MOCK TEST- 1 (8th JULY 2024)

Class : 12 Sub : Chemistry

Time : 60 Min Max. Marks: 50

General Instructions:
(i)The question paper has 50 questions.
(ii)Each question carries 01 (One) mark and for each correct answer candidate will get (one) mark & for each
incorrect answer, ¼ mark will be deducted.

1. The rate of reaction between two specific time intervals is called

a) Instantaneous b) Average rate c) Specific rate d) ordinary rate
2. Which one of the following statements for the order of a reaction is incorrect?
a) Order can be determined only experimentally.
b) Order is not influenced by stoichiometric coefficient of the reactants.
c) Order of reaction is sum of power to the concentration terms of reactants to express the rate of
reaction
d) Order of reaction is always whole number.
3. 3 A → B+C , it would be a zero order reaction when
a) The rate of reaction is proportional to square of concentration of A
b) The rate of reaction remains same at any concentration of A
c) The rate remains unchanged at any concentration of B and C
d) The rate of reaction doubles of concentration of B is increased to double.
4. In the reaction
2 A + B→ A B ,
2 if the concentration of A is doubled and that of B is halved, then the
rate of the reaction will:
a) increase 2 times b) increase 4 times c) decrease 2 times d) remain the same

5. The rate constant for the reaction

2 N 2 O5 ⃗ 4 NO 2 +O2 is3 .10×10−5 sec −1 . If the rate is
2.4×10−5 mol litre−1 sec−1 then the concentration of N2O5 (in mol litre–1) is:
a) 0.04 b) 0.8 c) 0.07 d) 1.4
6. The half-life of a reaction is inversely proportional to the square of the initial concentration of the
reactant. Then the order of the reaction is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
7. A reaction proceeds by first order, 75% of this reaction was completed in 32 min. The time required
for 50% completion is
a) 8 min b) 16 min c) 20 min d) 24 min
8. Which of the following statements best describes how a catalyst works?
a) A catalyst changes the potential energies of the reactants and products.
b) A catalyst decreases the temperature of the reaction which leads to a faster rate.
c) A catalyst lowers the activation energy for the reaction by providing different reaction
mechanisms.
d) A catalyst destroys some of the reactants, which lowers the concentration of the reactants.
9. For a first order reaction, the plot of log k against 1/T is a straight line. The slope of the line is equal
to
Ea 2. 303 Ea −Ea
− − −
a) R b)
Ea R c) 2. 303 d) 2. 303 R
10. In a zero-order reaction for every 10° rise of temperature, the rate is doubled. If the temperature is
increased from 10°C to 100°C, the rate of the reaction will become:
a) 256 times b) 512 times c) 64 times d) 128 times
11. A reaction having equal energies of activation for forward and reverse reaction has:
a) ΔG=0 b) ΔH =0 c) ΔH =ΔG= ΔS=0 d) ΔS =0
12. According to which theory activation energy and proper orientation of the molecules together
determine the criteria for an effective collision?
a) Arrhenius theory b) Activated complex theory
c) Collision theory d) Both (a) and (c)
13. In the presence of a catalyst, the heat evolved or absorbed during the reaction ………. .
a) increases b) decreases
c) remains unchanged d) may increase or decrease
14. The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol
with
a) PCl5 b) Dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2
c) SOCl2 in presence of pyridine d) None of these
15. The decreasing order of boiling points of alkyl halides is
a) RF >RCl>RBr> RI b) RBr>RCl> RI > RF
c) RI >RBr>RCl> RF d) RCl> RF > RI >RBr
16. A Grignard reagent may be made by reacting magnesium with
a) Methyl amine b) Diethyl ether c) Ethyl iodide d) Ethyl alcohol
17. Racemic compound has
a) equimolar mixture of enantiomers
b) 1 : 1 mixture of enantiomer and diastereomer
c) 1 : 1 mixture of diastereomers
d) 1 : 2 mixture of enantiomers
18. An alkyl halide reacts with metallic sodium in dry ether.
The reaction is known as:
a) Frankland’s reaction b) Sandmeyer’s reaction
c) Wurtz reaction d) Kolbe’s reaction
19. Consider the following bromides:

The correct order of SN1 reactivity is

a) B > C > A b) B > A > C c) C > B > A d) A > B > C
20. The correct order of the following compounds showing increasing tendency towards nucleophilic
substitution reaction is:

a) (iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i) b) (iv) <(i) < (ii) < (iii)
c) (iv) < (i) < (iii) < (ii) d) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv)
21. Which reagents are required for one step conversion of chlorobenzene to toluene?
a) CH3Cl/AlCl3 b) CH3Cl, Na, Dry ether
c) CH3Cl/Fe dark d) NaNO2/HCl/0.5°C
22. Uses of dichloromethane is
a) Paint remover b) Solvent in drugs manufacturing
c) Metal cleansing and finishing solvent d) All of the above
23. Toluene reacts with a halogen in the presence of iron (III) chloride giving ortho and para halo
compounds. The reaction is
a) Eletrophilic elimination reaction b) Electrohpilic substitution reaction
c) Free radical addition reaction d) nucleophilic substitution reaction
24. The position of Br in the compound CH3CH = CHC(Br)(CH3)2 can be classified as………. .
a) Allyl b) Aryl c) Vinyl d) Secondary
25. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form pent-2-ene is:
(A) β− Elimination reaction (B) Follows Zaitsev rule
(C) Dehydrohalogenation reaction (D) Dehydration reaction
a) (A), (C), (D) b) (B), (C), (D) c) (A), (B), (D) d) (A), (B), (C)
26. Which of the following alkane cannot be made in good yield by Wurtz reaction?
a) 2,3-Dimethylbutane b) n-Heptane
c) n-Butane d) n-Hexane
27. Match Column I with Column II

Column I Column II
(A) Chloroform (p) Antispetic
(B) Iodoform (q) Insecticide
(C) Trichloromonofluoromethane (r) Anesthetic
(D
DDT (s) Propellant
)
a) A – (s), B – (p), C – (r), D – (q) b) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q)
c) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (q) d) A – (r), B – (s), C – (p), D – (q)
28. Fructose is an example of
a) Pyranose b) Heptose c) Aldohexose d) Ketohexose
29. The number of chiral carbon atoms present in cyclic structureα−D ( + ) glucose
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
30. Cellulose is a polymer of
a) Glucose b) Fructose c) Ribose d) Sucrose
31. Reduction of glucose by HI suggest that
a) Present of OH groups
b) Presence of –CHO group
c) Cyclic structure of glucose
d) Six carbon atoms are arranged in straight chain
32. Invert sugar is
a) Chemically inactive form of sugar
b) Equimoleucalr mixture of glucose and fructose
c) Mixture of glucose and sucrose
d) A variety of cane sugar
33. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(i) Glucose is reducing sugar (ii) Sucrose is reducing sugar
(iii) Maltose is non reducing sugar (iv) Lactose is reducing sugar
a) (i) and (ii) only b) (i) and (iii) only c) (i) and (iv) only d) All of these
34. Glycosidic linkage between C1 ofα − glucose and C2 of β− fructose is found in
a) Maltose b) Sucrose c) Lactose d) Starch
35. In the acetylation of glucose, which group is involved in the reaction
a) CHO group b) >C = O group
c) alcoholic OH group d) all of these
36. Given the numbers: 161 cm, 0.161 cm, 0.0161 cm. The number of significant figures for the three
numbers are
a) 3, 4 and 5 respectively b) 3, 3 and 3 respectively
c) 3, 3 and 4 respectively d) 3, 4 and 4 respectively
37. The number of atoms in 0.1 mol of a triatomic gas is(
N A=6 . 02×1023 mol−1 )
22 22 23 23
a) 1 .800×10 b) 6 . 026×10 c) 1 .806×10 d) 3 . 600×10
38. One mole of CO2 contains
 a) 6 . 02×1023 atoms of C 23
b)6 . 02×10 atoms of O
23
c) 18 .1×10 molecules of CO2 d) 3 g atoms of CO2
39. The number of water molecules is maximum in
a) 18 gram of water b) 19 moles of water
c) 19 molecules of water d) 1.8 gram of water
40. Haemoglobin contains 0.33% of iron by weight. The molecular weight of haemoglobin is
approximately 67200. The number of iron atoms (at. wt. of Fe = 56) present is one molecule of
haemoglobin is
a) 6 b) 1 c) 4 d) 2
41. 4.4 g of CO2 and 2.24 litre of H2 at STP are mixed in a container. The total number of molecules
present in the container will be
23 23 26 24
a) 6 . 022×10 b)1 .2044×10 c)6 . 022×10 d)6 . 022×10
42. The empirical formula and molecular mass of a compound are CH2O and 180 g respectively. What
will be the molecular formula of the compound?
a)
C H O
9 18 9 b)
CH O2
C H O
c) 6 12 6
C H O
d) 2 4 2
43. Pure methane can be produced by
a) Wurtz reaction b) Kolbe’s electrolytic method
c) Soda-lime decarboxylation d) Reduction with H2
44. Which one of the following exhibits geometrical isomerism?
a) 1, 2-Dibromopropene b) 2, 3-Dimethylbut-2-ene
c) 2, 3-Dibromobut-2-ene d) Both (a) and (c)
45. When one mole of an alkene on ozonolysis produces 2 moles of propanone, the alkene is
a) 3-methyl-1-butene b) 2, 3-dimethyl-1-butene
c) 2, 3-dimethyl-2-pentene d) 2, 3-dimethyl-2-butene
46.
R−CH 2 −CCl 2 −R⃗
Re agent R−C≡C−R

The reagent is
a) Na b) HCl in H2O c) KOH in C2H5OH d) Zn is alcohol
47. Which of the following reactions does not show the acidic nature of ethyne?
a) Acetylene reacts with sodamide to from sodium acetylides.
b) When passed through ammoniacal cuprous chloride solution, a red precipitate is formed
c) Acetylene reacts with chlorine in the dark to form di or tetrachlorides.
d) Acetylene when passed through ammoniacal silver nitrate gives a white precipitate.

48.
The compound B is

a) b) c) d)

49. The strongest ortho–para and strongest meta–directing groups respectively are
a)
−NO 2 and−NH 2 b)
−CONH 2 and−NH 2
c)
−NH2 and−CONH 2 d)
−NH 2 and −NO 2
50. Benzene is highly unsaturated but it does not undergo addition reaction because
a) π− electrons of benzene are delocalized
b) Cyclic structures do not show addition reaction
c) Benzene is a non-reactive compound
d) All of the above.
 ANSWERKEY
1-b 2-d 3-b 4-a 5-b 6-d 7-b 8-c 9-d 10-b
11-b 12-c 13-c 14-c 15-c 16-c 17-a 18-c 19-a 20-d
21-b 22-d 23-b 24-a 25-d 26-b 27-b 28-d 29-c 30-a
31-d 32-b 33-c 34-b 35-c 36-b 37-c 38-a 39-b 40-c
41-b 42-c 43-c 44-d 45-d 46-c 47-c 48-a 49-d 50-a