Business Research

Method
(MCQs for online exam)
Date: 10-10-2020
Contents
Business Research Methods - MCQs ............................................................. 3
Section 1 ..................................................................................................... 3
Section 2 .................................................................................................... 8
Section 3 .................................................................................................. 13
Section 4 .................................................................................................. 19
Section 5 .................................................................................................. 24
Section 6 .................................................................................................. 30
Section 7 .................................................................................................. 42
 Business Research Method-MCQs
Section 1
1) Process of obtaining a numerical description of the extent to which a
person or object possesses some characteristics

a) Measurement
b) Scaling
c) Questionnaire
d) Interview

2) Measurement that involves monitoring a respondent’s involuntary

responses to marketing stimuli via the use of electrodes and other
equipment is called

a) Projective Techniques
b) Physiological measures
c) Depth Interviews
d) Multi-dimensional Scales
3) Validity that reflect whether a scale performs as expected in relation to
other variables selected as meaningful criteria

a) Criterion-related Validity
b) Content Validity
c) Construct validity
d) Convergent Validity

4) Scale that indicates the relative position of two or more objects or some
characteristics is called
A) Ranking Scale b) Ordinal Scale c) Arbitrary Scale d) Ratio Scale
5) Method that involves the selection of items by a panel of judges on the
basis of their relevance, the potential for ambiguity, and the level of the
attitude they represent

a) Cumulative scale

b) Arbitrary Scale

c) Item Analysis

d) Consensus Scaling

6) Even numbered non-verbal rating scale using single adjectives instead of

bipolar opposites is called

a) Semantic Differential

b) Multi-dimensional scaling

c) Staple Scale

d) Standardized Instruments

7) Instrument’s ability to accurately measure variability in stimuli or

response is known as

a) Sensitivity b) Practicality c) Generalizability

b) Economy

8) 7-point rating scale with end-points associated with bipolar labels that
have semantic meaning is
a) Semantic differential scale

b) Constant Sum Scale

c) Graphic Rating Scale

 d) Likert Scale

9) Scale in which the respondent directly compares two or more objects and
makes choices among them is

a) Ranking Scale

b) Rating Scale

c) Graphic Scale

d) None of these

10) Scales where respondent is asked to rate an item in comparison with

another item or a group of items each other based on a common criterion
is

a) Method of paired comparison

b) Forced Ranking
c) Constant Sum Scale
d) All of the above

11) Original source from which researcher directly collects the data that
has not been previously collected

a) Primary data

b) Secondary Data

c) Tertiary Data

d) None of these
12) Technique in which the respondents and/or the clients communicate
and/or observe by use of the internet

a) Online Ethnography

b) Online Interview

c) Online Questionnaire

d) Online Focus Group

13) Issue to be considered for the secondary data include which of the
following
a) Sufficiency b) Reliability c) Suitability
b) All of the above
14) Method that involves recording the behavioral pattern of people,
objects and events in a systematic manner to obtain information about the
phenomenon of interest

a) Observation b) Online Survey c) Schedules

c) Warranty Cards

15) Technique that allow several members of a hiring company to

interview a job candidate at the same time is

a) Panel Interview
b) Self-administered interview
c) Mail Interview d) Electronic Interview
17) Qualitative methods are probably the oldest of all the scientific techniques,

the method of qualitative research is:

a) Questionnaire b) Attitude Scales c) Depth Interview

 d) Observation

18) In validity of measurement scales, validity can be measured through

several methods like

a) Content b) Criterion c) Construct

d) All of the above

19) The test of reliability is an important test of sound measurement. The

methods to evaluate reliability of scales are:

a) Convergent b) Delegating measurement strategies

c) Split-Halves Method d) None of the above

20) The most common scales used in research are

a) Nominal b) Ratio c) Ordinal d) All of

the above

21) In scale construction technique, scale can be developed by

a) Ratio Scale
b) Cumulative Scale
c) Nominal scale
d) Ordinal scale

22) The criteria for good scale is

developed by
a) Reliability
 b) Practicability
c) Sensitivity
d) All of the above
24) The main problem in questionnaire is

a) Accessible to Diverse Respondent

b) Greater Anonymity

c) Shows an inability of respondent to provide information

d) None of these

25) Electronic interview can be conducted by:

a) Telephonic b) Fax c) Personal d) All of the above

Section 2
1) Define the correct sequence in the stage of sampling:

a) i) Sampling method selection ii) Population definition iii)

Sampling frame development iv) Sampling unit specification
v) Sample size determination

b) i) Population definition ii) Sampling frame

development iii) Sampling unit specification
iv) Sampling method selection v) Sample size
determination

c) i) Sampling method selection ii) Sampling unit specification iii)

Sample size determination iv)Population definition

v) Sampling frame development

d) i) Sample size determination ii) Population definition iii)

Sampling frame development

iv)Sampling unit specification

 v) Sampling method selection

2) What are the two types of sampling methods?

a) Random or probability sampling and non-probability

sampling

b) Probability sampling and random sampling

c) Probability sampling and non-random sampling

d) All of the above

3) It is a special non-probability method used when the desired sample

characteristic is rare, which sampling

a) Panel Sampling b) Snowball sampling

c) Convenience sampling d) Purposive Sampling

4) The university book shop selects 200 of its more than 8000 customers to
participate in a study on service quality in the shop. The book Shop has
established a ________ for use in its research.

a) Population b) Field setting

c) Dependent grouping d) Sample

5) A good sampling frame must be

a) Relevant b) Complete
c) Precise d) All of the above
6) How many different sample of size 3 can be taken from the population
comprising 5 elements?

a) 7 b) 12 c) 5 d) 10

7) When sample size increases, which of the followings correct?

a) The standard error remains unchanged

b) The standard error increases
c) The standard error declines
d) None of the above
8) In case the population has a normal distribution, then the sampling
distribution of the mean
a) Has a mean equal to the population mean

b) Has normal distribution

c) Both a and b

d) None of these

9) In which of the following sample designs, maps rather than lists or

registers are used as the sampling frame?

a) Simple random sample b) Cluster sample

c) Area Sample d) none of these

10) Suppose that a population with N = 200 has µ = 30. What is the mean
of the sampling distribution of the mean for sample of size 40?
a) Not possible to determine as this information is inadequate

b) 40

c) 25
 d) 30

13) A sample study is a study of

a) Whole population b) Only representative items

c) 51 items d) None of these

14) Among the following methods which is not a probability sampling method?

a) Systematic sampling b) Stratified sampling

c) Cluster sampling d) Quota sampling

15) Among the following methods which is not the non-probability sampling
method?
a) Convenient sampling b) Quota sampling

c) Judgement sampling d) Systematic sampling

16) Which of the following is the example of random sampling techniques?

a) Taking the name of every person in a telephone book
b) Generating a list of numbers by picking numbers out of a
hat and matching these numbers to names in the
telephone book

c) Taking every tenth or twentieth name from a list of everybody in the

telephone book
d) All of the above
17) Pat Robertson is running for parliament in the General Election. She
needs to know the intended choices of the voters and will undertake a
 survey. All the voters on the Electoral Register in her constituency would
be the study’s
a) Sample b) Dependent variable

c) Population d) Independent variable

18) What are the types of Random or probability sampling?

a) Area sampling and Judgemental sampling
b) Stratified sampling and Area sampling

c) Judgemental sampling and Quota sampling

d) Sequential sampling

19) Greg Beck of Quality Market Research tells placement student John to go
out and select for personal interview ten men and ten women. Greg is
using __________ sampling for this phase of the research.

a) Random b) Stratified c) Quota d) Area

21) When there is a significant difference between the statistic and

parametric values, it means that

a) Sample statistic is representative is representative of the population

parameter

b) Static value is used to approximate parameter

c) The difference is real

d) None of the above

22) The process of selecting a number of participants for a study in such a

way that they represent the larger group from which they were selected is
known as
 a) Research Design b) Sampling
c) Data collection d) Random assignment

23) If the standard error of the population is reduced by 50 per cent, the
sample size becomes a) Double b) Increase 6 times c) Increase 4
times d) None of the above
24) Which type of sampling Mr. Weber use to draw a sample that is not
biased?
a) Non-probability b) Concurrent c) Random d) None of the
above
25) Which of the following is not likely to be used to stratify a sample for a
study investigating the use of a computerised algebra program?

a) Gender
b) Ethnicity
c) Socio-economic status
d) Number of siblings in the home
26) Which of the following is not a random sampling technique?
a) Purposive sampling
b) Stratified Sampling
c) Cluster sampling
d) Systematic sampling

Section 3
1) Which analysis is related with descriptive analysis?

a) Univariate Analysis
b) Bivariate Analysis
c) Multivariate Analysis
 d) All of the above
2) Involves the orderly and systematic representation of numerical data in a
form designed to elucidate the problem under consideration

a) Coding

b) Classification

c) Editing
d) Tabulation

3) Which frequency expresses the number of items in an interval as a

proportion or fraction of the total number of items in the data set?

a) Relative frequency
b) Percentage Frequency
c) Cumulative frequency
d) None of the above
4) Which steps involves in processing operations of data after collection of
data?

a) Coding

b) Classification

c) Editing
d) Tabulation

5) Which is type of frequency distribution?

a) Continuous or grouped frequency distribution

b) Discrete or ungrouped frequency distribution

c) Cumulative Frequency Distribution

d) All of the above

6) One where measurements are only approximations and are expressed in
class intervals ie within certain limits is

a) Continuous Frequency Distribution

b) Discrete Frequency Distribution

c) Cumulative Frequency Distribution

d) All of these Frequency Distribution

7) In which Graphical Representation, way of preparing a two-dimensional

diagram is in the form of circles?

a) Pie Chart
b) Histogram

c) Candle Stick
d) None of the above
8) In which analysis, when there is a single measurement of each of the n
sample objects or where there are several measurements of each of the n
observations but each variable is analysed in isolation?

a) Univariate Analysis
b) Bivariate Analysis
c) Multivariate Analysis
d) None of these
9) If a group of N observations is arranged in ascending or descending order
of magnitude, then the middle value is called

a) Mean b) Median c) Mode d) None of these

10) Which is the type of correlation on the basis of number of variables?

a) Positive correlation
 b) Multiple correlation
c) Linear Correlation
d) Non-linear Correlation
11) Which characteristics come under Karl Pearson’s Coefficient of
Correlation?

a. Does not tell anything about cause-and-effect relationship

b. Independent of change of origin and scale
c. Varies between -1 and +1
d. All of the above

12) If one knows that the yield and rainfall are closely related then one want
to know the amount of rain required to achieve a certain production. For
this purpose we use analysis
a) Regression Analysis
b) Coefficient of Correlation
c) Scatter Plots/Diagram
d) None of these

13) When two attributes are present or absent together in the data and actual

frequency is more than the expected frequency is called

a) Positive Association
b) Negative Association
c) Independent Association
d) None of these
14) Which is not type of test of significance for small sample ?

a) t- test b) z-test c) F-test d) Q-test

15)Which test is the part of the parametric test?

a) Sign Test
b) Run Test for Randomness
c) Kruskal-Willis Test
d) z-test

17) Which analysis comes under inferential analysis?

a) Univariate Analysis

b) Bivariate Analysis

c) Multivariate Analysis

d) Hypothesis Testing

18) The procedure of classifying the answers to a question into meaningful

categories is called

a) Coding b) Classification c) Editing d) Tabulation

19) Which of the following constitute the essential elements of coding?
a) Mutually exclusive b) Single Dimension c) Code Sheet

d) all of these

20) Which among the following is type of frequency?

a) Relative frequency
b) Percentage frequency
 c) Cumulative frequency
d) All of the above

21) A bar chart or graph showing the frequency of occurrence of each value of

the variable being analyzed is called

a) Bar Chart
b) Histogram

c) Candle stick
d) none of these

22) A chart is a style of bar-chart used primary to describe price movements

of a security, derivative, or currency over time is called

a) Leaf and stem

b) Histogram

c) Candle Stick

d) Bar chart

23) A group of observations is the quotient obtained by dividing the sum of all

the observations by their number, is called

a) Mean b) Median c) Mode d) None of these

24) Which analysis is the simultaneous analysis of two variables?

a) Univariate Analysis
b) Bivariate Analysis
c) Multivariate Analysis
d) None of these
25) Which Statistical tool comes under Bivariate Analysis?
 a) Linear Regression Analysis
b) Association of Attributes
c) Two-way ANOVA

d) All of the above

26) The assumption of normal distribution for the variable under

consideration or some assumption for a parametric test is not valid or is
doubtful then we use

a) Parametric Test

b) Non-Parametric Test

c) Both Parametric Test and Non-Parametric Test

d) All of the above

27) What is abbreviation of ANOVA?

a) Analysis of variance
b) Analysis of variation
c) Analysis of variant
d) None of these

Section 4
1. In the research process, the management question has the following
critical activity in sequence.
a) Origin, selection, statement, exploration and refinement
b) Origin, statement, selection, exploration and refinement
c) Origin, exploration, selection, refinement, and statement
 d) Origin, exploration, refinement, selection and statement
2. The chapter that details the way in which the research was conducted is
the _________ chapter
a) Introduction
b) Literature review
c) Research methodology
d) Data analysis
e) Conclusion and recommendations

3. Business research has an inherent value to the extent that it helps

management make better decisions. Interesting information about
consumers, employees, or competitors might be pleasant to have, but its
value is limited if the information cannot be applied to a critical decision.
a) True
b) False
4. The researcher should never report flaws in procedural design and
estimate their effect on the findings.
a) True
b) False
5. Adequate analysis of the data is the least difficult phase of research for the
novice.
a) True
b) False
6. The validity and reliability of the data should be checked occasionally
a) True
b) False
7. Researchers are tempted to rely too heavily on data collected in a prior
study and use it in the interpretation of a new study
a) True
b) False
8. What is a good research? The following are correct except
 a) Purpose clearly defined
b) Research process detailed
c) Research design thoroughly planned
d) Findings presented ambiguously
9. Greater confidence in the research is warranted if the researcher is
experienced, has a good reputation in research, and is a person of integrity
a) True
b) False
10. A complete disclosure of methods and procedures used in the research
study is required. Such openness to scrutiny has a positive effect on the
quality of research. However, competitive advantage often mitigates against
methodology disclosure in business research.
a) True
b) False
11. Research is any organized inquiry carried out to provide information for
solving problems.
a) True
b) False
12. In deduction, the conclusion must necessarily follow from the reasons
given. In inductive argument there is no such strength of relationship
between reasons and conclusions.
a) True
b) False
13. Conclusions must necessarily follow from the premises. Identify the type
of arguments that follows the above condition.
a) Induction
b) Combination of Induction and Deduction
c) Deduction Variables
14. Eminent scientists who claim there is no such thing as the scientific
method, or if exists, it is not revealed by what they write, caution researchers
about using template like approaches
a) True
 b) False
15. One of the terms given below is defined as a bundle of meanings or
characteristics associated with certain events, objects, conditions, situations,
and the like
a) Construct
b) Definition
c) Concept
d) Variable
16. This is an idea or image specifically invented for a given research and/or
theory building purpose
a) Concept
b) Construct
c) Definition
d) Variables
17. The following are the synonyms for independent variable except
a) Stimulus
b) Manipulated
c) Consequence
d) Presumed Cause
18. The following are the synonyms for dependent variable except
a) Presumed effect
b) Measured Outcome
c) Response
d) Predicted formal
19. In the research process, a management dilemma triggers the need for a
decision.
a) True
b) False
20. Every research proposal, regardless of length should include two basic
sections. They are:
a) Research question and research methodology
b) Research proposal and bibliography
 c) Research method and schedule
d) Research question and bibliography
21. The purpose of the research proposal is:
a) To generate monetary sources for the organization
b) To present management question to be researched and its importance
c) To discuss the research efforts of others who have worked on related
management question.

22. A proposal is also known as a:

a) Work plan
b) Prospectus
c) Outline
d) Draft plan
e) All of the above
23. Non response error occurs when you cannot locate the person or could
not encourage the respondent to participate in answering.
a) True
b) False
24. Secondary data can almost always be obtained more quickly and at a
lower cost than __________data.
a) Tertiary
b) Collective
c) Research
d) Primary
25. The purpose of __________________ research is to help in the
process of developing a clear and precise statement of the research problem
rather than in providing a definitive answer.
a) Marketing
b) Causal
c) Exploratory
d) Descriptive
 e) Writing Skills for Business Research Unit 5 Multiple Choice Questions
with Answer Key

Section 5
1. When a citation includes more than ____ authors, only the surname of
the first author is cited followed by et al.

a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

Answer: d

2. When referencing other works you have cited within the text of the report
you should

a) State the first and last name of the author

b) Use the author, date citation method
c) Use an asterisk and a footnote
d) Insert the complete citation in parenthesis

Answer: b

3. Which of the following abbreviations can be used in a research report?

a) IQ
b) sec. for second
c) yr. for year
 d) mo. for month

Answer: a

4. Editorial style specifies that ______ should be used infrequently or

sparingly.

a) Italics
b) Abbreviations
c) Headings
d) Both a and b

Answer: d

5. The factor that should determine whether you decide to prepare a research
report of you study for a conference or for publication is

a) Whether the study is free from flaws

b) Whether the study is important enough to justify presentation or
publication
c) Whether others would be interested in the work
d) All of the above

Answer: d

6. Which of the following is true about the use of language in research reports?

a) You should choose accurate and clear words that are free from
bias.
b) You should avoid labelling people whenever possible
 c) You should avoid using the term “subjects” whenever possible
d) All of the above are true according to the APA Guidelines

Answer: d

7. Regarding disabilities, writers should “avoid equating people with their

disabilities” such as in mentally retarded people.

a. True
b. False

Answer: a

8. You should avoid the use of sexist language in research reports.

a. True
b. False

Answer: a

9. Which is more appropriate when referring to someone with a disability?

a. A stroke victim
b. A person who has had a stroke

Answer: b

10. You should try to use italics frequently when writing a report.

a. True
b. False

Answer: b

11. You should try to use abbreviations sparingly.

 a. True
b. False

Answer: a

12. Use words for numbers that begin a sentence and for numbers that are
below ten.

a. True
b. False

Answer: a

13. You should double space all material in the manuscript.

a. True
b. False

Answer: a

14. Which of the following is not one of the seven major parts to the research
report?

a. Results
b. Abstract
c. Method
d. Footnotes

Answer: d

15. The Introduction section should not be labeled.

a. True
b. False

Answer: a
16. The abstract should be about how many words?

a. 50
b. 75
c. 120
d. 300

Answer: c

17. The Method section should start on a separate page in a manuscript.

a. True
b. False

Answer: b

18. It is in this section that you fully interpret and evaluate your results.

a. Introduction
b. Method
c. Results
d. Discussion

Answer: d

19. Where do you provide a step-by-step account of what the researcher and
participants did during the research study?

a. Introduction
b. Abstract
c. Procedure
 d. Design

Answer: c

20. References should be single spaced.

a. True
b. False

Answer: b

21. Qualitative research reports do not need a Method section.

a. True
b. False

Answer: b

22. When writing the qualitative results section, an overriding concern

should be to provide sufficient and convincing evidence to back up your
assertions.

a. True
b. False

Answer: a

23. When writing the qualitative results section, you will need to find an
appropriate balance between description and interpretation.

a. True
b. False

Answer: a
24. Diagrams, matrices, tables, and figures should never be used in
qualitative research reports.

a. True
b. False

Answer: b

25. In qualitative research it is important to fit the research findings back

into the relevant research literature even if the study is exploratory.

a. True
b. False

Answer: a

Section 6
1. In a qualitative research proposal you would not expect to see a............
a) Research question
b) Research aim
c) Hypothesis
d) Operational definition
Ans: c)
2. Which of the following statement is not true?
a) A research proposal is a document that presents a plan for a project
b) A research proposal shows that the researcher is capable of
successfully conducting the proposed research project
c) A research proposal is an unorganized and unplanned project
d) A research proposal is just like a research report and written before
the research project
Ans: c)
3. After identifying the important variables and establishing the logical
reasoning in Theoretical framework, the next step in the research process
is..........
 a) To conduct surveys
b) To generate the hypothesis
c) To focus group discussions
d) To use experiments in an investigation
Ans: b)
4. The fundamental characteristic of the scientific method is__________
a) Theories
b) Empiricism
c) Replication
d) Evaluating data
Ans-: b)
5. According to Goodstein's (2000) "evolved theory of science," which of the
following is not a characteristic of scientific inquiry?
a) Scientists make observations that are accurately reported to other
scientists and the public so others can replicate the methods and
obtain the same results.
b) Science flourishes when there is an open system for the exchange of
ideas in which supporters and those who disagree with an idea can
report their research and it can be evaluated by others.
c) Research studies must be reviewed by peers before they become a
part of the scientific literature.
d) Scientists search for observations that support ideas popular to
others and viewed by other scientists as publishable.
Ans: d)
6. The main advantage of producing a written research proposal is-------
a) Informs all interested parties
b) Helps with credibility
c) Helps the institution
d) Helps keep people employed
Ans: a)
7. The one which will always appear in a research proposal is.......
a) Business objective
 b) Research objective
a) c)Marketing objective
b) d)Creative objective
Ans: b)

8. Good research proposals will always-.......

a) Consider all possible research that had previously been done on the
topic
b) Provide respondent names and addresses
a) c)Focus on the Harvard style
c) Focus on addressing the research objectives
Ans: d)
9. The proposal's literature review is important because-——
a) It is expected by the university
b) The tutor insists upon it
c) It looks authoritative
d) It shows that you are knowledgeable about the literature that relates
to your research topic
Ans: c)
10. The proposal section which intended to describe the purpose with a full
statement of the research question is-----------
a) Literature review
b) References
a) c)Introduction
b) d)Proposed Method
Ans: c)
11. Which of the following statement is not true?
a) A research proposal is a document that presents a plan for a project
b) A research proposal shows that the researcher is capable of
successfully conducting the proposed research project
c) A research proposal is an unorganized and unplanned project
 d) A research proposal is just like a research report and written before
the research project
Ans: c)

12. The statement of purpose in a research study should--------

a) Identify the design of the study
b) Identify the intent or objective of the study
a) c)Specify the type of people to be used in the study
b) d)Describe the study
Ans: b)
13. The research participants are described in detail in..........section of the
research plan
a) Introduction
b) Method
c) Data analysis
d) Discussion
Ans: b)
14. The Method section of the research plan typically specifies ----------
a) The research participants
b) The apparatus, instruments, and materials for the research study
c) The planned research procedures
d) all of the above
Ans: d)
15. The interactive, computer-based information system that collects data on
transactions and operations is..........
a) Transaction processing system
a) Decision support system
b) Executive information system
c) Expert system
Ans: b)

16. One of the following is not the three main components in a decision
support system........
a) Communications
b) Dialogue
c) Model
d) Data
Ans: a)
17. To explain, predict, and/or control phenomena are the goal of ------------
a) Tradition
b) Inductive logic
c) Deductive logic
d) The scientific method
Ans: d)
18. The purpose of a literature review is to-...........
a) Help you find out what is already known about this area
b) Identify any inconsistencies or gaps in the literature.
c) Demonstrate an awareness of the theoretical context in which the
current study can be located
d) Find what is already known, identify gaps, and demonstrate
awareness
Ans: b)
19. The scientific method is preferred over other ways of knowing because it
is more........
a) Reliable
b) Systematic
c) Accurate
d) All of the above
Answer: d)

20. According to Burrell & Morgan (1979) one of the following is not a
paradigm within business research methods is......
a) Radical structuralism
b) Radical positivist
a) Functionalist
b) Interpretative
Ans: b)
21. After you locate a source, you should write down all the detail of the
reference, except...........
a) Full names of the authors
b) Titles
c) Volumes
d) Price
Ans: d)
22. The basis of Scientific Method is.........
a) To test hypotheses in conditions that is conclusive to its success
b) To formulate a research problem and disprove the hypothesis
c) To formulate a research problem, test the hypothesis in carefully
controlled conditions that challenge the hypothesis.
d) To test hypotheses and if they are disproved, they should be abandoned
completely.
Answer: c)
23. The facts that should be collected to measure a variable, depend upon
the--------
a) Conceptual understanding
b) Dictionary meaning
c) Operational definition
d) All of the above
Ans: d)

24. The word 'Research' means-------

a) A lab experiment
b) A report.
c) A systematic enquiry
d) A procedure
Ans: c)
25. If a researcher is studying the effect of using laptops in his classroom to
ascertain their merit and worth; he is likely conducting......type of research
a) Basic
b) Applied
c) Evaluation
d) Experimental
Ans: c)
26. The reasons for consulting handbooks, yearbooks, encyclopedias, or
reviews in the Initial stages of identifying a research topic is........
a) They are readily available
b) They provide an overview of the issues related to a topic
c) They are primary sources
d) They avoid reporting statistical data so one can interpret the results
more easily
Ans: b)
27. Qualitative and Quantitative Research are the classification of research
on the basis of......
a) Use of the research
b) Time dimensions
c) Techniques used
d) Purpose of the research
Ans: c
28. The application of the scientific method to study of business problems is
called.......
a) Inductive reasoning
b) Deductive reasoning
c) Business research
d) Grounded theory
Ans: c)
29. The research method is not applicable under.......
a) Healthcare
b) Business
c) Government offices
d) Imaginary worlds
Ans: d)
30. In an article it is most beneficial to read-------
a) References
b) Methods
c) Introduction
d) Figures
Ans: a)
31. Which of the following is not a function of clearly identified research
questions?
a) They guide your literature search
b) They keep you focused throughout the data collection period
c) They make the scope of your research as wide as possible
d) They are linked together to help you construct a coherent argument
Ans: c)
32. An operational definition is—
a) One that bears no relation to the underlying concept
 b) An abstract, theoretical definition of a concept
c) A definition of a concept in terms of specific, empirical measures
d) One that refers to opera singers and their work
Ans: c)
33. Basic research can also be called as-------
a) Practical research
b) Fundamental Research
c) Action research
d) Assessment research
Ans: b)
34. In the research process, the management question has the following
critical activity in sequence.............
a) Origin, selection, statement, exploration and refinement
b) Origin, statement, selection, exploration and refinement
c) Origin, exploration, selection, refinement, and statement
d) Origin, exploration, refinement, selection and statement
Ans: a)
35. The meaning of a good research does not mean ------
a) Purpose clearly defined
b) Research process detailed
c) Research design thoroughly planned
d) Findings presented ambiguously
Ans: d)
36. Every research proposal, regardless of length should include two basic
sections. They are——
a) Research question and research methodology
b) Research proposal and bibliography
c) Research method and schedule
d) Research question and bibliography
Ans: a)
37. The purpose of the research proposal is..........
a) To generate monetary sources for the organization
b) To present management question to be researched and its importance
c) To discuss the research efforts of others who have worked on related
management question.
d) d)Both b and c
Ans: d)
38. A proposal is also known as a.......
a) Work plan
b) Prospectus
c) Outline
d) All of the above
Ans: d)
39. Secondary data can almost always be obtained more quickly and at a
lower cost than..........data.
a) Primary
b) Tertiary
c) Collective
d) Research
Ans: a)
40. The quality of a research to produce almost identical results in successive
repeated trials reflects it’s......-
a) Reliability
b) Validity
c) Accuracy
d) None of the above
Ans: a)
41. What should a market researcher do once he or she has defined the
problem and the research objectives?
a) Collect the information
b) Budget for information collection
c) Develop the research plan
d) Sample the population
Ans: c)
42. Business research is a systematic inquiry that provides information to
guide business decisions. This includes the following except.......
a) a)Reporting
b) Descriptive
c) Explanatory
d) Predictive studies
Ans: d)
43. Which of the following should not be a consideration in writing proposal?
a) Understanding the purpose behind the request for proposal
b) Understanding the problem situation
c) The appearance/form of the proposal
d) Responding to every element exactly as specified by the client
Ans: c)
44. The step-by-step account of what the researcher and participants did
during the research study is provided in........
a) Introduction
b) Abstract
c) Procedure
d) Design
Ans: c)
45. Which of the following is an example of deception in business research?
a) The obtaining of company material without permission
b) The researcher representing their research as being about a different
topic
c) The researcher wearing a disguise during an observation
d) The researcher failing to ask permission to interview someone
Ans: b)
46. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of scientific method?
a) Deterministic
b) Rationalism
c) Empirical
d) Abstraction
Ans: d)
47. A research problem is feasible only when-
a) It is researchable
b) It is new and adds something to knowledge
c) It has utility and relevance
d) All of these
Ans: d)
48. Hypothesis cannot be stated in ........
a) Null and question form terms
b) Declarative term
c) General terms
d) Directional terms
Ans: c)
49. The validity and reliability of a research will be at stake when ------
a) The author who is the source of information is biased, incompetent
or dishonest
b) The incident was reported after a long period of time from that of
its occurrence
c) The researcher himself is not competent enough to draw logical
conclusions
d) All of the above
Ans: d)
50. After a researcher has stated the specific problem to be studied in an
experiment, he must then develop a ------
a) Theory
b) Conclusion
c) Hypothesis
d) Summary of the data
Ans: c)
Section 7
1. Research hypotheses are ______________
a) Formulated prior from review of the literature
b) Statements of predicted relationships between variables
c) Stated such that they can be confirmed or refuted
d) Both b and c
Ans: d)
2. Hypotheses in qualitative research studies usually _______
a) Are very specific and stated prior to beginning the study
b) Are often generated as the data are collected, interpreted, and
analyzed
c) Are never used
d) Are always stated after the research study has been completed
Ans: b)
3. Research in which the researcher uses the qualitative paradigm for one
phase and the quantitative paradigm for another phase in known as
_____________
a) action research
b) basic research
c) quantitative research
d) mixed method research
Ans: a)
4. Qualitative research is often exploratory and has all of the following
characteristics except--------
a) it is typically used when a great deal is already known about the topic
of interest.
b) it relies on the collection of non-numerical data such as words and
pictures
c) it is used to generate hypotheses and develop theory about phenomena
in the world
d) it uses the inductive scientific method
ANS(a)
5. The opposite of the variables is
a) A constant
b) An extraneous variable
c) A dependent variable
d) A data set
Ans(a)
6. A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is called
as ...........
a) Categorical variable
b) Dependent variable
c) Independent variable
d) Intervening variable
Ans(c)
7. A condition of characteristics that can take on different values or categories
is called ........
a) a constant
b) a variable
c) a cause-and-effect relationship
d) a descriptive relationship
Ans: b)
8. The quantitative research is best described by------
a) the collection of non numerical data
b) an attempt to confirmsthe researcher's hypotheses
c) research that is exploratory
d) research that attempts to generate a new theory
Ans: b)
9. ______allow a researcher to examine the degree and direction of the
relationship between two characteristics or variables.
a) Correlational designs
b) Quasi-experimental designs
c) Confounding variables
d) Experimental designs
Ans: a)
10. A dependent variable refers to............
a) The experimental condition
b) The variable which shows us the effect of the manipulation.
c) The variable being manipulated or varied in some way by the
researcher
d) A variable with a single value which remains constant in a particular
context
Ans: b)
11. Variables are..........-
a) the main focus of research in science.
b) something that can vary in terms of precision
c) something that we can measure
d) all of the above
Ans: d)
12. The sort of variable manipulated by the researcher is -........
a) Dependent.
b) Co-dependent
c) Independent
d) All variables are manipulated by the researcher
Ans: c)
13. The null and alternative hypotheses divide all possibilities into-
a) two sets that overlap
b) two non-overlapping sets
c) two sets that may or may not overlap
d) as many sets as necessary to cover all possibilities
Ans: b)
14. .........is true of the null and alternative hypotheses.
a) Exactly one hypothesis must be true
b) both hypotheses must be true
c) It is possible for both hypotheses to be true
d) It is possible for neither hypothesis to be true
Ans: a)
5. The form of the alternative hypothesis can be:
a) one-tailed
b) two-tailed
c) neither one nor two-tailed
d) one or two-tailed
Ans: d)
16 The alternative hypothesis is also known as the:
a) elective hypothesis
b) optional hypothesis
c) research hypothesis
d) null hypothesis
Ans: c)
17. A Type II error is also known as a______.
a) False positive
b) False negative
c) Double negative
d) Positive negative
Ans: b)
18. A Type I error is also known as a______.
a) False positive
b) False negative
c) Double negative
d) Positive negative
Ans: a)
19.________ is the failure to reject a false null hypothesis.
a) Type I error
b) Type II error
c) Type A error
d) Type B error
Ans: b)
20. Which of the following statements is/are true according to the logic of
hypothesis testing?
a) When the null hypothesis is true, it should be rejected
b) When the null hypothesis is true, it should not be rejected
c) When the null hypothesis is false, it should be rejected
d) Both b and c are true
Ans: d)
21. A literature review requires
a) Planning
b) Good & clear writing
c) Lot of rewriting
d) All of the above
Ans: d)
22. Conducting surveys is the most common method of generating........
a) Primary data
b) Secondary data
c) Qualitative data
d) None of the above
Ans: a)
23. A list of questions which is handed over to the respondent, who reads the
questions and records the answers himself is known as the..........
a) Interview schedule
b) Questionnaire
c) Interview guided.
d) All of the given options
Ans: b)
24. Exploratory research addresses one of the following types of question.
a) If
b) How
c) Why
d) What
Ans: d)
25. Hypothesis test may also be called as:
a) Informal test
a) Significance test
b) Moderating test
c) T-test
Ans: b)
26. The interview in which questions are already prepared is called
a) Telephonic interview
b) Personal interview
c) Unstructured interview
d) Structured interview
Ans: d)
27. The group that does not receive the experimental treatment condition is
the________.
a) Experimental group
b) Control group
c) Treatment group
d) Independent group
Ans: b)
28. There is a number of ways in which confounding extraneous variables
can be controlled. Which control technique is considered to be the best?
a) Random assignment
b) Matching
c) Counterbalancing
d) None of the above
Ans: a)
29. A cell is a combination of two or more____in a factorial design.
a) Research designs
b) Research measurements
c) Dependent variables
d) Independent variables
Ans: d)
30. A factorial design is one in which____.
a) Only one independent variable is studied to determine its effect on
the dependent variable
b) Only two independent variables are simultaneously studied to
determine their independent and interactive effects on the dependent
variable
c) Two or more independent variables are simultaneously studied to
determine their independent and interactive effects on the dependent
variable
d) Two dependent variables are studied to determine their interactive
effects
Ans: c)
31. A researcher is interested in the effects of a preschool program on later
school performance. Because she is concerned that socio-economic-status
(SES) is a potential extraneous variable in her study, she picks & Tilden to
study who are only from low SES homes. The control technique she used in
this study was-----
a) Matching
b) Random assignment
c) Holding the extraneous variable constant
d) Statistically controlling the extraneous variable
Ans: c)
32. The directors of a graduate program in educational research wish to see
what types of jobs their graduates take after they finish their program. They
randomly sample students from the program and have them fill out
questionnaires with items asking about the types of jobs they have had. They
also are asked to describe the roles they play in their current positions. This
project is best described as having what kind of objective—-
a) Descriptive
b) Predictive
c) Explanatory
d) None of the above
Ans: a)
33. The variable the researcher matches to eliminate it as an alternative
explanation is called a_________variable.
a) Matching
b) Independent
c) Dependent
d) Partial
Ans: a)
34. Which of the following is not a longitudinal design?
a) Panel
b) Cross-sectional
c) Trend
d) Both a and c are longitudinal designs
Ans: d)
35. In qualitative research, differences among types of purposive sample
have to do with-----
a) Representativeness.
b) Timing during the study.
c) Individual variability
d) All of the above.
Ans: d)
36. Data analysis in qualitative research, as contrasted with quantitative
research, is generally—
a) Theatrical rather than applied.
b) Applied rather than theatrical.
c) Deductive rather than inductive.
d) Inductive rather than deductive.
Ans: d)
37. Qualitative researchers view changes in procedures during a study
as...........
a) A weakness
b) Frustrating
c) A good thing
d) To be avoided
Ans: c)
38. Conclusions from qualitative research are--------
a) Less certain than from quantitative research
b) Of little practical use
c) Seldom defensible
d) Of descriptive value only.
Ans: a)
39. The validity poses a problem for qualitative research because—
a) Because the measurement of validity implies that there is something
fixed which can be measured
b) Because the validity of interviews cannot be measured
c) Because validity is only an issue in quantitative research
d) Because there isn't any quantitative data on which to assess validity
Ans: a)
40. The weakness of quantitative research is-------
a) Provides precise, numerical data
b) The researcher's categories that are used might not reflect local
constituencies understandings
c) Testing hypotheses that are constructed before the data are collected
d) Can study a large number of people
Ans: b)
41. A study in which quantitative and qualitative data are collected at the
same time is a..........
a) Concurrent mixed method design
b) Mixed method design
c) Sequential mixed method design
d) Cross-sectional mixed method design
Ans: a)
42. The starting point for a literature search is--------
a) Tertiary data
b) Primary data
c) Secondary data
d) Some other data
Ans: a)
43. The researcher is usually interested in supporting --—-when he or she is
engaging in hypothesis testing.
a) The alternative hypothesis
b) The null hypothesis
c) Both the alternative and null hypothesis
d) Neither the alternative or null hypothesis
Ans: a)
44. The cutoff the researcher uses to decide whether to reject the null
hypothesis is called the—
a) Significance level
b) Alpha level
c) Probability value
d) Both a and b are correct
Ans; d)
45. Of type I and type II end, one which traditionally regarded as more
serious is
a) Type I
b) Type II
c) They are equally serious
d) Neither is serious
Ans: a)
46. Smaller p-values indicate more evidence in support of..........
a) the null hypothesis
b) the alternative hypothesis
c) the quality of the researcher
d) further testing
Ans: b)
47. A null hypothesis can only be rejected at the 5% significance level if and
only if—
a) a 95% confidence interval includes the hypothesized value of the
parameter
b) a 95% confidence interval does not include the hypothesized value of
the parameter
c) the null hypothesis is void
d) the null hypotheses includes sampling error
Ans: b)
48. A developmental research design that examines age differences at only
one point in time is called the_________method.
a) Cross-sectional
b) Longitudinal
c) Single-case
d) Sequential
Ans: a)