IIHT- KHARGHAR

CCNA

No. of questions: 50 Total Marks: 50 Duration: 60 minutes

1. PDUs at the Network layer of the OSI are called what?

A) Transport B) Frames

C) Packets D) Segments

2. What is the maximum data rate for 802.11b wireless LANs?

A) 2Mbps B) 10Mbps

C) 11Mbps D) 54Mbp

3. Segmentation of a data stream happens at which layer of the OSI model?

A) Physical B) Data Link

C) Network D) Transport

4. Which layer of the OSI provides translation of data?

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A) Application B) Presentation

C) Session D) Transport

5. What protocol is used to find the hardware address of a local device?

A) ARP B.ARP

C) IP D.ICMP

6. Which class of IP address provides a maximum of only 254 host addresses per network ID?

A) Class A B) Class B

C) Class C D) Class D

7. Which of the following protocols uses TCP port 443?

A) HTML B) HTTPS

C) TFTP D) Telnet

8. You have the binary number 11000111. Which of the following are equivalent to this?

A) 228 B) 179

C) 199 D) 0xB7

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9. You have a network with a subnet of 172.16.17.0/22. Which are valid host addresses?

A) 172.16.17.1 255.255.255.252

B) 172.16.0.1 255.255.240.0

C) 172.16.20.1 255.255.254.0

D) 172.16.18.255 255.255.252.0

10. What is the subnetwork number of a host with an IP address of 172.16.66.0/21?

A) 172.16.36.0

B) 172.16.48.0

C) 172.16.64.0

D) 172.16.0.0

11. What is the subnetwork address for a host with the IP address 200.10.5.68/28?

A) 200.10.5.56

B) 200.10.5.32

C) 200.10.5.64

D) 200.10.5.0

12. Which command will show you whether a DTE or a DCE cable is plugged into serial 0?
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A) sh int s0

B) sh int serial 0

C) sho controllers s 0

D) sho serial 0 controllers

13. What keystroke will terminate setup mode?

A) Ctrl+Z B) Ctrl+^

C) Ctrl+C D) Ctrl+Shift+^

14. Which of the following commands will display a backup configuration?

A) Sh running-config

B) show startup-config

C) show version

D) show backup-config

15. Which of the following commands will reload the router?

A) Router>reload

B) Router#reset

C) Router#reload

D) Router(config)#reload

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16. What command do you type to save the configuration stored in RAM to NVRAM?

A) Router(config)#copy current to starting

B) Router#copy starting to running

C) Router(config)#copy running-config startup-config

D) Router#copy run startup

17. What command is used to stop RIP routing updates from exiting out an interface but still
receive RIP route updates?

A) Router(config-if)#no routing";

B) Router(config-if)#passive-interface";

C) Router(config-router)#passive-interface s0";

D) Router(config-router)#no routing updates";

18. What is split horizon?

A) Information about a route should not be sent back in the direction from which the original
update came.

B) It splits the traffic when you have a large bus (horizon) physical network.

C) It holds the regular updates from broadcasting to a downed link.

D) It prevents regular update messages from reinstating a route that has gone down.

19. Which command displays RIP routing updates?

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A) how ip route

B) debug ip rip

C) show protocols

D) debug ip route

20. If your routing table has a static, a RIP, and an IGRP route to the same network, which route
will be used to route packets by default?

A) Any available route B) RIP route

C) Static route D) IGRP route

21. What is route poisoning?

A) It sends back the protocol received from a router as a poison pill, which stops the regular
updates.

B) It is information received from a router that can\'t be sent back to the originating router.

C) It prevents regular update messages from reinstating a route that has just come up.

D) It describes when a router sets the metric for a downed link to infinity.

22. Where are EIGRP successor routes stored?

A) In the routing table only

B) In the neighbor table only

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C) In the topology table only

D) In the routing table and the topology table

23. Which command will display all the EIGRP feasible successor routes known to a router?

A) show ip routes

B) show ip eigrp summary

C) show ip eigrp topology

D) show ip eigrp adjacencies

24. With which network type will OSPF establish router adjacencies but not perform the DR/BDR
election process?

A) Point-to-point

B) Backbone area 0

C) Broadcast multiaccess

D) Non-broadcast multi-access

25. What is the administrative distance of OSPF?

A) 90 B) 100

C) 110 D) 120

26. Which of the following is a layer 2 protocol used to maintain a loop-free network?

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A) VTP B) STP

C) RIP D) CDP

27. What will occur if two Cisco LAN switches are connected with a single crossover cable?

A) The switch port link lights will be off on both switches, indicating that the ports are not
connected.

B) The switch port link light will be off on one switch, indicating that STP has disabled the
port.

C) The switch port link lights will flash amber, indicating an error.

D) The switch port link lights will be green, indicating normal operation.

28. Which statement describes a spanning-tree network that has converged?

A) All switch and bridge ports are in the forwarding state.

B) All switch and bridge ports are assigned as either root or designated ports.

C) All switch and bridge ports are in either the forwarding or blocking state.

D) All switch and bridge ports are either blocking or looping.

29. What technology is used by Catalyst switches to resolve topology loops and ensure that data
flows properly through a single network path?

A) RIP B) STP

C) IGRP D) Store-and-forward

30. Which of the following is true regarding VLANs

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A) You must have at least two VLANs defined in every Cisco switched network.

B) All VLANs are configured at the fastest switch and, by default, propagate this information
to all other switches.

C) You should not have more than 10 switches in the same VTP domain.

D) VTP is used to send VLAN information to switches in a configured VTP domain.

31. Which switching technology reduces the size of a broadcast domain?

A) SL B) 802.1Q

C) VLANs D) STP

32. What VTP mode allows you to change VLAN information on the switch?

A) Client B) STP

C) Server D) Transparent

33. Which of the following is true regarding VTP?

A) All switches are VTP servers by default.

B) All switches are VTP transparent by default.

C) VTP is on by default with a domain name of Cisco on all Cisco switches.

D) All switches are VTP clients by default.

34. What does the command o/r 0x2142 provide?

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A) It is used to restart the router.

B) It is used to bypass the configuration in NVRAM.

C) It is used to enter ROM Monitor mode.

D) It is used to view the lost password.

35. Which command will copy the IOS to a backup host on your network?

A) transfer IOS to 172.16.10.1

B) copy run start

C) copy tftp flash

D) copy flash tftp

36. You are troubleshooting a connectivity problem in your corporate network and want to isolate
the problem. You suspect that a router on the route to an unreachable network is at fault. What
IOS user exec command should you issue?

A) Router>ping

B) Router>trace

C) Router>show ip route

D) Router>show interface

37. Which of the following is an example of a standard IP access list?

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A) access-list 110 permit host 1.1.1.1

B) access-list 1 deny 172.16.10.1 0.0.0.0

C) access-list 1 permit 172.16.10.1 255.255.0.0

D) access-list standard 1.1.1.1

38. What router command allows you to determine whether an IP access list is enabled on a
particular interface?

A) show ip port

B) show access-lists

C) show ip interface

D) show access-lists interface.

39. Which command would you use to apply an access list to a router interface?

A) ip access-list 101 out

B) access-list ip 101 in

C) ip access-group 101 in

D) access-group ip 101 in

40. What protocol does PPP use to identify the Network layer protocol?

A) NCP B) ISDN

C) HDLC D) LCP

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41. You have ten users plugged into a hub running 10Mbps half-duplex. There is a server connected
to the switch running 10Mbps half-duplex as well. How much bandwidth does each host have to
the server?

A) 100kbps B) 1Mbps

C) 2Mbps D) 10Mbps

42. In a network with dozens of switches, how many root bridges would you have?

A) 1 B) 2

C) 5 D) 12

43. What does the command router A (config) #line cons 0 allow you to perform next?

A) Set the Telnet password.

B) Shut down the router.

C) Set your console password.

D) Disable console connections.

44. What ISDN command will bring up the second BRI at 50 percent load?

A) 50

B) Load share 50

C) Dialer load-threshold 127

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D) Dialer idle-timeout 125

45. What PPP protocol provides dynamic addressing, authentication, and multilink?

A) NCP B) HDLC

C) LCP D) X.25

46. What command will display the line, protocol, DLCI, and LMI information of an interface?

A) sh pvc B) show interface

C) show frame-relay pvc D) sho runn

47. Which of the following is the valid host range for the subnet on which the IP address
192.168.168.188 255.255.255.192 resides?

A) 192.168.168.129-190

B) 192.168.168.129-191

C) 192.168.168.128-190

D) 192.168.168.128-192

48. What does the passive command provide to dynamic routing protocols?

A) Stops an interface from sending or receiving periodic dynamic updates

B) Stops an interface from sending periodic dynamic updates but still receives updates

C) Stops the router from receiving any dynamic updates

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D) Stops the router from sending any dynamic updates

49. Which protocol does Ping use?

A) CP B) ARP

C) ICMP D) BootP

50) What is the valid host range the IP address 172.16.10.22 255.255.255.240 is a part of?

A. 172.16.10.20 through 172.16.10.22

B. 172.16.10.1 through 172.16.10.255
C. 172.16.10.16 through 172.16.10.23
D. 172.16.10.17 through 172.16.10.31
E. 172.16.10.17 through 172.16.10.30

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