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(SỐ 11-20) DE THI HSG ANH 9 CAP TINH +FILE NGHE+ DAP AN

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PHẦN LISTEN VÀ KEY CÁC BẠN BẤM CTRL VÀ CLICK CHUỘT VÀO ĐƯỜNG LINK CUỐI MỖI ĐỀ NHÉ

CÁC BẠN CÓ THỂ BẬT PHỤ ĐỀ TIẾNG ANH TRÊN YOUTUBE TRONG PHẦN LISTEN ĐỂ LUYỆN
NGHE DỄ DÀNG HƠN NHÉ.

B1: Vào cài đặt

B1: Vào phụ đề

B3: Chọn ngôn ngữ phụ đề

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Đề số 11
Kỳ thi: HSG lớp 9
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút
A. LISTENING (3pts)
Part 1. Question 1-5
You will hear five short conversations. You will hear each conversation twice. There is
one question for each conversation. For questions 1-5, put a tick under the right

answer.

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Part 2. Question 6-10


Listen to Jane telling her father about the extra subjects she is doing at school.
What subject does she do on each day?
For question 6-10, write the letter A-H next to each day.
You will hear the conversation twice.

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Part 3: Question 11-15

Listen to Peter talking to a friend about a school trip.

For question 11-15, put a tick A, B or C.

You will hear the conversation twice.

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B. LANGUAGE FOCUS. (6pts)


Part 1. Choose the word which best completes each of the following sentences. (2pts)
1............ he comes in half an hour, we shall go alone
A. Because B. If C. Unless D. When
2. I don’t believe a word she says, I think she................
A. lied B. I laying C. is telling lie D. is lying
3..................., a bat sends out a series of signals, which bounce off any object in its path.
A. When in flying B. While it is flying
C. When they are flying D. Once flying
4. Mr John does not know................. the lawn mower after they had finished using it.
A. where did they put B. where they did put
C. where they put D. where to put

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5. The.............. noise startled the woman.


A. frightened B. frighten C. frightening D. fright
6. Jack’s shoes are very dirty. They need..............
A. cleaning B. cleaner C. to clean D. clean
7. His pronunciation causes me a lot of...................
A. difficulties B. difficult C. difficulty D. difficultly
8. We lived in that................ on the corner.
A. old house brick small. C. small old brick house
B. brick small old house. D. house brick small old
9.............. around us gives us vital information about our environment
A. The sounds are heard. C. Hearing the sounds.
B. That the hearing of sound. D. Whatever the sounds are heard.
10. He took his seat quietly,.............
A. in order that not to disturb their conversation.
C. in order not disturb their conversation.
B. so as to disturb their conversation
D. so as not to disturb their conversation.
Part 2: Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs
correcting
(2pts)
1. I suggested that you taking his advice to treat your cough.
A B C D
2.Even though studying hard, he failed his exam last year.
A B C D
3.The pollution of the sea can be the result of careless or dumping of waste.
A B C D
4. If today is Sunday, we would have a lot of fun at the camping.
A B C D
5. She apologized for being many rude to me.
A B C D
6. The children were playing last night outdoor when it began to rain hard.
A B C D

7. The bridge was hitting by a large ship during a sudden storm last week.
A B C D
8. Even though she looks very young, she is twice older than my twenty - year - old
sister.
A B C D
9. One of the most urgent problem, facing us now is the need to control population
growth.
A B C D
10. Tom has not completed the assignment yet, and Maria hasn’t, neither.
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A B C D
Part 3. Provide the correct form of the words given (2pts)
THE ENVIRONMENT - OUR RESPONSIBILITY
These days it is (0). impossible..... to open a newspaper without reading 0. possible
about the damage we are doing to the environment. The earth is being
(1)....................... and the future looks bad. What can each of us do? 1. threat
We can not clean up our (2)............................. rivers and seas overnight. 2. pollution
Nor can we stop the (3).....................of plants and animals. But we can stop 3. appear
adding to the problem while (4)............................. search for answers, and 4. science
laws are passed in nature’s (5)................................... It may not be easy to 5. defend
change your lifestyle (6)........................., but some steps are easy to take: cut 6. complete
down the amount of (7).............. …………....you do, or use as little plastics
as possible 7. drive
It is also easy to save energy, which also reduces (8).......................................
bills. We must all make a personal (9).................................. to work for the 8. house
future of our planet if we want to (10)................................ a better world for 9. decide
our grand - children. 10. sure

C. READING (5pts)
Part 1: Choose the word or phrase which best completes each blank in the following
passage (2pts):
My home is in the air - I do an enormous amount of travelling. It is a fast life and
(1)........ of work, but I like it and that is the only way (2)................ me.
Everything is tiring - music, travelling- but what can I do? I am not (3).......... to
complaining. It is hard to imagine now (4)........... I will ever be very long in one place.
My home town is on the Caspian Sea. There is sea, wind, sun, and (5).......... many
tourists and hotels. I have my own flat with four or five rooms, but I am seldom there. If
I am there for a day or two I prefer to (6).......... with my mother and grandmother. They
live in a small house, (7)......... it is very comfortable and my mother cooks for me. I like
good, simple food.
I have no wife, no brothers or sisters and my father (8).......... when I was seven.
He was an engineer and I don’t (9)......... him very well. He liked music very much and
wanted me to (10).......... a musician.
1. A. most B. full C. complete D. more
2. A. for B. to C. in D. by
3. A. wanted B. taken C. used D. known
4. A. and B. so C. while D. that
5. A. far B. too C. much D. more
6. A. stay B. go C. do D. spend
7. A. but B. since C. even D. which
8. A. killed B. gone C. passed D. died
9. A. know B. remember C. remind D. see
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10. A. become B. turn C. develop D. grow


Part 2: Read the passage and choose the best answer (1pt)
Man discovered fire many thousand years ago. The first time he saw fire was
probably when a tree was struck by lightning. He soon learned how to make fire for
himself. However, man probably made his fire by rubbing two sticks together.
Fire was very important to man. He needed fire to keep himself warm at night. He
used fire to cook his food. He used fire to frighten away enemies and wild animals. In
some parts of the world he used fire to signal messages. Red Indians, for example, used
fire to make smoke signals. In some other countries people lit fires to warn their friends
of danger.
Fire was very also used to give light. Before the invention of oil lamp, men used
burning sticks as torches. And before man discovered gas and electricity, he hung small
fires in wire baskets from posts to light the streets.
One man even used fire to tell the time. He invented a candle clock. He made a
candle that took exactly twelve hours to burn. Then he marked this candle in twelve equal
parts. He lit the candle and could tell the time by counting the number of parts left of the
burning candle.
But the candle clock did not always work well. If there was a wind blowing on the
candle, the flame burned too quickly.
1. Man probably first made fire........
A. from a tree struck by lightning B. by rubbing two sticks together.
C. from wire baskets hung on poster. D. from a candle.
2. Man probably first used fire.........
A. to tell the time. B. to send signal.
C. to light the streets. D. to keep warm at night.
3. Fire was used by Red Indians........
A. to make gas and electricity. B. to burn down trees
C. to send messages D. to frighten away enemies.
4. The first street lights were........
A. large bonfires. B. small fires in hanging baskets.
C. burning trees. D. candles.
5. The candle clock burned for....
A. twelve hours. B. one hour.
C. a day. D. twelve days.
Part 3: Fill each the numbered blanks in the following passage with ONE suitable
word (2pts)
Food plays an important part in the development of nations. In countries where
food is (1)……........ people have to spend most of their time getting enough to eat. This
usually slows down progress, because men have little time to (2)……............. to science,
industry, government, and art. In nations where food is (3)................. and easy to get,
men have more time to spend in activities that lead to progress and (4).............. of leisure.
The problem of (5).............. good food for everybody has not yet been solved. Many wars
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have been (6)............... for food. But it is no longer necessary to go to war for food.
Nations are beginning to put (7)................. knowledge to work for a (8 )................ of their
food problems. They work (9)............... in the Food and Agriculture Organization of the
United Nations (FAO) to help hungry nations (10)................more food.

C. WRITING (6pts)
Part 1: Complete the second sentence in such a way that it is almost the same as the
first (2pts):
1. “You’d better not lend that man any more money, Mary” - said John.
-> John advised..................................................................................................................
2. Although he took a taxi, Bill still arrived late for the concert.
-> Despite..........................................................................................................................
3. “It is ages since Alan visited his parents.
-> Alan..............................................................................................................................
4. Handicapped people find shopping in supermarkets difficult.
-> It is................................................................................................................................
5. “You’d better go to the doctor if you’ve got a pain in your back, Anne”- Herry said.
-> Herry suggested............................................................................................................
6. “Could I borrow five pounds from you, Jane?”- asked Nick.
-> Nick asked Jane if........................................................................................................
7. It isn’t necessary to book tickets for the show in advance.
-> You need.......................................................................................................................
8. Don’t you regret not learning to swim?
-> Don’t you wish..............................................................................................................?
9. We got lost because we didn’t have a map.
-> Had.................................................................................................................................
10. They manage to finish the project in time for the presentation.
-> They succeeded...............................................................................................................
Part 2: Use the suggested words and phrases to write a complete letter (2pts).
Dear Mother and father,
a. You/ be pleased/ hear/ I/ meet/ London Airport/ Mr and Mrs Robinson and/ son/
Michael.
…………………………………………………………………………………………
b. Before I arrive/ it rain/ a week/ but/ Sunday/ sun shine/ first time.
…………………………………………………………………………………………
c. Last Tuesday they take me/ Buckingham Palace/ I see the Changing of the Guard and
listen/ the band.
………………………………………………………………………………………
d. Then we go/ Hyde Park/ have lunch/ a restaurant.
………………………………………………………………………………………
e. After we/ eat/ we go/ a walk/ see the Serpentine Lake.
………………………………………………………………………………………
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f. While we/ walk/ I buy a postcard/ I enclose/ this letter.


………………………………………………………………………………………
g. London have many interesting places/ see/ and I/ enjoy/ be here very much/
………………………………………………………………………………………..
h. Mr and Mrs Robinson and Michael ask me/ give/ their kind regards.
Love,
Carly
Part 3: Write a paragraph (100 - 120 words) about a festival or a celebration in your
country, using the following brief notes: (2pts).
+ Opening: - Which festival?
- Where? When? Why?
+ Main body: - How is it celebrated? (general).
- What happens? (details).
- Food and drink?
+ Ending: How does it end?
……………………………………………………………………………………..………

KEY+AUDIO
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=EXi7RdJwfGw

ĐỀ SỐ 12
Kỳ thi: Chọn Học sinh giỏi lớp 9 cấp tỉnh
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút
A: LISTENING (4/20 points)
Part 1: Questions 1-5: Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS for each asnwer (2.0points)
VISA APPLICATION FORM
Name: Kelly (1)……………………………………………
Address: 106 (2)… ………………………………………., Hawaii.
Nationality: (3) ………………………………………………….
Age: (4……………………………………………………
Marital status: (5)………………………………………………….
Questions 6- 8: Circle the correct letter A, B or C.
6. According to the applicant, who lives in Australia?

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A. His counsin B. His uncle C. His sister-in- law


7. The applicant wants to visit Australia because he wants to………………………….
A. do some travelling B. develop his business C. work
8. The aplicant can have a visa for………………………………
A. 6 months B. 12 months C. 30 days
Questions 9-10: Complete the sentences by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/
OR A NUMBER for each answer.
9. The applicant must go to the visa office between …………….………………………
and…………….…………..
10. What two things must the applicant take to the visa office? …………….
…………..and…………….………….
Part 2: You will hear an interview with a woman called Helen Hunter who runs a summer
camp for teenagers. Complete the sentences by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS
and/ or a NUMBER in the space provided. (1.0 point)
SUMMER CAMPS
1. Helen says that people taking part in the summer camp usually sleep in a ……..
………………………………
2. The summer camp is a chance for teenagers to meet people and learn ……..
………………………………
3. As an example of a practical activity, Helen tells us about a team which built a ……..
…………………………
4. In the next camp, teams will work out problem-solving activities such as a ……..
……………………with clues.
5. Helen gives the example of ……..………………………… as the only typical sporting
activity at the camp.
6. The day when teams can choose their own activities is called “……..
………………………………”
7. The summer camp is good for people who don’t have opportunities or have little ……..
……………………….
8. On ‘Battle of the Bands’ day, the teams make a pop record and a ……..
………………………………………..
9. For the teenagers taking part, the camp lasts for ……..
…………………………………………………………...
10. You can book for a summer camp that will be held in the month of ……..
………………………………………
Part 3: Circle the appropriate letter A, B or C. (1.0 point)
1. Where in Australia were Asian honey bees found?
A. Queensland B. New South Wales C. several states
2. A problem with Asian honey bees is that they
A. attack bees B. carry parasites C. damage crops

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3. What point is made about Australian bees?


A. Their honey varies in quality
B. Their size stops them from pollinating some flowers.
C. They are sold to customers abroad.
4. Grant Freeman says that if Asian honey bees got into Australia,
A. the country’s economy would be affected
B. they could be used in the study of allergies.
C. certain areas of agriculture would benefit.
5. In order to set up her research programme, Shona got
A. advice from personal friends in other countries.
B. help from students in other countries.
C. information from her tutor’s contacts in other countries.
PART B: PRONUNCIATION AND STRESS ( 1 Point)
I. Which word is stressed differently from the others? (0,5 P)
1. A. picnic B. fishing C. arrive D. movie
2. A. tomorrow B. badminton C. aerobic D. usually
3. A. frequently B. gymnastic C. adjective D. difference
4. A. activity B. destination C. independent D. intersection
5. A. recycle B. potato C. collection D. dangerous
II. Which underlined part is pronounced differently? (0,5P)
6. A. drop B. joke C. top D. confidence
7. A. ground B. found C. though D. sound
8. A. normal B. order C. oven D. origin
9. A. honesty B. hair C. honor D. hour
10. A. sugar B. steam C. press D. waste

PART C: LEXICO- GRAMMAR (5.0points)


Part 1: Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer questions. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.5P).
1. Please wait for a moment. It________heavily
A. is raining B. rains C. raining D. is rainy
2. I would appreciate it ________what I have told you a secret.
A. you can keep B. that you kept C. you will keep D. if you kept
3. Andrew is a very disciplined employee. He ________ great importance to coming to work in
time.
A. plays B. admits C. attaches D. attributes
4. “Will Sam adapt well to his new position?”
“It is ________ that I really don’t know if he’ll be able to.”
A. such a drastical change B. so drastic a change
C. so drastic change D. so drastically changing
5. Don’t ________to phone Mary, I’ve already talked to her.

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A. concern B. forget C. bother D. worry


6. She moved to the city last year________she was tired of driving so far to work.
A. although B. so C. but D. because
7. I could not turn in my paper on time because my word processor ________.
A. fell down B. turned down C. broke downD. tore down
8. We shall review the salary arrangements________ due course.
A. on B. by C. with D. in
9. Very little was said about his failure, ________?
A. was it B. wasn't it C. was there D. wasn't he
10. “Could I use your telephone?” – “_________”
A. I’m sorry to hear that B. Please, feel free
C. Certainly. I do D. That’s very kind of you.
11._________ is visiting important and historic places in a city or an area as a tourist.
A.Travelling B.Sightseeing C.Wandering D.Sunbathing
12.All _________ must complete a visa form upon arrival at Singapore airport.
A.tourists B.departures C.customers D.passengers
13.Travellers are advised to find an alternative _________ during road repairs.
A.field B.direction C.route D.itinerary
14.All food products should carry a list of _________ on the packet.
A.elements B.materials C.foods D.ingredients
15.Traditionally, an ‘English breakfast’ is a large cooked breakfast, usually _________ bacon
and eggs, toast, baked beans, black pudding, and tea or coffee.
A.making of B.having C.consisting of D.existing of

Your answers:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

Part 2: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in the corresponding numbered boxes.
(1.0 p)
BLOGGING AND THE MEDIA
The growing number of weblogs - or blogs, as they are (1- AFFECTION)
___________ known - on the internet has become a cause for concern among mainstream media
organizations. Within a few years, blogs have developed from (2- PERSON)

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___________musing on daily events to full-blown critical commentaries ___________ which


are often well-informed and eloquently expressed. With an estimated fifty-two million bloggers
writing on almost every (3- CONCEIVE) ___________ subjects each day, cooperate media can
no longer ignore them or treat them with disrespect. The ubiquity of blogs means that they are
increasingly (4- INFLUENCE) ___________ as can be seen in the number of news stories that
have been discredited or called into question by bloggers in recent years. For bloggers have a
freedom unavailable to mainstream journalists. They (5- PASS) ___________ both editor and
(6-PUBLISH) ___________, who by their presence (7- INEVITABLE) ___________distort
stories by “tailoring” them to suit their own ends. The material on blogs is raw, unmodified by
editors, and often harsh and direct in its (8- CRITICIZE) ___________of the way news is
reported by the media. The advantages of this for the reading public are obvious. Bloggers act as
a kind of media watchdog, able to check facts and verify or disprove information in a way that
journalists are often (9- ABLE) ___________ to, and this is shaking mainstream media out of its
(10- COMPLACENT) ___________.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3: The passage below contains 10 errors. Underline the errors and write the corrections
in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0p)
Everyone wants to reduce pollution. But the pollution problem is as complicated as it is serious.
It is complicated because of much pollution is caused by things that benefit people. For example,
exhaust of automobiles causes a large percent of all air pollution. However, the automobile
provides transportation for million of people. Factories discharge much of material that pollutes
air and water, but factories give employment to the large number of people.
Thus, to end or great reduce pollution immediately, people would have to stop using many things
that benefit them. Most the people do not want to do that, of course. Nevertheless, pollution can
be gradual reduced in several ways. Scientists and engineers can work to find ways to less the
way of pollution that such things as automobiles and factories cause. Governments can pass and
enforce laws that request businesses and traffic to stop, or to cut down on certain polluted
activities.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

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Part 4: Complete each sentence with the correct form of ONE of the phrasal verbs below.
Write your answers in the numbered spaces provided below the passage. Each verb is used
only once. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1,5 P)
try out slip up carry on get by put out
take after get down look up go through run for
1. If you’re finding it difficult to _______ on your salary, why don’t you ask for a raise?
2. I know what you’re _______ and I feel really sorry for you.
3. In many ways you _______ your father.
4. If you _______ you’ll get into trouble.
5. Hilary Clinton has decided to _______the American presidency in the election that will take
place next year.
6. You’d better _______ your cigarette because smoking isn’t allowed in here.
7. If you _______ working so hard, you’ll make yourself ill.
8. Stop worrying about it. Don’t let this failure _______ you _______.
9. The car’s in quite good condition but you can _______ it _______ before you make any
decision to buy,
10. When I was in New York, I was able to _____ several old friends I hadn’t seen for years.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

PART D: READING (5 points)


Part 1: Read the following passages and decide which answer A, B, C or D best fits each gap.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0 point)
SMILE POWER
The expression on your face can actually dramatically alter your feelings and perceptions, and it
has been proved that deliberately smiling or frowning can create corresponding emotional
responses. The idea was first (1) _______ by a French physiologist, Israel Waynbaum, in 1906.
He believed that different facial expressions affected the flow of blood to the brain, and that this
could create positive or negative feelings. A happy smile or irrepressible (2) _________
increased the blood flow and contributed to joyful feelings. However, sad, angry expressions
decreased the flow of oxygen-carrying blood, and created a vicious (3) _________ of gloom and
depression by effectively (4) _________ the brain of essential fuel.
Psychologist Robert Zajonc rediscovered this early (5) _________, and suggests that the
temperature of the brain could affect the production and synthesis of neurotransmitters which
definitely influence our moods and energy levels. He argues that an impaired blood flow could
not only deprive the brain of oxygen, but create further chemical imbalance by inhibiting these
vital hormonal messages. Zajonc goes on to propose that our brains remember that smiling is
associated with being happy, and that by deliberately smiling through your tears you can

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(6)_________ your brain to release uplifting neurotransmitters - replacing a depressed condition


(7) ________ a happier one. People suffering from psychosomatic (8)_______, depression and
anxiety states could (9) _______ from simply exercising their zygomatic- (10) _____ which pull
the corners of the mouth up and back to form a smile several times an hour.
1. A. given out B. sent for C. handed in D. put forward
2. A. laughter B. sadness C. humour D. depression
3. A. cycle B. spiral C. circle D. vortex
4. A. cutting B. starving C. removing D. eliminating
5. A. result B. subject C. research D. experiment
6. A. allow B. persuade C. let D. decide
7. A. through B. by C. after D. with
8. A. disease B. illness C. infection D. ailment
9. A. recover B. improve C. benefit D. progress
10. A. musclesB. nerves C. veins D. bones
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 2: Fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word and write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
There is an example at the beginning (0) (2.0 pts)
Conversations are such common, everyday events that we easily take them for (1)__________
and assume that they require no special (2)_______________ but at some time or other , most of
us have had problems talking with other people. You may find (3)________unable to get word in
edgeways, and feel foolish and inadequate. Sometimes you have to interrupt rudely, and are (4)
__________ feeling that, to other people, you must seem unpleasantly aggressive. Or (5)
__________ been desperate to speak, you do not know how to stop and risk (6)______
considered boring. Everyone sometimes finds it difficult to strike up conversations. The
importance of being able to start conversations is obvious. To have relationships, you have to
meet people and get to know them. To get to know them, you have to talk to them. At some
point, (7) __________ has to be an opening line, but how do you know what to say?
Conversations often begin (8) __________ one person remarks, ‘Beautiful weather, isn’t it?’ or
asks some other clichéd question. Conversation openers are rarely original – the anxiety of (9)
__________ the first approach is not conducive to creative thought – but this does not matter
what does matter is that these openers are recognized as what they are – attempts at starting a
conversation. The (10)________ are unimportant, the fact that they have been spoken is.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3: Read the following passage and then choose the best answers to the questions. Write
your answers (A, B, C or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes. (2.0 p)

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While most desert animals will drink water if confronted with it, for many of them the
opportunity never comes. Yet all living things must have water, or they will expire. The
herbivores find it in desert plants. The carnivores slake their thirst with the flesh and blood of
living prey. One of the most remarkable adjustments, however, has been made by the tiny
kangaroo rat, who not only lives without drinking but subsists on a diet of dry seeds containing
about 5% free water. Like other animals, he has the ability to manufacture water in his body by a
metabolic conversion of carbohydrates. But he is notable for the parsimony with which he
conserves his small supply by every possible means, expending only minuscule amounts in his
excreta and through evaporation from his respiratory tract.
Investigation into how the kangaroo rat can live without drinking water has involved
various experiments with these small animals. Could kangaroo rats somehow store water in their
bodies and slowly utilize these resources in the long periods when no free water is available from
dew or rain? The simplest way to settle this question was to determine the total water content in
the animals to see if it decreases as they are kept for long periods on a dry diet. If they slowly use
up their water, the body should become increasingly dehydrated, and if they begin with a store of
water, this should be evident from an initial high water content. Results of such experiments with
kangaroo rats on dry diets for more than 7 weeks showed that the rats maintained their body
weight. There was no trend toward a decrease in water content during the long period of water
deprivation. When the kangaroo rats were given free access to water, they did not drink water.
They did nibble on small pieces of watermelon, but this did not change appreciably the water
content in their bodies, which remained at 66.3 to 67.2 during this period.
This is very close to the water content of dry-fed animals (66.5), and the availability of free
water, therefore, did not lead to any “storage” that could be meaningful as a water reserve. This
makes it reasonable to conclude that physiological storage of water is not a factor in the
kangaroo rat’s ability to live on dry food.
1. What is the topic of this passage?
A. Kangaroo rats B. Water in the desert C. Desert life D. Physiological experiments
2. The word “expire” is closest in meaning to
A. become ill B. die C. shrink D. dehydrate
3. Which of the following is NOT a source of water for the desert animals?
A. Desert plants B. Metabolic conversion of carbohydrates in the body
C. The blood of other animals D. Streams
4. The word “it” refers to
A. water B. the desert C. the opportunity D. a living thing
5. The author states that the kangaroo rat is known for all of the following EXCEPT
A. the economy with which it uses available water B. living without drinking water
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C. breathing slowly and infrequently D. manufacturing water internally


6. The word “parsimony” is closest in meaning to
A. intelligence B. desire C. frugality D. skill
7. It is implied by the author that desert animals can exist with little or no water because of
A. less need for water than other animals B. their ability to adjust to the desert environment
C. their ability to eat plants D. many opportunities for them to find water
8. The word “deprivation” is closest in meaning to
A. preservation B. renewal C. examination D. loss
9. According to the passage, the results of the experiments with kangaroo rats showed that
A. kangaroo rats store water for use during dry periods.
B. kangaroo rats took advantage of free access to water.
C. there was no significant change in body weight due to lack of water or accessibility to
water.
D. a dry diet seems detrimental to the kangaroo rat’s health.
10. The tone of the passage is
A. critical B. scientific C. optimistic D. negative
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

PART E: WRITING (5points)


Part 1: Sentence transformation (1.0points)
For questions 1–5, finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it has the same
meaning as the first sentence
1. “If I were you, I wouldn’t accept his marriage proposal”, said Nam to Lan.
Nam ……………………………………………………………………………………..
2. I was strongly determined to complete my assignment before the end of the month.
I had……………………………………………………………………………………..
3. Ann speaks French much better than her sister does.
Ann’s sister……………………………………………………………………………..
. 4. We have never visited such a charming place.
 Never ………………………………………………………………………………….
5. You’ll be in serious trouble unless you apologize to Mrs. Dempsey.
You’ll get………………………………………………………………………………..

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For questions 6–10, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first
sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between two and
five words, including the word given. (1.0 point)

6. Are you sorry that you invited Liam to join us on our trip?
 Do ______________________________________ Liam to join us on our trip? REGRET
7. Considering that Luke is so young, you must admit he’s making excellent progress as a musician.
If you _________________________________________young Luke is, you must admit he’s
making excellent progress as a musician. ACCOUNT
8. My new MP3 player was twice the price of yours.
Your MP3 player was ______________________________________mine. EXPENSIVE
9. The website wouldn’t allow me to access certain pages.
 The website ____________________________________________ certain page. DENIED
10. The police managed to prevent the fighting between the two gangs by arresting the
masterminds.
 The police managed to ______________________ fight by arresting the masterminds. PUT

For questions 11-15, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original
sentence but using the word given. This word must not be altered in any way. (1.0 point)

11. The fridge is completely empty. (LEFT)


_________________________________________________________________.
12. It is pointless to have that old typewriter repaired. (WORTH)
_________________________________________________________________.
13. Frank never pays any attention to my advice. (NOTICE)
________________________________________________________________.
14. Even if we don't like the idea, we'll have to obey his orders. (WHETHER)
________________________________________________________________.
15. I knew nothing about the rebellion that they were planning (DARK)
_________________________________________________________________.
Part 2: Writing an argument (2.0points)
“It is said that game online is one of the topics worrying many parents these days?”
Do you agree or disagree with the statement above?

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Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or
experience
Your writing must be between 200 and 250 words.
KEY
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=lLpWkwgjCdY

ĐỀ SỐ 13
ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 CẤP HUYỆN
Môn: TIẾNG ANH

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(Thời gian làm bài 150 phút không kể thời gian giao đề)
SECTION A. LISTENING

1.0P

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Part 2. Question 8-12


1.0P

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1.0P

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Part 4. 1.0P

SECTION B. PHONETICS
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your
answers in the space provided below. (0.5p)
1. A. authentic B. thread C. thereby D. theory

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2. A. wandered B. embroidered C. preserved D. sacred


3. A. meat B. leader C. heat D. sweater
4. A. good B. mood C. noon D. pool
5. A. hurt B. nurse C. bury D. curly
Your answers:
1 2 3 4 5

II. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others. Write your
answers in the space provided below. (0.5p)
1. A. comprise B. amaze C. surprise D. backstage
2. A. property B. pollution C. religion D. attainment
3. A. electrician B. Japanese C. comfortable D. possibility
4. A. celebrate B. consider C. expression D. criteria
5. A. population B. intelligent C. opportunity D. economics
Your answers:
1 2 3 4 5

SECTION C. LEXICO & GRAMMAR


I. Choose the best answer to complete the following sentences. Write your answers
in the space provided below. (3.0p)
1. _________ you do better work than this, you won’t pass the exam.
A. When B. Although C. If D. Unless
2. It’s difficult to pay one’s bills when prices keep_________.
A. growing B. gaining C. rising D. raising
3. Not only _____ us light, but it also gives us heat.
A. the sun gives B. the sun has given
C. has the sun given D. does the sun give
4. "Did you like the novel that I gave you last week?”
-“ _________ the novels that I’ve read, I enjoyed this one the most.”
A. All of B. Of all C. For all D. From all
5. “Excuse me, is this seat free?” - “_____________”
A. No, you can’t sit here. C. Sorry, it is taken.
B. Yes, it is seated by a boy. D. Yes, but I don’t know so.
6. Her marriage has been arranged by her parents. She is marrying a man_______ .
A. she hardly knows him B. whose she hardly know him
C. she hardly knows D. that she hardly has known

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7. It was_______ serious accident that he was kept in hospital for a month.


A. such B. such a C. so D. so a
8. I had my younger brother_______ the newspaper to me while I was abroad.
A. send B. sent C. to send D. sending
9 . He hurt his leg _____________ in order to miss the exam.
A. at purpose B. for purpose C. in purpose D. on
purpose
10. It ____________ to me whether we meet them or not.
A. makes no difference B. is not a difference
C. is indifferent makes D. not a difference
11. The builders say they will have finished the roof ____________ .
A. by Tuesday B. as soon as they can
C. at the end of last year D. without any more delay
12. The reason why he gets into trouble so often is that he has a _______ temper.
A. fast B. rapid C. speedy D. quick
13. You can take part in sport activities or not. That depends on you. It is ________
A. compulsory B. required C. optional D. forceful
14. In the kitchen, there is a_____________ table.
A. beautiful large round wooden. B. large beautiful wooden round
C wooden round large beautiful D. round large wooden beautiful
15. This is _______ the most difficult job I’ve ever had to do.
A. by heart B. by chance C. by far D. by myself
Your answers:
1 2 3 4 5
6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15
II. Put the verbs given in the brackets into their appropriate tenses or forms. Write
your answers in the space provided below. (1.0p)
1. Peter did not get used to (get) up early when he first came to Vietnam.
2. By the time your brother (return) here next year, the city will have changed a lot.
3. No sooner the president (arrive) than they had an important discussion.
4. Were I (know) you are not at home today, I wouldn’t ask him to call you.
5. What is the name of the musician (compose) this piece of music?
6. Look! The yard is wet. It (rain) last night.
7. - Is it true that spaghetti didn’t originate in Italy?
- Yes. The Chinese (make) spaghetti dishes for a long time before Marco Polo
brought it back to Italy.
8. It’s no good (call) the police.

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9. The environment in our city (pollute) by exhaust gases from cars. We must do
something to stop this.
10. The teller was made (lie) down on the floor.
Your answer
1 2 3 4 5
6 7 8 9 10

III. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the words in parentheses. Write
your answers in the space provided below. (1.0p)
THE HOLIDAY OF A LIFETIME
If you want a truly (1. memory) holiday, book with us now! We can offer you a
(2. person) service that no other company can. Our expert staff will provide you with
useful (3. inform) about all of the (4.history) buildings and areas that you can visit. On
some excursions, for a small (5. add) change, we can even provide you with your own
individual guide. A trip with us will give you an insight into the (6. cultural) of the
region. We try to make sure that nothing is (7. miss) in order to make your trip a (8.
marvel) one that you will talk about for ages. We have something to offer both those (9.
look) for a peaceful time taking it easy, and more (10. energy) people looking for the
adventure of a lifetime.
Your answers:
1 2 3 4 5
6 7 8 9 10

IV. Choose the underlined word or phrase that needs correcting. Write A, B, C or D in
the box. (1.0p)
1. They asked me what did happen last night, but I was unable to tell them.
A B C D
2. Air pollution, together with littering, are causing many problems in our large,
industrial cities today.
A B C D
3. One of the most urgent problem facing us now is the need to control population
growth.
A B C D
4.Each year people around the world spending billions of dollars buying goods on the
Internet
A B C
D
5. Uniform is a style of clothing that identifies people as members of a group or as
workers in a
A B C
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particularly field.
D
6. Many kinds of tigers are at danger now.
A B C D
7. Our environment is being damaged, thus something should do.
A B C D
8. She didn’t find it easily to keep the children amused.
A B C D
9. I like to go to the countryside and my little sister does, either.
A B C D
10. There were interesting news on the radio this morning about the earthquake in
Japan.
A B C D
Your answers:
1 2 3 4 5
6 7 8 9 10
SECTION D. READING
I. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each of the following questions.
Write your answers in the space provided below.(1.0p)
Just before and during World War I, a number of white musicians came to Chicago
from New Orleans playing in an idiom they had learn from blacks in that city . Five of
them formed what eventually became known as Original Dixieland Band. They moved to
New York in 1917 and won fame there. That year they recorded the first phonogragh
record identified as Jazz.
The first important recording by black musicians was made in Chicago in 1923 by
King Oliver’s creole Jazz Band, a group that featured some of the foremost jazz
musicians of the time, including trumpet player Louis Armstrong. Armstrong’s dynamic
trumpet style became famous worldwide. Other band members had played in Fate
Marable’s band, which travel up and down the Mississippi River entertaining passengers
on riverboats.
The characteristics of this early types of jazz, known as Dixieland jazz, included a
complex interweaving of melodic lines among the coronet or trumpet, clarinet and
trombone, and a steady chomp- chomp beat provided by the rhythm section, which
include the piano, bass and drums. Most bands used no written notations, preferring
arrangements agreed on verbally.
Improvisation was an indispensable element. Even bandleaders such as Duke
Ellington, who provided his musicians with written agreements, permitted them plenty of
freedom to improvise when playing solos.
In the late 1920s, the most influential jazz artists in Chicago were members of small
bands such as the Wolverines. In New York, the trend toward larger groups. These

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groups played in revues, large dance hall s and theaters. Bands would become larger still
during the next age of jazz, the Swing era.
1. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The early history of Jazz.
B. The music of World War I.
C. The relationship of melody and rhythm in jazz.
D. The New York recording industry in the 1920s.
2. The musicians who made the earliest jazz recordings was originally from....
A. New Orleans.
B. Chicago.
C. New York.
D. Mississippi.
3. When was the first important recording by black jazz musicians made?
A. 1917.
B. 1923.
C. in the late 1920s.
D. The early 1930s.
4. According to the passage , Louis Armstrong was a member of which of the
following?
A. The Original Dixieland Band.
B. Fate Marable’s river boat band.
C. King Oliver’s Creole Jazz band.
D. The Wolverines.
5. The word “ steady” is closet in meaning to...
A. constant.
B. basic.
C. urgent.
D. happy.
6. Duke Ellington is given as an example of bandleader who...
A. could not read music.
B. did not value improvisation.
C. discouraged solo performances.
D. used written arrangements.
7. Which of the following phrases would be LAEST like to be applied to Dixieland
jazz ?
A. relatively complex
B. highly improvisational
C. rhythmic and melodic
D. rigidly planned
8. According to the passage, who were the Wolverines?
A. A band that played in large dance hall.
B. A New York group.
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C. A Swing band.
D. A small group.
9. The author provides the most detailed descriptions of early jazz music in the…
A. First paragraph
B. Second paragraph
C. Third paragraph
D. Fourth paragraph
10. The paragraph following this one most likely deals with…
A. The music of small band.
B. The Swing era.
C. Music that influenced Dixieland music.
D. Other forms of music popular in the 1920s.
Your answer
1 2 3 4 5
6 7 8 9 10
II. Fill a suitable word in each blank to complete the passage. Write your answers in
the space provided below. (2.0p)
Many thousands of children have (1) in their homes. The most common accidents
are with (2) and hot water. Small children often touch pots of (3) water on the stove. The
pots fall over and the hot water falls on the children and (4) them. Some children like to
(5) with fire. They enjoy striking matches or throwing things on fire to make it burn
brightly. If the fire gets too big, it gets out of (6). Then the house (7) fire. It is very (8) to
play with matches. When a child strikes a match, the flame soon burns near his (9). Then
he (10) the match on the floor. Many houses catch fire in this way.
Your answer
1 2 3 4 5
6 7 8 9 10

III. You are going to read an article about a sailing race. Choose the most suitable
heading from the list A-H for each paragraph from 1-5 of the article. There are two
extra headings which you do not need to use. There has been an example for you.
(1.0p)
Headings
A. The consequences of poor performance. E. Benefiting from the power of
nature.
B. An unexpectedly demanding way of life. F. Cooperating to overcome the
power of nature.
C. A solution that seems to work. G. It’s not what people think.
D. The terrible consequences of making a mistake. H. No way out if you don’t like
it.

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Paragraph 0: ...........D.............
Imagine for a moment, spending the night on board of a large yacht, being
roughly woken in the pitch dark and ordered on deck. Every so often you will be totally
drenched, very suddenly, in salt water. You will be sharing the same cramped space with
14 other people for a whole year. Your stomach, when not affected by seasickness, will
be hit by the competitive tension and nervousness that afflicts all sportspeople. You will
be obliged to concentrate without cease. The slightest loss of focus could cost someone
their life.
Paragraph 1: ...........................
For the eight crews taking part in the Round-the-world yachting race, this has
been daily life since they left Britain eleven months ago. Now, after racing 50,000 across
kilometers of ocean, they are soon due home. While most of us have worked, slept,
taken a holiday, these crews have sailed and sailed, day after day, night after night, in
weather conditions that would test any human. This is the reality of ocean yacht racing,
which bears little resemblance to the popular image of sailing - the quick sprint around a
lake before returning ashore for a meal and a warm bath.
Paragraph 2: ...........................
Racing 20-metre yachts around the world is a story of unrelenting hard work,
pushing yourself to the limits of endurance. But it is also a story of the vastness and
beauty of the sea, of seeing the sun rise and set on hundreds of desolate horizons, and of
the supreme satisfaction of arriving somewhere knowing that wind alone has taken you
there.
Paragraph 3: .............................
Unlike the captains, who are professional sailors, the crews all consist of amateur
volunteers who have actually paid for the privilege of taking a year off from their work
and enduring these difficult conditions. On board London Light the ages range from 21
to 65. For the youngest member, Susan Porter, the trip is about the excitement of both
the racing and the elements “Being able to pitch yourselves as a team against a storm
gives you a huge sense of achievement”, she says.
Paragraph 4: .............................
Jerry Wallace, a marketing director, found sailing a refreshing change from the
selfish individualism of business. Although he was prepared for the discomfort, the
mental stress of long distance racing was not what he has anticipated, “A grand Prix
driver has a few hours of focus, a footballer 90 minutes, but we have been racing for 11
months. This is something I didn’t really appreciate before I start.”
Paragraph 5: .............................
Inevitably, there are tensions. The kind of people who choose to take part in races
like this tend to motivated and strong-willed. On a trivial level, there are the usual
arguments about things like cleaning, tidying, personal hygiene, even the way people
snore. Row on a boat must be addressed immediately. Left to develop, they get much
worse. On London Light they have done this by having a meeting where problems can
be discussed and resolved by majority vote. Cooperation is the key, and everyone can
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have their say. The London is one of the few boats that has never lost any crew early
because of a personality clash.
SECTION E. WRITING
I. Rewrite the following sentences, beginning as shown, so that the meaning stays
the same. (2.0p)
1. It was wrong of you to allow a four-year-old child to walk home alone.
-> Youshould ........................................................................................................................
....................
2. I could hold a big party due to my Mom’s help.
-> Had
it ............................................................................................................................................
.........
3. Mrs. Green is proud of her son’s contribution to the play.
-> Mrs. Green is proud of
what ................................................................................................................
4. Only two out of the five rooms we have booked have air conditioning.
-> We have booked five rooms,
only ........................................................................................................
5. Success depends on hard work.
-> The harder ............................................................, the
more.................................................................
6. Although Minh was not guilty they executed him . (innocence)
-> In ………………………………………….................................
………………………………………
7. Please don't make me annoyed by such silly questions.
-> I'd
rather .....................................................................................................................................
............
8. People think that the prisoner was recaptured while drinking in the pub.

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-> The
prisoner .................................................................................................................................
...........
9. Have a cigar!
-> You ……………………..................................
…………………………………………………………
10. “ OK . It was my mistake . I’m sorry ”, Peter said.
-> Peter admitted …………..................................
………………………………………………………….
II. Do not change the given word, use it to rewrite each of the following sentences so
that each has as a similar meaning as the original one. (1.0p)
1. Dicken’s last novel was unfinished when he died. (WITHOUT)
-
>.............................................................................................................................................
...........
2. When he drinks a lot, he gets very bad. (MORE)
-
>.............................................................................................................................................
...........
3. John was shocked to hear that he had failed his driving test. (CAME)
-
>.............................................................................................................................................
............
4. David finds it easy to make friends. (DIFFICULTY)
-
>.............................................................................................................................................
............
5. The last political scandal of this kind took place fifty years ago. (SINCE)

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-
>.............................................................................................................................................
.................
III. Write a paragraph about 180- 200 words. (2.0p)
Topic: There are 4 skills in English: Listening, Speaking, Reading and Writing.
Which skill is the most difficult to you? Why?
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………........
.........................……………
THE END

KEY+AUDIO
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=cnLFUBXXFpU

Đề số 14
Kỳ thi : Chọn học sinh giỏi cấp tỉnh
Môn thi : Tiếng Anh 9 - Thời gian làm bài:150 phút
SECTION A: LISTENING (2.0 points)
Part I: You will hear someone talking to a group of students about a visit to
an arts centre. Listen and tick A, B or C for each question (1.0 points)
1. There are still tickets for

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A. The piano concert B. Twelfth night C. Spider and Rose


2. The coach will leave at 3.30 because
A. they don’t want to miss the show
B. They want free time at the Arts centre
C. It’s a long journey to the Arts centre
3. You have to pay to see
A. the Russian ballet exhibition
B. the Scottish jewellery
C. the South American photographs
4. You can buy clothes
A. on the first floor B. in the souvenir shop C. close to the Arts
centre
5. Everyone should get back on the coach at
A. 10.10 B. 10.15 C. 10.20

Part II: You will hear some information about an air museum.
Listen and complete questions(1.0 points)
Air Museum
- Museum has : 140 planes
- Museum is near village of (1)………………..
- From village, get bus number: (2)………………...
- Summer opening time:10 a.m to (3)…………….pm
- Price of family ticket: £ (4)………………...
- Day for plane trips: (5)…………………

SECTION B. PHONETICS (2.0 points)


Part I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from
that of the rest. (1.0 points)
1. A. village B. passage C. teenage D. message
2. A. mutual B. nation C. capture D. nature
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3. A. chapter B. chemist C. christmas D. character


4. A. wandered B. embroidered C. ordered D. laughed
5. A. new B. blew C. flew D. threw
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Part II. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in
the group. (1.0 points)
6. A. authenticity B. cooperative C. metropolitan D. multicultural
7. A. fabulous B. skyscraper C. lacquerware D. determine
8. A. dogsled B. downtown C. igloo D. fatal
9. A. gather B. listen C. publish D. supply
10. A. engineer B. distinguish C. opinion D. preserve
Your answers:
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

SECTION C. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (7.0 points)


Part I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each
sentence. (2.0 points)
1. Cyclists must ………for pedestrians when they are cycling along the country
lane.
A. see off B. look out C. avoid D. observe
2. ………tell me the way to the Museum of Fine Arts?.
A. Excuse me, can you B. Sorry, but could you
C. Excuse me, should you D. Hey, do you think you can
3. That was a ............ ceremony..
A. prepared-well B. prepare-well C. well-prepared D. well-prepare
4. The more important an exam is, …………..
A. the more you’ll get nervous B. the more nervous will you get

C. the most nervous you’ll be D. the more nervous you’ll get


5. Is this the address to ........ you want the package sent ?
A. where B. which C. that D. whom
6. She remembered …………the gas before going out.

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A. turn on B. turning on C. turn off D. turning off


7. Julia: “Peter failed in the final examination last term.” - Linda:
“…………….”
A. Sorry to hear that. B. Really? C. What’s wrong? D. I can’t believe it.
8. It is high time you …………….hard for the exam.
A. to study B. study C. studied D. studying
9. Are you used …………to the left in England, Nam?
A. to drive B. to driving C. to be driven D. to drove
10. I am afraid that these regulations have to be ………… with.
A. complied B. provided C. faced D. met
11. When Bill saw my new car, he was ………… with envy.
A. blue B. green C. yellow D. white
12 When I came in, the lesson ..................
A. was teaching B. was taught C. was being taught D. taught
13. He climbed up the tree ………… to pick the apples before the wind blew
them off.
A. in order B. sothat C. so D. for
14. I ………… very well with my father now, we never have any arguments.
A. go on B. carry on C. get on D. put on
15. It is no use ………… what has been done.
A. to regret B. regretting C. regretted D. regret
16. ………..stay the night if it’s too difficult to get home.
A. At all costs B. By all means C. In all D. On the world
17. I don’t suppose you have change for 2 pounds, ………?
A. do you B. don’t you C. do I D. did I
18. The boss said that he would fly to Ho Chi Minh City …………. day.
A. next B. the previous C. the following D. the before
19. Not until 2008 ………….across the river.
A. the first bridge was built B. the first building of a bridge was
C. built the first bridge D. was the first bridge built
20. . It is raining dogs and cats outside. Don’t go out..
A. hardly B. slightly C. heavily D. slowly
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Part II. Give the correct form of the words to complete each sentence. (2.0
points)

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Let me make a suggestion to help you deal with difficult situations. If,
for example, you are taking part in a sports (0) ...competition.....,
meeting COMPETE
someone important, or giving a ...(1) ..................... in front of a large PERFORM
audience, you will probably be quiet, ..(2) ..................., and worry that NERVE
You will not be as ..(3) ............................. as you would like to be. SUCCEED
What you need to do is to prepare yourself thoroughly by running
through
the whole ..(4) ......................................... over and over again in your ACT
mind , ..(5) ....................................... going through every detail. CARE
For example, a famous pianist, ..(6) ........................... for seven years PRISON
for ..(7) ......................... reasons, could still play magnificently on his POLITICS
Release. When he was asked how he managed to play so well, his … EXPLAIN
(8) .................. was that he had practised every day in his mind.

Your answers:
1. 5.
2. 6.
3. 7.
4. 8.

Part III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs
correction (1.0 points).
1. You'll have to work hard to catch up for the rest of the class as they started
A B C D
studying before you.
2. In some countries children are put under great pressure by their parents
getting
A B C D
good exam results.
3. The study of these animals are truly fascinating, and many books have been
A B C
written about them.
D
4. She was waiting nervous in the waiting room for the interview.
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A B C D
5. Ha Long Bay, where we visited some days ago, is one of the most famous
places
A B C D
in our country.

Part IV. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (2.0 points)
1. The man at the corner table (1. glance) ……… my way to see if I (2. listen)
……...
2. When I (3. look) ……….. at my suitcase, I could see that somebody (4. try)
……….. to open it.
3. I don’t know what’s the matter with him. He (5. act) ……….. funny since you
(6. be) …….. away.
4. Scarcely they (7. move) ………. into the new house when their friends (8.
come) …………. in.
5. Just as I (9. wonder)……….. what to do next, the phone (10. ring) ……….
Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

SECTION D. READING COMPREHENSION (5.0 points)


Part I. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the following
paragraph (2.0pt)

ADVICE TO YOUNG PEOPLE ABOUT TO START WORK


In these days of high unemployment, it is often difficult (1) …….. young people to
find a job. If they are lucky (2) ………. to be asked to go for an interview, they
may find (3) ….. .…there are at least 20 other applicants for the (4) ………. If a
company is thinking of offering (5) …….. a job, they will ask you for at least one
reference from either your previous employer (6) ……… someone who knows you
well. (7) …….. taking up your job, you may have to sign a contract. You will
probably have to do some training, (8) ……….. help you to do the job more
successfully. Once you have decided that this is your chosen career, you will then
have to work (9) ………… to try and get promotion, which usually brings more
responsibility and more money! If you are unlucky, you may be made redundant,

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and not be able to find (10) ………… job. It is also a good idea to pay some
money into a pension scheme, which will help you to look after yourself and your
family when you are retired. Finally, good luck!
Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
Part II. Choose the best word A, B, C or D to fill in spaces in the following
passage. (2.0pts)
Man has always depended on plants (1) ……..food and many other useful
products. For this reason, farming is one of the world's most important industries.
At first, (2) ……… man did not know how to plant seeds and raise crops. He (3)
………..wild fruits and vegetables where he found them. Then man discovered
how to grow his own food. He (4) ……….seeds and waited for the crop to grow.
For the first time, he could be reasonably sure of his food supply. He could settle
down and set up shelters in the places (5) ………. he grew food.
As populations began to increase, the (6) …………for food became greater. Old-
fashioned tools and farming methods were insufficient in (7) ………..the demand,
so man cultivated more and more land and invented complicated machines to make
his work easier. Tractors replaced horses and other farm animals. Scientists studied
and (8) ………… with plants. They told farmers how to control plant diseases, and
how to grow bigger and better crops. Now one man, (9) …………a wide
knowledge of plants and the help of machines, can cultivate hundreds of acres. He
can raise plants which did not originally grow in the soil or (10)………..of his
community.
1. A. about B. with C. for D. to
2. A. early B. initial C. primary D. original
3. A. collected B. gathered C. assembled D. amassed
4. A. brought up B. raised C. grew D. planted
5. A. which B. where C. that D. when
6. A. demand B. request C. requirement D. necessity
7. A. taking B. getting C. meeting D. achieving
8. A. practiced B. tried on C. tested D. experimented
9. A. on B. in C. at D. with
10. A. situation B. condition C. climate D. weather

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Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part III. Read the following text, then choose the best phrase from A-G to fill
in each of the gaps. There is one extra phrase you don’t need to use. Write
your answers in the numbered table. There is an example at the beginning.
(1.0 point)
A. Choose your author
B. If necessary, be brutal
C. You don’t have to finish every book
D. You can read wherever you are
E. Change your free time
F. The importance of reading
0. …F. The importance of reading………………………………………..
Nobody would argue that reading books is a bad thing. We may feel that Arnold
Bennett was going slightly over the top when he said that the man who does not
read books is merely not born. He can’t see, he can’t hear, he can’t feel, in any full
sense. He can only eat his dinner but more often than not, we would agree, reading
a book is normally better than watching television. So, most of us would really
quite like to read.
1. …………………………………………………………………………..
A recent government survey of what we actually do revealed that the
average woman spends the equivalent of only five days a year reading ( the
average man four days), compared to 56 days watching television. Cutting down
on time spent in front of the box should give you some spare hours, and if you are
male you’re even luckier. The same survey also discovered that the average man
spends 17 days a year ‘doing nothing at all’.
2. ………………………………………………………………………….
If you examine your day for reading opportunities, you will discover lots of
free time. Standing at the dentist’s waiting room, queuing up for things: the
occasional 10-20 minutes here and there quickly add up. But the time will fly if
you always have your book with you.
3. ………………………………………………………………………….
Books are there to be read. You can generally buy classics for £1, so don’t
be overprotective with them. Read in the bath (in the shower may not be such a
good idea). I once found myself with 75 pages of a Dickens novel left to read, and

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a plane to catch. Rather than spend a two-week holiday lumbered with a 900-page
book I pulled the last 100 pages out and took them with me.
4. ………………………………………………………………………….
There are 106,000 books published in Britain every year. The best of seven
centuries worth of literature is published in paperback. There has to be something
you would like. Identifying it may take time. Be guided by what you have enjoyed
in the past and branch out from there: Roald Dahl ? Then try R. L Stine. Stephen
King ? Then try Clive Barker. Agatha Christie? Then try Patricia Highsmith or
Ruth Rendell.
5. ………………………………………………………………………….
If you are not particularly enjoying a book, you are guaranteed to find 143 other
things to do instead of reading. Consequently, it will take months to finish and put
you off picking up another. When you find this happening, stop reading this book
and start another immediately.
Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
SECTION E. WRITING (4.0 points)
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means
exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (1.0 point)
1. It is supposed that the thief stole everything in the house.
=> The thief
……………………………………………………………………………
2. While mending the road, they accidentally blocked our water pipes.
=> They accidentally
cut ...............................................................................................
3. My advice for you is to get there on time.
=> I’d rather
…………………………………………………………………………..
4. Neither Tim nor Mary can speak Portugese.
=> Both
………………………………………………………………………………
5. She hasn’t met Tim for 2 months.
=>The last time
………………………………………………………………………

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Part II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it means exactly the
same as the given one. Using the given word in brackets. Do not change the
word. (1.0 point)
1. Don’t run away with the idea that this work is easy. (conclusion)
………………………………………………………………………………………
2. I’m trying to concentrate, but all that noise you’re making is distracting me.
(putting)
………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Nobody expected her to lose, but she did. (against)
………………………………………………………………………………………
4. He doesn’t want to become an artist though he’s interested in arts. ( spite)

……………………………………………………………………………………
…..
5. My colleague said that she was willing to work late. ( mind
……………………………………………………………………………………….
...
Part III. Writing a paragraph (2.0 points)
In 120-150 words, write a paragraph about the negative effects of tourism on
your country.
………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………….…………………………………………

KEY+AUDIO
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=3dnyydrvCYc
ĐỀ SỐ 15

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KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH


Môn: Tiếng Anh 9

Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút

SECTION I: LISTENING (3.0 points) (You will hear twice for each part)

Part 1. you will hear a doctor talking about how people can lead a healthier life. For
each question, put a tick in the correct box.

1. To become healthier you should ________.

A. dramatically change your life B. change some daily habits. C. eat hardly
anything.

2. If you don't manage to exercise as much as you should ________.

A. leave the gym. B. try not to be negative about it. C. be angry with
yourself.

3. To improve your mood you should ________.

A. drink more tea and coffee. B. only eat vegetables. C. increase the amount of
vegetables you eat.

4. The survey ________.

A. showed quite dramatic results. B. didn't have strong results. C. didn't give any
useful information.

5. Youshould always ________.

A. do important jobs first. B. do everything as quickly as possible. C. try to finish what


you start

6. The doctor says ________.

A. you should never have a late night B. lack of sleep causes brain disease.

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C. it's okay to go to bed late sometimes.

Part 2. You will hear a tour guide giving information about an old British house. For
each question. fill in the missing information in the numbered space.

- The house was built in the (7)……………..

- The Reynold family lived in the house until (8) ……………..

- The servants had rooms in the (9) ……………..

- The art collection is in the (10) ……………..

- George Reynold was a (11) ……………..

- George's son Michael died from (12) ……………..

- Wife died while giving birth to their (13) …………….. Emily.

- George's brother died in a (14) …………….. riding accident.

- George died of a heart attack at the age of (15) ……………..

SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (7.0 points)

Part 1: Questions from 16 to 36. (3.0 points - 0.15/ each)

Choose the best answer to each question.

16. As a citizen, it is normal to _________ to the laws and rules made by the society.

A. conform B. resist C. hinder D. obey

17. He attempted to _________the painting from the gallery but he was caught.

A. rob B. steal C. thief D. kidnap

18. Once the computer virus was removed, a lot of information ________.

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A. is disappearing B. will have disappeared

C. disappears D. disappeared

19. Telecommuter boosters will often mention _________convenient it is for people


wishing to cut down on their work hours.

A. how B. therefore C. only D. most

20. A: “Will the Jackson be invited?”– B: “I_________.”

A. expect so not B. so expect C. expect so D. don’t expect

21. I read the contract again and again ___________avoiding making spelling mistakes.

A. with a view to B. on account of C. by means of D. in terms of

22. In a report submitted to the government yesterday, scientists __________that the


building of the bridge be stopped.

A. banned B. complained C. said D.


recommended

23. Anyone ordering a new MP3 player _________ the end of the month will receive a
free extra set of headphones.

A. at B. in C. upon D. before

24. I enjoyed reading that story. It was rather sad, _________.

A. also B. though C. but D. so

25. My job is so ________ that I don’t think I’ll be able to take a summer break.

A. persisting B. hard C. demanding D. tough

26. A number of students ________ for a rise since last year

A. asked B. has asked C. ask D. have asked

27. I have been fascinated by _________ since I was at secondary school.

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A. photographic B. photographer C. photograph D. photography

28. She has difficulty ________ and ________ English.

A. speak-writing B. to speak- to write C. speak-write D. speaking-


writing

29. Her mother’s illness cast a cloud__________her wedding day

A. for B. over C. on D. in

30. I don’t really___________winter sports very much

A. deal with B. face up to C. get round to D. go in for

31. The meeting was _______ off at the last minute because the papers were not ready.

A. stopped B. broken C. called D. turned

32. There are still, however, rather a lot of obstacles to ________.

A. overcome B. come over C. solve D. resolve

33. __________ the barrier at the side of the road, the car would have crashed into the
valley below.

A. But for B. Apart from C. Except for D. Unless

34. She has quite a good _____ of English.

A. result B. pass C. understanding D. head

35. According to the _____ of the contract, tenants must give six months notice if they
intend to leave.

A. laws B. rules C. terms D. details

Part 2: Questions from 36 to 45. (2 points - 0.2/ each)

Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete the following sentences.

36. There are some ………… to every grammatical rule. EXCEPT

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37. The engineering sector achieved significant ………… last year. GROW

38. I have a …………of old records from my grandma. COLLECT

39. He'll ………… be coming later. SURE

40. Eric Clapton's guitar solos are …………. LEGEND

41. It was one of the most ………… plays I've seen recently. ENJOY

42. In her time, Marilyn Monroe was a very ………… actress. GLAMOUR

43. It's ………… to tell whether he's lying or not. POSSIBLE

44. He's no worldwide star, but he had very humble…………. BEGIN

45. They took ………… of noise levels inside the building. MEASURE

Part 3: Questions from 46 to 50.(1 point - 0.2/ each)

Each of the following sentences has an error. Find the errors and correct them.

46. Caroline refused taking the job given to her because the salary was not good. à

47. While the brows were away on holiday, their house was broke into. à

48. Why don’t you congratulate our son about passing his final exam? à

49. There is such few ink that it will be impossible tofinish addressing the envelopes. à

50. I found it wonderfully to travel abroad. à

Part 4: Questions from 51 to 55.(1 point - 0.2/ each)

Fill in each of the sentences with correct prepositions.

51. Have you heard? Sam's got engaged……. Susan.

52. Let me run ……… a few of the benefits our scheme offers you.

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53. I think that …….. the circumstances it would be a good idea if you stayed at home for a
few days.

54. Therefore, ……… accordance with our regulations, you will be issued with a formal
written warning.

55. Following the financial scandal he left the job………. disgrace.

SECTION III: READING (6.0 points)

Part 1. Questions 56 – 65 (2 points - 0.2/ each)

Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each of the following blanks.

SOUND ADVICE FOR LANGUAGE LEARNERS

A recent survey of a language learning magazine has consulted a number of


experts in the (56) _______ of a second language acquisition. Their advice may prove
invaluable for those (57) _______ a language course. One suggestion is that you (58)
_______ whether you are likely to be successful at learning a language? Did you enjoy
studying languages at school, for example? The major (59) ________ will be your own
time and effort. Therefore, you must be sure that the course on offer leads to a (60)
_______qualification. Also, be realistic in your (61) ________. If you don’t set
achievable aims, you are more likely to give up. Do not be deceived (62) _______
thinking that the most expensive courses are the best. (63) _________ around to get the
best possible value for money. You should also bear in mind that the faster you learn a
language, the more quickly you forget it. Sandra Miller, a French teacher, tried to teach
herself German by rolling on a (64) ________ course. Already fluent in four languages
and with a sound knowledge of teaching methodology her chances of (65) ________
progress were high. Three years on she remembers very little. She feels her biggest
mistake was not to follow up her first experience. “I should have consolidated what I’d
learnt by continuing to study, even if it were by myself.”

56. A. branch B. field C. area D. domain

57. A. considering B. wondering C. thinking D. looking

58. A. survey B. review C. balance D. assess


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59. A. price B. charge C. cost D. valuation

60. A. valued B. regarded C. understood D. recognised

61. A. ends B. sights C. goals D. objects

62. A. into B. about C. by D. in

63. A. Nose B. Shop C. Push D. Run

64. A. rapid B. quick C. fast D. crash

65. A. achieving B. making C. doing D. gaining

Part 2. Questions 66 – 75 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)

Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question

(The ability to conduct electricity is one of the key properties of a metal. Other
solid material such as silicon can conduct electricity but only effectively at certain
temperatur_1). Also, some substances such as salt (sodium chloride) can conduct when
molten or when dissolved in water. The (ability of metals to conduct electricity is due to
how their atoms bond together_2). In order to bond together the metal atoms lose at
least one of their outermost electrons. This leaves the metal atoms with a positive
charge and they are now strictly ions. The lost electrons are free to move in what are
known as a sea of electrons. (Since the electrons are negatively charged they attract the
ions and this is what keeps the structure together_4).

An electric current is a flow of charge and since the electrons in the sea of
electrons are free to move they can be made to flow in one direction when a source of
electrical energy such as a battery is connected to the metal. Hence we have an electric
current flowing through the wire, and this is what makes metals such good conductors
of electricity. The only other common solid conducting material that pencil users are
likely to encounter is graphite (what the ‘lead’ of a pencil is made from). Graphite is a
form of carbon and again the carbon atoms bond in such a way that there is a sea of
electrons that can be made to flow as an electric current. Likewise, if we have an ionic
substance like salt we can make the electrically charged ions flow to create a current but
only when those ions are free to move, either when the substance is a liquid or
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dissolved in water. (In its solid state an ionic substance like salt cannot conduct
electricity as its charged ions cannot flow_5).

Electrical insulators are substances that cannot conduct electricity well either,
because they contain no charged particles or any charged particles they might contain
do not flow easily. (Water itself is a poor conductor or electricity as it does not contain a
significant amount of fully charged particles_7) (the ends of a water molecule are partly
charged but overall the molecule is neutral). However, most water we encounter does
contain dissolved charged particles, so it will be more conductive than pure water.
(Many of the problems that occur when touching electrical devices with wet hands
result from the ever-present salt that is left on our skin_8) through perspiration and it
dissolves in the water to make it more conductive.

66. Electrical conductivity is ________.

A. one of the most important properties of metals

B. one of the key properties of most solid materials

C. impossible for any substance when it is dissolved in water

D. completely impossible for silicon

67. According to the passage, a metal can conduct electricity due to ________.

A. the absence of free electrons B. its atoms with a positive charge

C. the way its atoms bond together D. the loss of one electron in the core
of its atoms

68. The word “outermost” in paragraph 1 mostly means ________.

A. the lightest. B. nearest to the inside.

C. furthest from the inside. D. the heaviest.

69. The atoms of a metal can bond together because ________.

A. the lost electrons cannot move freely in the sea of electrons

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B. electrons can flow in a single direction

C. they lose all of electrons

D. negatively charged electrons attract positive ions

70. Salt in its solid state is not able to conduct electricity because ________.

A. it has free electrons B. its charged ions can flow easily

C. it cannot create any charge ions D. it charged ions are not free to move

71. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ________.

A. charged ions B. electric currents C. charged particles D. electrical


insulator

72. Water is a poor conductor because it contains ________.

A. no positive or negative electric charge

B. only a small amount of fully charged particles

C. only a positive electric charge

D. only a negative electric charge

73. We can have problems when touching electrical devices with wet hands because
________.

A. the eater itself is a good conductor of electricity

B. the water dissolves the salt on our skin and becomes more conductive

C. the water contains too many neutral molecules

D. the water containing no charged particles makes it more conductive

74. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

A. Pure water is much more conductive than most water we encounter every day.

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B. Graphite is a common solid substance that can conduct electricity.

C. Salt can conduct electricity when it is molten or dissolved.

D. Some materials are more conductive than others.

75. Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?

A. Electrical Energy B. Electrical Devices C. Electrical Insulators D. Electrical


Conductivity

Part 3: Questions 76 – 85 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)

Read the text and fill in one word which best fits each gap.

These days it is impossible to open a newspaper (76) …… reading about the


damage we are doing to the environment. The earth is being threatened (77) …… the
future looks bad (78) …… can each of us do? We cannot clean (79) …… our polluted
rivers and seas overnight. Nor we can stop the(80) …… of plants and animals. But we can
stop adding to the problem (81) …… scientists look for answer. It may not be easy to
change your lifestyle (82) …… but some steps are easy to take: cut down the amount of
driving you do, or use as little plastic as possible. It is also easy to save (83) ……, which
also (84) …… household bills. We all make a personal decision to work for the future of
our planet if we want to ensure a better world (85) …… our grandchildren.

Part 1:Questions from 86 to 90.(1 point- 0.2/ each)

Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence printed before it.

86. It was careless of you to allow your 16-year-old son to drive your car.

 You should …………………………………………………………….

87. I shall never lend John any money, no matter what happens.

 Under no …………………………………………………………….

88. “You broke my bicycle, Minh!” said Hoa.

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@ Hoa accused …………………………………………………………….

89. I regret not buying any tickets for the concert.

 I wish …………………………………………………………….

90. Tim looks nothing like his father.

 Tim …………………………………………………………….

Part 2:Questions from 91 to 92.(2 points - 0.4/ each)

Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence,
using the word given. Do not change the word given.

91. I don’t intend to apologize to either of them. (intention)

 I have …………………………….to either of them

92. “It was my fault to break your vase yesterday” said Jane to her brother. (admitted)

 Jane …………………………….brother’s vase yesterday.

93. You should think about the price before you decide whether to buy it or not.
(consideration)

 You should …………………………….before you decide whether to buy it or not.

94. I find driving on the left in England very strange. ACUSTOMED

 I …………………………….on the left in England.

95. She always has a good relationship with the children. gets

 She always …………………………….the children.

……………………THE END ……………………...

KEY+AUDIO
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https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Lf-iThm0V2M&t=133s

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH


Đề số 16
Môn: Tiếng Anh 9

Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút

SECTION I: LISTENING (3.0 points) (You will hear twice for each part)

Part 1. You will hear a man, David, being interviewed about his life as a professional
footballer, for each question, put a tick in the correct box.

1. How long has David been a professional football play

A. One match B. Two years C. four years

2. What is in a normal day for David?

A. Fitness training and tactics. B. fitness training and a full match.

C. Fitness, training tactics and a full match.

3. What do the team not watch videos about?

A. The opposition. B. Warming up. C. Their own


performance.

4 . What does David say about the diet of a footbalier?

A. it is often unpleasant and bad. B. It has lots of rice, meat and pasta.

C. Footballers have to be careful about what they eat.

5. What is true about David's free time?

A. He spends most of his free time with his friends

B. He has very little free time, except in the summer.

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C. He usually does not manage to see his family.

6. What does David say about his future ambitions?

A. He firstly wants to secure a regular place in the team.

B. He wants to play for a European tearn in the next two years.

C. He never thinks about playing in the World Cup.

Part 2. You will hear a woman talking on the radio about fours of historic houses in
the south of England, for each question, fill in the missing information in the
numbered space.

HISTORIC TOURS

South Elmharn House.

Built: (7) ………. century by the bishops of Norwich

Improved: 16th century by a group of rich (8) ……….

Features: many old, valuable, wall paintings.

Remains of a small Norman (9) ……….

Tours: Including a walk 2 p.m £ 12. tea / coffee, meal bookable.

Haughley Hall

Built: 14th century outside ruined castle

Improved: 18th century.

Features: Once owned by (10) ……….II, currently owned by a Lord.

Secret (11) ……….in the walls

Two tunnels now closed

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Tours 11.30 or 2 p.m £ with traditional (12) ………., £ 12 with tea. Group
welcome.

Bedfield House

Built: (13) ………. century by the church.

Improved: Mid 15th century.

Features Signs that protect against witchcraft are on (14) ………. and surfaces.

Gardens are joins by (15) ……….

Tours: 10.30 a.m or 2.30 p.m, £13.50 with tea/coffee and cakes. Groups
welcome.

SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (7.0 points)

Part 1: Questions from 16 to 36. (3.0 points - 0.15/ each)

Choose the best answer to each question.

16. I'm expecting to have this book__________soon this year.


A. published B. publishing C. to publish D. publish
17. ________ your advice, I was able to avoid lots of trouble on my trip abroad.
A. Thanks to B. Despite C. Even though D. Instead of
18. We have a party tonight and Daisy is worried about ________.

A. what to wear B. which wearing C. that she wears D. these wearing

19. As a rule, new comers ________ a party at the end of the first month of their stay.

A. was held B. hold C. have held D. will hold

20. The most interesting films ________ for the festival will be shown next week.

A. are chosen B. having chosen C. chosen D. being chosen

21. However ________ about the results, the children still talk merrily.

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A. disappointed are they B. disappointing they are

C. disappointment D. disappointed they are

22. A child ________ to talk does not learn by being corrected all the time.

A. learned B. learns C. learning D. to learn

23. Some businesses use famous cartoon ________ to advertise their products.

A. person B. people C. characters D. samples

24. The first thing you should do when you lose your bank card is to call your bank and
ask them to close your ________.

A. account B. house C. loan D. debt

25. “Oh no! I can’t find my credit card!” “________.”

A. Thank you for letting me know

B. Don’t worry. They will be back very soon

C. It is a nice surprise. You should be glad about it

D. Chill out. Try to remember when you last used it

26. – “What would you like to drink? “ – “ __________.”

A. Yes, please B. Milk, please C. No, thanks D. OK

27. The number of cars on the roads ______ increasing, so we need to build more roads.

A. is B. was C. were D. are

28. ______ the class size is our school’s immediate aim.

A. Reduces B. Reduce C. Reducing D. Reduced

29. He ________ being given a receipt for the bill he had paid.

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A. asked to B. demanded C. insisted on D. required

30. Some________ actions have been taken to help protect wildlife at this national park.

A. survival B. disposal C. postal D. remedial

31. The demand for energy is ________more rapidly than ever.

A. exported B. decreased C. raising D. increasing

32. His performance was________; the audience was delighted.

A. unmarked B. faultless C. worthless D. imperfect

33. But why did the police suspect you? It just does not make________ to me.

A. reason B. right C. sense D. truth

34. In the end I ________the form in disgust, and threw it away.

A. filled in B. worked out C. tore up D. put off

35. His company, ________him with a car and samples of their products.

A. gives B. supplies C. replies D. places

Part 2: Questions from 36 to 45. (2 points - 0.2/ each)

Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete the following sentences.

36. These high-heeled shoes are………….. for such rough terrain. SUIT

37. Colds are caused by viruses, so in the ………….. of a virus, you can't ABSENT
catch a cold.

38. You're too young. This film is ………….. for children your age. APPROPRIATE

39. ………….. now think that we may have viruses in our bodies already. SCIENCE

40. In cold weather, for example, blood vessels in the nose get smaller FORTUNATE
to stop heat escaping. ………….., this also allows the cold virus to attack

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the nose or throat more easily.

41. Victoria Falls in Africa is one of the most ………….. sights in the SPECTACLE
world.

42. It's also an ………….. place for water sports. CREDIBLE

43. We need you to provide an accurate ………….. of the situation. DESCRIBE

44. On arrival, it's the noise that makes the greatest …………... IMPRESS

45. The s………….. landscape is also well worth a visit. SURROUND

Part 3: Questions from 46 to 50.(1 point - 0.2/ each)

Each of the following sentences has an error. Find the errors and correct them.

46. Hung really wishes that he can take part in the game. 

47. They’re going to get their house decorate for the May Day. 

48. I used to sit next to a man who name is Almed. 

49. I’d rather typing this letter than write it because it’s faster. 

50. He drives too fast that no one likes to ride with him. 

Part 4: Questions from 51 to 55.(1 point - 0.2/ each)

Fill in each of the sentences with correct prepositions.

51. It's ……… time you told him the truth!

52. The soccer player was ejected because he had done something that was ……… the
rules.

53. Being a nurse is hard work, especially if you're ………call all the time.

54. You’ll have to work very hard if you want to catch up ……… the rest of your
classmates.

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55. I came ……… my lost earring while I was sweeping in the floor.

SECTION III: READING (6.0 points)

Part 1. Questions 56 – 65 (2 points - 0.2/ each)

Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question.

The first question we might ask is: What can you learn in college that will help you in
being an employee? The schools teach a (56) ________ many things of value to the
future accountant, doctor or electrician. Do they also teach anything of value to the
future employee? Yes, they teach the one thing that it is perhaps most valuable for the
future employee to know. But very few students bother (57) ________it. This basic is
the skill ability to organize and express ideas in writing and in speaking. This means that
your success as an employee will depend on your ability to communicate, with people
and to (58) ________ your own thoughts and ideas to them so they will (59) ________
understand what you are driving at and be persuaded.
Of course, skill in expression is not enough (60) ________ itself. You must have
something to say in the first place. The effectiveness of your job depends (61) ________
your ability to make other people understand your work as they do on the quality of the
work itself.
Expressing one's thoughts is one skill that the school can (62) ________ teach. The
foundations for skill in expression have to be (63) ________ early: an interest in and an
ear (64) ________ language; experience in organizing ideas and data, in brushing aside
the irrelevant, and above all the habit of verbal expression. If you do not lay these
foundations (65) ________ your school years, you may never have an opportunity again.
56. A. large B. great C. far D. lots

57. A. learning B. to learn C. with learning D. learn

58. A. interpret B. give out C. transfer D. present

59. A. both B. not C. as well D. either

60. A. on B. for C. by D. in

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61. A. on most B. most on C. much on D. on much

62. A. quite B. hardly C. truly D. really

63. A. lied B. laid C. lain D. lay

64. A. by B. in C. for D. of

65. A. during B. of C. for D. when

Part 2. Questions 66 – 75 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)

Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question

In 1826, a Frenchman named Niépce needed pictures for his business. He was not
a good artist, so he invented a very simple camera. He put it in a window of his house
and took a picture of his yard. That was the first photograph. The next important date in
the history of photography was 1837. That year, Daguerre, another Frenchman, took a
picture of his studio. He used a new kind of camera and a different process. In his
pictures, you could see everything clearly, even the smallest details. This kind of
photograph was called a daguerreotype.

Soon, other people began to use Daguerre's process. Travelers brought back
daguerreotypes from all around the world. People photographed famous buildings,
cities, and mountains.

In about 1840, the process was improved. Then photographers could take
pictures of people and moving things. The process was not simple and photographers
had to carry lots of film and processing equipment. However, this did not stop
photographers, especially in the United States. After 1840, daguerreotype artists were
popular in most cities.

Matthew Brady was one well-known American photographer. He took many


portraits of famous people. The portraits were unusual because they were lifelike and
full of personality. Brady was also the first person to take pictures of a war. His 1862

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Civil War pictures showed dead soldiers and ruined cities. They made the war seem
more real and more terrible.

In the 1880s, new inventions began to change photography. Photographers could


buy film ready-made in rolls, instead of having tomake the film themselves. Also, they
did not haveto process the film immediately. They could bring it back to their studios
and develop it later. They did not have to carry lots of equipment. And finally, the
invention of the small handheld camera made photography less expensive.

With a small camera, anyone could be a photographer. People began to use


cameras just for fun. They took pictures of their families, friends, and favorite places.
They called these pictures "snapshots".

Documentary photographs became popular in newspapers in the 1890s. Soon


magazines and books also used them. These pictures showed true events and people.
They were much more real than drawings.

Some people began to think of photography as a form of art. They thought that
photography could do more than show the real world. It could also show ideas and
feelings, like other art forms.

66. The first photograph was taken with ______.

A. a small handheld camera B. a very simple camera

C. a daguerreotype D. new types of film

67. Daguerre took a picture ofhis studio with ______.

A. a new kind of camera B. a very simple camera

C. special equipment D. an electronic camera

68. The word “this” in the passage refers to the ______.

A. carrying of lots of film and processing equipment

B. stopping of photographers from taking photos

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C. fact that daguerreotype artistswere popular in most cities

D. taking of pictures of people and moving things

69. The word “ruined” in the passage is closest in meaning to “______”.

A. poorly-painted B. heavily-polluted C. terribly spoiled D. badly


damaged

70. The word “lifelike” in the passage is closest in meaning to “______”.

A. moving B. realistic C. touching D. manlike

71. The latest invention mentioned in the passage is the invention of ______.

A. handheld cameras B. processing equipment

C. daguerreotypes D. rolls of film

72. The word “handheld” in the passage is closest in meaning to “______”.

A. handling manually B. held by hand C. controlling hands D. operated by


hand

73. Matthew Brady was well-known for ______.

A. inventing daguerreotypes B. the small handheld camera

C. taking pictures of French cities D. portraits and war photographs

74. As mentioned in the passage, photography can ______.

A. print old pictures B. convey ideas and feelings

C. show the underworld D. replace drawings

75. Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?

A. Different Steps in Film Processing B. Story of Photography

C. Photography and Painting D. Story of Famous Photographers

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Part 3: Questions 76 – 85 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)

Read the text and fill in one word which best fits each gap.

SAFE CAMPING

Camping in the country is usually great fun, but sometimes things can go wrong.
Accidents can happen, so it is essential to think about safety both before you go (76) ……
while you are there. This will prevent your fun camping trip turning (77) …….. something
less pleasant.

Firstly, you need to plan ahead. Check out the weather (78) …… a few days in
advance and watch out for any reports of fires in the area you are thinking of going to.
Bring an emergency kit in (79) ……you or anyone with you has an accident or illness
while you are there.

Choose your camp (80) ……carefully, avoiding any places where there is risk of
flooding before you put up your tent, make (81) ……there are no sharp objects on the
ground, or ants’ or wasps’ nests nearby.

In order to keep insects out of the tent, close it whenever you go in or out. If you
need a camp (82) …… for cooking, be careful not to build it anywhere near your tent,
and before you go to bed, remember to put it (83) ……completely, preferably with lots
of water.

After meals, pick up any bits of food that may (84) …… left on the ground, as these
can attract insects – or larger creatures. It also makes senses, for the same reason, to
keep unused food in closed containers away from the camp. You don’t want a hungry
bear or another (85) ……suddenly appearing in your tent!

SECTION IV: WRITING (4.0 points)

Part 1: Questions from 86 to 90. (2 point- 0.4/ each)

Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence printed before it.

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86. The result of the match was never in doubt.

@ At no ……………………………………………….

87. I didn’t know you were coming, so I didn’t wait for you.

@ If I ……………………………………………….

88. When I picked up my pen I found that the nib hadbroken

@ On ……………………………………………….

89. Sally finally managed to get a job.

@ Sally finally succeeded ……………………………………………….

90. Fiona was so disappointed that she could not keep on working.

 Such ……………………………………………….

Part 2: Questions from 91 to 92.(2 pointS - 0.4/ each)

Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence,
using the word given. Do not change the word given.

91. I haven’t decided to continue my study in a foreign country. made

 I haven’t …………………………. my study in a foreign country.

92. I can't understand Doris and what she has done. sense

 I can't …………………………. Doris and what she has done.

93. I think you should complain about that horrible meal. were

 If I …………………………. a complaint about that horrible meal.

94. I have a good relationship with my neighbors. on

 My neighbors …………………………. together

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95. I don’t usually remember people’s surnames. memory

 I don’t …………………………. people’s surnames.

KEY+AUDIO
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=1xdTSwh3OVk&t=3s

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH


Đề số 18
Môn: Tiếng Anh 9

Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút

SECTION I: LISTENING (3.0 points) (You will hear twice for each part)
Part 1. You will hear a radio interview with the manager of a summer activity
course. For each question, choose the correct answer.
1. This year, the course will run for ________.

A. six weeks. B. seven weeks. C. eight weeks.


2. The problem last year was that________.

A. few people wanted to attend.

B. there were too few workers.

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C. there was nothing to do on rainy days.

3. This year for the first time, children will________.

A. do creative activities. B. do new outdoor sports. C. organise events.

4. Molly doesn’t think children will come for six weeks because________.

A. it’s too expensive.

B. they will do the same activities again and again.


C. their parents will want to spend time with them.

5. The course isn’t open to teenagers because ________.

A. Molly thinks they aren’t interested in the activities which are available.

B. Molly thinks they should spend time with young people of a similar age.

C. Molly’s staff think that teenagers are difficult to please.

6. It’s important that parents of children attending the course________.

A. pay the full amount immediately.


B. choose the activities the child wants to do when they apply.
C. inform Molly about any food the child cannot eat.

Part 2. You will hear a radio announcer giving details about a local Motor Show. For
each question, fill in the missing information in the spaces. Write no more than
three words and/or a number.
Eastbrook Motor Show
Date: (7) …………..
Location: (8) …………..Show Ground
Displays: (9) …………..and buses
Cars of the (10) …………..
Famous People: Jack Tyler from the Television Show (11) …………..
Top Racing Driver Michael Boreman
For Ladies: Stalls selling (12) ………….., jewellery and clothes
Competition - Guess the number of (13) …………..in the car

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£: (14) …………..pounds for adults and six pounds for children.


Price of Family Ticket:
£: for two adults and up to three children for (15) …………..
SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (7.0 points)
Part 1: Questions from 16 to 36. (3.0 points - 0.15/ each)
Choose the best answer to each question.
16. He confessed _____ being somewhat nervous about having to speak in front of a
large crowd.
A. about B. to C. for D. with
17. In a money-oriented society, the average individual cares little about solving
_____ problem.
A. any other B. any other’s C. anyone else’s D. anyone’s else
18. Would you please leave us details of your address _______ forwarding any of
your mail to come?
A. for the purpose of B. as a consequence of C. for the sake of D. by means of
19. The woman they finally choose was much older than the other_______ for the
job.
A. informant B. participants C. applicants D. consultants
20. He can’t find money for life necessities, ______ such luxuries as wine and
tobacco.
A. leave alone B. buy alone C. mention alone D. let alone
21. Cigarette smoking has been ______ breast as well as lung cancer.
A. concerned to B. originated from C. caused by D. associated
with
22. The general is always ______ about his past campaigns.
A. boasting B. praising C. complimenting D.
congratulating

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23. ________ of the Chairman, the Executive Director will be responsible for chairing
the meeting.
A. For the absence B. On the absence C. In the absence D. To the
absence
24. "I'm ________ to listen to your pathetic excuses," she said.
A. sick and tired B. in no mood C. having enough D. sick to death.
25. Unfortunately our local cinema in on the ________ of closing down.
A. threat B. danger C. edge D. verge
26. I was early for the meeting so I went to a bookshop to ______ time.
A. kill B. waste C. spend D. make
27. This ticket _____ one person to the museum.
A. allows B. enters C. permits D. admits
28. You must _____ allowances for him; he is not very healthy.
A. get B. make C. do D. have
29. As the drug took _____, the boy became quieter.
A. force B. influence C. action D. effect
30. The teacher asked a difficult question, but finally Ted _________ a good answer.
A. put up with B. keep pace with C. made way for D. came up with
31. His brother refuses to even listen to anyone else's point of view. He is very
________.
A. kind - hearted B. narrow- minded C. open - minded D. absent -
minded
32. The players’ protests_____ no difference to the referee’s decision at all
A. did B. made C. caused D. created
33. “I’m tired of the same old routine.” _ “I know how you feel. I get tired of doing
the same things day in_____.”

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A. and day off B. and day on C. and day of D. and day out
34. The ________of plastic bags gathered was nearly the same in both years.
A. number B. lot C. percent D. amount
35. After the accident, the injured cyclist was in great________.
A. agony B. suffering C. hurt D. pain
Part 2: Questions from 36 to 45. (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete the following sentences.
36. This cloth is made from ……….. fibers. NATURE
37. If you want to take care of the environment, it's important to ………...
CYCLE
38. In the next few years, ……….. will hopefully have found a cure for malaria.
SCIENCE
39. According to the ……….., the epidemic started in Kuala Lumpur. SEARCH
40. ……….. from family and friends can lead to feelings of anxiety. ISOLATE
41. I was ……….. to understand what the problem was. ABLE
42. There will be a ……….. of solo games and competitive games available. MIX
43. Participants will later be asked for ……….. on the event. FEED
44. It was an ……….. reunion and we were all really touched when we remembered
how we had met. EMOTION
45. I am writing to ask for further ……….. on your Open Day. INFORM

Part 3: Questions from 46 to 50.(1 point - 0.2/ each)


Each of the following sentences has an error. Find the errors and correct them.
46. We understand them as well as they understand we. 
47. I am not sure where he’s from. He’s either Spanish nor Italian. 

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48. She said that she didn’t know what her father was alike because he died when
she was still young. 
49. Before to go out, remember to turn off the lights. 
50. Her sister knows how for prepare Chinese foods. 
Part 4: Questions from 51 to 55.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Fill in each of the sentences with correct prepositions.
51. Although he studied hard, he couldn't succeed ……. getting a high score in his
test.
52. Most people agree that kindergarten contributes ……..the child's mental
development.
53. I plan to keep up …….. my friend when we go running. I don't like to get behind
him.
54. Sue's put in …….. the position of assistant teen reporter.
55. The dinosaurs died ……. millions of years ago.
SECTION III: READING (6.0 points)
Part 1. Questions 56 – 65 (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question.
Choose the best answer to fill in each blank.
From the seeds themselves to the machinery, fertilizers and pesticides - The
Green Revolution regimen depend heavily on technology. One (56) ________,
however, depends much (57) ________ on technology - organic farming. Many
organic farmers use machinery, but (58) ________ chemical fertilizers or pesticides.
(59) ________ chemical soil enrichers, they use animal manure and plant parts not
used as food -,natural,organic fertilizers that are clearly a renewable (60) ________.
Organic farmers also use alternatives (61) ________ pesticides; for example they
may rely on natural predators of certain insect pests. (62) ________ the need arises,
they can buy the eggs and larvae of these natural predators and introduce them into
their crop fields. They use (63) ________ techniques to control pests as well, like
planting certain crops together because one crop repels the other's pests. Organic
farmers do not need a lot of land; (64) ________ organic farming is perfectly (65)

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________ to small farms and is relatively inexpensive. Finally, many organic farmers'
average yields compare favorably with other farmers' yields.
56. A. alteration B. alternate C. alternative D. alternation
57. A. more B. less C. better D. worse
58. A. also B. for C. not D. all
59. A. In .spite of B. On account of C. In favour of D. Instead of
60. A. resource B. source C. matter D. substance
61. A. of B. to C. for D. from
62. A. Then B. If C. Because D. Though
63. A. others B. another C. the others D. other
64. A. instead B. in one way C. on one hand D. in fact
65. A. suitable B. open C. likely D. suited
Part 2. Questions 66 – 75 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question
The rules of etiquette in American restaurants depend upon a number of
factors the physical location of the restaurant, e.g., rural or urban; the type of
restaurant, e.g., informal or formal; and certain standards that are more universal. In
other words, some standards of etiquette vary significantly while other standards
apply almost anywhere. Learning the proper etiquette in a particular type of
restaurant in a particular area may sometimes require instruction, but more
commonly it simply requires sensitivity and experience. For example, while it is
acceptable to read a magazine in a coffee shop, it is inappropriate to do the same in
a more luxurious setting. And, if you are eating in a very rustic setting it may be fine
to tuck your napkin into your shirt, but if you are in a sophisticated urban restaurant
this behavior would demonstrate a lack of manners. It is safe to say, however, that in
virtually every restaurant it is unacceptable to indiscriminately throw your food on
the floor. The conclusion we can most likely draw from the above is that while the
types and locations of restaurants determine etiquette appropriate to them, some
rules apply to all restaurants.
66. What topic is this passage primarily concerned with?

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A. rules of etiquette B. instruction in proper etiquette

C. the importance of good manners D. variable and universal standards


of etiquette
67. According to the passage, which of the following is a universal rule of etiquette?
A. tucking a napkin in your shirt B. not throwing food on the
floor
C. reading a magazine at a coffee shop D. eating in rustic settings
68. According to the passage, ________ requires sensitivity and experience.
A. learning the proper etiquette B. asking for instructions
C. knowing the type of restaurant D. knowing about an area
69. The word "rustic" in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
A. agricultural B. ancient C. unsophisticated D. urban
70. The word "tuck" in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
A. put B. set C. hold D. fold
71. The word "sophisticated" in the passage could best be replaced by ________
A. expensive B. cultured C. famous D.
exclusive
72. The author uses the phrase "safe to say" in order to demonstrate that the idea is
________.
A. somewhat innocent B. quite certain
C. very clever D. commonly reported
73. The word "indiscriminately" could best be replaced by ________.
A. randomly B. angrily C. noisily D.
destructively
74. The word "draw" in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.

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A. pick out B. drag away C. evoke D. infer


75. What is the author's main purpose in this passage?
A. to assist people in learning sophisticated manners
B. to describe variations in restaurant manners
C. to simplify rules of restaurant etiquette
D. to compare sophisticated and rustic restaurants
Part 3: Questions 76 – 85 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the text and fill in one word which best fits each gap.
Our oceans are becoming extremely polluted. Most of this (76) ……… comes from
the land, which means it comes from people. Firstly, there is raw (77) …….., which is
pumped directly (78) …….. the sea. Many countries, both developed and developing,
are guilty (79) …….. doing this. Secondly, ships drop about 6 million tons of garbage
into the (80) …….. each year. Thirdly, there are oil spills from ships. A ship has (81)
…….. accident and oil leaks from the vessel. This not (82) …….. pollutes the water,
but it also kills marine life. Next, there (83) …….. waste materials from factories.
Without proper regulations, factory owners let the waste run directly into the rivers,
(84) …….. then leads to the sea. And finally, oil is washed from the land. This can be
(85) …….. result of carelessness or a deliberate dumping of waste.
SECTION IV: WRITING (4.0 points)
Part 1: Questions from 86 to 90.(2 point- 0.4/ each)
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence printed before it.
86. It is said that he escaped to a neutral country.
 He ………………………………………………………………..
87. Although he was very tired, he agreed to play tennis.
 Tired ………………………………………………………………..
88. “You have done really well to pass your driving test so quickly.” She said to me
 She congratulated ………………………………………………………………..
89. I regret not going to the airport to say goodbye her.
 I wish ………………………………………………………………..
90. As he grew older, he became more and more forgetful.

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 The older ………………………………………………………………..


Part 2: Questions from 91 to 92.(2 points - 0.4/ each)
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first
sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given.
91. You must never let anyone use your Identity Card. should
 Under ………………………………………let anyone else use your identity card.
92. Many people believe that Edison has the ability to become world judo champion.
capable
 Many people believe that Edison …………………………………the world championship
in judo.
93. My passport needs renewing because I´m going abroad this summer. get
 I need ………………………………………because I´m going abroad this summer.
94. Clara said that she had not seen the missing letter. having
 Clara ………………………………………the missing letter.
95. It's important to consider everyone's opinion before a final decision is made.
account
 Everyone's opinion must ………………………………………before a final decision is made.

KEY+AUDIO
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=hgY3ilt7OQY
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Đề số 19
Môn: Tiếng Anh 9

Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút


SECTION I: LISTENING (3.0 points) (You will hear twice for each part)

Part 1. Listen to Adam talking to Carol about his day. Choose the correct answer.

1 Adam went to bed late because…

A. he was fixing his computer. B. he didn’t feel tired. C. his son felt sick.
2 Adam’s son returned to bed at…

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A. four o’clock a.m. B. six o’clock a.m. C. a quarter to


seven a.m.
3 At ten to eight,

A. Adam’s alarm clock went off. B. Adam got up. C. Adam left home.

4 In the morning, Adam didn’t have time to…

A. wash. B. have breakfast. C. buy petrol.


5 Adam borrowed money to buy…

A. a bus ticket. B. lunch. C. petrol.


6 This evening, Adam will…
A. relax and watch TV. B. spend time with his family. C. be very busy.

Part 2. A man needs to buy a part for his car. He calls a company to order the part.
Listen and complete the details in the order form.

Forename: Allan

Surname: (7) ……………….

Postcode: (8) ………………..

Postal address: 27 (9) ………………..Road, Nutley

Part Required: Inside Light

Make: (10) ………………..

Model: Spirit

Year: (11) ………………..

Cost Including Tax and Postage: (12) £………………..

Card Number: (13) ………………..

Expiry Date: (14) ………………..

Security Code: (15) ………………..

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SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (7.0 points)

Part 1: Questions from 16 to 36. (3.0 points - 0.15/ each)

Choose the best answer to each question.

16. Pick me up at 4 p.m. I _______ my bath by then.

A. will have B. will be having C. will have had D. must have


had

17. She said that she would be punctual for the opening speech, ______ she were late?

A. but what if B. how about C. and what about D. so if

18. What are the main ______ of this illness?

A. traces B. emblems C. tokens D. symptoms

19. We believe that these animals could be saved if our plan were ______.

A. adopted B. taken up C. practised D. exploited

20. Local people are concerned about pollution from ______ oil wells.

A. maritime B. sea-going C. off-shore D. coast line

21. The topic ______ at yesterday’s meeting was of great importance.

A. to be discussed B. to have been discussed

C. discussed D. having been discussed

22. Evidence came up _____ specific speech sounds are recognized by babies as young as 6
months old.

A. what B. when C. which D. that

23. There have been protests from animal rights group about ______ on animals.

A. experience B. experiments C. expiration D. trials

24. She couldn’t perform well once she was _______ .

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A. under pressure B. out of mind C. in the mood D. over the


moon

25. All the sales people I met always try to _________ buying their products.

A. persuade me for B. force me to C. talk me into D. help me with

26. There was nothing special about his clothes________ from his flowery tie.

A. but B. except C. other D. apart

27. She always________ the crossword in the paper before breakfast.

A. makes B. writes C. does D. works


28. When the tenants failed to pay their bill, the authorities decided to cut________ the
gas supply to the flat.

A. down B. out C. across D. off

29. His parents agreed to ________ him their car while they were away on holiday.

A. borrow B. lend C. hire D. let

30. We try to _____to see our parents at least twice a month.


A. call up B. go up C. come on D. drop in
31. He has always looked _________ his elder brother.
A. up to B. back on C. into D. up and down
32. ________ what most people say about him, Paul has a very good sense of humour.

A. Opposite to B. Against C. Contrary to D. Opposing

33. They are happily married although, of course, they argue _______.

A. most times B. from day to day C. every now and then D. on the
occasion

34. The water company will have to _____ off water supply while repairs to the pipes
carry out.

A. cut B. take C. break D. set

35. We could make better _____ of our energy resources.

A. spend B. use C. need D. limit

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Part 2: Questions from 36 to 45. (2 points - 0.2/ each)

Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete the following sentences.

36. This took place at the end of the………… century. TWENTY

37. People really …………the party. JOY

38. Meditation is great as a means of……….. RELAX

39. This method is a lot more ………… than the previous one. EFFECT

40. Picasso was a Spanish …………who also lived in France. ART


41. There has been little ………… in the negotiations since January. MOVE

42. ………… enough, I didn't know she already had four children. SURPRISE

43. His voice was …………recognizable. INSTANT

44. The only cure for ………… is creativity. BORE

45. This is a textile company ………… in denim. SPECIAL

Part 3: Questions from 46 to 50.(1 point - 0.2/ each)

Each of the following sentences has an error. Find the errors and correct them.

46. A dog should be checked regular by a reterinarian to ensure that it remains in good health.

47. George has not completed the assignment yet , and Mary hasn’t neither. 

48. Although my sister was tired, but she helped me with my homework. 

49. Semitic is the name of an alphabet which developed their symbols from Egyptian
hieroglyphics. 

50. There are many different ways of comparing the economy of one nation with those of
another. 

Part 4: Questions from 51 to 55.(1 point - 0.2/ each)

Fill in each of the sentences with correct prepositions.

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51. Did you know that Paul is married…….Susie last week?

52. According ……. the timetable, the next train is due in two hours.

53. Apart ……. you, nobody else knows that I have escaped from prison.

54. Please go …….your homework and look for the mistakes once more time.

55. Volunteers were handing ……. food and clothes after the flood in the mountainous
area.

SECTION III: READING (6.0 points)

Part 1. Questions 56 – 65 (2 points - 0.2/ each)


Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question.

Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in (56)
________many species of animals are threatened, and could easily become (57)
________ if we do not make an effort to (58) ________them. There are many reasons
for this. In some cases, animals are (59) ________for their fur or for other valuable parts
of their bodies. Some birds, such as parrots, are caught (60) ________, and sold as pets.
For many animals and birds, the problem is that their habitat- the place where they live-
is (61) ________. More (62) ________is used for farms, for houses and industry , and
there are fewer open spaces than there once were. Farmers use powerful chemicals to
help them grow better (63) ________, but these chemicals pollute the environment and
(64) ________wildlife. The most successful animals on earth- human beings- will soon
be the only ones (65) ________, unless we can solve this problem.

56. A. problem B. vanishing C. threat D. danger

57. A. empty B. disappeared C. danger D. vanished

58. A. serve B. protect C. defend D. harm

59. A. game B. extinct C. chased D. hunted

60. A. alive B. for living C. lively D. for life

61. A. departing B. exhausting C. disappearing D. escaping

62. A. land B. area C. soil D. earth

63. A. products B. fields C. crops D. herbs

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64. A. wound B. wrong C. harm D. spoil

65. A. staying B. survived C. over D. left

Part 2. Questions 66 – 75 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)

Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question

(Early peoples had no need of engineering works to supply their water.


Hunters and nomads camped near natural sources of fresh water_66), and
populations were so sparse that pollution of the water supply was not a serious
problem. After community life developed and agricultural villages became urban
centres, the problem of supplying water became important for inhabitants of a city,
as well as for irrigation of the farms surrounding the city. Irrigation works were
known in prehistoric times, and before 2000 BC the rulers of Babylonia and Egypt
constructed systems of dams and canals to impound the flood waters of the
Euphrates and Nile rivers, controlling floods and providing irrigation water
throughout the dry season. Such irrigation canals also supplied water for domestic
purposes. (The first people to consider the sanitation of their water supply were the
ancient Romans_68), who constructed a vast system of aqueducts to bring the clean
waters of the Apennine Mountains into the city and built basins and filters along
these mains to ensure the clarity of the water. The construction of such extensive
water-supply systems declined (when the Roman Empire disintegrated, and for
several centuries local springs and wells_69) formed the main source of domestic
and industrial water.
(The invention of the force pump in England in the middle of the 16th century
greatly extended the possibilities of development of water-supply systems. In
London, the first pumping waterworks was completed in 1562; it pumped river
water to a reservoir about 37 m above the level of the River Thames and from the
reservoir the water was distributed by gravity, through lead pipes, to buildings_71)
in the vicinity.
(Increased per-capital demand_73) has coincided with water shortages in
many countries. Southeast England, for example, receives only 14 per cent of
Britain's rainfall, has 30 per cent of its population, and has experienced declining
winter rainfall since the 1980s.
(In recent years a great deal of interest has been shown in the conversion of
seawater to fresh water to provide drinking water for very dry areas, such as the
Middle East. Several different processes, including distillation, electrodialysis,
reverse osmosis, and direct-freeze evaporation_74), have been developed for this
purpose. Some of these processes have been used in large facilities in the United

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States. Although these processes are successful, the cost of treating seawater is
much higher than that for treating fresh water.
66. Early peoples didn’t need water supply engineering works because ______.
A. their community life had already developed
B. natural sources of fresh water nearby were always available
C. there was almost no dry season in prehistoric times
D. they had good ways to irrigate their farms
67. The word “impound” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to “______”.
A. supply B. irrigate C. provide D. drain
68. Clean water supply was first taken into consideration by ______.
A. the English people B. the ancient Romans
C. the Egyptians D. the US people
69. For several centuries after the disintegration of the Roman Empire, the main source
of water supply was from ______.
A. springs and wells B. systems of aqueducts
C. dams and canals D. water pipes
70. The word “mains” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by “______”.
A. lands B. areas C. pipes D. rivers
71. Which of the following is NOT true about London’s water supply in the middle of the
16th century?
A. Water was pumped from the River Thames. B. Water was stored in a reservoir.
C. Water ran from the reservoir to buildings. D. Water was conducted through
canals.
72. The word “vicinity” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. the cities in South-east England B. the areas along the River Thames
C. the neighborhood around a reservoir D. the region where industry
developed
73. One of the causes of water shortages in South-east England is ______.
A. water pollution B. increased demand
C. water-supply system decline D. water evaporation
74. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a process of conversing seawater to
freshwater?
A. Steaming and cooling B. Water evaporation
C. Dissolving chemicals D. Purification method
75. In the passage, the author mainly discusses ______.
A. the development of water supply B. the results of water shortages
C. the water pumping systems D. the fresh water storage
Part 3: Questions 76 – 85 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)

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Read the text and fill in one word which best fits each gap.

For a long time in the past photography was not regarded (76) ….....an art. It was
simply a skill and it was criticized for being too mechanical and not creative enough. At
last, however, photography is now accepted as a unique (77) ….....very important form
of art.
The photograph's claim to be (78) ….....objective record of reality is now seriously
challenged, and the important function of photography in modern-day society is
consequently (79) …..... threat. The threat has suddenly become all the more serious as
more and more photographers are turning to the new technology offer (80)
….....computers offer. Moreover, an increasing (81) …..... of colleges have now begun to
courses in computer imaging. All these developments raise a disturbing question. Is
photography, as we know it dead?
In (82) …..... of its complete transformation by new technological developments,
however, photography will continue to play a key (83) ….....in our culture. Although it
may (84) …..... longer claim to be realistic, modern photography can continue to provide
us (85) …..... fresh visual information about ourselves and the world in which we live.
SECTION IV: WRITING (4.0 points)

Part 1: Questions from 86 to 90.(2 point- 0.4/ each)

Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence printed before it.

86. Peter hasn’t had his hair cut for over 3 months.
 It is over ….............................................................
87. People will only become aware of the problem if you increase the publicity.
 Only if ….............................................................
88. Scientists have tried very hard to find a cure for AIDS.
 Enormous ….............................................................
89. Success depends on hard work.
 The harder ….............................................................
90. If you changed your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.

@ Were you ….............................................................


Part 2: Questions from 91 to 92.(2 points - 0.4/ each)

Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence,
using the word given. Do not change the word given.

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91. He had to give the money back. obliged


 He ….............................................................give the money back.
92. I didn’t need any help to repair my bicycle. repaired
 I ….........................................................own.
93. Teachers from the British Council started this school. set
 This school ………………. teachers from the British Council.

94. ‘I won’t be able to finish the assignment,’ she said. explained


 She ………………. be able to finish the assignment.

95. I thought I would get the job, but someone else got it instead. succeed
 I ………………. the job.

……………………THE END ……………………...

KEY+AUDIO
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=L0a_vTTLLMY
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 THCS

HÀ NAM NĂM HỌC 2016 - 2017

Môn: Tiếng Anh

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút

(Đề thi gồm 08 trang, thí sinh làm bài ngay vào đề thi này)

Điểm của bài thi Họ tên, chữ ký giám khảo SỐ PHÁCH

Bằng số: Giám khảo số 1:

Bằng chữ: Giám khảo số 2:

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SECTION A: LISTENING (30 points)

Part I- You will hear a recorded message about an art festival. Listen and answer the
questions 1-5 (10 points)

0. When does the festival start?


A. 12th May
A B. 13th May C. 15th May D. 28th May

1.When will there be jazz concerts at the Theatre Royal ?

A. the 12th of May and the 13th of May


B. the 13th of May and the 15th of May
C. the 15th of May and the 19th of May
D. the 19th of May and the 23rd of May
2. Where can people enjoy dance music?
A. In the bar B. In the cathedral C. In the town’s church D. At Corn
Exchange
3. Which of these is not on sale?
A. wine B. sandwich C. soft drink D. light meal
4. What is true about the special concert of piano music?

A. It is in the beautiful bar. B. It will be held on the 15th of May.

C. The tickets are free. D. Coffee and biscuits are served


there.

5. What is the fax number?

A. 0284 076035 B. 0284 706035 C. 0280 706305 D. 0248


706035

Your answers:

1…… 2…… 3…… 4…… 5…..

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II- You will hear a woman called Julie and a man called Greg talking about an indoor
wildlife center they have visited. Decide if each sentence is correct and incorrect. Put a
(ü) in the box under A for YES and under B for No (10 points)

Yes NO
Statements
(A) (B)
0. They agree that the wildlife center building is well designed ü
1. Julie thought the sharks at the wildlife center were
frightening.
2. Julie found the building was too warm.
3. Greg was disappointed with the number of insects.
4. Greg only managed to see one tree frog.
5. Julie is very keen to return to the wildlife center.
Part III- You will hear a recreation officer at a holiday resort telling the guests about
their accommodation and the activities available. Listen and fill in the missing
information in the numbered spaces. NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS (10 points)

A trip to the rainforest


Name of the travel agency: (0)Rainforest Lodge

There will be no (1)____________________ or TVs available.

The guests have dinner in (2) _________________

Each day's activities are printed on the (3)______________

The Crocodile tour departs at 11.00 a. m daily.

The Spotlight departs at (4)__________________

The guests should bring: - Walking boots

- Long trousers

- (5)____________________

SECTION B. PHONETICS (10 points)

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Part I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest. (5
points)

1. A. southern B. north C. mouth D. monthly

2. A. exhibition B. exhaust C. exhibit D. exist

3. A. foot B. food. C. took D. book

4. A. influenced B. watched C. composed D. astonished

5. A. doubt B. subtle C. climb D. club

Your answers:

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.


Part II. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in the group.(5
points)

1. A. wonderful B. regional. C. beautiful. D. successful

2. A. flashlight B. typhoon. C. carriage. D.


earthquake

3. A. understand B. appearance C. remember D.


employer

4. A. nature B. future C. picture D. manure

5. A. competition B. entertainment C. supermarket D.


anniversary

Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

SECTION C. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (65) points)

Part I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence.

(15 points)

21. I think everything has been done, __________?


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A. hasn’t it B. haven’t they C. do I D. don’t I

2. _______ hard he tried, he couldn’t open the window.

A. Although B. No matter C. However D. In spite of

3._______ my friends knew I was going to study overseas.


A. Not much of B. Not many of C. Not a lot of D. Not many

4. _______________________ from Bill, all the students said they would go.

A. Apart B. Except C. Only D. Separate

5. Not until a monkey is several years old____to exhibit signs of independence from its
mother.

A. beginning B. does it begin C. and begins D. it begins

6. The doctor suggested that his patient________.

A. stops smoking B. stop smoking C. stopped smoking D. to stop smoking

7. This work needs________by ten today.

A. finishing B. finish. C. to finish D. to have finished

8. Would you mind_________these plates a wipe before putting them in the cupboard.

A. making B. doing C. getting D. giving

9. You must lend me the money for the trip. …….. I won’t be able to go.

A. Consequently B. Nevertheless C. Otherwise D. Although

10. Anyone ________in the program can join the club.

A. interested B. who interest C. is interested D. interests

11. A: “More coffee?, Anybody?”

B: “________________”

A. I don’t agree, I’m afraid B. Yes. I’d love to

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C. Yes, please D. It’s right, I think

12. During the war, we ______ many relatives.

A. set an example for B. took for granted C. lost touch with D. made mention of

13. Those smart phones are selling like_____. If you want one, you’d better buy one
now before they’re all gone.

A. shooting stars B. fresh bread C. wild oats D. hot cakes

14.________ great was the destruction that the South took decades to recover.

A. Very B. too C. Such D. So

15. I am going to buy _______ .

A. two shirts big cotton blue B. two blue big cotton shirts

C. two big blue cotton shirts D. two shirts blue big cotton

Your answers:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

… … … … … … … … … … … … … … …

Part II. Give the correct form of the words (20 points)

Pioneer 10 left earth in 1972 and began to cross the unexplored asteroid (small
planet) belt four months later. Some people said it would be__________ (1.POSSIBLE )
to find a way through the dust and __________ ( 2.COUNT ) millions of rocks that lie
beyond the inner planets. However, despite its very___________ (3.BASE) technology,
Pioneer made a successful _______ (4. CROSS) and went on to carry out its mission; to
study Jupiter.

It continued past the____________ (5.OUT) planets until 1983, crossing the paths of
Saturn and Pluto before finally entering the vast_________ (6. KNOW) area outside our
solar system. There it will maintain course on its____________ (7. END) journey, passing
close to Proxima Centauri in 70,000 years’ time. ________(8. EVENTUALITY), scientists
believe, in the safe vacuum of deep space, it may even__________ (9. LIVE) the earth,

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which in five billion years will _________(10. APPEAR) as the Sun grows even bigger and
swallows up our tiny planet.

Your answers:

1…………………………………….. 6………………………………..

2…………………………………… 7……………………………….

3…………………………………… 8……………………………….

4…………………………………… 9………………………………….

5……………………………………... 10……………………………….

Part III. In most lines of this text there is one word which is incorrect . Find, underline
and correct it, tick (√) each correct line. There are two examples at the beginning.

(10 points)

The first marbles were probably either river stones that happened to be naturally round 0. √…..
enough to roll nor, more likely, rounded globs of clay that were baked hardness. Such very
00.Or
old clay marbles have been found in both Greek of Roman ruins, and quartz spheres have
been dated at around 6000 B.C. Harder and much durable marbles tend to inspire different 1………......
kinds of games than soft clay marbles. With the advent of hand rounded and polished
marbles made by agate or some other rugged, igneous rock, the ‘golden age’ of marbles 2. ………....

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flowered. Stone marbles began to appear in the early 1800s in what is now the south part of 3. ……..…..
Germany. Shortly after, handmaking glass marbles appeared in the same part of Europe. For
4. ……..…..
the next 120 years, marbles and marble playing-there were literal hundred of games -
flourished in both Europe and America. Marble players developed their own vocabulary for 5. ……..…..
different sizes and materials of marbles, as good as for the many kinds of games to be played.
For example, if you were going to play a game of Ring-Taw, one of the most popular and 6…………..
enduring marbles game, you would lag for the first shot, and then knuckle down from the 7. ……..…..
baulk, trying your best to get a mib or two with your opponent’s immie.
8. ………....

9. …….…...

10. …….…

Part IV. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (20 points)

a. ( 1.Write) the letter, she put it carefully in an envelope and went to bed.

b. The man ( 2.sit) next to me was nervous because he (3. not fly) before.

c. No sooner he (4. take) up the book than the phone rang.

d. I don’t know why you always (5. talk) in class, boy.

e. Were I ( 6. know) the answer, I would tell you right away.

f. Peter, together with his family members, (7.visit) Halong Bay twice this year.

g. I’d rather you (8.not wear) jeans to the office every day.
h. She said she (9. be) a singer in the future.
i. This building (10. finish) by the end of 2018.

Your answers:

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1…………………………………….. 6………………………………..

2…………………………………… 7……………………………….

3…………………………………… 8……………………………….

4…………………………………… 9………………………………….

5……………………………………... 10……………………………….

SECTION D. READING COMPREHENSION (50 points)

Part I. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the following paragraph.

(20 points)

Many tourists who visit Central America find (1)______ surprising to learn
that the Mayas still live there. (2)______ it is true that their ancient civilization came to
an end when their country was (3)______ over by the Spanish conquistadors, the Mayan
people carried (4)______ living in the area. Today there are an estimated 1.2 million
Mayas (5)______ live in southern Mexico, and many other areas of Central America
states have large Mayan populations as (6)______.

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Many of their stories and art forms have remained (7)______ over time, and today,
women weave clothing and carpets that have signs and symbols that are the same as
(8)______ found in ancient temples.
The different patterns and (9)________ on these brightly colored clothes not only
look attractive, but can also communicate important information such as marital
(10)______.
Your answers:

1…………………………………….. 6………………………………..

2…………………………………… 7……………………………….

3…………………………………… 8……………………………….

4…………………………………… 9………………………………….

5……………………………………... 10……………………………….

Part II. Choose the best word A, B, C or D to fill in spaces in the following passage.

(10 points)

The wind controls our planet’s weather and climate, but now how much do we
understand about this complex (1)_______ , which can kill and spread fear? On the
night of 15 October 1987, the south of England was (2) _______ by the strongest winds
it had known for over two hundred years. (3) _______ of over 130km/h blew through
the region. Nineteen people were killed, $1,5 billion-worth of (4) _______ was caused
and 19 million trees were (5) _______ in just a few hours.

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Although people thought of this as a hurricane, the winds of 1987 were only (6)
_______ storm force. They are (7 )_______ better known than the much more serious
storms of 25 January 1990, (8) _______ most of Britain was hit by daytime winds of up
173 km/h. During this storm, 47 people were killed, even though, (9) _______ in 1987,
the weather forecasters issued accurate (10) _______.

1. A. air B. climate C. weather D. force

2. A. occurred B. caused C. struck D. destroyed

3. A. Gusts B. Blows C. Hits D. Clouds

4. A. hurt B. damage C. injury D. destruction

5. A. let down B. cut down C. blown down D. fallen down

6. A. serve B. serious C. powerful D. dangerous

7. A. more B. far C. few D. many

8. A. that B. where C. which D. when

9. A. like B. as C. likely D. unlike

10. A. warnings B. treats C. news D. signs

Your answers:

11. …. 12. …. 13. …. 14. ….. 15. …. 16. .… 17. .… 18. .… 19. … 20. …..
Part III. Read the passage and choose the correct answer. (20 points)

Fungi, of which there are over 100,000 species, including yeasts and other
single-celled organisms as well as the common molds and mushrooms, were
formerly classified as members of the plant kingdom. However, in reality they are
Line very different from plants and today they are placed in a separate group
altogether.
(5) The principal reason for this is that none of them possesses chlorophyll, and since
they cannot synthesize their own carbohydrates, they obtain their supplies either
from the breakdown of dead organic matter or from other living organisms.
Furthermore the walls of fungal cells are not made of cellulose, as those of plants

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are, but of another complex sugar like polymer called chitin, the material from
which
(10) the hard outer skeletons of shrimps, spiders, and insects are made. The difference
between the chemical composition of the cell walls of fungi and those of plants
is of enormous importance because it enables the tips of the growing hyphae, the
threadlike cells of the fungus, to secrete enzymes that break down the walls of
plant
cells without having any effect on those of the fungus itself. It is these cellulose –
(15) destroying enzymes that enable fungi to attack anything made from wood, wood
pulp, cotton, flax, or other plant material.

The destructive power of fungi is impressive. They are a major cause of


structural
damage to building timbers, a cause of disease in animals and humans, and one of
the greatest causes of agricultural losses. Entire crops can be wiped out by fungal
(20) attacks both before and after harvesting. Some fungi can grow at + 50OC, while
others can grow at -5C, so even food in cold storage may not be completely safe
from them. On the other hand, fungi bring about the decomposition of dead
organic
matter, thus enriching the soil and returning carbon dioxide to the atmosphere.
They
also enter into a number of mutually beneficial relationships with plants and other
(25) organisms. In addition, fungi are the source of many of the most potent
antibiotics
used in clinical medicine, including penicillin.
1. What does paragraph 1 mainly discuss?
(A) Differences between simply and complex fungi
(B) Functions of chlorophyll in plants
(C) Functions of sugar in the walls of fungal cells
(D) Differences between fungi and plants
2. Which of the following is mentioned as a major change in how scientists approach the
study of fungi?
(A) Fungi are no longer classified as plants
(B) Some single-cell organisms are no longer classified as fungi.

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(C) New methods of species identification have been introduced


(D) Theories about the chemical composition of fungi have been revised.
3. The word "principal" in line 5 is closest in meaning to
(A) true (B) main (C) logical (D) obvious
4. According to the passage, how do fungi obtain carbohydrates?
(A) The absorb carbohydrates from their own cell walls.
(B) They synthesize chlorophyll to produce carbohydrates.
(C) They produce carbohydrates by breaking down chitin.
(D) They acquire carbohydrates from other organic matter, both living and dead.
5. The passage mentions shrimps, spiders, and insects in line 10 because their
skeletons____.
(A) can be destroyed by fungi
(B) have unusual chemical compositions
(C) contain a material found in the walls of fungal cells
(D) secrete the same enzymes as the walls of fungal cells do

6. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?


(A) "chlorophyll" (line 5) (B) "polymer" (line
9)
(C) "hyphae" (line 12) (D) "enzymes"
(line 13)
7. The word "those" in line 14 refers to_________.
(A) tips (B) hyphae (C) enzymes (D) walls
8. The passage describes the negative effects of fungi on all the following EXCEPT____.
(A) buildings (B) animals (C) food (D) soil
9. The phrase "bring about" in line 22 is closest in meaning to_______.
(A) cause (B) join (C) take (D) include
10. The passage mentions "penicillin" in line 26 as an example of________.
(A) a medicine derived from plants
(B) a beneficial use of fungi
(C) a product of the relationship between plants and fungi
(D) a type of fungi that grows at extreme temperatures.

Your answers:
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1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

SECTION E. WRITING (45 points)

Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as
the sentence printed before it. (10 points)

1. The teacher started to write the lesson plan right after he returned from work.

à Hardly
…...............................................................................................................................

2. Keeping calm is the secret of passing your driving test.

à As long as ……………….………………………………………………………………….

22. They never made us do anything we didn’t want to do.


àWe.....................................................................................................................................
.....

4. Although he has worked hard, he can’t support his family.


à Hard ….…………………………………………………………………………..
…………
5. “ I’m sorry . I didn’t catch the ball for your sister yesterday.” Nam said to Huong.

à Nam apologized …………….………………………………………………………………

Part II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it means the same as the given
one. Using the given word in brackets. Do not change the bold word. (10points)

1. Their chances of success are small. (likely)


à It is
not.................................................................................................................................

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2. I am not interested in skiing. ( cup )


à Skiing ……………………………………………………………………………....
……..
3.His parents are proud of his performance at school. ( pride )
à His parents ………………………………………………………………………………..

4. I am going to ask somebody to mend your bike. (have )

à I am ………………………………………………………………………………………

5. House prices have risen dramatically this year. (rise)

à There ……………………………………………………………………………………

Part III. Writing (25 points)

Noise pollution is one of serious environmental problems in modern life. In 180-


200 words, write about its bad effects.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………

Key + audio
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=4jACQq_IawQ&t=629s

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