Lecture 01

The ____ immune system uses ____ as well as molecules (e.g. complement components).
The ____ immune system uses ____ as well as antigen recognition molecules.
Adaptive; Phagocytes; Innate; Lymphocytes
Innate; Phagocytes; Adaptive; Lymphocytes
Adaptive; Lymphocytes; Innate; Phagocytes
Innate; Lymphocytes; Adaptive; Phagocytes

Phagocytic white cells (leukocytes, e.g. macrophages) congregate within ____ when foreign
organisms get through a cut in the skin.
Microseconds
Seconds
Minutes
Hours

Which of the following mediates an early response to viral infections by the innate immune
system?
Complement components
T and B lymphocytes
Interferons
Cytokines

Which of the following is a messenger that mediates the connection between the innate and
adaptive immune systems?
Cytokines
Complement components
T and B lymphocytes
Interferons

Which of the following immune system components would NOT recognize a macromolecule
epitope (binding site)?
T lymphocyte
Phagocyte
B lymphocyte
Antibody
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A medical student acquired hepatitis B through a needle-stick injury. The student had not
received their vaccinations for this virus and eventually experienced liver problems. One of
the clinical signs of this disease is jaundice, which turns the skin and sclera what color?
Blue
Red
White
Yellow

Adaptive immune system response typically takes how long?

Seconds
Days
Hours
Minutes

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the innate immune system?

A. Specificity
B. First line of defense
C. Phagocytosis
D. Inflammation

Physical barriers like skin and mucous membranes are examples of:
A. Cellular immunity
B. Acquired immunity
C. Humoral immunity
D. Memory response

Interferons are proteins produced by virus-infected cells. They primarily function to:
A. Activate complement cascade
B. Produce antibodies
C. Enhance phagocytosis
D. Develop memory B cells

Which of the following correctly describes the role of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) in the
immune response?
A. They directly eliminate pathogens.
B. They produce antibodies.
C. They are memory cells.
D. They present antigens to T lymphocytes.

The ability of the adaptive immune system to mount a faster and stronger response upon
subsequent encounters with the same antigen is called:
A. Tolerance

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B. Immunological memory
C. Phagocytosis
D. Immunodeficiency

B lymphocytes differentiate into plasma cells, which are responsible for producing:
A. Cytokines
B. Perforin and granzymes
C. Antibodies
D. Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs) are involved in:

A. Antibody production
B. Allergic reactions
C. Direct killing of infected cells
D. Complement activation

Which of the following statements about vaccines is FALSE?

A. They provide forever immunity against specific diseases.
B. They contain weakened or inactive forms of pathogens.
C. They can stimulate the development of immunological memory.
D. They activate both innate and adaptive immune responses.

Autoimmune diseases arise when:

A. Vaccines are not effective enough.
B. The innate immune system becomes overactive.
C. The immune system fails to recognize self-antigens.
D. The body lacks sufficient antibodies.

Which of the following pairs correctly matches an immune system component with its
development origin?
A. T lymphocytes - Bone marrow
B. B lymphocytes - Thymus
C. Macrophages - Thymus
D. Helper T lymphocytes - Spleen

è Both B and T lymphocytes originate in the bone marrow but only B lymphocytes mature there
è B lymphocytes develop in the Bone Marrow; T lymphocytes develop in the Thymus

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Lecture 0
2
You enter a dusty room, feel an itch in your nose, and sneeze. This is an example of the
operation of which of the following innate immune mechanism?
Phagocytosis by macrophages
The released granular contents of your granulocytes
The physical barrier produced by hairs
Mucus combined with the movement of cilia of the lining cells

Some of the dust particles are not expelled by the sneeze and make their way further down the
respiratory tract but not yet into the alveolar space. Here their elimination is the job of which of
the following?
The released granular contents of your granulocytes
Mucus combined with the movement of cilia of the lining cells
Phagocytosis by macrophages
The physical barrier produced by hairs

A rare small dust particle reaches the alveolus (small terminal air sac where gas exchange
occurs). At this anatomical site, you are protected by which of the following?
The released granular contents of your granulocytes
The physical barrier produced by hairs
Phagocytosis by macrophages
Mucus combined with the movement of cilia of the lining cells

Which of the following is a distinction between the innate and adaptive immune systems?
The ability of the cells of only one system to produce cytokines
The capacity for exquisite antigenic specificity in only one system
The capacity of only one system to recognize virally infected cells
The ability of cells of only one system to mediate cell cytotoxicity

In order for a cell to ingest whole bacteria, the cell may employ which of the following?
Pinocytosis
Cytokines
Antibodies and/or some complement components KIRs

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When an individual encounters Gram-negative bacteria (if the organisms survive the physical
and chemical barriers), they may be recognized on first encounter by the innate immune system
via which of the following?
Toll-like receptors (TLRs)
Coagulation cascade components
Antibodies
The membrane attack complex (MAC)

Which of the following cell types of the innate immune system does not perform phagocytosis?
Basophils
Neutrophils
Macrophages
Eosinophils

Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell involved in the immune response. Which of the
following best describes the role of neutrophils in phagocytosis?
They primarily produce antibodies to neutralize pathogens.
They activate the complement cascade to enhance opsonization.
They engulf and destroy foreign particles, including bacteria.
They differentiate into memory cells for long-term immunity.

Macrophages are versatile immune cells involved in phagocytosis. Which of the following
statements about macrophage phagocytosis is FALSE?
A. Macrophages use reactive oxygen species (ROS) to kill engulfed pathogens.
B. Macrophages can present antigens on their surface to activate T lymphocytes.
C. Macrophages can migrate throughout the body to locate and eliminate pathogens.
D. Macrophages can undergo cell division to increase their numbers at sites of infection.

Macrophage recognition of pathogens for phagocytosis can occur through several

mechanisms. Which of the following is NOT a way macrophages recognize pathogens?
A. Recognition of opsonized pathogens (coated with antibodies or complement proteins)
B. Recognition of apoptotic (dying) host cells
C. Binding to pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) on the pathogen surface
D. Interaction with phagocytic receptors on the macrophage surface

There are three main activation pathways for the complement system: classical, lectin, and
alternative. Which pathway is initiated by the binding of antibodies to antigens on a
pathogen?
A. Lectin pathway
B. Classical pathway
C. Alternative pathway
D. All of the above

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Lecture 0
Complement activation can cause inflammation. Which of the following is a mediator
released during complement activation that contributes to inflammation?
A. C1q
B. Properdin
C. C3a
D. C9
Which of the following is NOT a step in phagocytosis?
A. Destruction of microbes via reactive oxygen species (ROS) and nitrous oxide
B. Binding of microbes to phagocyte receptors
C. Release of antigen components in vesicles for analysis by dendritic cells
D. Incorporation of microbes into specialized lysosomes (phagolysosomes)

Which of the following is TRUE about the complement activation pathways?

A. There are two activation pathways: classical and alternative
B. The classical pathway is considered “always on”
C. All pathways feed through C3 convertase
D. Only the alternative pathway leads to opsonization of pathogens

What is one way in which the complement cascade is regulated?

A. Through negative regulators such as Decay Accelerating Factor (DAF) and CD59
B. Terminal complement components lead to negative feedback regulation
C. The cascade is always active, and does not require active regulation
D. Cells affected by complement cascades undergo apoptosis afterwards

3
Which of the following does not occur during an inflammatory response?
Local blood clotting
Decreased vascular permeability
Endothelial cell activation
Extravasation of leukocytes into inflamed tissue

Flagellin is a protein found in all flagellated bacteria and is therefore considered a PAMP.
True
False

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Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns (PAMPs): chemical motifs associated with non-
mammalian pathogens that are highly conserved -> LPS, Flagellin, Single stranded RNA,
Hypomethylated CpG DNA
Which of the following components of the innate immune system involves cytokines produced
by macrophages, which are produced during infection?
Complement system
Oxygen-dependent and independent killing
Interferons
Acute phase proteins

In many cases a wound to the skin will result in an infection of Staphylococcus aureus bacteria.
Four hours after the wound occurs, one million neutrophils could typically be found at the site of
infection, and this number might increase fivefold over the following 14 hours. In such instances,
these neutrophils:
are essential for activating the adaptive immune response.
accumulate due to recruitment of neutrophils from the blood into the tissue.
are derived from monocytes in the blood that differentiate into neutrophils in the tissue.
are important in patrolling the blood vessel endothelium for injury.

Which of the following is NOT true regarding the complement system?

A. They attract phagocytes to both foreign material and self cells.
B. They can bind to bacteria, making holes in their membrane.
C. Binding of Maman-binding lectines (MBLs) to a bacterial capsule triggers the
complement cascade.
D. They help to eliminate immune complexes (antibody-antigen) and prevent them from
damaging the body.

Match the following innate immune system cell types with their function:
1) Eosinophils a) Phagocytosis and bacteriocidal mechanisms, antigen
presentation
2) Macrophages b) Lysis of some virally infected cells
3) Tissue mast cells c) Killing parasites
4) Natural killer cells d) Release of histamine and other
mediators
5) Neutrophils e) Phagocytosis and bacteriocidal
mechanisms
1c 2a 3d 4b 5e
Eosinophils -> Killing parasites

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Lecture 0
Macrophages -> Phagocytosis and bacteriocidal mechanisms, antigen presentation
Tissue mast cells -> Release of histamine and other mediators
Natural killer cells à Lysis of some virally infected cells
Neutrophils -> Phagocytosis and bacteriocidal mechanisms

Match the following charateristics with the appropriate antigen presenting cells (APCs):
1) Macrophages a) critical in uptake and presentation of
antigen to T cells
2) Dendritic cells b) having immunoglobulin that functions as
a receptor, then the antigen is internalized,
degraded, and presented to T cells
3) B cells c) specialized for degradation and
presentation of particulate antigens to T cells
1c 2a 3b
Macrophages -> specialized for degradation and presentation of particulate antigens to T cells
Dendrictic cells -> critical in uptake and presentation of antigen to T cells
B cells -> having immunoglobulin that functions as a receptor, than the antigen is internalized,
degraded, and presented to T cells

4
Which one of the following is a primary lymphoid organ:
Lymph nodes
Spleen
Thymus
Tonsil

The thoracic duct

Directly drains the lymph nodes.
Forms the interface between the lymph and blood Transports
T-cells from the bone marrow to the thymus.
Is a part of the lamina propria.

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When antigen reaches a lymph node in a primed animal:

There is an increase in the output of cells in the efferent lymphatics over the following
24h.
There is an immediate output of activated blast cells.
There is a decrease in the output of cells in the efferent lymphatics over the following
24h.
It is all immediately destroyed by macrophages.

The specialized cell type involved in the entry of lymphocytes into lymph nodes are called:
M-cells
HEV endothelial cells
PALS
Selectins

The tingible bodies inside germinal center macrophages are:

A sign of macrophage apoptosis.
Phagocytosed foreign antigen.
DNA fragments.
Bacterial cell wall components resistant to degradation.

The paracortical area of a lymph node comprises mainly:

T-cells
Plasma cells
Macrophages
B-cells

Which of the following lymphoid tissues is unencapsulated:

Thymus
Lymph node
Spleen
MALT

Which of the following functions are macrophages unable to carry out:

Antigen presentation to activate cells.
Phagocytosis.
Antigen processing.
T-cell priming

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Lecture 0

The thoracic duct:

A. Forms the interface between the lymph and blood
B. Enters the spleen
C. Transports T-cells from the bone marrow to the thymus
D. Is a part of the lamina propria

5
A standard immunoglobulin molecule is composed of:
2 heavy chains (which is identical) and 2 light chains (which is different)
2 heavy chains (identical) and 2 light chains (identical)
2 heavy chains (different) and 2 light chains (identical)
2 heavy (different) and 2 light chains (different)
Which statement best describes the characteristics of fragment antigen-binding (Fab):
Binds antigen
is generated by separation of immunoglobin chains (heavy and light chains) lacks
of light chains
does not have interchain disulfide bonds
Which statement best describes IgE
antibody?
Abundant in saliva
Can't bind to macrophages
Strongly binds to mast cells
Does not play important role in worm infestations
The idiotypes of immunoglobulin (Ig) are found::
In both heavy and light chains (variable region)
In the constant region of the light chain
In the constant region of the heavy chain
Only in the light chain
Which statement is not a characteristic of IgG?
Neutralization of bacterial toxins
Was created early in primary immune response
Able to go through human placenta
Opsonization of bacteria
Which statement best describes a characteristic of IgA?
Doest not have J-chain

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Has no secretory piece

Can't bind to neutrophils
Is dimeric
Which of the statement best describe IgM?
Usually has high intrinsic affinity
The major class of natural antibodies
Weak bacterial agglutination effect
Tetrameric (most common)
Which of the statement best describe IgD?
Frequently present as a surface receptor of B-cells
Resist to proteolytic degradation
Pentameric
Rich in milk
The low affinity FcγRII IgG receptor:

Has a glycosyl phosphatidylinositol (GPI) anchor

Binds monomeric IgE

Avidly binds monomeric IgG

Binds aggregated IgG

Is not present on macrophages

Recombination of V, D, and J Ig gene segments:

Only occurs in mature B-cells

Only occurs in light chains

Involves heptamer-spacer-heptamer flanking sequences

Does not occur until the mRNA stage

Is effected by recombinase enzymes

Which of the following gene clusters do NOT contribute to antigen binding?

VL
CL
VH
D
J

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Lecture 0
The complementarity determining regions (CDRs):

Are restricted to light chains

Are in the constant part of the Ig molecule

Bind to Fc receptors

Are concerned in antigen recognition

Occur at the C-terminal end of the Ig peptide chains

With reference to the variable Ig domain, which of the following statements is FALSE?

It mediates the secondary consequences of antigen recognition

It has anti-parallel beta-pleated sheet structures

It uses beta-turn loops to bind antigen

It has an extra long beta-turn relative to constant region domains

It has a typical Ig fold with an intra-chain disulfide bond

Which of the following Fc receptors has the highest affinity?

CD64

FcγRII

CD16

FcϵRI

CD23

Cleavage of IgG by papain produces:

Divalent antigen binding fragments

Isolated light chains

Isolated heavy chains

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F(ab′)2

Fab

What is the approximate number of D segment genes in the immunoglobulin heavy chain
gene locus?

40

23

A given Ig isotype is:

A heavy chain variant encoded by allelic genes

A light chain constant region encoded by allelic genes

Present in all normal individuals

A collection of hypervariable region epitopes recognized by an anti-idiotype

Monoclonal

The Fab region of an Ig is responsible for:

C1q fixation

Binding to antigen

Binding to Fc receptors

Binding to macrophages

The ability of Ig to cross the human placenta

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Lecture 0

6
Which of the following is a unique property of the adaptive immune system?
Self-nonself discrimination
Recognition of microbial structures by both cell-associated and soluble receptors
Highly diverse repertoire of specificities for antigens
Protection against viral infections

In a mouse model of a human disease, the Rag genes are knocked out (deleted). Which of the
following is the expected antibody response in that animal?
Increased
Absent
IgM only
IgE only

B cell is able to make cell-surface and secreted versions of antibody using:

Different gene pools
Alternative splicing
Different light chains without heavy chain
F(ab’)2 fragments

Recombination of V, D, and J Ig gene segments:

Is effected by recombinase enzymes
Only occurs in mature B-cells
Only occurs in light chains
Does not occur until the mRNA stage

MATCHING

Let’s match the structure with the correct description.

1. A proteolytic fragment of an antibody molecule that contains an intact antigen- binding site
2. A three-dimensional shape, formed by a portion of a macromolecule, to which an antibody
binds
3. A small chemical group recognized by an antibody that is attached to a larger macromolecule
4. The proteolytic fragment of an antibody molecule that contains the heavy chain constant
region

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5. A region of an antibody molecule that permits bivalent binding of antibodies to pairs of

surface epitopes varying in distance from one another.

A. Conformational determinant
B. Linear determinant
C. Neoantigenic determinant
D. Hinge region
E. Immunocomplex
F. Fab
G. Fc
H. Tail piece
I. Hapten

1. Fab: A proteolytic fragment of an antibody molecule that contains an intact antigen-

binding site
2. Conformation determinant: A three-dimensional shape, formed by a portion of a
macromolecule, to which an antibody binds
3. Hapten: A small chemical group recognized by an antibody that is attached to a larger
macromolecule
4. Fc: The proteolytic fragment of an antibody molecule that contains the heavy chain
constant region
5. Hingle region: A region of an antibody molecule that permits bivalent binding of
antibodies to pairs of surface epitopes varying in distance from one another.

1F 2A 3I 4G 5D
Which of the following statements about the structure of an antibody is NOT true
regarding its role in specificity?
A) The antigen-binding fragment (Fab) contains the variable region, which determines antigen
recognition.
B) The heavy chain contributes no variability to antigen binding.
C) The constant region of the antibody mediates effector functions like complement activation.
D) Each antibody molecule has two antigen-binding sites, allowing binding to bivalent antigens.
How does V(D)J recombination contribute to the diversity of the antibody repertoire?
A) It randomly rearranges segments of DNA coding for the variable region of the heavy and
light chains.
B) It introduces random mutations during B cell development, creating unique antibody
specificities.
C) It controls the expression of different antibody classes (IgG, IgA, etc.) in B cells.

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Lecture 0
D) It determines the presence or absence of co-receptor molecules on B cell surfaces.

Which of the following statements about the Ig heavy chain locus is NOT true?
A) The Ig heavy chain locus contains multiple variable (V), diversity (D), and joining (J) gene
segments that are rearranged during B cell development.
B) All B cells in the body express the same rearranged Ig heavy chain gene.
C) The rearrangement process generates a vast diversity of possible heavy chain sequences,
contributing to the immense variety of antibodies.
D) The constant (C) region of the heavy chain determines the class of antibody produced (IgG,
IgA, etc.).
How does clonal selection explain the development of B cells with high-affinity antibodies?
A) B cells with low-affinity antigen receptors are preferentially selected for survival and
proliferation.
B) B cells with high-affinity antigen receptors are preferentially selected for survival and
proliferation.
C) B cells that bind antigen weakly are signaled to undergo class switching.
D) B cells with self-reactive receptors are positively selected for differentiation into plasma cells.

How does the process of class switching contribute to the diversity of antibody effector
functions?
A) It controls the lifespan of circulating antibodies by targeting them for degradation.
B) It modifies the antigen-binding fragment (Fab) to recognize different epitopes on the same
antigen.
C) It increases the overall number of antibodies produced by a single B cell clone.
D) It allows B cells to express different isoforms of the heavy chain, leading to variations in the
Fc region.
Which molecule plays a crucial role in presenting processed antigen fragments to T cells
and initiating the adaptive immune response?
A) Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecule
B) Toll-like receptor (TLR)

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C) Immunoglobulin (Ig) molecule

D) Cytokine
How does negative selection in the thymus prevent the development of self-reactive T cells?
A) T cells with low affinity for self-antigens are preferentially selected for survival.
B) T cells that fail to interact with MHC molecules on thymic epithelial cells are eliminated.
C) T cells with high affinity for self-antigens are negatively selected for survival.
D) T cells that recognize foreign antigens are signaled to undergo apoptosis.
Within an antibody molecule, which region is primarily responsible for recognizing and
binding to specific antigens?
A) Variable region (Fab)
B) Hinge region
C) Constant region (Fc)
D) J chain
What process during B cell development contributes most significantly to the vast diversity
of antibody specificities?
A) Somatic hypermutation
B) V(D)J recombination
C) Class switching
D) Affinity maturation
How do the antigen-binding sites of an antibody molecule interact with an antigen?
A) Covalently bond to specific functional groups on the antigen.
B) Directly cleave the antigen molecule, rendering it inactive.
C) Form weak, non-covalent interactions like hydrogen bonds and van der Waals forces.
D) Trigger the immediate lysis of the antigen-presenting cell.

What is the role of somatic hypermutation in the process of affinity maturation?

A) It eliminates B cells with low-affinity antigen receptors.
B) It introduces random mutations in the variable region genes of B cells that have encountered
antigen.

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Lecture 0
C) It controls the lifespan of circulating antibodies.
D) It determines the class (IgG, IgA, etc.) of antibody produced by a B cell.
How does clonal selection contribute to the development of a strong humoral immune
response?
A) It selects B cells with high-affinity antigen receptors for expansion and antibody production.
B) It eliminates B cells that require T cell help for activation.
C) It promotes the survival and proliferation of B cells with low-affinity antigen receptors.
D) It induces class switching in B cells to produce different antibody classes.
What is the main difference between the antigen-binding fragment (Fab) and the constant
region (Fc) of an antibody molecule?
A) The Fab region is composed of two heavy chains, while the Fc region contains two light
chains.
B) The Fab region is responsible for antigen recognition, while the Fc region mediates effector
functions.
C) The Fab region is highly variable, while the Fc region is absolutely constant across different
antibody classes.
D) The Fab region is hydrophobic and interacts with the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane.
How does class switching affect the function of an antibody?
A) It alters the antigen-binding specificity of the antibody.
B) It changes the effector functions mediated by the Fc region of the antibody.
C) It modifies the affinity of the antibody for its target antigen.
D) It determines the lifespan of the circulating antibody molecule.
Memory B cells are essential for long-term immunity because they:
A) Continuously secrete low levels of antibodies even in the absence of antigen.
B) Directly lyse infected cells upon encountering the antigen.
C) Can rapidly differentiate into plasma cells upon re-exposure to the same antigen, producing a
stronger antibody response.
D) Present processed antigen fragments to T cells for activation.

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The first immunoglobulin heavy chain class to be expressed on the surface of a newly produced
B-cell is:

IgA
IgD
IgE
IgG
IgM

7
B cells are stimulated by which way?
B cells are more likely to respond to self antigens when they are coated by complement
fragments.
BCR aggregation leads to phosphorylation of ITAM motifs on Ig-alpha and Ig-beta –
which when phosphorylated provide docking sites for Src kinase (and potentially other
kinases).
B cells make no changes in the expression of pertinent genes regulated by transcription
factors such as NF-kB.

Heterodimer Ig𝛼−Ig𝛽 hasn’t important role in B cell activation.

What is the meaning of thymus independent B-cell activation?

T cell doesn’t participate in the activation.

Do not mature in the thymus
Thymus would not take part in its activation
Affinity maturation takes place in the thymus

Which of the following does not participate in isotype switching?

BCR & CD40
AID
Complement fragments
Cytokine

In the creation of “hybridoma” for monoclonal antibody production we can see:

The hybridization of B cells and B cells
The hybridization of B cells and T cells
The hybridization of B cell and NK cells

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Lecture 0
The hybridization of B cells and dendritic cells

Long-lived humoral immunity is mediated by which of the following?

Both antigen-induced memory B cells and long-lasting T-independent B cells
Both antigen-induced memory B cells and long-lived plasma cells
Both long-lived plasma cells and long-lasting antigen presenting cells
Both long lasting CD4+ T-cells and long-lasting antigen presenting cells

Affinity maturation needs which of the following?

BCR, CD28, AID
BCR and resting CD4+ T-cells
AID, resting CD4+ T-cells, plasma cells
BCR, CD40, AID

Mark a co-receptor needed for the activation of B-cell:

CD28
CD19
IL-2
IgA

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Application Exercises
Lecture 01
Which of the following is NOT a step in phagocytosis?
Release of antigen components in vesicles for analysis by dendritic cells
Destruction of microbes via reactive oxygen species (ROS) and nitrous oxide
Binding of microbes to phagocyte receptors
Incorporation of microbes into specialized lysosomes (phagolysosomes)

How does CD40 relate to macrophage activation?

It functions to enhance production of growth factors in macrophages
It amplifies the function of tissue resident macrophages
CD40 and Toll-like receptor-4 (TLR4) form a receptor for lipopolysaccharides
(LPS), which induces pro-inflammatory cytokine production
CD40 is a cytokine related to adaptive immunity; it has no innate function

Which of the following is true about the complement activation pathways?

There are two activation pathways: classical and alternative

The classical pathway is considered “always on”

All pathways feed through C3 convertase
Only the alternative pathway leads to opsonization of pathogens

What is one way in which the complement cascade is regulated?

Terminal complement components lead to negative feedback regulation
The cascade is always active, and does not require active regulation
Cells affected by complement cascades undergo apoptosis afterwards

Through negative regulators such as DAF and CD59

2
Which of the following is NOT a step in phagocytosis?

Release of antigen components in vesicles for analysis by dendritic cells

Destruction of microbes via reactive oxygen species (ROS) and nitrous oxide
Binding of microbes to phagocyte receptors
Incorporation of microbes into specialized lysosomes (phagolysosomes)

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Lecture 0

How does CD40 relate to macrophage activation?

It functions to enhance production of growth factors in macrophages

It amplifies the function of tissue resident macrophages
CD40 and Toll-like receptor-4 (TLR4) form a receptor for lipopolysaccharides
(LPS), which induces pro-inflammatory cytokine production
CD40 is a cytokine related to adaptive immunity; it has no innate function

Which of the following is true about the complement activation pathways?

There are two activation pathways: classical and alternative

The classical pathway is considered “always on”

All pathways feed through C3 convertase
Only the alternative pathway leads to opsonization of pathogens

What is one way in which the complement cascade is regulated?

Terminal complement components lead to negative feedback regulation

The cascade is always active, and does not require active regulation
Cells affected by complement cascades undergo apoptosis afterwards
Through negative regulators such as DAF and CD59

3
Which of the following is NOT a type of pattern recognition receptor (PRR)?

CD40
Nod-like receptors
Toll-like receptors
C-type lectin receptors

What is the difference between PAMPs and DAMPs?

DAMPs include flagellin and ssRNA, while PAMPs include uric acid and HMGB1
PAMPs correspond to pathogens, while DAMPs correspond to damaged cells

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Lecture 0
Only PAMPs are recognized by PRRs; DAMPs are used in adaptive immunity
PAMPs are ligands that are generally mammalian in origin

The inflammasome leads to IL-1β production, which plays what role in immunity?
Directly induces fever
Cleaves and activates caspase-1
Dampens the inflammasome in a negative feedback loop
Presents antigens to the adaptive immune system

Which of the following is true about signal 2 (CD28-L) in dendritic cell communication?
CD28 ligand contains antigens phagocytosed by dendritic cells
Both signal 1 and signal 2 are required for T cell activation
CD28 ligand is responsible for production of proinflammatory cytokines
Signal 2 is constitutively expressed in dendritic cells

4
Which of the following correctly matches a barrier surface with an associated defense?
Skin ~ eosinophils
Lung ~ NK cells
Gut ~ IgA-secreting plasma cells
Cardiac ~ tissue-resident macrophages

Following WBC binding to selectin and a chemokine, what is the next step in leukocyte invasion
of infected tissues?
Induction of proinflammatory cytokines and complement fragments
Transmigration into the site of infection
Phagocytosis of antigens at the epithelial surface
Attachment to the endothelium, solidified by an integrin

What is the timeframe for steady-state circulation of naïve lymphocytes?

1-2 hours
1-2 days

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Lecture 0
1-2 weeks
1-2 months

In the lymph node, which compartment is most rich in B cells?

Medulla
Follicles
Paracortex Capsule

5
Adding excess free epitope to a pre-existing Ab-Ag complex causes the precipitate to resolve.
What is the significance of this finding?
It shows that antibodies must have at least two Ag specific binding sites
It shows that antibodies can change epitope sites depending on the Ag present
It shows that antibody-antigen interactions are dynamic and reversible
It shows that antibody-antigen binding with slow off rates are more effective
Which region of the antibody structure is important for antigen binding?
C-terminal regions
N-terminal regions
Disulfide bonds
CD28-L
Which type of antibody is the dominant form produced in early antibody responses?
IgG
IgE
IgM
IgD
Which of the following antibody functions can be completed without the activity of other host
cells or molecules?
Neutralization
Opsonization
Ab-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity
Histamine release

6
What is one reason that the secondary immune response is more protective?

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The secondary response uses more potent IgE antibodies
All antigen receptors on a lymphocyte have identical specificity
There are greater numbers of responding clones
The secondary immune response affects more commonly seen pathogens

Which of the following statements about VDJ recombination is NOT true?

VDJ recombination is based off of complete Ig genes in the germ line
Recombination always occurs in heavy chains before light chains
Rag1 and Rag2 are key enzymes for beginning VDJ recombination
VDJ recombination involves DNA, and is separate from RNA splicing

What is the function of the Pre-B cell receptor?

It binds to DNA signal sequences next to every V, D, and J gene segment
It signals for proliferation and differentiation of B cells
It allows for the recombination of immunoglobulin heavy chains It
is necessary for the progression of Pre-B cells to Pro-B cells

7
What is the role of complement in B cell receptor (BCR) signaling?
Activation of complement receptors lowers the BCR signal threshold
Complement phosphorylates Ig-alpha and Ig-beta, creating kinase docking sites
Complement leads to increased cell surface aggregation of BCR
The presence of complement directly changes the expression of NF-kB

Which of the following is NOT an outcome of B cell activation?

Induction of memory B cells
Induction of plasma cells
Release of cytokine IL-4
Affinity maturation

What is the primary purpose of the germinal center light zone?

To act as a highly enriched area for proliferative B cells
To develop antigen depots for activation of B cells in the body
To select B cells with high affinity to antigen-specific T cells

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To decrease autoimmunity by killing self-reacting B cells

What is the significance of polysaccharide antigens?

They fail to induce an effective memory response
They have especially high affinity for T cell receptors
They induce a large amount of Ig heavy chain class switching
They are not recognized by our immune system at all

Lecture 9
Which of the following is NOT a component of the T-cell receptor complex?
A. CD19
B. CD3
C. α and β chain
D. CD40L

Coreceptor CD3 is used to bind antigen.

A. True
B. False

Name the syndrome occurs in children due to deficiency of the thymus.

A. DiGeorge syndrome
B. Gigantism
C. Cushing syndrome
D. Acromegaly

Which of the following steps is NOT involved in the activation of T-cell?

A. CD28 of TCR interacts with B7 of APC
B. Foreign peptide bound to MHC provide signals
C. Double positive cell converts to single positive T-cell
D. CD23 has ITAM, which transducer signals

Name the cytokines which act as a T-cell growth factor?

A. IL-3
B. IL-2
C. IL-4
D. IL-5

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Cytokinin which acts as a growth factor of B-cell is________
A. IFNγ
B. IL-10
C. TNFβ
D. IL-13

Mark the correct role of cytotoxic T-cells.

A. Help in B-cell activation
B. Produce cytotoxin
C. Proliferate T-cell
D. Kill the target cell

Name the major constituents of cytotoxic T-lymphocyte?

A. Lysozyme
B. Lymph
C. Perforin and granzyme
D. Protein

Which of the following is NOT a primary signal for T cell activation?

A. Antigen presentation by antigen-presenting cells (APCs)
B. Co-stimulatory molecules interaction
C. Cytokine secretion by T cells
D. T cell receptor (TCR) recognition of antigen

Which molecule acts as a co-stimulatory signal for T cell activation?

A. CD28
B. CD8
C. CD4
D. CD3

Which enzyme is responsible for the phosphorylation of immunoreceptor tyrosine-based

activation motifs (ITAMs) in TCR signaling?
A. PLC-γ1 (phospholipase C-gamma 1)
B. ZAP-70 (zeta-chain-associated protein kinase 70)
C. PI3K (phosphoinositide 3-kinase)
D. Lck (lymphocyte-specific protein tyrosine kinase)

Which cytokine is critical for the differentiation of naïve CD4+ T cells into Th1 cells?
A. IL-4 (interleukin-4)
B. IL-10 (interleukin-10)

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C. IL-12 (interleukin-12)
D. IL-17 (interleukin-17)

What is the primary role of cytotoxic T cells in the host body?

A. Production of antibodies
B. Killing of infected or abnormal cells
C. Phagocytosis of pathogens
D. Regulation of inflammatory responses

Which type of transplant rejection is primarily mediated by T cells?

A. Hyperacute rejection
B. Antibody-mediated rejection
C. Chronic rejection
D. Acute rejection

Which of the following mechanisms is NOT involved in T cell-mediated transplant

rejection?
A. Direct allorecognition
B. Complement activation
C. Indirect allorecognition
D. Cytokine release

Mark the correct role of cytosolic T-cells.

a) Help in B-cell activation
b) Produce cytotoxin
c) Proliferate T-cell
d) Kill the target cell

Name the major constituents of cytotoxic T-lymphocyte?

a) Lysozyme
b) Lymph
c) Protein
d) Perforin and granzyme

Name the cytokines which act as a T-cell growth factor?

a) IL-3
b) IL-2
c) IL-4
d) IL-5

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Name the syndrome occurs in children due to deficiency of the thymus.
a) Acromegaly
b) Gigantism
c) Cushing syndrome
d) DiGeorge syndrome

Which of the tracing is NOT the role of T-cell receptor complex?

a) α and β chain
b) CD3
c) CD19
d) CD40L

Which of the following steps is NOT involved in the activation of T-cell?

a) Double positive cell converts to single positive T-cell
b) Foreign peptide bound to MHC provide signals
c) CD28 of TCR interacts with B7 of APC
d) CD23 has ITAM, which transducer signals

Coreceptor CD3 is used to bind antigen.

a) True
b) False
Lecture 10
What is immunological tolerance?

A. The ability of the immune system to recognize foreign germs and attack them
B. The ability of the immune system to recognize self from non-self or altered
self
C. The ability of the immune system to remove lymphocytes that recognize
foreign antigen
D. The ability of the immune system to produce only lymphocytes that recognize
self-antigen

Which type of lymphocyte undergoes central tolerance?

A. T cells and B cells

B. B cells only
C. T cells only
D. Neither T cells nor B cells

Which type of lymphocyte goes through peripheral tolerance?

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A. T cells mostly, and B cells to a lesser extent
B. B cells only
C. T cells and B cells equally
D. B cells mostly, and T cells to a lesser extent

Although fraternal twins are only as genetically similar as siblings born at different
times, they sometimes share circulation. This might lead to a form of which of the
following?

A. neonatal tolerance
B. peripheral tolerance
C. congenital immunodeficiency
D. molecular mimicry

Which of the following is part of the mechanism for inducing central tolerance in B cells
by clonal deletion?

A. the presence of soluble antigen.

B. the ability to undergo receptor editing.
C. the display of self-antigen in a membrane-bound form.
D. the activity of a functional autoimmune regulator (AIRE) gene.

A common mechanism required for activating T or B cells in the periphery is which of

the following?

A. presentation of antigen in the context of MHC.

B. presentation of the particulate multivalent form of the antigen.
C. interaction through costimulatory molecules as a second signal.
D. high avidity of the lymphocyte's receptor for the antigen.

A patient seeing a rheumatologist for the first time is asked to fill out forms that include
questions about family history. She recalls many family members with “arthritis,”
including her grandmother and great-aunt. Her mother has systemic lupus
erythematosus (SLE) with arthritis symptoms and renal disease. Her mother's siblings
are healthy, as are the patient's father and younger sister. This family history is most
suggestive of which of the following?

A. a genetic predisposition.
B. X-linked Mendelian genetics.
C. an environmental exposure that her mother encountered while growing up.

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D. a microbial infection common to all afflicted family members.

Injection of myelin basic protein (MBP) with adjuvant into mice produces experimental
autoimmune encephalomyelitis (EAE), an animal model of multiple sclerosis.
Pretreatment of the mice with low oral doses of MBP alone prevents disease
development. This suggests the production of which of the following?

A. blocking antibodies.
B. Tregcells.
C. TH1 cell predominance.
D. TH17 cells.Bottom of Form

Injection of myelin basic protein (MBP) with adjuvant into mice produces experimental
autoimmune encephalomyelitis (EAE), an animal model of multiple sclerosis.
Pretreatment of the mice with low oral doses of MBP alone prevents disease
development. This suggests the production of which of the following?

A. blocking antibodies.
B. Tregcells.
C. TH1 cell predominance.
D. TH17 cells.Bottom of Form

Which cell type plays a crucial role in maintaining peripheral tolerance by suppressing
self-reactive T cells?

A. Regulatory T cells (Tregs)

B. Dendritic cells
C. B cells
D. Macrophages

In B cell development, what is the primary mechanism of central tolerance that allows a
B cell to change its specificity away from self-antigens?

A. Receptor editing
B. Clonal deletion
C. Anergy
D. Ignorance

What is the role of AIRE (Autoimmune Regulator) in central tolerance?

A. It promotes T cell proliferation

B. It inhibits B cell receptor editing

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C. It activates regulatory T cells in the periphery
D. It induces expression of tissue-specific antigens in the thymus

Which of the following is a mechanism of B cell peripheral tolerance?

A. Deletion in germinal centers

B. Positive selection
C. Receptor editing in bone marrow
D. T cell help in the thymus

In oral tolerance, which type of regulatory T cell is primarily induced by low doses of
oral antigen?

A. Th3 cells
B. nTregs
C. Tr1 cells
D. iTregs

What is the primary mechanism by which CTLA-4 (cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated

protein 4) maintains immunological tolerance?

A. By promoting T cell proliferation

B. By competing with CD28 for B7 ligands
C. By inhibiting B cell antibody production
D. By inducing regulatory T cell development

Rhesus hemolytic disease of the newborn involves:

A) IgE
B) antibody to cell surfaces
C) soluble immune complexes
D) cytokine release from T-cells
E) stimulatory antibodies

A 30-year-old man has become more irritable and restless over the past 4
months. He has experienced mild diarrhea. On physical examination, there is
diffuse enlargement of his thyroid gland. Which of the following immunologic
mechanisms is most likely to cause his findings?
A) anti-receptor antibody
B) CD8 lymphocyte-mediated cell lysis
C) immune complex-mediated complement activation
D) macrophage activation by interferon-gamma
E) mast cell degranulation with release of cytokines

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