Review Questions - IsBB

CENTRAL LUZON DOCTORS’ HOSPITAL
EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTION, INC.

DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY
Romulo Highway, San Pablo, Tarlac City
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1. Which of the following is not a primary lymphoid organ?

a. Thymus
b. Bone marrow
c. Spleen
d. Bursa of Fabricius
Answer: c. Spleen
Rationale: The spleen is a secondary lymphoid organ. The thymus, bone marrow, and bursa of Fabricius are
considered primary lymphoid organs, where immune cells develop. (A. Immuno Book by Stevens page 22 )
2. Which of the following is responsible for the production of T lymphocytes?

a. Thymus
b. Spleen
c. Lymph nodes
d. Appendix
Answer: a. Thymus
Rationale: The thymus is responsible for the production and maturation of T lymphocytes, which play a vital role
in cell-mediated immunity. . (A. Immuno Book by Stevens page 21 )
3. Lymph nodes are encapsulated organs that contain:

a. B cells only
b. T cells only
c. Both B and T cells
d. Red blood cells
Answer: c. Both B and T cells

Rationale: Lymph nodes contain a diverse population of B and T lymphocytes, along with other immune cells, and
serve as sites for immune cell activation and antigen presentation. . (A. Immuno Book by Stevens page 25 )
4. Which of the following is true about the germinal centers in lymph nodes?
a. They are primarily composed of macrophages
b. They are the sites of B cell activation and differentiation
c. They contain only mature B cells
d. They are non-functional structures
Answer: b. They are the sites of B cell activation and differentiation

Rationale: Germinal centers within lymph nodes are specialized regions where B cells undergo activation,
proliferation, and differentiation into antibody-secreting plasma cells. . (A. Immuno Book by Stevens page 25 )
5. Which of the following is an example of a secondary lymphoid organ?

a. Liver
b. Kidney
c. Thymus
d. Lymph nodes
Answer: d. Lymph nodes

Rationale: Lymph nodes are considered secondary lymphoid organs, along with the spleen, tonsils, and mucosa-
associated lymphoid tissues (MALT). These organs facilitate immune responses by trapping antigens and
promoting immune cell interactions. . (A. Immuno Book by Stevens page 23 )
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6. The lymphatic vessels play a crucial role in:
a. Transporting oxygen to tissues
b. Transporting carbon dioxide to the lungs
c. Draining excess interstitial fluid and returning it to the circulatory system
d. Filtering toxins from the blood
Answer: c. Draining excess interstitial fluid and returning it to the circulatory system
Rationale: Lymphatic vessels function to collect and drain excess interstitial fluid, along with immune cells and
antigens, and return it to the bloodstream. . (A. Immuno Book by Stevens page )
7. Which of the following is an example of a lymphoid tissue found in the gastrointestinal tract?
a. Tonsils
b. Peyer's patches
c. Thymus
d. Appendix
Answer: b. Peyer's patches

Rationale: Peyer's patches are aggregates of lymphoid tissue found in the gastrointestinal tract, particularly in the
small intestine. They play a crucial role in monitoring and responding to antigens encountered in the gut. . (A.
Immuno Book by Stevens page )
8. The process of antigen presentation occurs primarily in which lymphoid organ?

a. Spleen
b. Lymph nodes
c. Thymus
d. Bone marrow
Answer: b. Lymph nodes

Rationale: Lymph nodes are key sites for antigen presentation, where immune cells present antigens to other
immune cells to initiate an immune response. . (A. Immuno Book by Stevens page 23)
9. Which of the following is a primary function of the lymphoid system?

a. Oxygen transport
b. Nutrient absorption
c. Waste elimination
d. Immune surveillance and defense
Answer: d. Immune surveillance and defense

Rationale: The primary function of the lymphoid system is to maintain immune surveillance, recognize and
respond to pathogens, and mount immune defenses to protect the body from infections. . (A. Immuno Book by
Stevens page 19)
10. The spleen functions in all of the following except:

a. Filtration of blood
b. Production of red blood cells
c. Storage of platelets
d. Immunological responses
Answer: b. Production of red blood cells

Rationale: While the spleen plays a role in blood filtration, storage of platelets, and immunological responses, it
does not produce red blood cells. Red blood cell production primarily occurs in the bone marrow. . (A. Immuno
Book by Stevens page 22 )
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11. Which lymphoid organ is involved in the development of B cells in birds?
a. Thymus
b. Bone marrow
c. Spleen
d. Bursa of Fabricius
Answer: d. Bursa of Fabricius

Rationale: In birds, B cell development takes place in a specialized lymphoid organ called the bursa of Fabricius,
located near the cloaca. . (A. Immuno Book by Stevens page 26)
12. The lymphatic system helps in the absorption of:

a. Proteins
b. Carbohydrates
c. Fats
d. Vitamins
Answer: c. Fats
Rationale: The lymphatic system plays a crucial role in the absorption of dietary fats and fat-soluble vitamins from
the digestive tract. . (A. Immuno Book by Stevens page 19)
13. Which lymphoid organ is involved in the removal of aged red blood cells from circulation?
a. Thymus
b. Spleen
c. Lymph nodes
d. Tonsils
Answer: b. Spleen
Rationale: The spleen is involved in the removal of aged or damaged red blood cells from circulation. It also serves
as a reservoir for platelets. . (A. Immuno Book by Stevens page 22 )
14. Which of the following is not a function of lymphocytes?

a. Antibody production
b. Phagocytosis
c. Cellular immune response
d. Memory formation
Answer: b. Phagocytosis
Rationale: Lymphocytes are primarily responsible for antibody production, cellular immune responses, and
memory formation. Phagocytosis is primarily performed by phagocytes such as macrophages and neutrophils. . (A.
Immuno Book by Stevens page 3 )
15. The process of clonal selection and expansion occurs in response to:
a. Self-antigens
b. Autoantibodies
c. Foreign antigens
d. Complement proteins
Answer: c. Foreign antigens

Rationale: Clonal selection and expansion occur in response to foreign antigens. This process involves the
activation and proliferation of specific lymphocytes to generate an immune response against the invading
pathogen. . (A. Immuno Book by Stevens page 29 )
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16. Which of the following cells is responsible for antigen presentation to T cells?
a. B cells
b. Macrophages
c. Neutrophils
d. Natural killer cells
Answer: b. Macrophages
Rationale: Macrophages are antigen-presenting cells that capture, process, and present antigens to T cells, initiating
an adaptive immune response. . (A. Immuno Book by Stevens page 27 )
17. Which of the following is an example of a lymphoid malignancy?

a. Leukemia
b. Multiple sclerosis
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Asthma
Answer: a. Leukemia
Rationale: Leukemia is a malignancy of the lymphoid system characterized by uncontrolled proliferation of
abnormal white blood cells. Multiple sclerosis, rheumatoid arthritis, and asthma are not lymphoid malignancies. .
(A. Immuno Book by Stevens page )
18. Which of the following is an example of a cytokine produced by lymphocytes?

a. Insulin
b. Interleukin-2
c. Estrogen
d. Thyroxine
Answer: b. Interleukin-2
Rationale: Interleukin-2 is a cytokine produced by activated T cells. Cytokines are small proteins involved in cell
signaling and regulation of immune responses. . (A. Immuno Book by Stevens page 77)
19. The process of lymphocyte homing refers to:

a. Migration of lymphocytes to lymphoid organs
b. Proliferation of lymphocytes in response to antigens
c. Maturation of lymphocytes in the thymus
d. Differentiation of lymphocytes into plasma cells
Answer: a. Migration of lymphocytes to lymphoid organs

Rationale: Lymphocyte homing refers to the process by which lymphocytes migrate from the bloodstream into
lymphoid organs, where they participate in immune surveillance and responses. . (A. Immuno Book by Stevens
page )
20. Which of the following is an example of an autoimmune disease affecting the lymphoid system?
a. HIV/AIDS
b. Lupus erythematosus
c. Influenza
d. Malaria
Answer: b. Lupus erythematosus

Rationale: Lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disease that can affect multiple organs, including the lymphoid
system. HIV/AIDS is caused by a viral infection, and influenza and malaria are caused by specific pathogens. . (A.
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21. The process of clonal deletion refers to the elimination of lymphocytes that:
a. Recognize self-antigens
b. Produce autoantibodies
c. Engage in phagocytosis
d. Differentiate into memory cells
Answer: a. Recognize self-antigens

Rationale: Clonal deletion is the process by which lymphocytes that recognize self-antigens are eliminated during
development to prevent autoimmune reactions. . (A. Immuno Book by Stevens page )
22. Which of the following cells is primarily responsible for antibody production?
a. B cells
b. T cells
c. Natural killer cells
d. Macrophages
Answer: a. B cells
Rationale: B cells are primarily responsible for antibody production. Upon activation, B cells differentiate into
plasma cells, which produce and secrete antibodies. . (A. Immuno Book by Stevens page 25 )
23. The lymphoid organ involved in filtering lymph and initiating immune responses is the:
a. Spleen
b. Thymus
c. Tonsils
d. Lymph nodes
Answer: d. Lymph nodes

Rationale: Lymph nodes filter lymphatic fluid, trapping foreign particles and antigens. They also serve as sites for
immune cell activation and interaction, initiating immune responses. . (A. Immuno Book by Stevens page 22)
24. Which of the following is not a type of lymphocyte?

a. B cell
b. T cell
c. NK cell
d. Monocyte
Answer: d. Monocyte
Rationale: Monocytes are not lymphocytes but are a type of white blood cell belonging to the mononuclear
phagocyte system. B cells, T cells, and NK cells are types of lymphocytes.
. (A. Immuno Book by Stevens page 19 )
25. The lymphatic system plays a role in the transport of:

a. Hormones
b. Electrolytes
c. Oxygen
d. Antigens
Answer: d. Antigens
Rationale: The lymphatic system plays a critical role in the transport of antigens, immune cells, and other immune-
related substances, facilitating immune responses and surveillance throughout the body. . (A. Immuno Book by
Stevens page29 )
26. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of the lymphoid system?

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a. Production of red blood cells
b. Regulation of blood pressure
c. Formation of bile
d. Lymphocyte maturation and differentiation
Answer: d. Lymphocyte maturation and differentiation

Rationale: The lymphoid system is primarily responsible for the maturation and differentiation of lymphocytes,
key cells involved in adaptive immune responses. . (A. Immuno Book by Stevens page 19)
27. The primary function of the lymphoid system in the immune response is:
a. Destruction of foreign pathogens
b. Maintenance of fluid balance
c. Regulation of body temperature
d. Production of hormones
Answer: a. Destruction of foreign pathogens

Rationale: The primary function of the lymphoid system in the immune response is the destruction of foreign
pathogens, antigens, and abnormal cells to protect the body from infections and diseases. . (A. Immuno Book by
Stevens page 19 )
28. Which of the following is a primary function of the lymph nodes?

a. Production of antibodies
b. Filtration of blood
c. Removal of toxins from the body
d. Immune cell activation and proliferation
Answer: d. Immune cell activation and proliferation

Rationale: Lymph nodes play a crucial role in immune cell activation and proliferation. They provide an
environment for interactions between immune cells, facilitating immune responses. . (A. Immuno Book by Stevens
page 19)
29. The lymphoid tissue located in the back of the throat is known as the:
a. Appendix
b. Tonsils
c. Peyer's patches
d. Spleen
Answer: b. Tonsils
Rationale: Tonsils are lymphoid tissue located in the back of the throat. They function as part of the body's defense
against inhaled or ingested pathogens. . (A. Immuno Book by Stevens page 22 )
30. Which of the following is an example of a lymphocyte surface marker?

a. Insulin
b. Hemoglobin
c. CD4
d. Albumin
Answer: c. CD4
Rationale: CD4 is an example of a lymphocyte surface marker, specifically a glycoprotein found on the surface of
helper T cells. Surface markers are used to identify and characterize different cell types. . (A. Immuno Book by
Stevens page 25 )
31. The lymphatic system is closely associated with which other system in the body?
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a. Nervous system
b. Endocrine system
c. Digestive system
d. Circulatory system
Answer: d. Circulatory system

Rationale: The lymphatic system is closely associated with the circulatory system. Lymphatic vessels parallel
blood vessels, and the lymphatic system connects to the cardiovascular system through lymphatic ducts. . (A.
32. Which of the following is an example of a secondary lymphoid organ?

a. Bone marrow
b. Thymus
c. Spleen
d. Appendix
Answer: c. Spleen
Rationale: The spleen is an example of a secondary lymphoid organ. Secondary lymphoid organs are sites where
immune responses are initiated and immune cells encounter antigens. . (A. Immuno Book by Stevens page 22)
33. The process of clonal expansion in lymphocytes refers to:

a. The generation of memory cells
b. The proliferation of specific antigen-responsive lymphocytes
c. The removal of self-reactive lymphocytes
d. The production of antibodies
Answer: b. The proliferation of specific antigen-responsive lymphocytes

Rationale: Clonal expansion refers to the proliferation of specific lymphocytes that recognize and respond to a
particular antigen. This process leads to an amplified immune response against the antigen.
34. Which of the following is an example of a lymphoid malignancy affecting B cells?

a. Hodgkin's lymphoma
b. Multiple myeloma
c. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
d. Chronic myeloid leukemia
Answer: c. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

Rationale: Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) is a lymphoid malignancy that primarily affects B cells.
Hodgkin's lymphoma, multiple myeloma, and chronic myeloid leukemia involve different cell types or have mixed
cell involvement. . (A. Immuno Book by Stevens page 25)
35. The process of lymphopoiesis refers to the:

a. Maturation of lymphocytes in the thymus
b. Production of lymphocytes in the bone marrow
c. Activation of lymphocytes by antigens
d. Migration of lymphocytes to lymphoid organs
Answer: b. Production of lymphocytes in the bone marrow

Rationale: Lymphopoiesis is the process of lymphocyte production, which occurs primarily in the bone marrow. It
includes the development of both B and T lymphocytes. . (A. Immuno Book by Stevens page 20)
36. Which of the following cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity?

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a. B cells
b. NK cells
c. Dendritic cells
d. Mast cells
Answer: c. Dendritic cells

Rationale: Dendritic cells play a crucial role in cell-mediated immunity. They capture and process antigens, then
present them to T cells, initiating cellular immune responses. . (A. Immuno Book by Stevens page )
37. The lymphatic vessels contain specialized structures called lymphatic:

a. Capillaries
b. Veins
c. Arteries
d. Nodes
Answer: d. Nodes
Rationale: Lymphatic vessels contain lymph nodes, which are specialized structures that filter lymph and facilitate
immune responses.
. (A. Immuno Book by Stevens page 22)
38. Which of the following is an example of an immunoglobulin isotype found on the surface of B cells?
a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgE
d. IgG
Answer: b. IgD
Rationale: IgD is an immunoglobulin isotype found on the surface of mature B cells, functioning as a B cell
receptor. IgA, IgE, and IgG are primarily found in secreted form. . (A. Immuno Book by Stevens page )
39. The lymphatic system plays a role in the immune response by:
a. Producing antibodies
b. Regulating body temperature
c. Clearing metabolic waste products
d. Transporting immune cells and antigens
Answer: d. Transporting immune cells and antigens

Rationale: The lymphatic system plays a critical role in the immune response by transporting immune cells, such as
lymphocytes, and antigens throughout the body, facilitating immune surveillance and immune responses.
40. Which of the following is a function of lymphoid follicles in lymph nodes?

a. Filtration of lymph
b. Production of lymphocytes
c. Storage of platelets
d. Formation of antibodies
Answer: b. Production of lymphocytes

Rationale: Lymphoid follicles in lymph nodes are sites of lymphocyte production and maturation. They contain
germinal centers where B cells undergo activation and differentiation.
41. The lymphoid organ involved in the removal of old or damaged red blood cells from circulation is the:
a. Spleen
b. Thymus
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c. Tonsils
d. Appendix
Answer: a. Spleen
Rationale: The spleen plays a role in the removal of old or damaged red blood cells from circulation. It also
functions in immune responses, acting as a filter for blood-borne pathogens.
42. Which of the following is a function of the thymus gland?

a. Production of antibodies
b. Maturation of T cells
c. Filtration of lymph
d. Storage of platelets
Answer: b. Maturation of T cells

Rationale: The thymus gland is primarily involved in the maturation and development of T cells, a type of
lymphocyte that plays a crucial role in cell-mediated immunity.
43. Which of the following cells are involved in natural killer (NK) cell activity?
a. Neutrophils
b. Mast cells
c. Monocytes
d. Lymphocytes
Answer: d. Lymphocytes
Rationale: Natural killer (NK) cells are a type of lymphocyte involved in innate immunity. They can directly kill
infected or abnormal cells without prior sensitization.
44. The lymphatic system helps to maintain fluid balance in the body by:
a. Filtering lymph
b. Absorbing excess tissue fluid
c. Producing lymphocytes
d. Clearing cellular debris
Answer: b. Absorbing excess tissue fluid

Rationale: One of the functions of the lymphatic system is to absorb excess tissue fluid, returning it to the
bloodstream and helping to maintain fluid balance in the body.
45. Which of the following is an example of an antigen-presenting cell?

a. B cell
b. T cell
c. Natural killer cell
d. Eosinophil
Answer: a. B cell
Rationale: B cells are antigen-presenting cells (APCs) capable of capturing, processing, and presenting antigens to
helper T cells, initiating adaptive immune responses.
46. The lymphatic system contributes to the body's defense against pathogens by:
a. Producing antibodies
b. Clearing metabolic waste products
c. Regulating blood pressure
d. Phagocytosis of foreign particles
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Answer: a. Producing antibodies
Rationale: The lymphatic system contributes to the body's defense against pathogens by producing antibodies,
which are proteins that recognize and neutralize specific antigens.
47. The lymphatic vessels are similar to blood vessels, but they:
a. Contain red blood cells
b. Lack a muscular layer
c. Transport oxygen and nutrients
d. Have a higher pressure
Answer: b. Lack a muscular layer

Rationale: Lymphatic vessels are similar to blood vessels but lack a muscular layer. They rely on the contraction of
surrounding muscles and valves to propel lymph fluid.
. (A. Immuno Book by Stevens page )
48. Which of the following is an example of an immune response mediated by B cells?

a. Inflammation
b. Delayed-type hypersensitivity
c. Antibody production
d. Cytotoxic T cell activation
Answer: c. Antibody production

Rationale: B cells are primarily responsible for antibody production, a key immune response against extracellular
pathogens. Inflammation, delayed-type hypersensitivity, and cytotoxic T cell activation involve different immune
mechanisms.
49. The lymphatic system is involved in the transport of:

a. Carbon dioxide
b. Nutrients
c. Hormones
d. Interstitial fluid
Answer: d. Interstitial fluid

Rationale: The lymphatic system plays a crucial role in the transport of interstitial fluid, also known as lymph,
which contains cellular waste products, proteins, and immune-related substances.
50. Which of the following is an example of a lymphoid organ located in the gastrointestinal tract?
a. Spleen
b. Thymus
c. Tonsils
d. Peyer's patches
Answer: d. Peyer's patches

Rationale: Peyer's patches are lymphoid organs located in the gastrointestinal tract, specifically in the small intestine. They
play a role in immune surveillance and response within the gut mucosa.
51. The complement system is part of the:

a. Innate immune system
b. Adaptive immune system
c. Both innate and adaptive immune systems
d. Lymphatic system
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Answer: c. Both innate and adaptive immune systems
Rationale: The complement system plays a role in both innate and adaptive immune responses by enhancing the
ability of antibodies and phagocytic cells to eliminate pathogens.
52. The complement system is composed of:

a. Proteins
b. Cells
c. Antibodies
d. Hormones
Answer: a. Proteins
Rationale: The complement system consists of a group of proteins that work together to mediate various immune
functions, such as pathogen opsonization, inflammation, and cell lysis.
53. The complement system can be activated by:

a. Antibodies
b. Pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)
c. Both antibodies and PAMPs
d. Cytokines
Answer: c. Both antibodies and PAMPs

Rationale: The complement system can be activated through the classical pathway, which is initiated by antigen-
antibody complexes, or the alternative pathway, which is triggered by microbial surfaces containing PAMPs.
54. The primary function of the complement system is to:

a. Promote inflammation
b. Enhance phagocytosis
c. Directly kill pathogens
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above

Rationale: The complement system has multiple functions, including promoting inflammation, enhancing
phagocytosis by opsonization, and directly killing pathogens through the formation of membrane attack
complexes.
55. The complement proteins are predominantly produced in the:

a. Liver
b. Bone marrow
c. Spleen
d. Lymph nodes
Answer: a. Liver
Rationale: The liver is the primary site of production for most complement proteins, although some complement
proteins can also be produced by other cells, such as monocytes and macrophages.
56. The complement cascade refers to:

a. The sequential activation of complement proteins
b. The interaction between complement proteins and antibodies
c. The binding of complement proteins to pathogens
d. The breakdown of complement proteins after activation
Answer: a. The sequential activation of complement proteins

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Rationale: The complement cascade refers to the sequential activation of complement proteins, where each
activated protein triggers the activation of the next protein in the pathway.
57. Which of the following complement proteins is an anaphylatoxin?

a. C3b
b. C4a
c. C5a
d. C6
Answer: c. C5a
Rationale: Anaphylatoxins are small peptides generated during complement activation that can induce
inflammation and attract immune cells. C5a is an example of an anaphylatoxin.
58. The complement protein responsible for initiating the classical pathway is:
a. C1q
b. C3
c. C5
d. Factor H
Answer: a. C1q
Rationale: C1q is the complement protein that initiates the classical pathway by binding to antibody-antigen
complexes and subsequently activating other complement proteins.
59. The alternative pathway of complement activation is primarily triggered by:

a. Antibodies
b. Cytokines
c. Bacterial and fungal surfaces
d. Viral particles
Answer: c. Bacterial and fungal surfaces

Rationale: The alternative pathway of complement activation is primarily triggered by microbial surfaces,
particularly bacterial and fungal surfaces that contain specific structures recognized as foreign by the immune
system.
60. Complement activation leads to the formation of:

a. Membrane attack complexes (MACs)
b. Phagolysosomes
c. Antibody-antigen complexes
d. Cytokine receptors
Answer: a. Membrane attack complexes (MACs)

Rationale: Complement activation leads to the formation of membrane attack complexes (MACs), which can
directly lyse pathogens by creating pores in their cell membranes.
61. Decay-accelerating factor (DAF) is a complement regulatory protein that:

a. Inhibits the formation of MACs
b. Promotes opsonization of pathogens
c. Enhances cytokine production
d. Activates the alternative pathway
Answer: a. Inhibits the formation of MACs

Rationale: Decay-accelerating factor (DAF) is a complement regulatory protein that inhibits the formation of
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membrane attack complexes (MACs), thus protecting host cells from complement-mediated damage.
62. Complement deficiencies can lead to increased susceptibility to:

a. Bacterial infections
b. Viral infections
c. Parasitic infections
d. All of the above

Rationale: Complement deficiencies can result in an increased susceptibility to various types of infections,
including bacterial, viral, and parasitic infections, due to impaired immune defense mechanisms.
63. The complement system can be involved in the pathogenesis of:

a. Autoimmune diseases
b. Allergic reactions
c. Transfusion reactions
d. All of the above

Rationale: The complement system can contribute to the pathogenesis of autoimmune diseases, allergic reactions,
and transfusion reactions through its involvement in immune complex formation, inflammation, and tissue damage.
64. The C3 convertase of the classical pathway consists of:

a. C1q, C1r, and C1s
b. C4b and C2a
c. C3b and factor B
d. C3b, factor B, and factor D
Answer: b. C4b and C2a

Rationale: The C3 convertase of the classical pathway is formed by the proteolytic cleavage of C4b and the
subsequent binding of C2a, generating C3 convertase (C4b2a) that cleaves C3 into C3a and C3b.
65. Which of the following is an example of a soluble complement regulatory protein?

a. C1 inhibitor
b. CD59
c. Factor I
d. Properdin
Answer: c. Factor I
Rationale: Factor I is a soluble complement regulatory protein that can cleave and inactivate complement
components, such as C3b and C4b, preventing excessive complement activation.
66. The membrane attack complex (MAC) consists of complement proteins:

a. C5b, C6, C7, C8, and C9
b. C3b and factor B
c. C4b and C2a
d. C3b and factor H
Answer: a. C5b, C6, C7, C8, and C9

Rationale: The membrane attack complex (MAC) is formed by the sequential binding of complement proteins C5b,
C6, C7, C8, and the polymerization of C9, leading to the formation of pores in the target cell membrane.
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67. The classical pathway of complement activation is primarily initiated by:

a. IgG antibodies
b. IgM antibodies
c. IgA antibodies
d. IgE antibodies
Answer: b. IgM antibodies

Rationale: The classical pathway of complement activation is primarily initiated by IgM antibodies, which can
bind to multiple antigens and activate the complement cascade through the binding of C1q.
68. Complement-mediated opsonization enhances:

a. Phagocytosis of pathogens
b. Antibody production
c. Inflammation
d. T cell activation
Answer: a. Phagocytosis of pathogens

Rationale: Complement-mediated opsonization enhances the phagocytosis of pathogens by coating them with
complement proteins, such as C3b, which facilitates their recognition and uptake by phagocytic cells.
69. Which of the following complement components acts as an opsonin?

a. C1q
b. C3b
c. C4a
d. C5a
Answer: b. C3b
Rationale: C3b acts as an opsonin by binding to the surface of pathogens and enhancing their recognition and
engulfment by phagocytic cells.
70. The factor H protein functions as a:

a. Complement activator
b. Complement inhibitor
c. Pro-inflammatory cytokine
d. Chemotactic factor
Answer: b. Complement inhibitor

Rationale: Factor H is a complement regulatory protein that acts as a complement inhibitor by binding to C3b and
promoting its inactivation, preventing excessive complement activation on host cells.
71. The process of complement fixation refers to:

a. The binding of complement proteins to pathogens
b. The activation of the classical pathway
c. The cleavage of C3 into C3a and C3b
d. The formation of membrane attack complexes (MACs)
Answer: a. The binding of complement proteins to pathogens

Rationale: Complement fixation refers to the binding of complement proteins, such as C3b, to pathogens or
immune complexes, which marks them for opsonization or initiates complement-mediated lysis.
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72. The complement protein C3a is known for its role in:
a. Inflammation
b. Opsonization
c. Cell lysis
d. Antibody production
Answer: a. Inflammation
Rationale: C3a is an anaphylatoxin generated during complement activation and is known for its role in promoting
inflammation by inducing the release of inflammatory mediators, such as histamine.
73. The classical pathway of complement activation can be initiated by:

a. Antigen-antibody complexes
b. Bacterial lipopolysaccharides (LPS)
c. Viral particles
d. Fungal cell walls
Answer: a. Antigen-antibody complexes

Rationale: The classical pathway of complement activation can be initiated by the binding of complement
component C1q to antigen-antibody complexes, leading to the activation of subsequent complement proteins.
74. The anaphylatoxin C5a is known for its ability to:

a. Promote inflammation
b. Enhance phagocytosis
c. Induce apoptosis
d. Activate B cells
Answer: a. Promote inflammation

Rationale: C5a is a potent anaphylatoxin that can promote inflammation by inducing the recruitment and activation
of immune cells, such as neutrophils and macrophages, at the site of infection or tissue injury.
75. Complement-mediated cell lysis occurs through the formation of:

a. Membrane attack complexes (MACs)
b. Phagolysosomes
c. Opsonin-receptor complexes
d. Antibody-antigen complexes
Answer: a. Membrane attack complexes (MACs)

Rationale: Complement-mediated cell lysis occurs through the formation of membrane attack complexes (MACs),
which create pores in the target cell membrane, leading to osmotic lysis.
76. The regulatory protein CD59 protects host cells from complement-mediated lysis by:
a. Inhibiting the formation of MACs
b. Promoting phagocytosis of pathogens
c. Enhancing antigen presentation
d. Inducing pro-inflammatory cytokines
Answer: a. Inhibiting the formation of MACs

Rationale: CD59 is a complement regulatory protein that protects host cells from complement-mediated lysis by
inhibiting the formation of membrane attack complexes (MACs).
. (A. Immuno Book by Stevens page97 )
77. The complement receptor CR1 is primarily expressed on:

a. Phagocytic cells
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b. T cells
c. B cells
d. Natural killer (NK) cells
Answer: a. Phagocytic cells

Rationale: Complement receptor 1 (CR1) is primarily expressed on phagocytic cells, such as macrophages and
neutrophils, where it plays a role in phagocytosis and immune complex clearance.
78. Deficiency in complement component C1 esterase inhibitor (C1-INH) can lead to:
a. Hereditary angioedema
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Goodpasture's syndrome
Answer: a. Hereditary angioedema

Rationale: Deficiency in C1 esterase inhibitor (C1-INH) can lead to hereditary angioedema, a condition
characterized by recurrent episodes of localized swelling due to uncontrolled activation of the complement system.
79. The alternative pathway of complement activation amplifies the complement cascade through:
a. C3b deposition on pathogens
b. Antibody-antigen complex formation
c. Activation of C1q
d. Interferon production
Answer: a. C3b deposition on pathogens

Rationale: The alternative pathway of complement activation amplifies the complement cascade by promoting the
deposition of C3b on pathogens, which can further recruit and activate additional complement proteins.
80. The factor H protein plays a key role in:

a. Regulating the alternative pathway of complement activation
b. Initiating the classical pathway of complement activation
c. Promoting phagocytosis of pathogens
d. Inducing antibody production
Answer: a. Regulating the alternative pathway of complement activation

Rationale: Factor H plays a key role in regulating the alternative pathway of complement activation by binding to
C3b and promoting its degradation, preventing excessive complement activation on host cells.
81. The classical pathway of complement activation is typically initiated by:

a. IgG antibodies
b. IgM antibodies
c. IgA antibodies
d. IgE antibodies
Answer: b. IgM antibodies

Rationale: The classical pathway of complement activation is typically initiated by IgM antibodies, which can bind
to antigens in a pentameric form, allowing binding of complement component C1q.
82. Which complement component acts as an opsonin and enhances phagocytosis?

a. C1q
b. C3b
c. C4a
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d. C5a
Answer: b. C3b
Rationale: C3b acts as an opsonin by binding to pathogens and promoting their recognition and phagocytosis by
phagocytic cells.
83. The complement protein responsible for forming the membrane attack complex (MAC) is:
a. C1q
b. C3b
c. C5a
d. C9
Answer: d. C9
Rationale: The complement protein C9 polymerizes to form the membrane attack complex (MAC), which creates
pores in the target cell membrane, leading to cell lysis.
84. Which of the following is an example of a soluble complement regulatory protein?

a. C1 inhibitor
b. CD59
c. Factor B
d. Properdin
Answer: a. C1 inhibitor
Rationale: C1 inhibitor is an example of a soluble complement regulatory protein that inhibits the activation of the
classical pathway by binding to and inactivating complement component C1.
85. Complement deficiencies can result in an increased susceptibility to:

a. Inflammatory bowel disease
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus
c. Recurrent bacterial infections
d. Type 2 diabetes
Answer: c. Recurrent bacterial infections

Rationale: Complement deficiencies can lead to an increased susceptibility to recurrent bacterial infections due to
impaired opsonization, phagocytosis, and membrane attack complex formation.
86. The process of complement fixation refers to:

a. Binding of complement components to pathogens or immune complexes
b. Activation of the alternative pathway
c. Cleavage of C3 into C3a and C3b
d. Formation of antigen-antibody complexes
Answer: a. Binding of complement components to pathogens or immune complexes

Rationale: Complement fixation refers to the binding of complement components, such as C3b, to pathogens or
immune complexes, marking them for opsonization or initiating complement-mediated lysis.
87. The anaphylatoxin C3a is known for its role in:

a. Opsonization
b. Chemotaxis
c. Cell lysis
d. Phagocytosis
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Answer: b. Chemotaxis
Rationale: C3a is an anaphylatoxin that can induce chemotaxis, attracting immune cells, such as neutrophils and
macrophages, to the site of inflammation or infection.
88. The alternative pathway of complement activation is primarily initiated by:

a. Antibodies
b. Cytokines
c. Microbial surfaces
d. Inflammatory mediators
Answer: c. Microbial surfaces

Rationale: The alternative pathway of complement activation is primarily initiated by microbial surfaces,
particularly those containing specific structures recognized as foreign by the immune system.
89. Deficiency in complement component C3 predisposes individuals to infections caused by:

a. Bacteria
b. Viruses
c. Fungi
d. Parasites
Answer: a. Bacteria
Rationale: Deficiency in complement component C3 predisposes individuals to bacterial infections due to impaired
opsonization and phagocytosis of bacteria.
90. Complement-mediated inflammation is primarily induced by:

a. C1q
b. C3a
c. C5a
d. C9
Answer: c. C5a
Rationale: C5a is a potent anaphylatoxin that induces inflammation by promoting the release of inflammatory
mediators and attracting immune cells to the site of inflammation.
91. The receptor for C3b on phagocytic cells is:

a. CR1
b. CR2
c. CR3
d. CR4
Answer: c. CR3
Rationale: CR3 (complement receptor 3) is the receptor for C3b on phagocytic cells, mediating phagocytosis of
opsonized pathogens.
92. The classical pathway of complement activation requires the presence of:
a. C1q, C1r, and C1s
b. C3b and factor B
c. C4b and C2a
d. C3b, factor B, and factor D
Answer: a. C1q, C1r, and C1s

Rationale: The classical pathway of complement activation requires the presence of complement components C1q,
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C1r, and C1s to initiate the cascade.
93. The complement protein that prevents complement activation on host cells is:
a. C1q
b. C3b
c. Factor H
d. Properdin
Answer: c. Factor H
Rationale: Factor H is a complement regulatory protein that prevents complement activation on host cells by
binding to C3b and promoting its degradation.
94. Complement activation can contribute to the pathogenesis of:

a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Asthma
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. All of the above

Rationale: Complement activation can contribute to the pathogenesis of various diseases, including rheumatoid
arthritis, asthma, and multiple sclerosis, through immune complex formation, inflammation, and tissue damage.
95. The lectin pathway of complement activation is initiated by:

a. Mannose-binding lectin (MBL)
b. C-reactive protein (CRP)
c. Ficolins
d. All of the above

Rationale: The lectin pathway of complement activation can be initiated by multiple pattern recognition molecules,
including mannose-binding lectin (MBL), C-reactive protein (CRP), and ficolins.
96. Complement component C5a is known for its role in:

a. Opsonization
b. Chemotaxis
c. Cell lysis
d. Antibody production
Answer: b. Chemotaxis
Rationale: C5a is an anaphylatoxin that induces chemotaxis, attracting immune cells to the site of inflammation or
infection.
97. The complement system can enhance the adaptive immune response by:
a. Facilitating antigen presentation
b. Inducing B cell activation
c. Modulating T cell responses
d. All of the above

Rationale: The complement system can enhance the adaptive immune response by facilitating antigen presentation,
inducing B cell activation, and modulating T cell responses.
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98. Deficiency in complement component C5 predisposes individuals to infections caused by:

a. Bacteria
b. Viruses
c. Fungi
d. Parasites
Answer: a. Bacteria
Rationale: Deficiency in complement component C5 predisposes individuals to bacterial infections due to impaired
opsonization and phagocytosis of bacteria.
99. The regulatory protein CD55 (decay-accelerating factor) protects host cells from complement-mediated lysis
by:
a. Inhibiting the formation of MACs
b. Promoting phagocytosis of pathogens
c. Enhancing antigen presentation
d. Inducing pro-inflammatory cytokines
Answer: a. Inhibiting the formation of MACs

Rationale: CD55 (decay-accelerating factor) is a complement regulatory protein that protects host cells from
complement-mediated lysis by inhibiting the formation of membrane attack complexes (MACs).
100. The complement system is an important component of:

a. Innate immunity
b. Adaptive immunity
c. Both innate and adaptive immunity
d. None of the above
Answer: c. Both innate and adaptive immunity

Rationale: The complement system plays a role in both innate and adaptive immunity, contributing to the defense against
pathogens and the regulation of immune responses.
101. Which scientist is credited with the discovery of the ABO blood group system?
A. Karl Landsteiner
B. Louis Pasteur
C. Robert Koch
D. Alexander Fleming
Answer: a) Karl Landsteiner

Rationale: Karl Landsteiner, an Austrian biologist and physician, discovered the ABO blood group
system in 1901. His work laid the foundation for modern blood typing and compatibility testing. (
102. The Rh blood group system was discovered by: (Introduction to immunohematology by Benjie
Clemente, RMT, MLS(aASCP page 27 )
A. Alexander Fleming
B. Charles Drew
C. Karl Landsteiner
D. Karl Landsteiner and Alexander Wiener
Answer: d) Karl Landsteiner and Alexander Wiener

Rationale: Karl Landsteiner and Alexander Wiener discovered the Rh blood group system in 1937.
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They identified the Rh factor, which plays a crucial role in blood transfusion compatibility.
(Introduction to immunohematology by Benjie Clemente, RMT, MLS(aASCP page 27 )
103. The first successful blood transfusion was performed in which year?
A. 1665
B. 1818
C. 1901
D. 1944
Answer: a) 1665
Rationale: The first successful blood transfusion was performed by Richard Lower, an English
physician, in 1665. He transferred blood between two dogs, demonstrating the potential for
transfusing blood from one organism to another.
104. The development of the Coombs test is associated with:

A. Paul Ehrlich
B. Coombs and Mourant
C. Robert Koch
D. Louis Pasteur
Answer: b) Coombs and Mourant

Rationale: The Coombs test, also known as the antiglobulin test, was developed by Robin Coombs
and Arthur Mourant in the 1940s. It is used to detect antibodies that coat red blood cells and cause
autoimmune hemolytic anemia. (6TH EDITION BB. Page 102)
105. The discovery of the Rh negative blood group was made in which country?
A. France
B. Germany
C. United States
D. United Kingdom
Answer: c) United States

Rationale: The Rh negative blood group was discovered in the United States by Karl Landsteiner and
Alexander Wiener in 1940. They identified the Rh factor, which is critical for blood compatibility
testing. ( 6TH EDITION BB. Page 149)
106. The concept of universal blood donors and recipients was introduced by:
A. Karl Landsteiner
B. Alexander Fleming
C. Charles Drew
D. Robert Koch
Answer: c) Charles Drew

Rationale: Charles Drew, an American physician and researcher, introduced the concept of universal
blood donors and recipients in the 1940s. He developed methods for collecting, processing, and
storing blood plasma, significantly advancing blood banking. ( 6TH EDITION BB. Page 2)
107. The first blood bank in the world was established in which year?
A. 1901
B. 1937
C. 1940
D. 1945
Answer: d) 1945
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Rationale: The first blood bank in the world was established in 1945 at Cook County Hospital in
Chicago, Illinois, United States. It marked a significant milestone in blood banking and
revolutionized the availability of blood for transfusions. ( 6TH EDITION BB. Page 102)
108. The discovery of the Rhesus factor (Rh) in blood was named after:
A. The Rhinoceros
B. The Red Cross
C. The Rhesus monkey
D. The Rhombus shape
Answer: c) The Rhesus monkey

Rationale: The Rhesus factor (Rh) in blood was named after the Rhesus monkey. This name was
chosen because the monkey was used in early experiments to study the Rh factor. ( 6TH EDITION
BB. Page 150)
109. The first successful use of blood typing for transfusion purposes occurred during:
A. World War I
B. World War II
C. The Korean War
D. The Vietnam War
Answer: a) World War I

Rationale: The first successful use of blood typing for transfusion purposes occurred during World
War I. This development helped reduce mortality rates among wounded soldiers by ensuring
compatible blood transfusions. ( 6TH EDITION BB.527)
110. The term "O-negative" refers to:

A. A universal blood donor
B. A universal blood recipient
C. The absence of Rh factor
D. The presence of Rh factor
Answer: a) A universal blood donor

Rationale: "O-negative" refers to a blood type that lacks A and B antigens and does not have the Rh
factor. It is considered a universal blood donor type because it can be transfused to individuals of
different blood types. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 264)
111. Who discovered the Rh factor in blood?

A. Karl Landsteiner
B. Alexander Fleming
C. Charles Drew
D. Karl Landsteiner and Alexander Wiener
Answer: d) Karl Landsteiner and Alexander Wiener

Rationale: Karl Landsteiner and Alexander Wiener discovered the Rh factor in blood in 1940. They
identified the presence of a specific antigen on red blood cells, which is now known as the Rh factor.
( 6TH EDITION BB.151)
112. The development of the direct Coombs test is associated with:

A. Robin Coombs
B. Arthur Mourant
C. Robert Koch
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D. Karl Landsteiner
Answer: a) Robin Coombs

Rationale: Robin Coombs, a British immunologist, developed the direct Coombs test in 1945. This
test is used to detect antibodies that have already coated red blood cells, aiding in the diagnosis of
autoimmune hemolytic anemia and other immune-mediated blood disorders. ( 6TH EDITION BB.63)
113. The discovery of the Kell blood group system is attributed to:
A. William Harvey
B. Albert Calmette
C. Louis Pasteur
D. Allen Kell
Answer: d) Allen Kell

Rationale: The Kell blood group system was discovered by Allen Kell, a British physician, in 1946.
The Kell system includes antigens on red blood cells and antibodies in plasma, which are important
for blood transfusion compatibility. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 191)
116. The term "crossmatch" in blood banking refers to:

A. Testing blood for HIV
B. Determining blood type
C. Matching donor and recipient blood samples
D. Storing blood products
Answer: c) Matching donor and recipient blood samples

Rationale: In blood banking, "crossmatch" refers to the process of testing compatibility between
donor and recipient blood samples. This ensures that the recipient's antibodies do not react with the
donor's antigens, which could lead to a transfusion reaction. ( 6TH EDITION BB.178)
117. The first successful blood transfusion between humans took place in:
A. 1628
B. 1818
C. 1901
D. 1944
Answer: b) 1818
Rationale: The first successful blood transfusion between humans was performed by James Blundell,
a British obstetrician, in 1818. He transfused blood from one person to another, marking a crucial
milestone in the development of blood transfusion techniques. ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
118. The discovery of the Duffy blood group system is associated with:
A. J. Rosalind Franklin
B. J.B.S. Haldane
C. Kiyoshi Shiga
D. Ludwik Hirszfeld
Answer: b) J.B.S. Haldane

Rationale: J.B.S. Haldane, a British geneticist and evolutionary biologist, discovered the Duffy blood
group system in 1950. The Duffy antigens are found on red blood cells and are important for
understanding blood transfusion compatibility. ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
119. The development of the indirect Coombs test is associated with:

A. Karl Landsteiner
B. Alexander Wiener
C. Robert Coombs
D. Arthur Mourant
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Answer: c) Robert Coombs

Rationale: Robert Coombs, a British immunologist, developed the indirect Coombs test in 1945. This
test is used to detect antibodies in the recipient's plasma that may cause destruction of transfused red
blood cells. ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
120. The concept of using blood groups for forensic purposes was introduced by:
A. James Watson and Francis Crick
B. Alec Jeffreys
C. Thomas Morgan
D. Hermann Muller
Answer: b) Alec Jeffreys

Rationale: Alec Jeffreys, a British geneticist, introduced the concept of using blood groups for
forensic purposes in the late 1980s. He later developed DNA profiling techniques, which
revolutionized forensic science. ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
121. The discovery of the Bombay blood group, also known as the h/h antigen, is credited to:
A. Karl Landsteiner
B. Yutaka Tsutsumi
C. Charles Drew
D. Allen Kell
Answer: b) Yutaka Tsutsumi

Rationale: Yutaka Tsutsumi, a Japanese physician, discovered the Bombay blood group in 1952. This
rare blood type lacks A, B, and H antigens, making it compatible only with other individuals with the
same blood type. ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
122. The first blood mobile unit, enabling mobile blood collection, was introduced in which country?
a) United States
b) United Kingdom
c) Germany
d) France
Answer: b) United Kingdom

Rationale: The first blood mobile unit, which allowed for mobile blood collection, was introduced in
the United Kingdom in the 1930s. It provided a convenient way to collect blood from donors in
various locations, increasing the availability of donated blood. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 296)
123. Which of the following cells is primarily responsible for antibody production?
A. B cells
B. T cells
C. Natural killer cells
D. Macrophages
Answer: a) B cells
Rationale: B cells are responsible for antibody production. They differentiate into plasma cells, which
produce and secrete antibodies. ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
124. Which class of antibodies is involved in allergic reactions?

A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgM
Answer: c) IgE
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Rationale: IgE antibodies are primarily associated with allergic reactions. They bind to mast cells and
basophils, triggering the release of histamine and other mediators. ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
125. Which type of immunity is acquired through vaccination?

A. Active immunity
B. Passive immunity
C. Natural immunity
D. Innate immunity
Answer: a) Active immunity

Rationale: Active immunity refers to the immune response produced by the body following exposure
to an antigen, such as through vaccination. ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
126. Which component of the immune system is responsible for recognizing self from non-self?
A. Antibodies
B. T cells
C. Complement system
D. Natural killer cells
Answer: b) T cells
Rationale: T cells play a crucial role in recognizing self from non-self by interacting with antigen-
presenting cells and identifying foreign antigens. ( 6TH EDITION BB.284)
127. Which immunoglobulin is the first to be produced during an immune response?

A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgM
Answer: d) IgM
Rationale: IgM antibodies are the first to be produced during an immune response. They are
pentameric in structure and have a high avidity for antigens. ( 6TH EDITION BB.284)
128. Which process involves the destruction of pathogens by coating them with antibodies and
enhancing phagocytosis?
A. Opsonization
B. Agglutination
C. Neutralization
D. Complement activation
Answer: a) Opsonization
Rationale: Opsonization is the process in which pathogens are coated with antibodies, enhancing their
recognition and uptake by phagocytic cells. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 50)
129. Which blood group system is based on the presence or absence of Rh antigens?
A. ABO system
B. Kell system
C. Duffy system
D. Rh system
Answer: d) Rh system
Rationale: The Rh system is based on the presence or absence of Rh antigens, primarily the D
antigen. It is important in blood typing and compatibility testing. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 150)
130. Which blood component is responsible for transporting oxygen to tissues?

A. Red blood cells
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B. White blood cells
C. Platelets
D. Plasma
Answer: a) Red blood cells

Rationale: Red blood cells, or erythrocytes, contain hemoglobin, which binds to oxygen and
transports it to the tissues. ( 6TH EDITION BB.127)
131. Which blood product contains all clotting factors?

A. Fresh frozen plasma
B. Platelets
C. Cryoprecipitate
D. Packed red blood cells
Answer: a) Fresh frozen plasma

Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma contains all clotting factors, including fibrinogen, factors II, V, VII,
VIII, IX, X, XI, and XIII.
( 6TH EDITION BB. 354)
132. Which test is used to detect the presence of antibodies against red blood cells in a recipient's
serum?
A. Direct Coombs test
B. Indirect Coombs test
C. Antibody screen
D. Crossmatching
Answer: b) Indirect Coombs test

Rationale: The indirect Coombs test detects the presence of antibodies in a recipient's serum that can
potentially cause transfusion reactions. ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
133. Which immune cell type is responsible for cell-mediated immunity?

A. B cells
B. T cells
D. Macrophages
Answer: b) T cells
Rationale: T cells are primarily responsible for cell-mediated immunity, which involves the activation
of immune cells to directly attack infected or cancerous cells. ( 6TH EDITION BB.51)
134. Which immunoglobulin is primarily found in secretions such as saliva, tears, and breast milk?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgM
Answer: a) IgA
Rationale: IgA antibodies are primarily found in secretions, providing localized defense against
pathogens at mucosal surfaces. ( 6TH EDITION BB.58)
135. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves IgE-mediated release of histamine and other
mediators?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
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Answer: a) Type I
Rationale: Type I hypersensitivity reactions are immediate and involve the release of histamine and
other mediators by IgE-bound mast cells and basophils. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 72)
136. Which blood group is considered the universal donor for red blood cell transfusions?
A. A
B. B
C. AB
D. O
Answer: d) O
Rationale: Blood group O individuals are considered universal donors for red blood cell transfusions
because their red blood cells lack A or B antigens. ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
137. Which test is used to determine the blood type of an individual?

C. Antibody screen
D. ABO typing
Answer: d) ABO typing

Rationale: ABO typing determines an individual's blood type based on the presence or absence of A
and B antigens on red blood cells. ( 6TH EDITION BB.245)
138. Which type of immunity is transferred from a mother to her baby through breast milk?
A. Active immunity
B. Passive immunity
C. Natural immunity
D. Innate immunity
Answer: b) Passive immunity

Rationale: Passive immunity refers to the transfer of preformed antibodies from a mother to her baby,
providing temporary protection. ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
139. Which component of the immune system is responsible for phagocytosis?

A. Antibodies
B. T cells
D. Macrophages
Answer: d) Macrophages
Rationale: Macrophages are immune cells that engulf and digest foreign particles, including
pathogens, through the process of phagocytosis. ( 6TH EDITION BB.55)
140. Which immunoglobulin is the predominant antibody in the secondary immune response?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
Answer: d) IgG
Rationale: IgG antibodies are the most abundant immunoglobulin in the secondary immune response,
providing long-term protection against pathogens. ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
141. Which process involves the clumping of antigens and antibodies to facilitate their removal from
circulation?
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A. Opsonization
B. Agglutination
C. Neutralization
Answer: b) Agglutination
Rationale: Agglutination is the process of clumping antigens and antibodies together, aiding in their
clearance by phagocytic cells or precipitation. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 120)
142. Which blood group system is the most polymorphic and clinically significant for transfusion
compatibility?
A. ABO system
B. Rh system
C. Kell system
D. Duffy system
Answer: b) Rh system
Rationale: The Rh system is the most polymorphic and clinically significant for transfusion
compatibility, especially in relation to RhD antigen. ( 6TH EDITION BB.150)
143. Which blood component plays a crucial role in hemostasis and clot formation?
A. Red blood cells
C. Platelets
D. Plasma
Answer: c) Platelets
Rationale: Platelets are essential for hemostasis and clot formation, forming a plug at the site of blood
vessel injury and releasing clotting factors. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 17)
144. Which blood product is used to treat patients with clotting factor deficiencies?
B. Platelets
C. Cryoprecipitate
Answer: c) Cryoprecipitate
Rationale: Cryoprecipitate contains concentrated clotting factors, including fibrinogen and von
Willebrand factor, and is used to treat clotting factor deficiencies. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 353)
145. Which test is used to detect unexpected antibodies in a recipient's serum prior to blood
transfusion?
C. Antibody screen
D. Crossmatching
Answer: c) Antibody screen

Rationale: An antibody screen is performed to identify unexpected antibodies in a recipient's serum
that may cause transfusion reactions. . ( 6TH EDITION BB.444)
146. Which immune cell type is responsible for presenting antigens to other immune cells?
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A. B cells
B. T cells
D. Macrophages
Answer: d) Macrophages
Rationale: Macrophages play a vital role in presenting antigens to other immune cells, such as T cells,
through major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules. . ( 6TH EDITION BB.55)
147. Which immunoglobulin is the only one capable of crossing the placenta to provide passive
immunity to the fetus?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
Answer: d) IgG
Rationale: IgG antibodies are the only immunoglobulins capable of crossing the placenta and
providing passive immunity to the fetus during pregnancy. . ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
148. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves cytotoxic antibodies targeting cell surface
antigens?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Answer: b) Type II
Rationale: Type II hypersensitivity reactions involve the production of cytotoxic antibodies that bind
to specific antigens on cell surfaces, leading to cell destruction. . ( 6TH EDITION BB.72)
149. Which blood group is considered the universal recipient for red blood cell transfusions?
A. A
B. B
C. AB
D. O
Answer: c) AB
Rationale: Blood group AB individuals are considered universal recipients for red blood cell
transfusions because their red blood cells do not contain anti-A or anti-B antibodies. . ( 6TH
EDITION BB.)
150. Which test is used to confirm the presence of antibodies attached to the surface of red blood
cells?
C. Antibody screen
D. ABO typing
Answer: a) Direct Coombs test

Rationale: The direct Coombs test detects antibodies attached to the surface of red blood cells, which
is useful in diagnosing immune-mediated hemolytic anemia. . ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
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151. Which type of immunity is acquired through the transfer of antibodies from another individual
or animal?
A. Active immunity
B. Passive immunity
C. Natural immunity
D. Innate immunity
Answer: b) Passive immunity

Rationale: Passive immunity refers to the transfer of preformed antibodies from one individual or
animal to another, providing immediate but temporary protection. . ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
152. Which component of the immune system plays a critical role in eliminating intracellular
pathogens, such as viruses?
A. Antibodies
B. T cells
D. Macrophages
Answer: b) T cells
Rationale: T cells, especially cytotoxic T cells, play a crucial role in eliminating intracellular
pathogens, including viruses, through direct cell-mediated responses. . ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
156. Which immunoglobulin is primarily involved in the defense against parasitic infections?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgM
Answer: c) IgE
Rationale: IgE antibodies are primarily involved in defense against parasitic infections, triggering
immune responses aimed at expelling the parasites. . ( 6TH EDITION BB.51)
157. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves immune complex deposition and subsequent
inflammation?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Answer: c) Type III

Rationale: Type III hypersensitivity reactions are characterized by the deposition of immune
complexes in tissues, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. . ( 6TH EDITION BB.72)
158. Which blood group system is used for routine blood typing and compatibility testing?
A. ABO system
B. Rh system
C. Kell system
D. Duffy system
Answer: a) ABO system

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Rationale: The ABO system is the most important blood group system used for routine blood typing
and compatibility testing. . ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
159. Which blood component is responsible for maintaining blood volume and osmotic pressure?
A. Red blood cells
C. Platelets
D. Plasma
Answer: d) Plasma
Rationale: Plasma, the liquid component of blood, contains water, electrolytes, proteins, and other
substances, maintaining blood volume and osmotic pressure. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 51)
160. Which blood product is used to treat patients with severe bleeding due to low platelet counts or
platelet dysfunction?
B. Platelets
C. Cryoprecipitate
Answer: b) Platelets
Rationale: Platelets are transfused to patients with low platelet counts or platelet dysfunction to
control or prevent severe bleeding. . ( 6TH EDITION BB.3)
161. Which test is used to confirm compatibility between a donor's red blood cells and a recipient's
serum?
C. Antibody screen
D. Crossmatching
Answer: d) Crossmatching
Rationale: Crossmatching involves mixing a donor's red blood cells with a recipient's serum to ensure
compatibility and prevent transfusion reactions. . ( 6TH EDITION BB.486)
166. Which immune cell type is primarily responsible for antibody-mediated immunity?
A. B cells
B. T cells
D. Macrophages
Answer: a) B cells
Rationale: B cells are primarily responsible for antibody-mediated immunity, as they differentiate
into plasma cells that produce and secrete antibodies. . ( 6TH EDITION BB.51)
167. Which immunoglobulin is the first to be produced in a primary immune response but is quickly
replaced by other antibody classes?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgM
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Answer: d) IgM
Rationale: IgM antibodies are the first to be produced in a primary immune response, but their levels
decline rapidly as other antibody classes, such as IgG, increase. . ( 6TH EDITION BB.70)
168. Which process involves the inactivation or destruction of pathogens by binding to their surface
and preventing their entry into host cells?
A. Opsonization
B. Agglutination
C. Neutralization
Answer: c) Neutralization
Rationale: Neutralization occurs when antibodies bind to the surface of pathogens, preventing their
entry into host cells and facilitating their inactivation or destruction. . ( 6TH EDITION BB.228)
169. Which blood group system is associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)?
A. ABO system
B. Rh system
C. Kell system
D. Duffy system
Rationale: Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) is primarily associated with incompatibility
between RhD antigens of the fetus and anti-RhD antibodies in the mother's serum.
. ( 6TH EDITION BB.150)
170. Which blood component is responsible for carrying nutrients, hormones, and waste products
throughout the body?
A. Red blood cells
C. Platelets
D. Plasma
Answer: a) Red blood cells

Rationale: Red blood cells carry oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and waste products throughout the
body, ensuring their proper delivery and removal.
. ( 6TH EDITION BB.127)
171. Which blood product is used to replenish clotting factors in patients with specific deficiencies or
bleeding disorders?
B. Platelets
C. Cryoprecipitate
Answer: a) Fresh frozen plasma

Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma is used to replenish clotting factors in patients with specific
deficiencies, such as hemophilia, or bleeding disorders. . ( 6TH EDITION BB.324)
172. Which test is used to detect antibodies against specific red blood cell antigens in a recipient's
serum?
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C. Antibody screen
D. ABO typing

Rationale: The indirect Coombs test detects the presence of antibodies in a recipient's serum that may
cause transfusion reactions, including those against specific red blood cell antigens. . ( 6TH EDITION
BB.)
173. Which immune cell type is responsible for releasing cytotoxic substances to kill infected or
cancerous cells?
A. B cells
B. T cells
D. Macrophages
Answer: c) Natural killer cells

Rationale: Natural killer (NK) cells are lymphocytes that recognize and kill infected or cancerous
cells by releasing cytotoxic substances. . ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
174. Which immunoglobulin is the most abundant in human serum?

A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
Answer: d) IgG
Rationale: IgG antibodies are the most abundant immunoglobulin in human serum, constituting
approximately 75% of the total immunoglobulin pool. ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
175. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves delayed T cell-mediated responses?

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Answer: d) Type IV
Rationale: Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are delayed hypersensitivity reactions that involve T
cell-mediated responses, often seen in contact dermatitis and transplant rejection. ( 6TH EDITION
BB.72)
176. Which blood group is considered the universal plasma donor?

A. A
B. B
C. AB
D. O
Answer: c) AB
Rationale: Blood group AB individuals are considered universal plasma donors because their plasma
does not contain anti-A or anti-B antibodies. ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
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177. Which test is used to determine the compatibility between a recipient's serum and potential
donor red blood cells?
C. Antibody screen
D. Crossmatching

Rationale: The indirect Coombs test is used to determine the compatibility between a recipient's
serum and potential donor red blood cells before transfusion. ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
178. Which immune cell type is responsible for the production of antibodies?
A. B cells
B. T cells
D. Macrophages
Answer: a) B cells
Rationale: B cells are responsible for the production of antibodies, which are secreted by
differentiated B cells called plasma cells. ( 6TH EDITION BB.51)
179.. Which immunoglobulin is primarily involved in the primary immune response?

A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgM
Answer: d) IgM
Rationale: IgM antibodies are the first to be produced in a primary immune response, playing a
critical role in the early defense against pathogens. ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
180. Which genetic locus is primarily responsible for determining the ABO blood group system?
a) H locus
b) Rh locus
c) Kell locus
d) ABO locus
Answer: d) ABO locus

Rationale: The ABO blood group system is determined by alleles at the ABO locus on chromosome
9, which codes for the A, B, and O antigens. ( 6TH EDITION BB.128)
181. Which inheritance pattern is associated with the ABO blood group system?
a) Autosomal dominant
b) Autosomal recessive
c) X-linked recessive
d) Y-linked dominant
Answer: b) Autosomal recessive

Rationale: The ABO blood group system follows an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern, where
the presence of the A or B allele is dominant over the O allele. ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
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182. In the ABO blood group system, which blood group is considered the universal donor for red
blood cell transfusions?
a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O
Answer: d) O
Rationale: Blood group O individuals are considered universal donors for red blood cell transfusions
as they do not express A or B antigens on their red blood cells. ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
183. Which genetic locus is responsible for determining the Rh blood group system?
a) H locus
b) Rh locus
c) Kell locus
d) ABO locus
Answer: b) Rh locus
Rationale: The Rh blood group system is determined by alleles at the Rh locus on chromosome 1,
which codes for the Rh antigens (e.g., RhD, RhC, RhE). ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
184. In the Rh blood group system, which antigen is the most immunogenic and clinically
significant?
a) RhD
b) RhC
c) RhE
d) RhF
Answer: a) RhD
Rationale: The RhD antigen is the most immunogenic and clinically significant in the Rh blood group
system. It is associated with RhD-positive (+) or RhD-negative (-) status. ( 6TH EDITION BB.151)
185. Which inheritance pattern is associated with the Rh blood group system?
Answer: a) Autosomal dominant

Rationale: The Rh blood group system follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, where the
presence of the RhD antigen is dominant over its absence. ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
186. Which term describes the presence of an antigen on the red blood cells that corresponds to a
specific antibody in the recipient's plasma?
a) Alloantibody
b) Autoantibody
c) Isoantibody
d) Agglutinin
Answer: c) Isoantibody
Rationale: An isoantibody is an antibody present in an individual's plasma that recognizes and reacts
with an antigen on the red blood cells of another individual. ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
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187. Which term describes the process of matching a patient's blood for transfusion compatibility
using donor blood with matching antigens?
a) Serotyping
b) Phenotyping
c) Genotyping
d) Crossmatching
Answer: a) Serotyping
Rationale: Serotyping involves determining the specific blood group antigens present on an
individual's red blood cells for transfusion compatibility assessment. ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
188. Which term describes the genetic makeup of an individual, specifically with regard to the alleles
present at a particular gene locus?
a) Phenotype
b) Genotype
c) Haplotype
d) Serotype
Answer: b) Genotype
Rationale: Genotype refers to the genetic makeup of an individual, which is determined by the
combination of alleles present at a specific gene locus. ( 6TH EDITION BB.31)
189. Which blood group system is associated with the presence or absence of the RhD antigen?
a) ABO system
b) Rh system
c) Kell system
d) Duffy system
Rationale: The Rh system is associated with the presence or absence of the RhD antigen on the
surface of red blood cells. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 151)
190. Which inheritance pattern is associated with the Kell blood group system?

Rationale: The Kell blood group system follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, with the
K and k alleles. ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
191. Which blood group system is associated with the presence or absence of the K antigen?
a) ABO system
b) Rh system
c) Kell system
d) Duffy system
Answer: c) Kell system

Rationale: The Kell system is associated with the presence or absence of the K antigen on the surface
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of red blood cells. ( 6TH EDITION BB.191)
192. Which blood group system is associated with the presence or absence of the Duffy antigen?
a) ABO system
b) Rh system
c) Kell system
d) Duffy system
Answer: d) Duffy system

Rationale: The Duffy system is associated with the presence or absence of the Duffy antigen on the
surface of red blood cells. ( 6TH EDITION BB.195)
193. Which inheritance pattern is associated with the Duffy blood group system?

Rationale: The Duffy blood group system follows an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern, with
Fya and Fyb alleles. ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
194. Which term describes the simultaneous presence of two different antigens on the same red blood
cell?
a) Codominance
b) Pleiotropy
c) Linkage
d) Epistasis
Answer: a) Codominance
Rationale: Codominance refers to the simultaneous expression of two different antigens on the same
red blood cell, such as the A and B antigens in the ABO system. ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
195. Which blood group system is associated with the presence of the H antigen precursor?
a) ABO system
b) Rh system
c) Kell system
d) Duffy system

Rationale: The ABO blood group system is associated with the presence of the H antigen precursor,
which serves as the foundation for A, B, and O antigens. ( 6TH EDITION BB.123)
196. Which inheritance pattern is associated with the ABO(H) blood group system?
Answer: c) X-linked recessive

Rationale: The ABO(H) blood group system follows an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern, with
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the H gene located on the X chromosome. ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
197. Which blood group system is associated with the presence or absence of the Lewis antigens?
a) ABO system
b) Rh system
c) Kell system
d) Lewis system
Answer: d) Lewis system

Rationale: The Lewis system is associated with the presence or absence of the Lewis antigens on the
198. Which inheritance pattern is associated with the Lewis blood group system?

Rationale: The Lewis blood group system follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, with
Lea and Leb alleles. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 177)
199. Which term describes the phenomenon where two or more genes located on the same
chromosome tend to be inherited together?
a) Codominance
b) Pleiotropy
c) Linkage
d) Epistasis
Answer: c) Linkage
Rationale: Linkage refers to the tendency of two or more genes located on the same chromosome to
be inherited together, as they are physically close to each other. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 476)
200. Which blood group system is associated with the presence or absence of the MNS antigens?
a) ABO system
b) Rh system
c) Kell system
d) MNS system
Answer: d) MNS system

Rationale: The MNS system is associated with the presence or absence of the MNS antigens on the
201. Which inheritance pattern is associated with the MNS blood group system?

Rationale: The MNS blood group system follows an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern, with M
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and N alleles. . ( 6TH EDITION BB.190)
202. Which blood group system is associated with the presence or absence of the Kidd antigens?
a) ABO system
b) Rh system
c) Kell system
d) Kidd system
Answer: d) Kidd system

Rationale: The Kidd system is associated with the presence or absence of the Kidd antigens on the
surface of red blood cells. . ( 6TH EDITION BB.198 )
203. Which inheritance pattern is associated with the Kidd blood group system?

Rationale: The Kidd blood group system follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, with Jka
and Jkb alleles. ( 6TH EDITION BB.198 )
204. Which blood group system is associated with the presence or absence of the Diego antigens?
a) ABO system
b) Rh system
c) Kell system
d) Diego system
Answer: d) Diego system

Rationale: The Diego system is associated with the presence or absence of the Diego antigens on the
surface of red blood cells. ( 6TH EDITION BB.202 )
205. Which inheritance pattern is associated with the Diego blood group system?

Rationale: The Diego blood group system follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, with Di
and Dib alleles. ( 6TH EDITION BB.202 )
206. Which term describes the phenomenon where a single gene influences multiple phenotypic
traits?
a) Codominance
b) Pleiotropy
c) Linkage
d) Epistasis
Answer: b) Pleiotropy
Rationale: Pleiotropy refers to the situation where a single gene has multiple effects or influences
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multiple phenotypic traits. ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
207. Which blood group system is associated with the presence or absence of the Lutheran antigens?
a) ABO system
b) Rh system
c) Kell system
d) Lutheran system
Answer: d) Lutheran system

Rationale: The Lutheran system is associated with the presence or absence of the Lutheran antigens
on the surface of red blood cells. ( 6TH EDITION BB.201 )
208. Which inheritance pattern is associated with the Lutheran blood group system?

Rationale: The Lutheran blood group system follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, with
Lu(a) and Lu(b) alleles. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 201)
209. Which blood group system is associated with the presence or absence of the P antigen?
a) ABO system
b) Rh system
c) Kell system
d) P system
Answer: d) P system
Rationale: The P system is associated with the presence or absence of the P antigen on the surface of
red blood cells. ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
210. Which inheritance pattern is associated with the P blood group system?

Rationale: The P blood group system follows an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern, with P and p
alleles. ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
211. Which term describes the phenomenon where the effects of one gene mask or modify the effects
of another gene?
a) Codominance
b) Pleiotropy
c) Linkage
d) Epistasis
Answer: d) Epistasis
Rationale: Epistasis refers to the phenomenon where the effects of one gene mask or modify the
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effects of another gene. ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
212. Which blood group system is associated with the presence or absence of the I antigen?
a) ABO system
b) Rh system
c) Kell system
d) I system
Answer: d) I system
Rationale: The I system is associated with the presence or absence of the I antigen on the surface of
red blood cells. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 183)
213. Which inheritance pattern is associated with the I blood group system?

Rationale: The I blood group system follows an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern, with I and i
alleles. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 183)
214. Which blood group system is associated with the presence or absence of the Xga antigen?
a) ABO system
b) Rh system
c) Kell system
d) Xg system
Answer: d) Xg system
Rationale: The Xg system is associated with the presence or absence of the Xga antigen on the
surface of red blood cells. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 203 )
215. Which inheritance pattern is associated with the Xg blood group system?

Rationale: The Xg blood group system follows an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern. ( 6TH
EDITION BB.203 )
216. Which term describes the presence of more than two alleles at a single gene locus in a
population?
a) Codominance
b) Pleiotropy
c) Polymorphism
d) Epistasis
Answer: c) Polymorphism
Rationale: Polymorphism refers to the presence of more than two alleles at a single gene locus in a
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population. ( 6TH EDITION BB.501 )
217. Which blood group system is associated with the presence or absence of the Cartwright antigen?
a) ABO system
b) Rh system
c) Kell system
d) Cartwright system
Answer: d) Cartwright system

Rationale: The Cartwright system is associated with the presence or absence of the Cartwright
antigen on the surface of red blood cells. ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
218. Which inheritance pattern is associated with the Cartwright blood group system?

Rationale: The Cartwright blood group system follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern.
( 6TH EDITION BB. )
219. Which blood group system is associated with the presence or absence of the Scianna antigens?
a) ABO system
b) Rh system
c) Kell system
d) Scianna system
Answer: d) Scianna system

Rationale: The Scianna system is associated with the presence or absence of the Scianna antigens on
the surface of red blood cells. ( 6TH EDITION BB.203)
220. Which inheritance pattern is associated with the Scianna blood group system?

Rationale: The Scianna blood group system follows an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern.
( 6TH EDITION BB.203 )
221. Which blood group system is associated with the presence or absence of the Dombrock
antigens?
a) ABO system
b) Rh system
c) Kell system
d) Dombrock system
Answer: d) Dombrock system

Rationale: The Dombrock system is associated with the presence or absence of the Dombrock
antigens on the surface of red blood cells. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 203)
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222. Which inheritance pattern is associated with the Dombrock blood group system?

Rationale: The Dombrock blood group system follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern. (
6TH EDITION BB.203 )
223. Which blood group system is associated with the presence or absence of the Colton antigens?
a) ABO system
b) Rh system
c) Kell system
d) Colton system
Answer: d) Colton system

Rationale: The Colton system is associated with the presence or absence of the Colton antigens on the
surface of red blood cells. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 204 )
224. Which inheritance pattern is associated with the Colton blood group system?

Rationale: The Colton blood group system follows an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern.
225. Which blood group system is associated with the presence or absence of the Indian antigens?
a) ABO system
b) Rh system
c) Kell system
d) Indian system
Answer: d) Indian system

Rationale: The Indian system is associated with the presence or absence of the Indian antigens on the
surface of red blood cells. ( 6TH EDITION BB.206 )
226. Which inheritance pattern is associated with the Indian blood group system?

Rationale: The Indian blood group system follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern.
227. Which blood group system is associated with the presence or absence of the Gerbich antigens?
a) ABO system
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b) Rh system
c) Kell system
d) Gerbich system
Answer: d) Gerbich system

Rationale: The Gerbich system is associated with the presence or absence of the Gerbich antigens on
the surface of red blood cells. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 205)
228. Which inheritance pattern is associated with the Gerbich blood group system?

Rationale: The Gerbich blood group system follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern.
229. Which blood group system is associated with the presence or absence of the Cromer antigens?
a) ABO system
b) Rh system
c) Kell system
d) Cromer system
Answer: d) Cromer system

Rationale: The Cromer system is associated with the presence or absence of the Cromer antigens on
the surface of red blood cells. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 206)
230. Which blood group system is the most clinically significant in transfusion medicine?
a) ABO system
b) Rh system
c) Kell system
d) Duffy system

Rationale: The ABO blood group system is the most clinically significant in transfusion medicine due
to the presence of naturally occurring antibodies against A and B antigens. ( 6TH EDITION BB.119 )
231. The ABO blood group system is based on the presence or absence of which antigens on red
blood cells?
a) A and B antigens
b) D antigen
c) M and N antigens
d) K antigen
Answer: a) A and B antigens

Rationale: The ABO blood group system is determined by the presence or absence of A and B
antigens on the surface of red blood cells. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119)
232. Which blood type(s) is/are considered the universal donor in the ABO system?
a) Type A
b) Type B
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c) Type AB
d) Type O
Answer: d) Type O
Rationale: Type O blood lacks both A and B antigens, making it compatible with all other blood
types in the ABO system. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119)
233. Which blood type(s) is/are considered the universal recipient in the ABO system?
a) Type A
b) Type B
c) Type AB
d) Type O
Answer: c) Type AB
Rationale: Type AB blood has both A and B antigens, making it able to receive transfusions from all
other blood types in the ABO system. ( 6TH EDITION BB.119 )
234. In the ABO system, individuals with blood type A have which antibodies in their plasma?
a) Anti-A antibodies
b) Anti-B antibodies
c) Anti-A and anti-B antibodies
d) No antibodies
Answer: b) Anti-B antibodies

Rationale: Individuals with blood type A have naturally occurring antibodies against the B antigen,
known as anti-B antibodies. ( 6TH EDITION BB.119 )
235. In the ABO system, individuals with blood type B have which antibodies in their plasma?
d) No antibodies
Answer: a) Anti-A antibodies

Rationale: Individuals with blood type B have naturally occurring antibodies against the A antigen,
known as anti-A antibodies. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119)
236. In the ABO system, individuals with blood type AB have which antibodies in their plasma?
d) No antibodies
Answer: d) No antibodies
Rationale: Individuals with blood type AB do not have naturally occurring antibodies against either
the A or B antigens. ( 6TH EDITION BB.119 )
237. In the ABO system, individuals with blood type O have which antibodies in their plasma?
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d) No antibodies
Answer: c) Anti-A and anti-B antibodies

Rationale: Individuals with blood type O have naturally occurring antibodies against both the A and
B antigens, known as anti-A and anti-B antibodies. ( 6TH EDITION BB.119 )
238. Which blood type(s) can an individual with blood type A receive in a transfusion?
a) Type A
b) Type B
c) Type AB
d) Type O
Answer: a) Type A and d) Type O

Rationale: An individual with blood type A can receive blood from individuals with blood type A or
blood type O. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119)
239. Which blood type(s) can an individual with blood type B receive in a transfusion?
a) Type A
b) Type B
c) Type AB
d) Type O
Answer: b) Type B and d) Type O

Rationale: An individual with blood type B can receive blood from individuals with blood type B or
blood type O.
240. Which blood type(s) can an individual with blood type AB receive in a transfusion?
a) Type A
b) Type B
c) Type AB
d) Type O
Answer: a) Type A, b) Type B, c) Type AB

Rationale: An individual with blood type AB can receive blood from individuals with any blood type,
including A, B, AB, and O. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119)
241. Which blood type(s) can an individual with blood type O receive in a transfusion?
a) Type A
b) Type B
c) Type AB
d) Type O
Answer: d) Type O
Rationale: An individual with blood type O can only receive blood from individuals with blood type
O. ( 6TH EDITION BB.119 )
242. Which blood type(s) can donate to individuals with blood type A in a transfusion?
a) Type A
b) Type B
c) Type AB
d) Type O
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Rationale: Individuals with blood type A can receive blood from individuals with blood type A or
blood type O, so individuals with blood type A and O can donate to them. ( 6TH EDITION BB.119 )
243. Which blood type(s) can donate to individuals with blood type B in a transfusion?
a) Type A
b) Type B
c) Type AB
d) Type O

Rationale: Individuals with blood type B can receive blood from individuals with blood type B or
blood type O, so individuals with blood type B and O can donate to them. ( 6TH EDITION BB.119 )
244. Which blood type(s) can donate to individuals with blood type AB in a transfusion?
a) Type A
b) Type B
c) Type AB
d) Type O
Answer: a) Type A, b) Type B, c) Type AB, and d) Type O

Rationale: Individuals with blood type AB can receive blood from individuals with any blood type,
including A, B, AB, and O, so individuals with blood type A, B, AB, and O can donate to them. (
6TH EDITION BB.119 )
245. Which blood type(s) can donate to individuals with blood type O in a transfusion?
a) Type A
b) Type B
c) Type AB
d) Type O
Answer: d) Type O
Rationale: Individuals with blood type O can only receive blood from individuals with blood type O,
so only individuals with blood type O can donate to them. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119)
246. A patient with blood type A has which antibodies in their plasma?
d) No antibodies

Rationale: In the ABO system, a patient with blood type A has naturally occurring antibodies against
the B antigen, known as anti-B antibodies. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119)
247. A patient with blood type B has which antibodies in their plasma?
d) No antibodies
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Rationale: In the ABO system, a patient with blood type B has naturally occurring antibodies against
the A antigen, known as anti-A antibodies. ( 6TH EDITION BB.119 )
248. A patient with blood type AB has which antibodies in their plasma?
d) No antibodies
Rationale: In the ABO system, a patient with blood type AB does not have naturally occurring
antibodies against either the A or B antigens. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
249. A patient with blood type O has which antibodies in their plasma?
d) No antibodies
Answer: c) Anti-A and anti-B antibodies

Rationale: In the ABO system, a patient with blood type O has naturally occurring antibodies against
both the A and B antigens, known as anti-A and anti-B antibodies. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
250. What is the most common blood type in the ABO system?
a) Type A
b) Type B
c) Type AB
d) Type O
Answer: d) Type O
Rationale: Type O is the most common blood type in the ABO system, occurring in approximately
45-50% of the population. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119)
251. Which blood type(s) can an individual with blood type A produce in offspring?
a) Type A
b) Type B
c) Type AB
d) Type O

Rationale: An individual with blood type A can produce offspring with blood types A and O.
( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
252. Which blood type(s) can an individual with blood type B produce in offspring?
a) Type A
b) Type B
c) Type AB
d) Type O

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Rationale: An individual with blood type B can produce offspring with blood types B and O.
253. Which blood type(s) can an individual with blood type AB produce in offspring?
a) Type A
b) Type B
c) Type AB
d) Type O
Answer: a) Type A, b) Type B, and c) Type AB

Rationale: An individual with blood type AB can produce offspring with blood types A, B, and AB.
254. Which blood type(s) can an individual with blood type O produce in offspring?
a) Type A
b) Type B
c) Type AB
d) Type O
Answer: d) Type O
Rationale: An individual with blood type O can only produce offspring with blood type O.
255. In the ABO system, what type of reaction occurs when incompatible blood is transfused?
a) Agglutination
b) Hemolysis
c) Clotting
d) Inflammation
Answer: a) Agglutination
Rationale: When incompatible blood is transfused in the ABO system, agglutination (clumping) of
red blood cells occurs due to the interaction between antibodies and antigens. ( 6TH EDITION BB.
119 )
256. Which laboratory test is used to determine an individual's ABO blood type?
a) Direct Coombs test
b) Antibody screen
c) Antibody identification panel
d) ABO forward and reverse typing
Answer: d) ABO forward and reverse typing

Rationale: ABO forward and reverse typing is performed in the laboratory to determine an
individual's ABO blood type. Forward typing tests for the presence of A and B antigens on the
patient's red blood cells, while reverse typing tests for the presence of corresponding antibodies in the
patient's plasma. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
257. Which ABO blood type(s) can be safely transfused to a patient with blood type A?
a) Type A and type O
b) Type B and type O
c) Type AB and type O
d) Type O only
Answer: a) Type A and type O

Rationale: In the ABO system, a patient with blood type A can safely receive blood transfusions from
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individuals with blood type A or blood type O. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119)
258. Which ABO blood type(s) can be safely transfused to a patient with blood type B?
d) Type O only
Answer: b) Type B and type O

Rationale: In the ABO system, a patient with blood type B can safely receive blood transfusions from
individuals with blood type B or blood type O. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
259. Which ABO blood type(s) can be safely transfused to a patient with blood type AB?
d) Type O only

Rationale: In the ABO system, a patient with blood type AB can safely receive blood transfusions
from individuals with any blood type, including A, B, AB, and O. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
260. Which ABO blood type(s) can be safely transfused to a patient with blood type O?
d) Type O only
Answer: d) Type O only

Rationale: In the ABO system, a patient with blood type O can only safely receive blood transfusions
from individuals with blood type O. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
261. Which blood type(s) can a person with blood type A donate to in a transfusion?
d) Type O only
Answer: a) Type A and type AB

Rationale: An individual with blood type A can donate blood to individuals with blood type A or
blood type AB. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119)
262. Which blood type(s) can a person with blood type B donate to in a transfusion?
d) Type O only
Answer: b) Type B and type AB

Rationale: An individual with blood type B can donate blood to individuals with blood type B or
blood type AB. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
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263. Which blood type(s) can a person with blood type AB donate to in a transfusion?
d) Type O only
Answer: c) Type AB only

Rationale: An individual with blood type AB can donate blood to individuals with blood type AB.
264. Which blood type(s) can a person with blood type O donate to in a transfusion?
d) Type O only
Answer: a) Type A, b) Type B, c) Type AB, and d) Type O

Rationale: An individual with blood type O can donate blood to individuals with any blood type,
including A, B, AB, and O. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
265. Which blood type is known as the "universal donor" in the ABO system?
a) Type A
b) Type B
c) Type AB
d) Type O
Answer: d) Type O
Rationale: Type O blood is often referred to as the "universal donor" in the ABO system because it
lacks both A and B antigens, making it compatible with all other blood types. ( 6TH EDITION BB.
119)
266. Which blood type is known as the "universal recipient" in the ABO system?
a) Type A
b) Type B
c) Type AB
d) Type O
Answer: c) Type AB
Rationale: Type AB blood is often referred to as the "universal recipient" in the ABO system because
it has both A and B antigens, allowing it to receive transfusions from all other blood types. ( 6TH
EDITION BB. 119)
267. Which blood type(s) can an individual with blood type A produce in offspring if their partner
has blood type O?
d) Type O only

Rationale: When an individual with blood type A (genotype AO) partners with someone with blood
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type O (genotype OO), they can produce offspring with blood types A (genotype AO) and O
(genotype OO). ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
268. Which blood type(s) can an individual with blood type B produce in offspring if their partner has
blood type AB?
d) Type O only

Rationale: When an individual with blood type B (genotype BO) partners with someone with blood
type AB (genotype AB), they can produce offspring with blood types A (genotype AO), B (genotype
BO), and AB (genotype AB). ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
269. Which blood type(s) can an individual with blood type AB produce in offspring if their partner
has blood type O?
d) Type O only
Answer: a) Type A and type B

Rationale: When an individual with blood type AB (genotype AB) partners with someone with blood
type O (genotype OO), they can produce offspring with blood types A (genotype AO) and B
(genotype BO). ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
270. Which blood type(s) can an individual with blood type O produce in offspring if their partner
has blood type B?
d) Type O only

Rationale: When an individual with blood type O (genotype OO) partners with someone with blood
type B (genotype BO), they can produce offspring with blood types B (genotype BO) and O
(genotype OO). ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
271. Which blood type(s) can an individual with blood type A receive in a transfusion if they have
anti-A antibodies?
d) Type O only

Rationale: An individual with blood type A who has anti-A antibodies in their plasma can safely
receive blood transfusions from individuals with blood type B or blood type O. ( 6TH EDITION BB.
119 )
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272. Which blood type(s) can an individual with blood type B receive in a transfusion if they have
anti-B antibodies?
d) Type O only

Rationale: An individual with blood type B who has anti-B antibodies in their plasma can safely
receive blood transfusions from individuals with blood type A or blood type O. ( 6TH EDITION BB.
119)
273. Which blood type(s) can an individual with blood type AB receive in a transfusion if they have
both anti-A and anti-B antibodies?
d) Type O only

Rationale: An individual with blood type AB who has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their
plasma can only safely receive blood transfusions from individuals with blood type O. ( 6TH
EDITION BB. 119)
274. Which blood type(s) can an individual with blood type O receive in a transfusion if they have
both anti-A and anti-B antibodies?
d) Type O only

Rationale: An individual with blood type O who has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their plasma
can only safely receive blood transfusions from individuals with blood type O. ( 6TH EDITION BB.
119 )
275. Which blood group system is the most important in transfusion medicine?
a) ABO blood group system
b) Rh blood group system
c) Kell blood group system
d) Duffy blood group system
Answer: a) ABO blood group system

Rationale: The ABO blood group system is considered the most important in transfusion medicine
because ABO compatibility between donor and recipient is essential to prevent adverse transfusion
reactions. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
278. How many major blood types are there in the ABO blood group system?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
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Answer: b) 3
Rationale: The major blood types in the ABO blood group system are A, B, and O. Each blood type is
determined by the presence or absence of specific antigens on the surface of red blood cells. ( 6TH
EDITION BB. 119 )
279. Which antigen is present on red blood cells in individuals with blood type A?
a) A antigen
b) B antigen
c) Both A and B antigens
d) Neither A nor B antigen
Answer: a) A antigen
Rationale: Individuals with blood type A have the A antigen on their red blood cells. They also have
naturally occurring antibodies (anti-B antibodies) in their plasma. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
280. Which antigen is present on red blood cells in individuals with blood type B?
a) A antigen
b) B antigen
Answer: b) B antigen
Rationale: Individuals with blood type B have the B antigen on their red blood cells. They have
naturally occurring antibodies (anti-A antibodies) in their plasma. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119)
281. Which antigen is present on red blood cells in individuals with blood type AB?
a) A antigen
b) B antigen
Answer: c) Both A and B antigens

Rationale: Individuals with blood type AB have both the A and B antigens on their red blood cells.
They do not have naturally occurring antibodies against A or B antigens in their plasma.
282. Which antigen is present on red blood cells in individuals with blood type O?
a) A antigen
b) B antigen
Answer: d) Neither A nor B antigen

Rationale: Individuals with blood type O do not have either the A or B antigen on their red blood
cells. However, they have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their plasma. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119
)
283. Which blood type is considered the universal donor in the ABO blood group system?
a) A
b) B
c) AB
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d) O
Answer: d) O
Rationale: Blood type O is considered the universal donor in the ABO blood group system because it
lacks both the A and B antigens, which means it can be transfused to individuals with any blood type.
284. Which blood type is considered the universal recipient in the ABO blood group system?
a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O
Answer: c) AB
Rationale: Blood type AB is considered the universal recipient in the ABO blood group system
because individuals with AB blood type can receive transfusions of any blood type without
encountering ABO incompatibility issues. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
285. Which antibodies are naturally present in the plasma of individuals with blood type A?
c) Both anti-A and anti-B antibodies
d) No antibodies

Rationale: Individuals with blood type A have naturally occurring anti-B antibodies in their plasma,
which can react with the B antigen if transfused with incompatible blood. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
286. Which antibodies are naturally present in the plasma of individuals with blood type B?
d) No antibodies

Rationale: Individuals with blood type B have naturally occurring anti-A antibodies in their plasma,
which can react with the A antigen if transfused with incompatible blood. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119)
287. Which antibodies are naturally present in the plasma of individuals with blood type AB?
d) No antibodies
Rationale: Individuals with blood type AB do not have naturally occurring antibodies against A or B
antigens in their plasma. They can receive transfusions of any blood type without encountering ABO
incompatibility issues. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
289. Which antibodies are naturally present in the plasma of individuals with blood type O?
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d) No antibodies
Answer: c) Both anti-A and anti-B antibodies

Rationale: Individuals with blood type O have naturally occurring anti-A and anti-B antibodies in
their plasma, which can react with the A and B antigens if transfused with incompatible blood. ( 6TH
EDITION BB. 119 )
290. Which blood type can individuals with blood type A safely receive in a transfusion?
a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O
Answer: d) O
Rationale: Individuals with blood type A can safely receive blood transfusions from individuals with
blood type O since type O blood lacks A and B antigens, which would otherwise trigger an immune
response. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
291. Which blood type can individuals with blood type B safely receive in a transfusion?
a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O
Answer: d) O
Rationale: Individuals with blood type B can safely receive blood transfusions from individuals with
blood type O since type O blood lacks A and B antigens, which would otherwise trigger an immune
response. ( 6TH EDITION BB 119. )
292. Which blood type can individuals with blood type AB safely receive in a transfusion?
a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O
Answer: a) A, b) B, c) AB
Rationale: Individuals with blood type AB can receive blood transfusions from individuals with blood
types A, B, or AB. Type O blood should be avoided since it contains both anti-A and anti-B
antibodies. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
293. Which blood type can individuals with blood type O safely donate to in a transfusion?
a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O
Answer: a) A, b) B, c) AB, d) O
Rationale: Individuals with blood type O are considered universal donors as they can donate blood to
individuals with blood types A, B, AB, or O. Their blood lacks A and B antigens, which could cause
an adverse reaction in recipients. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
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294. Which blood type can individuals with blood type AB safely donate to in a transfusion?
a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O
Answer: c) AB
Rationale: Individuals with blood type AB can donate blood to individuals with blood type AB. Since
they have both A and B antigens on their red blood cells, they do not have antibodies against A or B
antigens. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119)
295. Which blood types are compatible with individuals with blood type O in a transfusion?
a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O
Answer: d) O
Rationale: Individuals with blood type O can receive blood transfusions only from individuals with
blood type O. They have anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their plasma, which would react with the A
and B antigens of other blood types. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
296. Which blood types are compatible with individuals with blood type AB in a transfusion?
a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O
Answer: a) A, b) B, c) AB
types A, B, or AB since they do not have antibodies against A or B antigens. ( 6TH EDITION BB.
119 )
297. Which blood types are considered the most compatible with individuals with blood type A in a
transfusion?
a) A and AB
b) B and AB
c) A and O
d) B and O
Answer: c) A and O
Rationale: Individuals with blood type A can safely receive blood transfusions from individuals with
blood types A or O. They have anti-B antibodies, which would react with the B antigen of blood
types B and AB. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
298. Which blood types are considered the most compatible with individuals with blood type B in a
transfusion?
a) A and AB
b) B and AB
c) A and O
d) B and O
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Answer: d) B and O
Rationale: Individuals with blood type B can safely receive blood transfusions from individuals with
blood types B or O. They have anti-A antibodies, which would react with the A antigen of blood
types A and AB. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119)
299. Which blood types are considered the most compatible with individuals with blood type AB in a
transfusion?
a) A and AB
b) B and AB
c) A, B, AB, and O
d) AB only
Answer: c) A, B, AB, and O

types A, B, AB, or O. They do not have antibodies against A or B antigens. ( 6TH EDITION BB.
119 )
300. Which blood types are considered the most compatible with individuals with blood type O in a
transfusion?
a) A and AB
b) B and AB
c) A and O
d) B and O
Answer: d) B and O
Rationale: Individuals with blood type O can safely receive blood transfusions from individuals with
blood types O. Since they have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies, blood types A, B, and AB would
cause a severe transfusion reaction. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
301. Which blood type is known as the "universal recipient"?

a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O
Answer: c) AB
Rationale: Blood type AB is known as the universal recipient because individuals with this blood type
can receive blood transfusions from any blood type without encountering ABO incompatibility
issues. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
302. Which blood type is known as the "universal donor"?

a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O
Answer: d) O
Rationale: Blood type O is known as the universal donor because individuals with this blood type can
donate blood to individuals with any blood type without encountering ABO incompatibility issues. . (
6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
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303. In the ABO blood group system, which blood type contains both A and B antigens?
a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O
Answer: c) AB
Rationale: Blood type AB contains both A and B antigens on the surface of red blood cells.
Individuals with this blood type can receive blood transfusions from any blood type. . ( 6TH
EDITION BB. 119 )
304. In the ABO blood group system, which blood type lacks both A and B antigens?
a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O
Answer: d) O
Rationale: Blood type O lacks both A and B antigens on the surface of red blood cells. Individuals
with this blood type can donate blood to any blood type.
. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
305. In the ABO blood group system, which antibodies are present in the plasma of individuals with
blood type A?
d) No antibodies

Rationale: Individuals with blood type A have naturally occurring anti-B antibodies in their plasma,
which can react with the B antigen if transfused with incompatible blood. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
blood type B?
d) No antibodies

Rationale: Individuals with blood type B have naturally occurring anti-A antibodies in their plasma,
which can react with the A antigen if transfused with incompatible blood. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
blood type AB?
d) No antibodies
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Rationale: Individuals with blood type AB do not have naturally occurring antibodies against A or B
antigens in their plasma. They can receive transfusions of any blood type without encountering ABO
incompatibility issues. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
blood type O?
d) No antibodies
Answer: c) Both anti-A and anti-B antibodies

Rationale: Individuals with blood type O have naturally occurring anti-A and anti-B antibodies in
their plasma, which can react with the A and B antigens if transfused with incompatible blood. . (
309. In the ABO blood group system, which blood type is considered the universal donor?
a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O
Answer: d) O
Rationale: Blood type O is considered the universal donor in the ABO blood group system because it
lacks both the A and B antigens, which means it can be transfused to individuals with any blood type.
310. In the ABO blood group system, which blood type is considered the universal recipient?
a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O
Answer: c) AB
Rationale: Blood type AB is considered the universal recipient in the ABO blood group system
because individuals with AB blood type can receive transfusions of any blood type without
encountering ABO incompatibility issues. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
311. If a person with blood type A is transfused with blood type B, what type of immune reaction is
expected to occur?
a) Hemolytic reaction
b) Anaphylactic reaction
c) Immune complex reaction
d) No immune reaction
Answer: a) Hemolytic reaction

Rationale: If a person with blood type A is transfused with blood type B, the anti-B antibodies present
in the recipient's plasma will react with the B antigens on the transfused red blood cells, leading to a
hemolytic reaction. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
312. If a person with blood type B is transfused with blood type A, what type of immune reaction is
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expected to occur?

Rationale: If a person with blood type B is transfused with blood type A, the anti-A antibodies
present in the recipient's plasma will react with the A antigens on the transfused red blood cells,
leading to a hemolytic reaction. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
313. If a person with blood type O is transfused with blood type A, what type of immune reaction is
expected to occur?

Rationale: If a person with blood type O is transfused with blood type A, the anti-A antibodies
present in the recipient's plasma will react with the A antigens on the transfused red blood cells,
leading to a hemolytic reaction. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
314. If a person with blood type AB is transfused with blood type O, what type of immune reaction is
expected to occur?
Answer: d) No immune reaction

Rationale: Individuals with blood type AB do not have antibodies against A or B antigens, so
transfusing blood type O, which lacks A and B antigens, will not trigger an immune reaction. . ( 6TH
EDITION BB. 119 )
315. Which blood type is compatible for transfusion with blood type O?
a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O
Answer: d) O
Rationale: Blood type O can only receive transfusions from individuals with blood type O because
they have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies, which would react with the A and B antigens of other
blood types. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
316. Which blood type is compatible for transfusion with blood type AB?
a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O
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Answer: c) AB
Rationale: Individuals with blood type AB can receive transfusions from individuals with blood types
A, B, AB, or O. They do not have antibodies against A or B antigens. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
317. If a person with blood type B donates blood to a person with blood type A, what would happen?
a) The recipient would have a severe transfusion reaction.
b) The recipient would have a mild transfusion reaction.
c) The recipient would not have any transfusion reaction.
d) The recipient's blood type would change to B.
Answer: a) The recipient would have a severe transfusion reaction.

Rationale: If a person with blood type B donates blood to a person with blood type A, the recipient's
anti-B antibodies would react with the B antigens on the transfused red blood cells, causing a severe
transfusion reaction. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
318. If a person with blood type A donates blood to a person with blood type AB, what would
happen?
a) The recipient would have a severe transfusion reaction.
b) The recipient would have a mild transfusion reaction.
c) The recipient would not have any transfusion reaction.
d) The recipient's blood type would change to A.
Answer: c) The recipient would not have any transfusion reaction.

Rationale: Individuals with blood type AB can receive transfusions from individuals with any blood
type without encountering ABO incompatibility issues, as they do not have antibodies against A or B
antigens. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
319. Which blood type(s) can a person with blood type O donate to?
a) A and B
b) A, B, AB, and O
c) AB only
d) O only
Answer: b) A, B, AB, and O

an adverse reaction in recipients. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
320. Which blood type(s) can a person with blood type AB donate to?
a) A and B
b) A, B, AB, and O
c) AB only
d) O only
Answer: c) AB only
321. Which blood type(s) can a person with blood type A donate to?
a) A and B
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b) A, B, AB, and O
c) AB only
d) O only
Answer: a) A and AB
Rationale: Individuals with blood type A can donate blood to individuals with blood types A or AB.
They have anti-B antibodies, which would react with the B antigen of blood types B and AB. . ( 6TH
EDITION BB. 119 )
322. Which blood type(s) can a person with blood type B donate to?
a) A and B
b) A, B, AB, and O
c) AB only
d) O only
Answer: b) B and AB
Rationale: Individuals with blood type B can donate blood to individuals with blood types B or AB.
They have anti-A antibodies, which would react with the A antigen of blood types A and AB. . ( 6TH
EDITION BB. 119 )
323. Which blood type(s) can a person with blood type AB donate to?
a) A and B
b) A, B, AB, and O
c) AB only
d) O only
Answer: c) AB only
324. Which blood type(s) can a person with blood type O donate to?
a) A and B
b) A, B, AB, and O
c) AB only
d) O only
Answer: b) A, B, AB, and O

an adverse reaction in recipients. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
325. What is the most common blood type among the population?
a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O
Answer: d) O
Rationale: Blood type O is the most common blood type among the population, followed by blood
type A. Blood types B and AB are less common. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
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326. Which blood type(s) can receive blood from individuals with any blood type?
a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O
Answer: c) AB
Rationale: Individuals with blood type AB can receive blood transfusions from individuals with any
blood type without encountering ABO incompatibility issues. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 119 )
327. Which blood type(s) can donate blood to individuals with any blood type?
a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O
Answer: d) O
individuals with any blood type without encountering ABO incompatibility issues. . ( 6TH EDITION
BB. 119 )
328. What is the most common Rh antigen found on red blood cells?
a) D antigen
b) C antigen
c) E antigen
d) K antigen
Answer: a) D antigen
Rationale: The D antigen is the most immunogenic and clinically significant antigen in the Rh blood
group system. It is present in about 85% of the population. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 161 )
329. Which Rh antigen is associated with the most severe transfusion reactions?
a) C antigen
b) E antigen
c) D antigen
d) K antigen
Answer: c) D antigen
Rationale: The presence of the D antigen in a recipient who lacks it can lead to severe hemolytic
transfusion reactions, making it the most clinically significant antigen in the Rh system. ( 6TH
EDITION BB. 161 )
330. What is the most common Rh blood type?

a) Rh-positive
b) Rh-negative
c) Rh-null
d) Rh-incompatible
Answer: a) Rh-positive
Rationale: Rh-positive blood type is more common in the general population, with approximately
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85% of individuals being Rh-positive. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 149 )
331. Which Rh blood type can receive Rh-positive and Rh-negative blood?
a) Rh-positive
b) Rh-negative
c) Rh-null
d) Rh-incompatible
Rationale: Rh-positive individuals can receive both Rh-positive and Rh-negative blood without
experiencing adverse reactions. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 149 )
332. Which Rh antigen is commonly associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)?
a) C antigen
b) E antigen
c) D antigen
d) K antigen
Rationale: Maternal antibodies against the D antigen can cross the placenta and cause hemolytic
disease of the newborn (HDN) in D antigen-positive infants born to D antigen-negative mothers. (
333. Which Rh antigen is the second most immunogenic after the D antigen?
a) C antigen
b) E antigen
c) F antigen
d) G antigen
Answer: b) E antigen
Rationale: The E antigen is the second most immunogenic antigen in the Rh blood group system,
following the D antigen. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 161 )
334. Which Rh antigen is more prevalent in individuals of African descent?

a) C antigen
b) E antigen
c) D antigen
d) K antigen
Answer: a) C antigen
Rationale: The C antigen is more common in individuals of African descent compared to other
populations. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 161 )
335. Which Rh antigen is associated with antibody production that can cause mild transfusion
reactions?
a) C antigen
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b) E antigen
c) D antigen
d) K antigen
Rationale: Antibodies against the E antigen can cause mild hemolytic transfusion reactions, although
they are generally less severe than reactions caused by anti-D antibodies. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 161 )
336. Which Rh antigen is not typically tested during routine blood typing?
a) C antigen
b) E antigen
c) D antigen
d) K antigen
Answer: d) K antigen
Rationale: The K antigen belongs to the Kell blood group system, not the Rh blood group system, and
is not typically tested during routine blood typing. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 161 )
337. Which blood type is considered the universal donor for Rh-negative individuals?
a) O-
b) A-
c) AB+
d) B-
Answer: a) O-
Rationale: O- blood type lacks A, B, and Rh antigens, making it the universal donor for Rh-negative
individuals. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 149 )
338. Which blood type is considered the universal recipient for Rh-negative individuals?
a) O-
b) A-
c) AB+
d) B-
Answer: c) AB+
Rationale: AB+ blood type has both A and B antigens, as well as Rh antigens, making it the universal
recipient for Rh-negative individuals. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 149 )
339. Which antibody is typically present in the plasma of an Rh-negative individual who has been
sensitized to the D antigen?
a) Anti-C antibody
b) Anti-E antibody
c) Anti-D antibody
d) Anti-K antibody
Answer: c) Anti-D antibody

Rationale: When an Rh-negative individual is exposed to the D antigen, they may produce anti-D
antibodies, which can cause hemolytic transfusion reactions upon subsequent exposure to D antigen-
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positive blood. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 160 )
340. Which test is used to detect the presence of the D antigen on red blood cells?
b) Indirect Coombs test
c) Antibody screen
d) ABO typing

Rationale: The indirect Coombs test detects the presence of antibodies, including anti-D antibodies, in
a patient's plasma. It is used to determine the presence of Rh antibodies before transfusion or during
prenatal testing. ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
341. Which test is used to detect the presence of Rh antibodies in a recipient's plasma?
c) Antibody screen
d) ABO typing

Rationale: The indirect Coombs test is used to detect the presence of antibodies, including Rh
antibodies, in a recipient's plasma before transfusion or during prenatal testing. ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
342. Which scenario may require Rh immune globulin (RhIg) administration to prevent sensitization
in an Rh-negative woman?
a) Rh-negative woman giving birth to an Rh-negative baby
b) Rh-negative woman giving birth to an Rh-positive baby
c) Rh-positive woman giving birth to an Rh-positive baby
d) Rh-positive woman giving birth to an Rh-negative baby
Answer: b) Rh-negative woman giving birth to an Rh-positive baby

Rationale: RhIg is administered to Rh-negative women within 72 hours of delivering an Rh-positive
baby to prevent sensitization to the D antigen, which could affect future pregnancies.
343. Which statement about Rh antibodies is true?

a) Rh antibodies are naturally occurring in all individuals.
b) Rh antibodies are produced in response to previous transfusions.
c) Rh antibodies are only produced in Rh-negative individuals.
d) Rh antibodies are never clinically significant.
Answer: b) Rh antibodies are produced in response to previous transfusions.

Rationale: Rh antibodies are typically produced in response to previous exposure to Rh antigens
through transfusion or pregnancy. They are not naturally occurring in all individuals. ( 6TH EDITION
BB. 160 )
345. Which transfusion reaction is associated with anti-D antibodies?

a) Hemolytic transfusion reaction
b) Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction
c) Allergic transfusion reaction
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d) Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
Answer: a) Hemolytic transfusion reaction

Rationale: Anti-D antibodies can cause a hemolytic transfusion reaction when Rh-positive blood is
transfused into an Rh-negative individual who has previously been sensitized to the D antigen. ( 6TH
EDITION BB. 160 )
346. Which condition can result from maternal anti-D antibodies crossing the placenta during
pregnancy?
a) Aplastic anemia
b) Thrombocytopenia
c) Hemolytic disease of the newborn
d) Sickle cell disease
Answer: c) Hemolytic disease of the newborn

Rationale: Maternal anti-D antibodies crossing the placenta can lead to hemolytic disease of the
newborn (HDN) in subsequent pregnancies if the fetus is D antigen-positive. ( 6TH EDITION BB.
160 )
347. Which blood type is incompatible with an Rh-negative recipient?

a) A+
b) AB+
c) O-
d) B-
Answer: c) O-
Rationale: O- blood type lacks A, B, and Rh antigens, making it incompatible with an Rh-negative
recipient. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 149 )
348. Which blood type can an Rh-positive individual receive safely?

a) O+
b) A-
c) AB+
d) B-
Answer: c) AB+
Rationale: AB+ blood type has both A and B antigens, as well as Rh antigens, making it compatible
with Rh-positive individuals. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 149 )
349. What is the term for the presence of the D antigen on red blood cells?
a) Rh-positive
b) Rh-negative
c) Rh-null
d) Rh-incompatible
Rationale: The term Rh-positive refers to the presence of the D antigen on red blood cells. ( 6TH
EDITION BB. 161 )
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350. Which Rh antigen is associated with the highest risk of hemolytic disease of the newborn
(HDN)?
a) C antigen
b) E antigen
c) D antigen
d) K antigen
Rationale: The D antigen is the most significant antigen associated with HDN, as maternal anti-D
antibodies can cross the placenta and cause severe hemolysis in D antigen-positive fetuses. ( 6TH
EDITION BB. 161 )
351. Which Rh antigen is most commonly associated with Rh antibodies in transfusion reactions?
a) C antigen
b) E antigen
c) D antigen
d) K antigen
Rationale: The D antigen is the most immunogenic in the Rh system and is responsible for the
majority of Rh antibody formation in transfusion reactions. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 161 )
352. Which Rh antigen is associated with the highest incidence of antibodies in the general
population?
a) C antigen
b) E antigen
c) D antigen
d) K antigen
Rationale: The E antigen is more immunogenic than the C antigen and is associated with a higher
incidence of antibodies in the general population. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 161 )
353. Which Rh antigen is associated with a higher risk of transfusion reactions in patients of African
descent?
a) C antigen
b) E antigen
c) D antigen
d) K antigen
Rationale: The C antigen is more prevalent in individuals of African descent and can be associated
with a higher risk of transfusion reactions in this population. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 161 )
354. Which Rh antigen is most commonly associated with mild transfusion reactions?
a) C antigen
b) E antigen
c) D antigen
d) K antigen
Rationale: Antibodies against the E antigen can cause mild hemolytic transfusion reactions, but they
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are generally less severe than reactions caused by anti-D antibodies. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 161 )
355. Which Rh antigen belongs to the Kell blood group system, not the Rh blood group system?
a) C antigen
b) E antigen
c) D antigen
d) K antigen
Rationale: The K antigen is part of the Kell blood group system and is not part of the Rh blood group
system. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 161 )
356. Which Rh antigen is associated with the Bombay phenotype?

a) C antigen
b) E antigen
c) D antigen
d) K antigen
Rationale: The Bombay phenotype refers to individuals who lack H, A, and B antigens and are also
negative for the D antigen in the Rh system. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 161 )
357. Which test is used to determine the Rh status of an individual?

a) Coombs test
b) Antibody screen
c) ABO typing
d) Rh typing
Answer: d) Rh typing
Rationale: Rh typing specifically determines the presence or absence of the D antigen on red blood
cells to determine Rh status. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 149 )
358. Which blood type is considered the universal donor for Rh-positive individuals?
a) O+
b) A-
c) AB+
d) B-
Answer: a) O+
Rationale: O+ blood type can be safely transfused to Rh-positive individuals because it lacks A and B
antigens but contains Rh antigens. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 149 )
359. Which blood type is considered the universal recipient for Rh-positive individuals?
a) O+
b) A-
c) AB+
d) B-
Answer: c) AB+
Rationale: AB+ blood type can receive transfusions from any ABO and Rh blood type, making it the
universal recipient for Rh-positive individuals. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 149 )
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360. Which blood type is considered the universal donor for both Rh-positive and Rh-negative
individuals?
a) O+
b) A-
c) AB+
d) B-
Answer: a) O+
Rationale: O+ blood type can be safely transfused to both Rh-positive and Rh-negative individuals
because it lacks A and B antigens but contains Rh antigens. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 149 )
361. Which blood type is considered the universal recipient for both Rh-positive and Rh-negative
individuals?
a) O+
b) A-
c) AB+
d) B-
Answer: c) AB+
universal recipient for both Rh-positive and Rh-negative individuals. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 149 )
362. Which blood type can an Rh-negative individual safely receive?

a) O-
b) A+
c) AB-
d) B+
Answer: a) O-
Rationale: O- blood type lacks A, B, and Rh antigens, making it compatible with Rh-negative
individuals. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 149 )
363. Which blood type can an Rh-negative individual safely donate to?
a) A+
b) AB-
c) B+
d) O-
Answer: d) O-
Rationale: O- blood type lacks A, B, and Rh antigens, making it compatible with all blood types,
including Rh-negative individuals. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 149 )
364. Which antibody is most commonly found in the plasma of Rh-negative individuals?
a) Anti-C antibody
b) Anti-E antibody
c) Anti-D antibody
d) Anti-K antibody
Answer: c) Anti-D antibody

Rationale: Rh-negative individuals may naturally produce anti-D antibodies if they are exposed to the
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D antigen, either through previous transfusion or pregnancy. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 160 )
365. Which test is used to confirm the presence of Rh antibodies on red blood cells?
c) Antibody screen
d) Crossmatching
Answer: a) Direct Coombs test

Rationale: The direct Coombs test is used to detect the presence of antibodies, including Rh
antibodies, that have attached to red blood cells. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 160 )
366. Which test is used to identify Rh antibodies in a recipient's plasma before transfusion?
c) Antibody screen
d) Crossmatching

Rationale: The indirect Coombs test is performed using the recipient's plasma to detect the presence
of antibodies, including Rh antibodies, before transfusion. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 160 )
367. Which condition can result from the administration of Rh-positive blood to an Rh-negative
individual?
a) Hemolytic disease of the newborn
b) Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease
c) Transfusion-related acute lung injury
d) Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
Answer: d) Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction

Rationale: Administration of Rh-positive blood to an Rh-negative individual who has been sensitized
to the D antigen can lead to a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction. ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
368. Which condition can occur in an Rh-negative woman who is sensitized to the D antigen during
pregnancy?
a) Aplastic anemia
b) Thrombocytopenia
c) Hemolytic disease of the newborn
d) Sickle cell disease
Answer: c) Hemolytic disease of the newborn

Rationale: An Rh-negative woman who is sensitized to the D antigen during pregnancy can develop
antibodies that cross the placenta and cause hemolytic disease of the newborn in subsequent
pregnancies if the fetus is D antigen-positive. ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
369. Which Rh antigen is associated with the most severe transfusion reactions?
a) C antigen
b) E antigen
c) D antigen
d) K antigen
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Rationale: The D antigen is the most immunogenic and clinically significant antigen in the Rh blood
group system, and transfusion reactions involving anti-D antibodies can be severe. ( 6TH EDITION
BB. 161 )
370. Which Rh antigen is associated with the highest risk of transfusion reactions in individuals of
African descent?
a) C antigen
b) E antigen
c) D antigen
d) K antigen
Rationale: The C antigen is more prevalent in individuals of African descent and can be associated
with a higher risk of transfusion reactions in this population. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 161 )
371. Which Rh antigen is associated with the highest risk of hemolytic disease of the newborn
(HDN)?
a) C antigen
b) E antigen
c) D antigen
d) K antigen
Rationale: Maternal anti-D antibodies crossing the placenta and reacting with D antigen-positive fetal
red blood cells are the primary cause of HDN. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 161 )
372. Which Rh antigen is typically tested during routine blood typing?

a) C antigen
b) E antigen
c) D antigen
d) K antigen
Rationale: The presence or absence of the D antigen is routinely tested during blood typing to
determine Rh status. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 161 )
374. Which Rh antigen is associated with the highest incidence of antibodies in the general
population?
a) C antigen
b) E antigen
c) D antigen
d) K antigen
Rationale: The E antigen is associated with a higher incidence of antibodies in the general population
compared to the C antigen. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 161 )
375. Which Rh antigen is most commonly associated with mild transfusion reactions?
a) C antigen
b) E antigen
c) D antigen
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d) K antigen
Rationale: Antibodies against the E antigen can cause mild hemolytic transfusion reactions, but they
are generally less severe than reactions caused by anti-D antibodies. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 161 )
376. Which Rh antigen belongs to the Kell blood group system, not the Rh blood group system?
a) C antigen
b) E antigen
c) D antigen
d) K antigen
Rationale: The K antigen is part of the Kell blood group system and is not classified as an Rh antigen.
377. Which blood type is considered the universal donor for Rh-positive individuals?
a) O+
b) A-
c) AB+
d) B-
Answer: a) O+
Rationale: O+ blood type can be safely transfused to Rh-positive individuals because it lacks A and B
antigens but contains Rh antigens. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 149 )
378. Which blood type is considered the universal recipient for Rh-positive individuals?
a) O+
b) A-
c) AB+
d) B-
Answer: c) AB+
universal recipient for Rh-positive individuals. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 149 )
379. Which blood type is considered the universal donor for both Rh-positive and Rh-negative
individuals?
a) O+
b) A-
c) AB+
d) B-
Answer: a) O+
Rationale: O+ blood type can be safely transfused to both Rh-positive and Rh-negative individuals
because it lacks A and B antigens but contains Rh antigens. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 149 )
380. Which blood group system is known for its role in transfusion reactions caused by antibodies
directed against high-frequency antigens?
a) Rh system
b) ABO system
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c) Kell system
d) Kidd system
Answer: c) Kell system

Rationale: The Kell blood group system is known for its high-frequency antigens, and antibodies
against these antigens can cause severe transfusion reactions. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 191 )
381. Which blood group system is associated with the Jka and Jkb antigens?
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Lewis system
Answer: c) Kidd system

Rationale: The Kidd blood group system is associated with the Jka and Jkb antigens. ( 6TH EDITION
BB. 197 )
382. Which blood group system is known for its antigens that are destroyed by enzymes and are
weakly expressed on newborn red blood cells?
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Lewis system

Rationale: The Lewis blood group system is known for its antigens that are destroyed by enzymes
and are weakly expressed on newborn red blood cells. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 177 )
383. Which blood group system is associated with the Fya and Fyb antigens?
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Lewis system
Answer: a) Duffy system

Rationale: The Duffy blood group system is associated with the Fya and Fyb antigens. ( 6TH
EDITION BB. 195 )
384. Which blood group system is known for its antigens that are found on most human red blood
cells and are involved in cell adhesion?
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Lutheran system

Rationale: The Lutheran blood group system is known for its antigens that are found on most human
red blood cells and are involved in cell adhesion. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 199 )
385. Which blood group system is associated with the Lua and Lub antigens?
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a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Lutheran system

Rationale: The Lutheran blood group system is associated with the Lua and Lub antigens.
386. Which blood group system is known for its antigens that are mainly found on white blood cells
and platelets?
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) HLA system
Answer: d) HLA system

Rationale: The HLA (Human Leukocyte Antigen) system is known for its antigens that are mainly
found on white blood cells and platelets. ( 6TH EDITION BB.)
387. Which blood group system is associated with the HPA-1a and HPA-1b antigens?
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) HLA system
Answer: d) HLA system

Rationale: The HLA system is associated with the HPA-1a and HPA-1b antigens. ( 6TH EDITION
BB.)
388. Which blood group system is known for its antigens that are associated with resistance to
malaria?
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) MNSs system
Answer: a) Duffy system

Rationale: The Duffy blood group system is known for its antigens that are associated with resistance
to malaria. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 195)
389. Which blood group system is associated with the S and s antigens?
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) MNSs system
Answer: d) MNSs system

Rationale: The MNSs blood group system is associated with the S and s antigens. . ( 6TH EDITION
BB. 186)
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390. Which blood group system is known for its antigens that are destroyed by enzymes and are used
for compatibility testing in crossmatching?
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) MNSs system
Answer: d) MNSs system

Rationale: The MNSs blood group system is known for its antigens that are destroyed by enzymes
and are used for compatibility testing in crossmatching. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 186)
391. Which blood group system is associated with the P1 antigen?

a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) P system
Answer: d) P system
Rationale: The P system is associated with the P1 antigen. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 195 )
392. Which blood group system is known for its antigens that are associated with paroxysmal
nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)?
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) P system
Answer: d) P system
Rationale: The P system is known for its antigens that are associated with paroxysmal nocturnal
hemoglobinuria (PNH). . ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
393. Which blood group system is associated with the Ge antigens?

a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Gerbich system

Rationale: The Gerbich blood group system is associated with the Ge antigens. . ( 6TH EDITION BB.
205 )
394. Which blood group system is known for its antigens that are resistant to enzymes and can be
used for extended phenotyping?
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Gerbich system

Rationale: The Gerbich blood group system is known for its antigens that are resistant to enzymes
and can be used for extended phenotyping. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
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395. Which blood group system is associated with the Dia and Dib antigens?
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Diego system

Rationale: The Diego blood group system is associated with the Dia and Dib antigens. . ( 6TH
EDITION BB. 202)
396. Which blood group system is known for its antigens that are destroyed by enzymes and can
cause transfusion reactions?
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Diego system

Rationale: The Diego blood group system is known for its antigens that are destroyed by enzymes
and can cause transfusion reactions. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 202)
397. Which blood group system is associated with the Yta and Ytb antigens?
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Yt system
Answer: d) Yt system
Rationale: The Yt blood group system is associated with the Yta and Ytb antigens. . ( 6TH EDITION
BB. )
398. Which blood group system is known for its antigens that are resistant to enzymes and can cause
transfusion reactions?
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Yt system
Rationale: The Yt blood group system is known for its antigens that are resistant to enzymes and can
cause transfusion reactions. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
399. Which blood group system is associated with the Chido and Rodgers antigens?
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Chido/Rodgers system
Answer: d) Chido/Rodgers system

Rationale: The Chido/Rodgers blood group system is associated with the Chido and Rodgers
antigens.
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. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 205)
400. Which blood group system is known for its antigens that are part of the complement system?
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system

Rationale: The Chido/Rodgers blood group system is known for its antigens that are part of the
complement system. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 205)
401. Which blood group system is associated with the Xga antigen?
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Xg system
Rationale: The Xg blood group system is associated with the Xga antigen. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 203)
402. Which blood group system is known for its antigens that are present on both red blood cells and
white blood cells?
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Xg system
Rationale: The Xg blood group system is known for its antigens that are present on both red blood
cells and white blood cells. . ( 6TH EDITION BB.203 )
403. Which blood group system is associated with the Dombrock antigens?
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Dombrock system

Rationale: The Dombrock blood group system is associated with the Dombrock antigens.
. ( 6TH EDITION BB.203 )
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Dombrock system

Rationale: The Dombrock blood group system is known for its antigens that are resistant to enzymes
and can cause transfusion reactions.
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a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Gerbich system

Rationale: The Gerbich blood group system is associated with the Ge antigens.
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Gerbich system

and can be used for extended phenotyping.
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Diego system

Rationale: The Diego blood group system is associated with the Dia and Dib antigens. . ( 6TH
EDITION BB. 202 )
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Diego system

and can cause transfusion reactions. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 202)
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Yt system
Rationale: The Yt blood group system is associated with the Yta and Ytb antigens. . ( 6TH EDITION
BB. )
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a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Yt system
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system

a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system

complement system. . ( 6TH EDITION BB.205 )
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Xg system
Rationale: The Xg blood group system is associated with the Xga antigen. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
white blood cells?
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Xg system
cells and white blood cells. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
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a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Dombrock system

. ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Dombrock system

and can cause transfusion reactions. . ( 6TH EDITION BB.203 )

a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Gerbich system

205 )
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Gerbich system

and can be used for extended phenotyping. . ( 6TH EDITION BB.205 )
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Diego system

Rationale: The Diego blood group system is associated with the Dia and Dib antigens.
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a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Diego system

a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Yt system
Rationale: The Yt blood group system is associated with the Yta and Ytb antigens.
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Yt system
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system

antigens. . ( 6TH EDITION BB.205 )
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system

complement system. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 205)
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a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Xg system
Rationale: The Xg blood group system is associated with the Xga antigen. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
white blood cells?
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Xg system
cells and white blood cells. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Dombrock system

a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Dombrock system


a) Duffy system
b) Kell system
c) Kidd system
d) Gerbich system

205)
430. Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) occurs when:

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a) The mother is Rh-positive and the baby is Rh-negative.
b) The mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive.
c) The mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-negative.
d) The mother is Rh-positive and the baby is Rh-positive.
Answer: b) The mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive.

Rationale: HDN occurs when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive baby. The mother's
immune system may produce antibodies against the Rh antigens present on the baby's red blood cells.
. ( 6TH EDITION BB. ) ( 6TH EDITION BB. 427)
431. Which antibody is commonly involved in Rh-associated HDN?

a) Anti-A
b) Anti-B
c) Anti-D
d) Anti-AB
Answer: c) Anti-D
Rationale: Rh-associated HDN is primarily caused by the mother's production of anti-D antibodies in
response to exposure to Rh-positive fetal red blood cells. ) ( 6TH EDITION BB. 427)
432.The administration of Rh immunoglobulin (RhIg) to an Rh-negative mother is effective in

preventing HDN because it:
a) Stimulates the production of Rh antibodies in the mother.
b) Suppresses the immune response of the mother.
c) Prevents the production of Rh antibodies in the mother.
d) Provides passive immunity to the baby.
Answer: c) Prevents the production of Rh antibodies in the mother.

Rationale: RhIg contains antibodies against the Rh antigen. When administered to an Rh-negative
mother, it prevents her immune system from producing Rh antibodies, thus reducing the risk of HDN
in future pregnancies. ) ( 6TH EDITION BB. 427)
434. A direct antiglobulin test (DAT) is performed on a newborn with suspected HDN. A positive
DAT indicates:
a) The presence of maternal antibodies on the baby's red blood cells.
b) The absence of maternal antibodies on the baby's red blood cells.
c) The presence of fetal antibodies on the mother's red blood cells.
d) The absence of fetal antibodies on the mother's red blood cells.
Answer: a) The presence of maternal antibodies on the baby's red blood cells.
Rationale: A positive DAT indicates the presence of maternal antibodies, specifically IgG, attached to
the baby's red blood cells, which confirms the diagnosis of HDN. . ) ( 6TH EDITION BB. 427)
435. The most severe form of HDN occurs when:

a) The mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive.
b) The mother is Rh-positive and the baby is Rh-negative.
c) The mother is O-negative and the baby is O-positive.
d) The mother is AB-positive and the baby is AB-negative.
Answer: a) The mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive.

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Rationale: HDN caused by Rh incompatibility is considered the most severe form due to the high
immunogenicity of the Rh antigen and the potential for significant hemolysis and complications. . ) (
6TH EDITION BB. 427)
436. Which laboratory test is used to determine the severity of HDN and guide appropriate
management?
a) Indirect antiglobulin test (IAT)
b) Kleihauer-Betke test
c) Antibody identification panel
d) Blood type and Rh typing
Answer: b) Kleihauer-Betke test

Rationale: The Kleihauer-Betke test is used to estimate the amount of fetal red blood cells in the
mother's circulation. This helps determine the severity of fetomaternal hemorrhage and guide the
appropriate dosage of RhIg. ) ( 6TH EDITION BB. 427)
437. In addition to Rh incompatibility, which blood group system can also cause HDN?
a) ABO system
b) Kell system
c) Duffy system
d) Lewis system

Rationale: Although less common than Rh incompatibility, ABO incompatibility between the mother
and baby can also cause HDN, particularly in cases where the mother is blood type O and the baby is
type A or B. . ) ( 6TH EDITION BB. 427)
438. A mother with anti-K antibodies gives birth to a K-positive baby. Which blood component
should be used for transfusion in this situation?
a) K-negative packed red blood cells (RBCs)
b) K-positive whole blood
c) K-negative platelets
d) K-positive plasma
Answer: a) K-negative packed red blood cells (RBCs)

Rationale: In cases of Kell incompatibility, the mother's anti-K antibodies may cause significant
hemolysis if transfused K-positive blood components are given. Therefore, K-negative packed RBCs
should be used to avoid further antibody-mediated destruction. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
439. HDN caused by ABO incompatibility is typically:

a) Mild and self-limiting
b) Severe and life-threatening
c) Resistant to treatment
d) Asymptomatic
Answer: a) Mild and self-limiting

Rationale: HDN caused by ABO incompatibility is generally mild and self-limiting. It is less severe
compared to Rh-associated HDN and rarely requires extensive treatment. . ) ( 6TH EDITION BB.
427)
440. Exchange transfusion may be required in severe cases of HDN to:

a) Replace the baby's red blood cells with compatible donor cells.
b) Remove maternal antibodies from the baby's circulation.
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c) Provide additional nutrition and support to the baby.
d) Stimulate the baby's bone marrow to produce more red blood cells.
Answer: a) Replace the baby's red blood cells with compatible donor cells.
Rationale: Exchange transfusion involves removing the baby's blood and replacing it with compatible
donor blood to reduce the concentration of maternal antibodies and prevent further hemolysis. . ( 6TH
EDITION BB. )
441. In HDN due to ABO incompatibility, the antibody primarily responsible for hemolysis is:
a) Anti-A
b) Anti-B
c) Anti-AB
d) Anti-D
Answer: b) Anti-B
Rationale: In ABO incompatibility, if the mother has blood type O and the baby has type A or B, the
mother's naturally occurring anti-A or anti-B antibodies can cause mild hemolysis in the baby.
442. Which blood group system is associated with the antibody anti-c?
a) Rh system
b) Kell system
c) Duffy system
d) Lewis system
Answer: a) Rh system
Rationale: The antibody anti-c is associated with the Rh blood group system. Anti-c can cause
hemolytic reactions in newborns if the mother is lacking the c antigen and produces anti-c antibodies.
443. HDN caused by anti-Kell antibodies can result in severe anemia and:
a) Jaundice
b) Thrombocytopenia
c) Leukocytosis
d) Hypocalcemia
Answer: a) Jaundice
Rationale: HDN caused by anti-Kell antibodies can lead to significant hemolysis and the release of
bilirubin, resulting in jaundice in the newborn. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
444. Which laboratory test is used to detect and identify irregular antibodies in the mother's serum
during pregnancy?
b) Direct antiglobulin test (DAT)
c) Crossmatching
d) Antibody screen
Answer: a) Indirect antiglobulin test (IAT)

Rationale: The IAT is used to detect and identify irregular antibodies in the mother's serum by
incubating it with reagent red blood cells containing known antigens. Agglutination indicates the
presence of specific antibodies. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 106 )
445. Which blood group system is associated with the antibody anti-E?
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a) Rh system
b) Kell system
c) Duffy system
d) Kidd system
Rationale: The antibody anti-E is associated with the Rh blood group system. It can cause hemolytic
reactions in newborns if the mother is lacking the E antigen and produces anti-E antibodies. . ( 6TH
EDITION BB. )
446. HDN caused by anti-D antibodies can lead to the development of:
a) Kernicterus
b) Hemophilia
c) Sickle cell disease
d) Thalassemia
Answer: a) Kernicterus
Rationale: HDN caused by anti-D antibodies can result in severe hemolysis and high levels of
unconjugated bilirubin, which can cross the blood-brain barrier and cause kernicterus, a form of brain
damage. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
447. In cases of severe HDN, intrauterine transfusion may be necessary to:

a) Stimulate fetal red blood cell production
b) Remove maternal antibodies from the fetal circulation
c) Provide immediate treatment for the baby after delivery
d) Prevent further complications in future pregnancies
Answer: b) Remove maternal antibodies from the fetal circulation

Rationale: Intrauterine transfusion involves directly transfusing compatible blood into the fetal
circulation to replace the baby's blood containing maternal antibodies, reducing further hemolysis and
its associated complications. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
448. Which laboratory test is used to determine the fetal blood type during pregnancy?
b) Kleihauer-Betke test
c) Direct antiglobulin test (DAT)
d) Antibody identification panel
Answer: b) Kleihauer-Betke test

Rationale: The Kleihauer-Betke test can be used to estimate the amount of fetal blood in the mother's
circulation and determine the fetal blood type in cases of potential Rh incompatibility. . ( 6TH
EDITION BB. 266 )
449. A newborn presents with jaundice, anemia, and hepatosplenomegaly. The most likely cause is:
a) HDN due to ABO incompatibility
b) HDN due to Rh incompatibility
c) HDN due to Kell incompatibility
d) HDN due to Duffy incompatibility
Answer: b) HDN due to Rh incompatibility

Rationale: Jaundice, anemia, and hepatosplenomegaly are characteristic clinical features of HDN
caused by Rh incompatibility. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
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450. Which blood group system is associated with the antibody anti-K?
a) Rh system
b) Kell system
c) Duffy system
d) Kidd system
Answer: b) Kell system

Rationale: The antibody anti-K is associated with the Kell blood group system. It can cause
significant hemolysis and HDN if the mother lacks the K antigen and produces anti-K antibodies.
451. The treatment of choice for severe HDN is:

a) Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG)
b) Plasmapheresis
c) Phototherapy
d) Exchange transfusion
Answer: d) Exchange transfusion

Rationale: Exchange transfusion is the treatment of choice for severe HDN as it allows for the
removal of maternal antibodies and replacement with compatible donor blood, reducing the risk of
further hemolysis. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
452. HDN caused by anti-D antibodies can be prevented by administering:

a) Rh-positive packed red blood cells (RBCs) to the mother
b) Rh-negative packed RBCs to the mother
c) Rh immunoglobulin (RhIg) to the mother
d) RhIg to the baby
Answer: c) Rh immunoglobulin (RhIg) to the mother

Rationale: Administering RhIg to an Rh-negative mother during and after pregnancy prevents the
mother's immune response to Rh-positive fetal red blood cells, reducing the risk of sensitization and
subsequent HDN in future pregnancies. . ) ( 6TH EDITION BB. 427)
453. Which blood group system is associated with the antibody anti-Fya?
a) Rh system
b) Kell system
c) Duffy system
d) Kidd system
Answer: c) Duffy system

Rationale: The antibody anti-Fya is associated with the Duffy blood group system. It can cause
hemolytic reactions if the mother lacks the Fya antigen and produces anti-Fya antibodies. . ( 6TH
EDITION BB. 195 )
454. HDN caused by anti-c antibodies can result in:

a) Hemoglobinuria
b) Hemophilia
c) Hematuria
d) Hemoptysis
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Answer: c) Hematuria
Rationale: HDN caused by anti-c antibodies can lead to hemolysis and the presence of red blood cells
in the urine, resulting in hematuria. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 427)
455. Which laboratory test is used to determine the baby's blood type and Rh factor at birth?
c) Crossmatching
d) ABO blood typing
Answer: d) ABO blood typing

Rationale: ABO blood typing is typically performed shortly after birth to determine the baby's blood
type and Rh factor. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 427)
456. HDN due to ABO incompatibility is most likely to occur in which scenario?
a) A mother with blood type O and a baby with blood type A
b) A mother with blood type AB and a baby with blood type O
c) A mother with blood type A and a baby with blood type B
d) A mother with blood type B and a baby with blood type AB
Answer: a) A mother with blood type O and a baby with blood type A
Rationale: ABO incompatibility occurs when the mother has naturally occurring antibodies against
the baby's A or B antigens. In this case, a mother with blood type O (anti-A and anti-B antibodies)
and a baby with blood type A (A antigens) can lead to HDN. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
457. Which blood group system is associated with the antibody anti-Jka?
a) Rh system
b) Kell system
c) Duffy system
d) Kidd system

Rationale: The antibody anti-Jka is associated with the Kidd blood group system. It can cause
hemolytic reactions if the mother lacks the Jka antigen and produces anti-Jka antibodies. . ( 6TH
EDITION BB. 197 )
458. A pregnant woman with a history of HDN in a previous pregnancy should receive RhIg at which
time during the current pregnancy?
a) At the beginning of pregnancy
b) At 28 weeks of gestation
c) Within 72 hours after delivery
d) During the second trimester
Answer: c) Within 72 hours after delivery

Rationale: RhIg should be administered within 72 hours after delivery to an Rh-negative mother who
had a previous pregnancy affected by HDN to prevent sensitization to Rh-positive fetal red blood
cells. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
459. HDN caused by anti-Kell antibodies can lead to which complication in the newborn?
a) Renal failure
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b) Liver failure
c) Cardiac abnormalities
d) Neurological damage
Answer: d) Neurological damage

Rationale: HDN caused by anti-Kell antibodies can result in severe hemolysis and high levels of
unconjugated bilirubin, which can cross the blood-brain barrier and cause neurological damage in the
newborn. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
460. Which blood group system is associated with the antibody anti-Fyb?
a) Rh system
b) Kell system
c) Duffy system
d) Kidd system
Answer: c) Duffy system

Rationale: The antibody anti-Fyb is associated with the Duffy blood group system. It can cause
hemolytic reactions if the mother lacks the Fyb antigen and produces anti-Fyb antibodies. . ( 6TH
EDITION BB. 195 )
461. HDN caused by anti-E antibodies is most likely to occur in which scenario?
a) A mother lacking the E antigen and a baby with the E antigen
b) A mother with the E antigen and a baby lacking the E antigen
c) A mother lacking the E antigen and a baby lacking the E antigen
d) A mother with the E antigen and a baby with the E antigen
Answer: a) A mother lacking the E antigen and a baby with the E antigen
Rationale: HDN caused by anti-E antibodies occurs when the mother lacks the E antigen and
produces anti-E antibodies in response to exposure to Rh-positive fetal red blood cells carrying the E
antigen. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
462. Which laboratory test is used to determine the extent of fetal-maternal hemorrhage in Rh-
negative mothers?
c) Crossmatching
d) Kleihauer-Betke test
Answer: d) Kleihauer-Betke test

Rationale: The Kleihauer-Betke test is used to estimate the amount of fetal red blood cells in the
mother's circulation after a fetomaternal hemorrhage, helping determine the appropriate dose of RhIg
to administer.
463. HDN caused by anti-Duffy antibodies can lead to:

a) Hemoglobinuria
b) Hemolytic anemia
c) Hemophilia
d) Hemolytic transfusion reaction
Answer: b) Hemolytic anemia

Rationale: HDN caused by anti-Duffy antibodies can result in significant hemolysis and the
destruction of red blood cells, leading to hemolytic anemia in the newborn. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
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464. Which blood group system is associated with the antibody anti-Lea?
a) Rh system
b) Kell system
c) Duffy system
d) Lewis system

Rationale: The antibody anti-Lea is associated with the Lewis blood group system. It can cause
hemolytic reactions if the mother lacks the Lea antigen and produces anti-Lea antibodies.
465. In cases of severe HDN, which blood component may need to be transfused to the newborn?
a) Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
b) Platelets
c) Cryoprecipitate
d) Packed red blood cells (RBCs)
Answer: d) Packed red blood cells (RBCs)

Rationale: In severe cases of HDN with significant anemia, transfusion of packed RBCs may be
required to replenish the baby's red blood cell count and improve oxygen-carrying capacity.
466. HDN caused by anti-Duffy antibodies is most commonly associated with which population?
a) African
b) Asian
c) Caucasian
d) Hispanic
Answer: a) African
Rationale: HDN caused by anti-Duffy antibodies is most commonly observed in individuals of
African descent, as the Fya and Fyb antigens are less common in this population. . ( 6TH EDITION
BB. 427)
467. Which laboratory test is used to determine the compatibility between the mother's serum and the
baby's red blood cells?
c) Crossmatching
d) Antibody screen
Answer: c) Crossmatching
Rationale: Crossmatching involves mixing the mother's serum with the baby's red blood cells to
determine if any incompatibilities exist. It helps identify specific antibodies and assess the
compatibility of blood components for transfusion.
468. HDN caused by anti-Kidd antibodies can result in which complication in the newborn?
a) Renal failure
b) Liver failure
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Answer: a) Renal failure

Rationale: HDN caused by anti-Kidd antibodies can lead to significant hemolysis and the release of
free hemoglobin, which can cause renal failure in the newborn. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 427)
469. Which blood group system is associated with the antibody anti-C?
a) Rh system
b) Kell system
c) Duffy system
d) Kidd system
Rationale: The antibody anti-C is associated with the Rh blood group system. It can cause hemolytic
reactions if the mother lacks the c antigen and produces anti-c antibodies. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
470. Which laboratory test is used to detect the presence of fetal-maternal hemorrhage in Rh-negative
mothers?
c) Crossmatching
d) Kleihauer-Betke test
Answer: a) Indirect antiglobulin test (IAT)

Rationale: The IAT is used to detect the presence of irregular antibodies in the mother's serum. It can
also be used to detect fetal-maternal hemorrhage in Rh-negative mothers by using anti-D reagent cells
to screen for the presence of fetal Rh-positive cells in the mother's circulation. . ( 6TH EDITION BB.
427)
471. HDN caused by anti-Lea antibodies is most likely to occur in which scenario?
a) A mother lacking the Lea antigen and a baby with the Lea antigen
b) A mother with the Lea antigen and a baby lacking the Lea antigen
c) A mother lacking the Lea antigen and a baby lacking the Lea antigen
d) A mother with the Lea antigen and a baby with the Lea antigen
Answer: b) A mother with the Lea antigen and a baby lacking the Lea antigen
Rationale: HDN caused by anti-Lea antibodies occurs when the mother has naturally occurring anti-
Lea antibodies and the baby lacks the Lea antigen inherited from the father. ( 6TH EDITION BB. 427)
472. Which blood group system is associated with the antibody anti-Jkb?
a) Rh system
b) Kell system
c) Duffy system
d) Kidd system

Rationale: The antibody anti-Jkb is associated with the Kidd blood group system. It can cause
hemolytic reactions if the mother lacks the Jkb antigen and produces anti-Jkb antibodies. . ( 6TH
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EDITION BB. 197 )
473. HDN caused by anti-K antibodies is most likely to occur in which scenario?
a) A mother with blood type O and a baby with blood type A
b) A mother with blood type AB and a baby with blood type O
c) A mother with blood type A and a baby with blood type B
d) A mother with blood type B and a baby with blood type AB
Answer: b) A mother with blood type AB and a baby with blood type O
Rationale: HDN caused by anti-K antibodies can occur when the mother, who has blood type AB,
produces anti-K antibodies in response to exposure to K antigen present on the baby's red blood cells
of blood type O.
474. Which laboratory test is used to detect the presence of maternal antibodies bound to the baby's
red blood cells?
c) Crossmatching
d) Antibody screen
Answer: b) Direct antiglobulin test (DAT)

Rationale: The DAT is used to detect the presence of maternal antibodies that have bound to the
baby's red blood cells. It helps in the diagnosis of HDN and other immune-mediated hemolytic
disorders.
475. HDN caused by anti-Duffy antibodies is most commonly associated with which population?
a) African
b) Asian
c) Caucasian
d) Hispanic
Answer: b) Asian
Rationale: HDN caused by anti-Duffy antibodies is more commonly observed in individuals of Asian
descent, as the Fya and Fyb antigens are more prevalent in this population. . ( 6TH EDITION BB.
427)
476. Which blood group system is associated with the antibody anti-Kpb?
a) Rh system
b) Kell system
c) Duffy system
d) Kidd system

Rationale: The antibody anti-Kpb is associated with the Kell blood group system. It can cause
hemolytic reactions if the mother lacks the Kpb antigen and produces anti-Kpb antibodies. . ( 6TH
EDITION BB. 191 )
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477. HDN caused by anti-Jka antibodies can lead to which complication in the newborn?
a) Neurological damage
b) Liver failure
Answer: c) Cardiac abnormalities

Rationale: HDN caused by anti-Jka antibodies can result in severe hemolysis and high levels of
bilirubin, which can affect the heart and lead to cardiac abnormalities in the newborn. . ( 6TH
EDITION BB. 427)
478. Which laboratory test is used to identify the specificity of maternal antibodies in cases of HDN?
c) Crossmatching
d) Antibody identification panel
Answer: d) Antibody identification panel

Rationale: An antibody identification panel is used to determine the specific antibodies present in the
mother's serum, aiding in the diagnosis and management of HDN by identifying the potential risk to
the newborn. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 427)
479.HDN caused by anti-Kpb antibodies is most likely to occur in which scenario?

a) A mother lacking the Kpb antigen and a baby with the Kpb antigen
b) A mother with the Kpb antigen and a baby lacking the Kpb antigen
c) A mother lacking the Kpb antigen and a baby lacking the Kpb antigen
d) A mother with the Kpb antigen and a baby with the Kpb antigen
Answer: b) A mother with the Kpb antigen and a baby lacking the Kpb antigen
Rationale: HDN caused by anti-Kpb antibodies occurs when the mother has naturally occurring anti-
Kpb antibodies and the baby lacks the Kpb antigen inherited from the father.
480. Which blood group system is associated with the antibody anti-K?
a) Rh system
b) Kell system
c) Duffy system
d) Kidd system

Rationale: The antibody anti-K is associated with the Kell blood group system. It is one of the most
potent antibodies known to cause HDN and can lead to severe hemolysis in affected newborns. . (
6TH EDITION BB. 191)
480. Which blood component is used to restore clotting factors in patients with coagulopathy?
a) Packed red blood cells (PRBCs)
b) Platelets
c) Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
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d) Cryoprecipitate
Answer: c) Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)

Rationale: FFP contains all clotting factors and is used to restore coagulation in patients with
deficiencies or dysfunction of clotting factors. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 324)
481. Which blood component is used to increase the oxygen-carrying capacity in patients with severe
anemia?
b) Platelets
d) Cryoprecipitate
Answer: a) Packed red blood cells (PRBCs)

Rationale: PRBCs contain red blood cells that carry oxygen, and they are transfused to increase the
oxygen-carrying capacity in patients with severe anemia. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
482. Which blood component is used to prevent or control bleeding in patients with
thrombocytopenia?
b) Platelets
d) Cryoprecipitate
Rationale: Platelets are transfused to increase the platelet count and promote clotting in patients with
thrombocytopenia. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
483. Which blood component is rich in fibrinogen and used to control bleeding in patients with
fibrinogen deficiencies?
b) Platelets
d) Cryoprecipitate
Answer: d) Cryoprecipitate
Rationale: Cryoprecipitate contains concentrated fibrinogen, along with other clotting factors, and is
used to treat bleeding in patients with fibrinogen deficiencies. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 353 )
484. What is the recommended temperature for storing fresh whole blood in blood banking?
a) 2-6°C
b) -20°C
c) -40°C
d) -80°C
Answer: a) 2-6°C
Rationale: Fresh whole blood should be stored at temperatures between 2-6°C to maintain the
viability of red blood cells and prevent bacterial growth. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
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485. Which blood component can be stored at -18°C or colder for an extended period?
b) Platelets
d) Cryoprecipitate
Answer: c) Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)

Rationale: FFP can be stored at -18°C or colder for an extended period, typically up to a year, to
preserve clotting factors.
486. Which blood component should be irradiated before transfusion to prevent transfusion-
associated graft-versus-host disease (TA-GVHD)?
b) Platelets
d) Cryoprecipitate

Rationale: PRBCs should be irradiated before transfusion to prevent TA-GVHD, a rare but serious
complication that can occur in immunocompromised patients. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
487. What is the maximum storage duration for PRBCs in blood banking?
a) 14 days
b) 30 days
c) 42 days
d) 56 days
Answer: c) 42 days
Rationale: PRBCs can be stored for a maximum of 42 days, as per standard blood banking guidelines,
to maintain their quality and minimize the risk of bacterial contamination. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
489. Which blood component should be stored at room temperature and transfused within 24 hours?
b) Platelets
d) Cryoprecipitate
Rationale: Platelets should be stored at room temperature and transfused within 24 hours to maintain
their viability and effectiveness.
490. Which blood component is compatible with all blood types and can be used in emergencies
when the patient's blood type is unknown?
b) Platelets
Tel: (045) 982-5019 / 982-5052 / 982-0264 | Fax: (045) 982-2945
d) O-negative whole blood
Answer: d) O-negative whole blood

Rationale: O-negative whole blood is compatible with all blood types and can be used in emergencies
when the patient's blood type is unknown to provide immediate oxygen-carrying capacity. . ( 6TH
EDITION BB. )
491. Which blood component is rich in immunoglobulins and is used for immune globulin
replacement therapy?
b) Platelets
d) Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG)
Answer: d) Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG)

Rationale: IVIG is rich in immunoglobulins and is used for immune globulin replacement therapy in
patients with immunodeficiencies or autoimmune disorders. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
492. What is the recommended temperature for storing platelets in blood banking?
a) 2-6°C
b) -20°C
c) -40°C
d) 22-24°C with agitation
Answer: d) 22-24°C with agitation

Rationale: Platelets should be stored at room temperature (22-24°C) with gentle agitation to maintain
their functionality. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
493. Which blood component requires ABO and Rh compatibility testing before transfusion?
b) Platelets
d) Cryoprecipitate

Rationale: PRBCs require ABO and Rh compatibility testing to ensure compatibility between the
donor's red blood cells and the recipient's blood type. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
494. Which blood component can be stored at -30°C or colder for long-term storage?
b) Platelets
d) Cryoprecipitate
Rationale: Cryoprecipitate can be stored at -30°C or colder for long-term storage, typically up to a
year, to preserve its clotting factors. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 353)
Tel: (045) 982-5019 / 982-5052 / 982-0264 | Fax: (045) 982-2945
495. Which blood component is indicated for the treatment of patients with massive hemorrhage and
significant coagulopathy?
b) Platelets
d) Whole blood
Answer: d) Whole blood

Rationale: Whole blood, which contains red blood cells, platelets, plasma, and clotting factors, is
indicated for the treatment of patients with massive hemorrhage and significant coagulopathy. . ( 6TH
EDITION BB. 323)
496. Which blood component is used for exchange transfusion in newborns with severe
hyperbilirubinemia?
b) Platelets
d) Washed red blood cells

Rationale: PRBCs are used for exchange transfusion in newborns with severe hyperbilirubinemia to
remove the bilirubin-rich blood and replace it with fresh red blood cells. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
497. What is the maximum storage duration for FFP in blood banking?
a) 14 days
b) 30 days
c) 42 days
d) 56 days
Answer: c) 42 days
Rationale: FFP can be stored for a maximum of 42 days, similar to PRBCs, to maintain the viability
of clotting factors and minimize the risk of bacterial contamination.
498. Which blood component requires Rh compatibility testing before transfusion?

b) Platelets
d) Cryoprecipitate
Rationale: Rh compatibility testing is not required for platelets since they do not contain red blood
cells. Platelets can be transfused regardless of the recipient's Rh status. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. )
499. Which blood component is used for the treatment of patients with von Willebrand disease?
Tel: (045) 982-5019 / 982-5052 / 982-0264 | Fax: (045) 982-2945
b) Platelets
d) Cryoprecipitate
Rationale: Cryoprecipitate is rich in von Willebrand factor (vWF) and is used for the treatment of
patients with von Willebrand disease, a bleeding disorder. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 353)
500. What is the recommended storage duration for platelets in blood banking?
a) 3 days
b) 7 days
c) 14 days
d) 30 days
Answer: b) 7 days
Rationale: Platelets have a relatively short storage duration of 7 days to maintain their viability and
functionality. . ( 6TH EDITION BB. 19)

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CENTRAL LUZON DOCTORS’ HOSPITAL

EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTION, INC.

1. Which of the following is not a primary lymphoid organ?

2. Which of the following is responsible for the production of T lymphocytes?

3. Lymph nodes are encapsulated organs that contain:

Answer: c. Both B and T cells

Answer: b. They are the sites of B cell activation and differentiation

5. Which of the following is an example of a secondary lymphoid organ?

Answer: d. Lymph nodes

Answer: b. Peyer's patches

8. The process of antigen presentation occurs primarily in which lymphoid organ?

Answer: b. Lymph nodes

9. Which of the following is a primary function of the lymphoid system?

Answer: d. Immune surveillance and defense

10. The spleen functions in all of the following except:

Answer: b. Production of red blood cells

Answer: d. Bursa of Fabricius

12. The lymphatic system helps in the absorption of:

14. Which of the following is not a function of lymphocytes?

Answer: c. Foreign antigens

17. Which of the following is an example of a lymphoid malignancy?

18. Which of the following is an example of a cytokine produced by lymphocytes?

19. The process of lymphocyte homing refers to:

Answer: a. Migration of lymphocytes to lymphoid organs

Answer: b. Lupus erythematosus

Answer: a. Recognize self-antigens

Answer: d. Lymph nodes

24. Which of the following is not a type of lymphocyte?

25. The lymphatic system plays a role in the transport of:

26. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of the lymphoid system?

Answer: d. Lymphocyte maturation and differentiation

Answer: a. Destruction of foreign pathogens

28. Which of the following is a primary function of the lymph nodes?

Answer: d. Immune cell activation and proliferation

30. Which of the following is an example of a lymphocyte surface marker?

Answer: d. Circulatory system

32. Which of the following is an example of a secondary lymphoid organ?

33. The process of clonal expansion in lymphocytes refers to:

Answer: b. The proliferation of specific antigen-responsive lymphocytes

34. Which of the following is an example of a lymphoid malignancy affecting B cells?

Answer: c. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

35. The process of lymphopoiesis refers to the:

Answer: b. Production of lymphocytes in the bone marrow

36. Which of the following cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity?

Answer: c. Dendritic cells

37. The lymphatic vessels contain specialized structures called lymphatic:

Answer: d. Transporting immune cells and antigens

40. Which of the following is a function of lymphoid follicles in lymph nodes?

Answer: b. Production of lymphocytes

42. Which of the following is a function of the thymus gland?

Answer: b. Maturation of T cells

Answer: b. Absorbing excess tissue fluid

45. Which of the following is an example of an antigen-presenting cell?

Answer: b. Lack a muscular layer

48. Which of the following is an example of an immune response mediated by B cells?

Answer: c. Antibody production

49. The lymphatic system is involved in the transport of:

Answer: d. Interstitial fluid

Answer: d. Peyer's patches