose up
b) roll with starboard wing up
c) pitch, nose down
d) roll with the port wing up
88. The span–wire distribution of circulation over a finite wing of span b = 10m is
2
I( y)  I 1   2 y  of I  20m 2/ s and the free stream density and speed are 1.2kg/m3 and
0
 b 
100m/s respectively, the total lift is _____ kN
a) 17.75kN b) 18.85kN c) 21.21kN d) 15.15kN
89. The range and endurance are proportional to which of the following factors?
a) fuel flow b) net thrust c) bypass ratio d) airspeed
dH
90. The value of specific climb when the value of  1 and the fuel flow is 833.33kg is _____
dt
a) 0.0013ft/kg b) 0.0012ft/kg c) 0.0019ft/kg d) 0.002ft/kg
91. According to classical rocket equation, the maximum change of velocity of the vehicle (∆V)
with no external forces acting, Does not depend upon
a) Effective exhaust velocity (ISP go)
b) Angular momentum (L)
c) Mass ratio (m0/mf)
d) Specific Impulse (ISP)
92. Which of the following maneuver causes vertical climb in rockets

a) Leopold’s maneuvers
b) Aerobatic maneuvers
c) Orbital maneuvers
d) Pitchover maneuvers
93. In solid propellant rockets, the solid grain in the shape of a cylinder (or) sphere causes
a) Progressive Burn
b) Degressive Burn
c) Neutral Burn
d) None of the above
94. Which value of , results in Keperian orbits,

a)  = 0 b)  > 0 c)   1 d)  << 1
95. Beam – Powered propulsion is a concept of rocket propulsion that can aid in
a) multi-stage rocket launch
b) single stage to orbit launch
c) orbital transfer maneuvers
96. In an instrument landing system the purpose of Glideslope antenna is used for providing
a) Horizontal Guidance
b) Vertical Guidance
c) Both Horizontal and Vertical
d) Visual Guidance
97. In digital FBW system the aircraft motion sensors send the feedback signal of the aircraft’s
____ to the Flight control computer
a) Height and airspeed
b) Control surface demand
c) Angular and linear motion
d) Forces and moments
98. In the air speed indicator flight instrument, the indicator displays the
a) Difference between pitot and static pressure
b) Difference between pressure in aneroid capsule and atmospheric pressure
c) Static pressure
d) Total pressure
99. Convert the decimal number 26 10 into its binary equivalent and also convert the binary number
01101012 into its decimal equivalent
a) 11010 2, 5310 b) 101001 2, 4710
c) 1100102 5710 d) 101101 2, 9110
100. In the Hall effect Tachometer, the transducer varies its output _____ when the magnetic field
varies
a) current b) flux c) charge d) voltage
VER A : AE – 10 of 10
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : B


bubble only.
is prohibited.
evaluation process.
PART – I
[50 MARKS]
simultaneously?
a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/4 d) 3/4

a) 1/5 b) 3/5 c) 2/5 d) 2/7


the mean value is



d) None of these
VER B : AE – 1 of 10


a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
would look at



known as





review :
a) True b) False




c) Guess d) Biased



the test is called
PART – II
[50 MARKS]

a) Progressive Burn b) Degressive Burn c) Neutral Burn d) None of the
above

a)  = 0 b)  > 0 c)   1 d)  << 1
d) Visual Guidance
c) Static pressure
d) Total pressure
a) 11010 2, 5310 b) 101001 2, 4710
c) 1100102 5710 d) 101101 2, 9110
varies
an aircraft?
a) 1111 – Z b) 2024 – T4 c) 2011 – X2 d) 1214 – A

a) Fuselage b) Engine
c) Wing tips and stabilizer top d) Seats

a) Decrease drag
b) Decrease thrust
a) 1 : 2 b) 1 : 3 c) 1: 4 d) 2 : 1

co-efficient of moment of the aircraft about the centre of gravity is given as CM eg  0.05  4 .
a) –0.8 b) –0.6 c) –0.7 d) –0.5
a) pitch nose up
c) pitch, nose down
2
0
 b 
a) 17.75kN b) 18.85kN c) 21.21kN d) 15.15kN

70. dH
The value of specific climb when the value of  1 and the fuel flow is 833.33kg is _____
dt
a) 0.0013ft/kg
b) 0.0012ft/kg
c) 0.0019ft/kg
d) 0.002ft/kg
b) Shear modulus
a) WL/8 b) WL2/8 c) WL/4 d) WL2/4


a) Impedance b) Elasticity
c) Resilience d) Toughness
a) 150N/mm2 b) 246N/mm2
2
c) 346N/mm d) 422N/mm2

as:
Wl
K
EI
a) 1 b) 0.91 c) 10 d) 91

a) 1.32  103N b) 2.64  10 3N c) 3.96  103N d) 5.28 103N

a) 3m/s2 b) 6m/s2 c) 9m/s2 d) 15m/s2
a) h/4 b) h/3 c) 2h/3 d) h/2
a) 0.752 b) 0.925 c) 0.543 d) 0.679
undertake :
d) landing
because
a) –3.5 b) –2.9 c) –1.5 d) –0.75
A NACA 0012 airfoil has a trailing edge flap. The airfoil is operating at an angle of attack of
90. 5 degrees with un-deflected flap. If the flap is row deflected by 5 degrees downwards, the CL
Versus  curve



d) both (a) and (b)


1  1  2 2
a) b) c) d)
2 2 1  1 
a) Increases
b) Decreases
d) remains constant

d) all of the above
VER B : AE – 10 of 10
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : C


bubble only.
is prohibited.
evaluation process.
PART – I
[50 MARKS]



c) Guess d) Biased



the test is called
simultaneously?
VER C : AE – 1 of 10
a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/4 d) 3/4

a) 1/5 b) 3/5 c) 2/5 d) 2/7


the mean value is



d) None of these



a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
would look at




known as




review :

a) True b) False
PART – II
[50 MARKS]



d) both (a) and (b)


1  1  2 2
a) b) c) d)
2 2 1  1 
a) Increases
b) Decreases
d) remains constant
d) all of the above

a) Progressive Burn b) Degressive Burn
c) Neutral Burn d) None of the above

a)  = 0 b)  > 0 c)   1 d)  << 1
d) Visual Guidance
c) Static pressure
d) Total pressure
a) 11010 2, 5310 b) 101001 2, 4710
c) 1100102 5710 d) 101101 2, 9110
varies
an aircraft?
a) 1111 – Z b) 2024 – T4 c) 2011 – X2 d) 1214 – A

a) Fuselage
b) Engine
d) Seats

a) Decrease drag
b) Decrease thrust
a) 1 : 2 b) 1 : 3 c) 1: 4 d) 2 : 1

co-efficient of moment of the aircraft about the centre of gravity is given as CM eg  0.05  4 .
a) –0.8 b) –0.6 c) –0.7 d) –0.5
a) pitch nose up
c) pitch, nose down
2
0
 b 
a) 17.75kN b) 18.85kN c) 21.21kN d) 15.15kN
80. dH
dt
a) 0.0013ft/kg b) 0.0012ft/kg
c) 0.0019ft/kg d) 0.002ft/kg
b) Shear modulus
a) WL/8 b) WL2/8
c) WL/4 d) WL2/4


a) 150N/mm2 b) 246N/mm2
c) 346N/mm2 d) 422N/mm2

as:
Wl
K
EI
a) 1 b) 0.91 c) 10 d) 91

a) 1.32  103N b) 2.64  10 3N c) 3.96  103N d) 5.28 103N

a) 3m/s2 b) 6m/s2 c) 9m/s2 d) 15m/s2
a) h/4 b) h/3 c) 2h/3 d) h/2
a) 0.752 b) 0.925 c) 0.543 d) 0.679
undertake :
d) landing
because
a) –3.5 b) –2.9 c) –1.5 d) –0.75
Versus  curve
VER C : AE – 10 of 10
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : D


bubble only.
is prohibited.
evaluation process.
PART – I
[50 MARKS]
d) None of these



a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
would look at

VER D : AE – 1 of 10


review :

a) True b) False
simultaneously?
a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/4 d) 3/4

a) 1/5 b) 3/5 c) 2/5 d) 2/7


the mean value is






c) Guess d) Biased


the test is called




known as

VER D: AE – 4 of 10
PART – II
[50 MARKS]
an aircraft?
a) 1111 – Z b) 2024 – T4 c) 2011 – X2 d) 1214 – A

a) Fuselage
b) Engine
d) Seats

a) Decrease drag
b) Decrease thrust
a) 1 : 2 b) 1 : 3 c) 1: 4 d) 2 : 1

co-efficient of moment of the aircraft about the centre of gravity is given as C M eg  0.05  4 .
a) –0.8 b) –0.6 c) –0.7 d) –0.5
a) pitch nose up
c) pitch, nose down
2
0
 b 
a) 17.75kN b) 18.85kN c) 21.21kN d) 15.15kN

60. dH
dt
a) 0.0013ft/kg b) 0.0012ft/kg c) 0.0019ft/kg d) 0.002ft/kg

a) 3m/s2 b) 6m/s2 c) 9m/s2 d) 15m/s2
a) h/4 b) h/3 c) 2h/3 d) h/2
a) 0.752 b) 0.925 c) 0.543 d) 0.679
undertake :
d) landing
because
a) –3.5 b) –2.9 c) –1.5 d) –0.75
Versus  curve

a) Progressive Burn b) Degressive Burn
c) Neutral Burn d) None of the above

a)  = 0 b)  > 0 c)   1 d)  << 1
d) Visual Guidance
c) Static pressure
d) Total pressure
a) 11010 2, 5310
b) 1010012, 47 10
c) 1100102 5710
d) 1011012, 91 10
varies



d) both (a) and (b)


1  1  2 2
a) b) c) d)
2 2 1  1 
a) Increases
b) Decreases
d) remains constant

d) all of the above
b) Shear modulus
a) WL/8 b) WL2/8
c) WL/4 d) WL2/4


a) 150N/mm2 b) 246N/mm2
2
c) 346N/mm d) 422N/mm2

as:
Wl
K
EI
a) 1 b) 0.91 c) 10 d) 91

a) 1.32  103N b) 2.64  10 3N c) 3.96  103N d) 5.28 103N
VER D : AE – 10 of 10

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VTU-ETR Seat No.

Question Paper Version : A

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

2. Research pertaining to pure mathematics or natural laws is the example of

3. Research to study the effect of certain Policies, Plans and Program is

4. The first step of Research process is

5. Which of the following helps to compare two or more variables

8. Narrative literature review method is also known as

12. Which one is called non – probability sampling?

15. Which data is cheaper to collect?

18. The most repeated value in the series is called as

21. Which among the following is a probability sampling method?

22. The difference between a static and the parameters is called as

23. Sampling error increases as we increases the sampling size

24. Population under research study is referred as

28. Which test is normally applied for qualitative data :

29. An investigator commits Type – 1 error in testing hypothesis when he / she

31. What is the function of a post test in ANOVA

32. In ANOVA procedure ‘Factor’ refers to

33. In the ANOVA ‘treatment’ refers to

36. In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is

44. What are Independent Events?

46. The normal distribution

47. The shape of normal distribution curve

49. If ‘m’ is the Poisson distribution, the standard deviation is

50. The mean of hypergeometric distribution is

51. Bernoulli’s equation is applied to

63. Magnitude of stress induced in a shaft due to applied torque varies.

64. Virtual work refer to

a) 39N/mm2(Tension), 39N/mm2 (Compression)

70. An aluminum (2024 – T651) split beam has following dimensions :

71. Choose the correct statement

74. The efficiency of the Carnot cycle may be increased by

75. In which of the following cycles, a heat exchanger is used?

76. The working of jet propulsion is based on

80. The purpose of any aircraft gas turbine inlet is to provide

82. Non – Metallic matenals are primarily used in manufacturing of

83. Which of the following is not an aluminium alloy?

86. A statistically–stable aircraft has a C L   5 ( is measured in radius,  = angle of attack). The

a) 17.75kN b) 18.85kN c) 21.21kN d) 15.15kN

92. Which of the following maneuver causes vertical climb in rockets

94. Which value of , results in Keperian orbits,

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

4. What are Independent Events?

6. The normal distribution

7. The shape of normal distribution curve

9. If ‘m’ is the Poisson distribution, the standard deviation is

10. The mean of hypergeometric distribution is

11. What is the function of a post test in ANOVA

13. In the ANOVA ‘treatment’ refers to

16. In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is

22. Which one is called non – probability sampling?

23. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement

24. Absolute zero exists in

28. The most repeated value in the series is called as

31. Research conducted to solve an immediate problem is

32. Research pertaining to pure mathematics or natural laws is the example of