Test ID : 904

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.MOCK TEST – IX. SET - A

Std : Long Term, CC – Regular & New Max. Marks : 720

Test Date : 01.05.2024 Time : 3.20 Hrs.
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.

Important Instructions :
1) This test is 3 hours 20 min duration and Maximum mark is 720.
2) This test booklet contains 200 questions. There are four parts in the question paper, consisting
Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology. Each part consists of 50 questions.
3) Each part consists of two sections, Section - A and Section - B.
4) Section - A of each subject consists of 35 questions and Section - B consists of 15
questions. Candidates have to answer for all the 35 questions from Section - A and only 10
questions out of 15 questions from Section - B.
5) Candidates are allowed to answer maximum of 180 questions only from all four parts.
6) There will be only one correct choice in the given four choices for each question. For each
question 4 marks will be awarded for correct choice, 1 mark will be deduced for incorrect choice
and zero mark will be awarded for unattempted question.
7) Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
8) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
9) Dark only one circle for each question. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
10) Any textual, printed or written material, mobile phones, calculator etc. is not allowed for the
students appearing for the test.
11) On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the invigilator before
leaving the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
12) The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray
marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified
space in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet.
13) Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
14) No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave
his/her seat.

Stay Cool … Think Twice … Analyse Well … Confirm the Answer …

Success is Assured !

Name of the Candidate : ___________________________________

Section : ___________________________________
 1 Test ID : 904 [A]

PHYSICS
SECTION – A (35 questions)
(Answer all the questions)
1. Assertion : The speedometer of an automobile 4. Two point charges A and B having charges
measures the instantaneous speed of +Q and –Q respectively, are placed at certain
automobile. distance apart and force acting between them
Reason : Average velocity is equal to total is F. If 25% charge of A is transferred to B,
displacement divided by total time taken. then force between the charges becomes
1) both assertion and reason are true and 9F
1) F 2)
reason is the correct explanation of the 16
assertion 16F 4F
3) 4)
2) both assertion and reason are true but 9 3
reason is not the correct explanation of the 5. A prism of angle A = 2o has refractive index
assertion µ = 1.5. A good estimate for the minimum
3) assertion is true but the reason is false N
angle of deviation (in degrees) is closed to .
4) assertion is false but the reason is true 10
Value of N is
2. How much energy must gamma ray photons
have, if it is to convert into pair of an electron 1) 5 2) 15
and a positron with each particle having K.E 3) 10 4) 20
of 1 MeV 6. The stress versus strain graph for two
1) 2 MeV materials are shown
2) 3.02 MeV stress B
3) 1 MeV
A
4) 0.51 MeV
strain
3. In a measurement two quantities as
A= 1.0 m ± 0.2 m, B = 2.0 m ± 0.2 m, then a) A is more elastic than B

AB = b) B is more elastic than A

c) Slope of graph gives modulus of elasticity
1) 1.4 m ± 0.4m
1) a, b, c are correct
2) 1.41 m ± 0.15 m
2) a, b only correct
3) 1.4 m ± 0.3 m
3) a, c are only correct
4) 1.4 m ± 0.2 m
4) b, c are only correct
 2 Test ID : 904 [A]
7. Magnet wire of moment M is bent into an arc 11. When the current in a coil changes from 8A to
of circle subtending an angle 60o at the centre. 2A in 3 x 10-2 sec, the emf induced in the coil
The new magnetic moment is is 2V. The self inductance of the coil is
2M M 1) 5 mH 2) 10 mH
1) 2)
π π 3) 15 mH 4) 20 mH
3 2M 3M 12. The force F needed to keep the block at
3) 4)
π π equilibrium in given figure is (pulley and
8. Choose the incorrect statement as given string are massless)
below?
1) Zero error of screw gauge always added to
measured reading
2) In screw gauge if the zero of circular scale
is left below the reference line when the
spindle meet, zero error is positive
3) In screw gauge if the zero of circular scale
is above the reference line when the
Mg Mg
spindle meet, the zero error is negative 1) 2)
4 2
4) Both (2) and (3)
Mg Mg
9. Which of the following has the highest 3) 4)
5 3
moment of inertia when each of them has the
13. An amount Q of heat is added to a
same mass and same radius?
monoatomic ideal gas in a process in which
1) A ring about any of its diameter
Q
2) A disc about any of its diameter the gas perform a work on its surrounding.
2
3) A hollow sphere about any of its diameter Find the molar heat capacity for the process.
4) A solid sphere about any of its diameter 1) 2R 2) 3 R
10. The drift velocity of free electron in a 3) 4 R 4) 6 R
conductor is ‘v’ when a current ‘i’ is flowing 14. The trajectory of an α - particle is shown in
in it. If both the radius and current are the figure below, then impact parameter is
doubled, then drift velocity will be
v
1) v 2)
2
v v
3) 4)
4 8
 3 Test ID : 904 [A]
1) a 2) b 19. With respect to voltage, for the phase of
3) c 4) d current in ac circuits, match the following.
15. If unit of mass is taken as 1 kg, time as 1 Column – I Column - II
minute, and acceleration due to gravity is Purely resistive −π
taken as 9.81 m/s2. What is the unit of energy? a) i)
circuit 2
1) 3.464 x 107 J
Purely inductive
2) 4.386 x 103 J b) ii) 0
circuit
3) 1.836 x 103 J
Purely capacitive π
4) 3.464 x 105 J c) iii) +
circuit 2
16. A certain number of drops of same size are
charged to 200 V each. When they combine 1) a – ii, b – iii, c - i
the potential of bigger drop is 800 V, the 2) a – ii, b – i, c - iii
number of drops combined is 3) a – iii, b – ii, c - i
1) 2 2) 4 4) a – i, b – ii, c - i
3) 8 4) 16 20. If Young’s double slit experiment uses a
17. In the given circuit, the output values of X and monochromatic light, the shape of fringes
Y are formed on the screen is
1) parabola 2) elliptical
1 X
0 3) conical 4) hyperbola
21. Force acting on a body of mass 1 kg shows a
1 Y sudden spike of 100 N for a short period of
10 ms. If velocity of body just before the spike
1) 0, 0 2) 0, 1
is 20 m/s, its velocity just after the spike will
3) 1, 0 4) 1, 1
be nearly
18. If pressure at half the depth of a lake is equal
2
to pressure at the bottom of the lake then
3
what is the depth of lake (Atmospheric
pressure = 105 N/m2, density of water = 103
kg/m3, g = 10 m/sec2)
1) 10 m 2) 20 m 1) 20.05 m/s 2) 20.2 m/s
3) 60 m 4) 30 m 3) 20.5 m/s 4) 22 m/s
 4 Test ID : 904 [A]
22. A 3V battery with negligible internal 1) 2V 2) V
resistance is connected in a circuit as shown
V
in figure. The current I in the circuit will be 3) 2 V 4)
2
26. According to Einstein equation the graph
between kinetic energy of photoelectrons
ejected and frequency (ν) of incident radiation
is

KE
1) 1 A 2) 1.5 A 1) 2)
1
3) 2 A 4) A
3
KE
23. In a coil of resistance 10 Ω, the variation of 3) 4)
current with time has been shown. The
magnitude of change in magnetic flux is
27. Two objects are projected with same velocity
(u) however at different angles α and β with
horizontal. If α + β = 90o, the ratio of
horizontal range of the objects is
1) 4 : 1 2) 2 : 1
3) 1 : 2 4) 1 : 1
1) 4 Wb 2) 2 Wb 28. Two sound waves with wavelength 5.0 m and
3) 8 Wb 4) 3 Wb 5.5 m respectively, each propagate in a gas
24. A ball A moving with certain velocity collides with velocity 330 m/s. We expect the
head on with another ball B of the same mass following number of beats per second.
3 1) 6 2) 12
at rest. If the co-efficient of restitution is .
4 3) zero 4) 1
The ratio of velocity of A and B after collision 29. Which of the following circuits is reverse
is biased.
1) 1 : 7 2) 3 : 4
3) 3 : 1 4) 1 : 4 1)

25. The average speed of gas molecules is V at

2)
pressure P. If by keeping temperature
constant, the pressure of gas is doubled, then
average speed will become
 5 Test ID : 904 [A]

3) 1) δ = 5.4 x 10-4 Ω-m

2) δ = 6.2 x 10-4 Ω-m
3) δ = 7.2 x 10-4 Ω-m
4) - 2 volt
4) δ = 3.14 x 10-4 Ω-m
30. A pendulum clock keeps correct time at 0oC. 33. The mass of a body at the centre of the earth is
It’s mean coefficient of linear expansion is
1) infinite
α/oC, then loss in seconds per day by the clock
2) zero
if temperature raises by toC is
3) same as at other places
1 α t x 86, 400
1
1) 2 2) αt 86, 400 4) greater than at other places
1 − αt 2
A semicircular wire of radius R is placed in a
2 34.

1 1 uniform magnetic field as shown in the figure.

αt 86, 400 αt 86, 400
If the semicircular wire carries a current ‘i’
3) 2 4) 2
( ) 1 + αt
2
1 − αt 2
then the force experienced by the wire is
2
31. The speed of electromagnetic wave in vacuum
1) Increases as we move from UV rays to
microwaves
2) Decreases as we move from UV rays to
microwaves
3) Is same for all rays
4) Is maximum for visible rays 1) iRB 2) 2iRB0

32. In the experiment to determine resistivity of iRB0

3) 4) zero
the material of given wire with the help of 2
meter bridge if resistance R in resistance box 35. The time period of oscillation of a simple
(connected in the left gap) is 400 Ω , then the pendulum is 1 minute. If its length is increased
balanced length is found to be 65 cm from left by 44%. Then its new time period of
end of meter bridge. The diameter of oscillation will be
unknown wire is 1 mm and length of unknown 1) 96 s 2) 58 s
wire is 31.4 cm. Find the specific resistance of 3) 82 s 4) 72 s
unknown wire
 6 Test ID : 904 [A]
SECTION – B (15 questions)
Section – B consists of 15 questions. Candidates are allowed to answer any 10 questions only out of 15 questions
given. In case if candidates attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions only considered for
marking.
36. A square coil of N turns and side length l is
formed from a wire of length L. If a current ‘i’
passes through the coil, then magnetic moment
of the loop is
1) NiL2
2) Nil2 1) A 2) B
iL2 3) C 4) D
3)
16N 40. Which of the following colours travel slower
4) Both (2) & (3) in a glass prism?
37. A particle moving in the x-y plane undergoes 1) Violet 2) Yellow
a displacement s = 2.0iˆ + 3.0ˆj m while a 3) Green 4) Red

constant force, F = 5.0iˆ + 2.0ˆj N acts on the 41. An electric heater operating at 220 V boils 5
Lt of water in 5 minutes. If it is used on 110
particle. The work done by the force is
volt, it will boil the same amount of water in
1) 25 J 2) 19 J
1) 10 minutes
3) 16 J 4) 30 J
2) 20 minutes
38. Two parallel infinite line charges with linear
3) 15 minutes
charge densities +λ C/m and -λ C/m are
placed at a distance of 2R in free space. What 4) 25 minutes
is the electric field midway between the two 42. A particle moves in a circle of radius ‘r’ in
line charges? half revolution its displacement and distance
ratio
2λ
1) zero 2) N/C
πε0 R 1) 7 : 11 2) 11 : 7

λ λ 3) 22 : 7 4) 7 : 22
3) N/C 4) N/C
πε0 R 2πε 0 R 43. Heat is supplied to a diatomic gas at constant
pressure. The ratio of ∆Q : ∆U : ∆W is
39. A spherical ball is dropped in a long column
of a viscous liquid. The speed of the ball as a 1) 5 : 3 : 2 2) 5 : 2 : 3
function of time may be best represented by 3) 7 : 5 : 2 4) 7 : 2 : 5
the graph.
 7 Test ID : 904 [A]

44. Four identical particles each of mass 1 kg are 1) 100 N, 10 5 N

arranged at the corners of a square of side
2) 50 2 N, 230 N
length 2 2 m. If one of the particles is
removed, the shift in CM is 3) 203 N, 25 2 N

2 4 4) 230 N, 50 2 N
1) m 2) m
3 3 48. A charge of 2C experiences a force of 2000 N
8 when it is kept in uniform electric field. The
3) m 4) 2m
3 potential difference between two points
45. de-broglie wavelength associated with separated by a distance of 2 cm is
electron is n = 4 level is 1) 10 V 2) 20 V
1) two times of de-Broglie wavelength of 3) 30 V 4) 40 V
electron in ground state 49. The minimum kinetic energy which should be
2) four times of de-Broglie wavelength of given to an object of mass ‘m’ placed on
electron in ground state earth‘s surface, so that it escapes is (R is
3) half of de-Broglie wavelength of radius of earth)
electron in ground state 1
1) mgR
th 4
1
4) of de-Broglie wavelength of electron in 2) mgR
4
ground state 1
3) mgR
46. In order to have a better quality for a device 2
operating on LCR circuit it is possible that 4) 2 mgR
1) Inductance is high 50. In compound microscope the magnification is
2) Bandwidth is low 95, and the distance of object from objective
1 1
3) Resistance is low lens cm and focal length cm. What is
3.8 4
4) All of these
the magnification of eye piece when final
47. A uniform ladder 2 m long weighing 20 kg image is formed at least distance of distinct
leans against a friction less wall. Its foot rests vision
on a rough floor 1m from wall. The reaction 1) 5 2) 10
forces of the wall and floor are (g = 10 m/s2)
3) 100 4) None
 8 Test ID : 904 [A]
CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A (35 questions)
(Answer all the questions)
NH2 1) H2O > H2Te > H2S > H2Se
O
CH3 C Cl Conc. HNO3 2) H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
51. B C +D
pyridine H2SO4 / 5oC 3) H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S
(Major)

Major product C is 4) H2Te > H2Se > H2S > H2O

1) m-nitro aniline 55. Cracking of alkanes involves

2) p-nitro acetanilide 1) Homolytic fission and free radical

mechanism
3) o-nitro aniline
2) Heterolytic fission and free radical
4) o-nitro acetanilide
mechanism
52. Consider a first order reaction R → P. If [R]o
3) Homolytic fission and carbocation
is the initial concentration of reactant, then
mechanism
(t ) [R]o (t1/2 )2 [R]o (t1/2 )3 [R]o
[R]o 
1/2 1
→ → → 4) Heterolytic fission and carbocation
2 4 8
Relation between (t1/2)1, (t1/2)2 & (t1/2)3 is mechanism

1) (t1/2)1 > (t1/2)2 > (t1/2)3 56. Assertion (A) : All isotopes of a given
2) (t1/2)1 = (t1/2)2 = (t1/2)3 element show same chemical behaviour.

3) (t1/2)3 > (t1/2)2 > (t1/2)1 Reason (R) : Chemical properties of isotopes
4) (t1/2)2 > (t1/2)3 > (t1/2)1 are controlled by number of neutrons.
53. The structure of the compound that gives 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
tribromo derivative on treatment with bromine correct explanation of the (A)
water is 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
CH2OH CH3 correct explanation of (A)
OH
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
1) 2)
4) Both (A) and (R) are false
57. Choose the correct statement about H2O, O3
& SF4 molecules.

3) 4) 1) H2O and O3 are isostructural and

isoelectronic
2) H2O and SF4 are isostructural
54. The boiling points of hydrides of group 16 are 3) H2O, O3 and SF4 are isostructural
in the order
4) H2O and O3 are bent shape molecules
 9 Test ID : 904 [A]

58. N2(g) +3H2(g)⇌2NH3(g) &N2(g)+3D2(g) ⇌2ND3(g), 1) A-s, B-q, C-p, D-r

2) A-r, B-s, C-p, D-q
If both the above equilibria are allowed to mix
together, formation of which species proves 3) A-q, B-r, C-s, D-p
that equilibrium is dynamic. 4) A-q, B-s, C-p, D-r
1) NH2D 61. Density of a 4M solution of acetic acid in
2) HD water is 1.25 g/ml. The molality of the
solution is
3) NHD2
1) 3.96
4) All of these
2) 4.96
59. The compound 1,2-butadiene has
3) 3.39
1) only sp hybridized ‘C’ atoms
4) 1.019
2) only sp2 hybridized ‘C’ atoms
62. Assertion (A) : Molar conductivity increases
3) both sp and sp2 hybridized ‘C’ atoms
with decrease in concentration.
4) sp, sp2 and sp3 hybridized ‘C’ atoms
Reason (R) : The decrease in conductivity (k)
60. Match of the following
on dilution of solution is more than
Column – I compensated by increase in its volume.
A) 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
B)
correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
4) (A) is false but (R) is true
63. Electronic configuration of transition element
C) 2
X in +3 oxidation state is [Ar]3d5 and Y in +2
state is [Ar]3d8. What are the group numbers
of the elements X and Y respectively?
D)
1) 7 and 8
2) 8 and 9
Column – II
3) 9 and 10
p) Fittig reaction
4) 8 and 10
q) Meso product
r) Wurtz-Fittig reaction
s) Racemic mixture
 10 Test ID : 904 [A]
64. Match the following lists 1) Both Statement-I and II are true
List – I List – II 2) Both Statement-I and II are false
(X = Halogen) (Nature of compound) 3) Statement-I is true and Statement-II is false
X 4) Statement-I is false and Statement-II is true
|
A) CH 3 − CH = CH p) primary alkyl halide 67. Which of the following B group vitamins can
be stored in our body?
1) Vitamin B1 2) Vitamin B2
B) q) secondary alkyl halide
3) Vitamin B6 4) Vitamin B12
X 68. If 50mL of 0.5M oxalic acid is required to
CH 3 neutralize 25mL of NaOH solution, the
|
C) CH 3 − CH − CH 2 − X r) Vinylic halide amount of NaOH in 50mL of given NaOH
solution in grams
CH 3
| 1) 4 2) 5
D) CH 3 − CH − CH − CH 3 s) Allylic halide 3) 8 4) 10
|
X 69. For which of these processes is the sign of
t) Tertiary alkyl halide enthalpy change different from the others?

1) A-p, B-r, C-q, D-t 3

1) Al2O3(s) → 2Al(S) + O2(g)
2
2) A-s, B-r, C-p, D-t
3) A-r, B-s, C-p, D-q 2) H2O(s) → H2O(l)

4) A-p, B-s, C-q, D-t 3) Cl2(g) → 2Cl(g)

−
65. Which of the following reaction can give 4) Cl(g) + e– → Cl(g)
methanal? 70. Assertion (A) : K4[Fe(CN)6] does not exhibit
1) Reductive ozonolysis of terminal alkene ionization isomerism.
2) Hydroboration – oxidation of alkyne Reason (R) : K+ counter ion is itself not a
3) Acid catalysed hydration of alkene ligand and cannot displace a CN– ligand.
4) Both (2) and (3) 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is a
66. Statement – I : Lower aliphatic amines are correct explanation of the (A)
soluble in water because they can form 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a
hydrogen bonds with water molecules. correct explanation of the (A)
Statement – II : Higher amines are essentially 3) (A) is true but the (R) is false
insoluble in water due to increase in size of 4) Both (A) and (R) are false
hydrophilic alkyl part
 11 Test ID : 904 [A]
71. Identify the correct match among the given
species and respective shapes of molecules.
Species Shape 4)

A) NH +4 See-Saw
A B C D
B) SF4 Tetrahedral
C) ClF3 T-shaped 73. Which of the following is not a postulate of
Dalton’s atomic theory?
D) XeF6 Square planar
1) Different elements have atoms of different
1) A 2) B
masses
3) C 4) D
2) Atoms of a single element can have
72. Which of the following is correct match for
different masses
wave length of absorption vs complexes given
3) Atoms can neither be created nor be
below? (Not in scale)
destroyed in chemical change
A) [CrCl6]3–
4) Atoms combine in simple whole number
B) [Cr(CN)6]3–
ratio to form compounds
C) [Cr(NH3)6]3+
74. Statement – I : F atom has less electron
D) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ affinity than ‘Cl’ atom.
Statement – II : Added electron is repelled
more strongly by 3p-electrons of ‘Cl’ atom
1) than by 2p-electrons of ‘F’ atom.
1) Both Statement-I and II are true
2) Both Statement-I and II are false
3) Statement-I is true and Statement-II is false
4) Statement-I is false and Statement-II is true
2)
75. Which of the following molecular species is
diamagnetic?
1) O2 2) B2
3) N2+2 4) N 22−
76. A flask contains a mixture of isohexane and
3)
n-hexane, one of the liquids boils at 66oC.
While other boils at 60oC. What is the best
way to separate the two liquids and which one
will be distilled out first?
 12 Test ID : 904 [A]
1) Fractional distillation, isohexane 4) A galvanic cell is electrochemical cell that
2) Simple distillation, n-hexane converts “electrical energy” of a
3) Simple distillation, isohexane spontaneous redox reaction into ‘chemical
energy”.
4) Fractional distillation, n-hexane
80. In the following reaction, xA → yB
77. In the detection of nitrogen present in the
organic compound, a Prussian blue complex is  d[A]   d[B] 
log  −  = log  + 0.6
formed. The ratio between oxidation state of  dt   dt 
iron inside and outside the coordination sphere where –ve sign indicates rate of disappearance
of Prussian blue complex is of the reactant thus, x : y is (log 4 = 0.6)
1) 2 : 3 2) 3 : 2 1) 1 : 2 2) 4 : 1
3) 1 : 1 4) 2 : 5 3) 3 : 1 4) 3 : 10
78. Which of the following cannot give glyoxal as 81. Which of the following can oxidize iodide,
one of the product on ozonolysis? sulphide and ferrous ions in acidic medium?
(O3 & Zn / H2O) 1) Cr+2 2) KMnO4
3) K2Cr2O7 4) Both (2) and (3)
1)
82.

2) Find product ‘Y’.

1) 2)
3)

4) 3) 4) All the above

79. Incorrect statement in the following is

83. Match the following
1) A potential difference develops between the
electrode & electrolyte is called “electrode Column – I Column – II
potential” (Carboxylic acid) (Uses)
2) When the concentrations of all the species A) Methanoic acid P) Food preservative
involved in a half cell is unity at 25oC and B) Ethanoic acid Q) Nylon-6, 6
1bar, then electrode potential is known as C) Hexanedioic acid R) Vinegar
“standard electrode potential” D) Sodium benzoate S) Electroplating
3) The half cell at which reduction takes place industry
is called “cathode”
 13 Test ID : 904 [A]
1) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S 3) Arrangement of ‘C’ atoms
2) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S 4) All of these
3) A-P, B-Q, C-S, D-R 85. What combination of reagents gives black ppt
4) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P of cobalt?
84. Glucose reacts with hydroxyl amine to form 1) dil. HCl + H2S
an oxime and adds a molecule of HCN to give 2) NH4Cl + NH4OH
cyano hydrin these reactions confirm the 3) NH4Cl + NH4OH + H2S
presence of 4) NH4OH + (NH4)2CO3
1)

2) –OH
SECTION – B (15 questions)
Section – B consists of 15 questions. Candidates are allowed to answer any 10 questions only out of 15 questions
given. In case if candidates attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions only considered for
marking.
86. Consider the mixture of strong acid and strong 1) Both Statement-I and II are true
alkali each of 0.1N concentration.Temperature 2) Both Statement-I and II are false
increase is the highest in 3) Statement-I is true and Statement-II is false
1) 10ml acid and 40ml alkali 4) Statement-I is false and Statement-II is true
2) 40ml acid and 10ml alkali
3) 20ml acid and 30ml alkali 88. .
4) Increase in temperature is same in all the
cases
Product B is
87. Statement – I : On heating of an exothermic
reversible reaction (A(g) ⇌ 2B(g) + heat) at
equilibrium, backward direction is favourable
so that concentration of reactants increases 1)
Statement – II : On adding He to an
equilibrium reaction where ∆ng > 0, at
constant pressure, forward direction can be
favourable so that concentration of reactants 2)
decreases.
 14 Test ID : 904 [A]
92. Among the following, decreasing order of
basic strength will be
OH–, CH 3− , HCOO–, C6H5O–, OR–
3)
(I) (II) (III) (IV) (V)
1) II > V > III > I > IV
2) II > V > I > IV > III
4) 3) III > IV > I > V > II

89. At 25oC the equivalent conductance of 4) V > I > IV > II > III
butanoic acid at infinite dilution is 400 ohm–1 93. Which of the following is the correct order of
cm2 eq–1. If the ionization constant is 1.44 x 10–4, first ionization enthalpy?
calculate equivalent conductance of 0.25N 1) Be < B < O < F < N
butanoic acid solution at 25oC (ohm–1 cm2 eq–1) 2) B < Be < O < N < F
1) 3.87 2) 6.46 3) B < Be < N < F < O
3) 9.6 4) 4.38 4) Be < B < N < O < F
90. Arrange the following coordination 94. Which of the following cation will give green
compounds in the increasing order of colour in Borax Bead Test?
magnetic moments 1) Iron 2) Cobalt
A) [Fe(CN)6]3– B) [Mn(CN)6]3– 3) Manganese 4) Nickel
C) [Co(NH3)6]3+ D) [FeF6]3– 95. Which of the following is incorrect about the
1) C < A < B < D 2) C = B < A < D given property against it?

3) A = B = C < D 4) D < B < A < C 1) Basic strength in aqueous solution :

(C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N > C2H5NH2 > NH3
91. Yellow compound of lead chromate gets
dissolved on treatment with hot NaOH 2) Order of solubility in water :
solution. The product of lead formed is a C2H5OH > C2H5NH2 > (CH3)2NH
1) Tetra anionic complex with coordination 3) Order of pKb : C6H5NH2 < NH3 < C2H5NH2
number six 4) Basic strength in aqueous solution :
2) Neutral complex with coordination number (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N > NH3
four 96. Maximum number of orbitals possible with
3) Dianionic complex with coordination n = 4 and m = +1 in an atom?
number six 1) 1 2) 2
4) Dianionic complex with coordination 3) 3 4) 6
number four
 15 Test ID : 904 [A]
97. The hybridisation states of Ni in the HVap
1 slope =
complexes [Ni(CO)4], [Ni(CN)4]2- , [NiCl4]2- 2) log P(vs) log P 2.303 R
T
species respectively.
1
1) sp3 , sp3 , dsp2 T
2) dsp2, sp3, sp3
3) sp3, dsp2, dsp2
V.P
4) sp3, dsp2, sp3
3) chloroform + acetone
98. Which of the following options are not in X1 = 0 (mole X1 = 1
accordance with the property mentioned X2 = 1 fraction) X2 = 0

against them?
4) All of these
i) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 Oxidising power.
100. Which of the following dehydration major
ii) MI > MBr > MCI > MF Ionic character of
product is incorrect in the given equations?
metal halide.
iii) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 Bond dissociation
enthalpy. 1)
iv) HI < HBr < HCl < HF Hydrogen-halogen
bond dissociation enthalpy CH 3OH
| | Conc.H 2SO4
1) only i 2) CH 3 − C − CH − CH 3  ∆ →
|
2) i, ii, iii only CH 3
3) ii, iii only CH 3
4) ii, iii, iv only |
CH 3 − C − CH = CH 2
99. Which of the following is correct match? |
CH 3
mole f raction

Conc.H SO
3) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH 
∆
2
→
4

1)
CH3CH = CH – CH3

4)
 16 Test ID : 904 [A]
BOTANY
SECTION – A (35 questions)
(Answer all the questions)
101. Thetaxon ‘family’ in plant kingdom ends with A B C D
the suffix 1) II I IV III
1) ‘ales’ 2) ‘ane’ 2) II III I IV
3) ‘aceae’ 4) both 1 and 3 3) II IV I III
102. Which of the following are unicellular fungi 4) III I IV II
1) Rhizopus 106. Amembranous structures that lie freely in the
2) Mushrooms cytoplasm of prokaryotes include
3) Toad stools 1) Glycogen granules
4) Yeasts 2) Cyanophycean granules
103. Sigmoid curve is the characteristic feature of 3) Phosphate granules
1) Living organism growing in a natural 4) All of the above
107. Syncarpous gynoecium is found in
environment
2) Height of the stem when plotted against 1) Mustard 2) Lotus
time 3) Rose 4) All of these
3) Root elongation at a constant rate 108. In which of the following cell organelles,
4) Both (1) and (3) nucleic acid is absent?
104. Microsporophylls and megasporophylls or 1) Chloroplast
equivalent structures of these are on the same 2) Mitochondria
plant in 3) Golgi apparatus
1) Cycas 2) Vallisneria 4) Ribosome
3) Papaya 4) Pinus 109. The fluid mosaic model was proposed by
105. Match column I with column II and choose the
1) Schleiden and Schwann
correct option.
2) Rudolf Virchow
Column I Column II 3) Singer and Nicolson
A Peter Mitchell I C4 cycle 4) Flemming
Chemi-osmotic 110. Centromere splitting occurs during
B Melvin Calvin II
hypothesis 1) Anaphase
Hatch and Law of limiting 2) Anaphase-I
C III
Slack factors
3) Anaphase-II
Dark reactions of
D Blackman IV 4) Both (1) and (3)
photosynthesis
 17 Test ID : 904 [A]
111. Assertion(A) : Most of the photosynthesis 115. Find the correct statements from the
takes place in blue and red region of the following.
spectrum. I) Gene therapy is a genetic engineering
Reason (R) : The action spectrum of technique used to treat diseases at molecular
photosynthesis shows the amount of energy at level
different wavelengths of light absorbed by the II) GM plants are more tolerant to abiotic
pigments. stress.
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the III) Only double stranded DNA tagged with
correct explanation of (A) radioactive molecules are used as probes.
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not IV) PCR is used to detect HIV in suspected
the correct explanation of (A) AIDS patients
3) (A) is correct but (R) is false 1) I, II, III
4) (A) is false but (R) is correct 2) I, III, IV
112. The cofactor that is associated with 3) I, II, IV
apoenzyme, only during the course of catalysis 4) II, III, IV
is called 116. Ground tissue system consists of

1) Prosthetic group 1) Parenchyma

2) Coenzyme 2) Collenchyma
3) Metal ions 3) Sclerenchyma
4) Both (1) and (2) 4) All of the above
113. Howmany maternal genomes are involved in 117. With
respect to the given graph, identify the
double fertilization?
wrong statement?
1) Two 2) Four
3) Five 4) Three
114. Assertion (A) : In gymnosperms, the seeds
are naked.
Reason (R) : In gymnosperms, the seeds are
enclosed in fruits.
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is correct but (R) is false 1) A is showing consumption of activation
4) (A) is false but (R) is correct energy in the absence of enzyme
 18 Test ID : 904 [A]
2) B is showing consumption of activation Statement II : The number of bivalents is
energy in the presence of enzyme equal to the haploid number of chromosomes.
3) The graph showing endothermic reaction 1) Both statement I and II are correct

4) The graph showing exothermic reaction 2) Statement is correct but II is incorrect

118. Match the following. 3) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct

4) Both statement I and II are incorrect
Column I Column II
122. Zygotic meiosis can be seen in
A Transgenic mice I Bt Rice
1) Algae
Escherichia 2) Bryophytes
B Transgenic cow II
coli 3) Pteridophytes
First transgenic 4) Gymnosperms
C III Polio vaccine
bacteria 123. Identify the incorrect statement.

Human α- 1) Presence of fruits is the characteristic

D Transgenic plant IV feature of angiosperms
lactalbumin
2) All vascular plants produce seeds
A B C D
3) The plant body of bryophytes is more
1) II III IV I differentiated than algae
2) IV I III II 4) Archegonium is the female sex organ in
3) III IV II I pteridophytes
4) IV II III I 124. Which of the following are selected by
119. Thenumber of oxygen atoms are used for the Morgan as parents to perform dihybrid cross?
complete oxidation of one molecule of 1) White bodied and yellow eyed female and
pyruvate is brown bodied and red eyed male
1) 2.5 2) 3 2) Brown bodied and white eyed female and
yellow bodied and red eyed male
3) 4 4) 5
3) Yellow bodied and white eyed female and
120. A secondary metabolite which is alkaloid in
brown bodied and red eyed male
nature is
4) Yellow bodied and white eyed male and
1) Codeine
brown bodied and red eyed female
2) Anthocyanin
125. The most commonly used vectors in HGP are
3) Gum
1) BAC & Ti-plasmid
4) Abrin
2) PUC & pBR322
121. Statement I : The number of chromosomes is 3) BAC & YAC
equal to the number of chromatids in
4) Tiplasmid & pBR322
anaphase-I.
 19 Test ID : 904 [A]
126. Assertion (A) : Bt toxins are non-toxic to 130. Identifythe mis-match from the following
humans. w.r.t commercial production of organic acids.
Reason (R) : Bt toxins are insect group
1 Aspergillus Malic acid
specific.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the 2 Acetobacter Acetic acid
correct explanation of (A) 3 Clostridium Butyric acid
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
4 Lactobacillus Lactic acid
correct explanation of (A)
131. Insertional
inactivation is one of the methods
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
4) (A) is false but (R) is true of selection of recombinants from non-
127. How many genes are present in chromosome- recombinants. Blue color colonies are non-
‘1’ and ‘y’ of human genome respectively? recombinants. Which is responsible to give
1) 2968 & 231 2) 3000 & 2500 blue color?
3) 2700 & 521 4) 2800 & 221 A. Inactivation of marker gene
128. Which one of the following steps of PCR is B. Expression of lac-z gene
equivalent to the function of the enzyme C. Hydrolysis of chromogenic substance
helicase? 1) A and B 2) B and C
1) Annealing 3) C and D 4) A and D
2) Denaturation
132. Assertion (A) : In mitochondrial respiration,
3) Extension the reduced co-factors will be oxidised on
4) Both (2) and (3) inner mitochondrial membrane.
129. Which of the following statements are true Reason (R) : Mitochondrial matrix contain
about viruses? reduced co-factors.
i) Viruses are intracellular obligatory parasites 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
ii) Viruses can multiply only when they are correct explanation of (A)
inside the host cells 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
iii) Viruses cannot pass through bacterial correct explanation of (A)
proof filters 3) (A) is true but (R) is false
iv) In viruses, capsomeres are arranged in 4) (A) is false but (R) is true
helical or polyhedral symmetry 133. Identify the correct statement about cells in

1) i and ii meristematic phase of the growth.

2) i, ii and iii 1) Increased vacuolation is found

3) i, ii and iv 2) Cell enlargement and elongation occurs

4) All of the above 3) Secondary cell wall deposition occurs

4) Cells are young and immature
 20 Test ID : 904 [A]
134. Which of the following is adenine derivative? Statement II : The common axis that bears
1) Indole 3 – acetic acid leaflets in pinnately compound leaf is rachis.
2) Terpenes 1) Both statement I and II are correct
3) N6 – furfurylamino purine 2) Statement is correct but II is incorrect
4) Carotenoid 3) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct
135. Statement I : In pinnately compound leaf,
4) Both statement I and II are incorrect
axillary bud is present in axil of each leaflet.

SECTION – B (15 questions)

Section – B consists of 15 questions. Candidates are allowed to answer any 10 questions only out of 15 questions
given. In case if candidates attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions only considered for
marking.
136. Assertion(A): DNA polymerase catalyse the 138. Matchthe following and choose the correct
reaction at faster rate with high degree of answer.
accuracy. Column I Column II
Reason (R) : Energetically, DNA replication A Cloning I Site of primase activity
is a very expensive process.
B Ori II A DNA having genetic
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is the material from multiple
correct explanation of the (A) sources
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the C Gene III Making multiple identical
correct explanation of the (A) transfer copies of a gene
3) (A) is true but the (R) is false D rDNA IV Introducing desirable
4) Both (A) and (R) are false genes into the target
137. Choose the correct option from the following organism
1) Members of the brassicaceae family show 1) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I
the didynamous condition 2) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
2) Members of the malvaceae family consist 3) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I
of a definite number of stamens 4) A – III, B – I, C– IV, D – II
3) Some of the members of the solanaceae 139. How many nucleotides are present in the
family are used as spices genetic material of ΦX174?
4) Members of the asteraceae are having disc
1) 3486
florets in which androecium shows
synandrous condition 2) 5386
3) 48501
4) 5385
 21 Test ID : 904 [A]
140. Oogamy is found in 2) Formation of two diploid cells
1) Spirogyra 3) Formation of two haploid cells
2) Ulothrix 4) Formation of four diploid cells
3) Chlorella 146. Howdo centrioles help in the cell division of
4) Volvox animal cells?
141. Keel is the characteristic feature of the flowers of 1) Chromosomal movement
1) Hibiscus 2) Condensation of chromatin
2) Solanum 3) Doubling of chromosomal number
3) Calotropis 4) Both (1) and (3)
4) Bean 147. What is the ratio between the number of
142. Growth of a cell leading to differentiation is double homozygotes and double heterozygotes
called in F2 of Mendel’s dihybrid cross?

1) Plasmatic growth 1) 1 : 2 2) 2 : 3
2) Linear growth 3) 1 : 1 4) 2 : 1
3) Lateral growth 148. Perinuclear space is ranging from
4) Interstitial growth 1) 5 – 10 nm
143. In DNA molecules, which of the following 2) 50 – 70 nm
pair of bases show complementarity? 3) 2 – 4 nm
1) Adenine and Guanine 4) 10 – 50 nm
2) Adenine and Cytosine 149. Taq polymerase enzyme is
3) Thymine and Cytosine 1) Template dependent enzyme
4) Thymine and Adenine 2) Polymerizes on the basis of
144. Afterdouble fertilization, a typical embryo sac complementarity
contain 3) Extracted from thermophilic bacteria
1) One diploid and one haploid cell 4) All of the above
2) Two haploid and two triploid cell 150. Which of the following is artificially
3) One diploid and one triploid cell constructed bacterial vector?

4) One haploid and two triploid cell 1) pBR322

145. Which of the following can occur at the end of 2) YAC

meiosis-I? 3) Ti-plasmid
1) Formation of four haploid cells 4) Retroviruses
 22 Test ID : 904 [A]
ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A (35 questions)
(Answer all the questions)
151. Which of the following has radula in their 155. Observe the muscle tissue given below and
mouth? find the incorrect among following.
1) Asterias 2) Echinus
3) Ophiura 4) Chaetopleura
152. Which fundamental structure in chordates is
located dorsally and hollow in nature?
1) Heart 2) Notochord
3) Nerve cord 4) Post anal tail
153. Inspiration will occur when
1) intra-pulmonary pressure is less than the
atmospheric pressure 1) Fibres are fusiform in shape
2) intra-pulmonary pressure is higher than the 2) Striations are absent on fibres
atmospheric pressure 3) Fibres are in a branching pattern
3) atmospheric pressure is lower than the 4) Intercalated discs are absent
intra-pulmonary pressure 156. Statement-I: About 97 percent of O2 is carried
in a dissolved state through the plasma.
4) intra-pulmonary pressure is equal to
Statement-II: Every 100 ml of oxygenated
atmospheric pressure
blood can deliver around 5 ml of O2 to the
154. Match the following columns and choose the tissues under normal physiological conditions.
correct option. 1) Both Statements I and II are correct
Column - I Column - II 2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
incorrect
A) G-actin i) Light band
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
B) Meromyosin ii) Monomer of myosin correct
C) Tropomyosin iii) Actin 4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
157. Which of the following part/s is/are related to
D) Z-line iv) F-actin
foregut of cockroach?
1) A - iv, B - ii, C - iii, D - i 1) Six chitinous teeth containing part
2) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv 2) Food storage part
3) A - iv, B - i, C - iii, D - ii 3) Short tubular part lies immediately after
4) A - ii, B - iv, C - iii, D - i mouth
4) all of these
 23 Test ID : 904 [A]
158. Match the following columns and choose the In the above statements
correct option. 1) A and C are correct, B is incorrect
Column - I Column - II 2) A and B are incorrect, C is correct
i) Depolarisation of 3) A, B, C are incorrect
A) P - wave
ventricles 4) A, B, C are correct

ii) Reploraisation 161. Assertion(A): The neurotransmitters help in the

B) QRS complex transmission of impulses at chemical synapses.
of ventricles
Reason (R): Neurotransmitters have no role in
iii) Depolarisation
C) T-wave transmission of impulse through electrical
of atria
synapses.
iv) Marks the end
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
D) End of the T-wave of ventricular
explanation of A
systole
2) A is true but R is false
1) A - iii, B - i, C - ii, D - iv
3) A is false but R is true
2) A - iii, B - ii, C - i, D - iv
4) Both A and R are true and R is not the
3) A - iii, B - i, C - iv, D - ii correct explanation of A
4) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii 162. Statement-I: Ovaries are primary female sex
159. i) Stimulate hypothalamus organs.
ii) Facilitates water reabsorption Statement-II: Ovaries produce female
iii) Loss of body fluid activates osmoreceptors gametes and only peptide hormones.
iv) Release of ADH 1) Both Statements I and II are correct
v) Acts on latter parts of renal tubule 2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
Identify the correct sequence of the events incorrect
involving to prevent diuresis. 3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
1) iii - i - iv - v - ii correct
2) iii - v - iv - ii - i 4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
3) ii - i - iv - v - iii 163. Match the following column-I with column-II.
4) iii - i - v - iv - ii Column - I Column - II
160. Sweat produced by the sweat glands A) Primary follicle i) Mature follicle
A. is a watery fluid containing NaCl
B) Secondary follicle ii) Antrum
B. helps in removal of some of the wastes
C) Tertiary follicle iii) Primary oocyte
C. primary function is to provide cooling
effect D) Graafian follicle
 24 Test ID : 904 [A]
1) A - iii, B - i, C - i, D - ii 1) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i
2) A - i, B - iii, C - i, D - iii 2) A - iii, B - ii, C - iv, D - i
3) A - iii, B - iii, C - ii, D - i 3) A - iv, B - ii, C - i, D - iii
4) A - iii, B - ii, C - iii, D - i 4) A - i, B - iii, C - ii, D - iv
164. Zygote undergoes cleavage as it 168. Inhuman genetics, pedigree study provides a
1) moves through the isthmus of oviduct strong tool, which is utilized to
2) moves towards uterus 1) trace the inheritance of a specific trait
3) moves towards ampulla 2) trace the inheritance of an abnormality
4) both 1 and 2 3) trace the inheritance of a disease
165. Placenta transports substances to and from 4) all the above
embryo through 169. Incase of sickle - cell anaemia, which
1) chorionic villi 2) trophoblastic villi genotype shows the diseased phenotype?
3) umbilical cord 4) all the above 1) HbS HbA 2) HbA HbS
166. Which of the following measure/s to be taken 3) HbA HbA 4) HbSHbS
to tackle the problem of population growth in 170. Assertion(A): Hormone receptors are specific.
India? Reason (R): Each receptor is specific to one
1) To motivate smaller families by using hormone only.
various contraceptive methods 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
2) Statutory raising of marriageable age of the explanation of A
female to 18 years and that of males to 21 2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
years correct explanation of A
3) Giving incentives to couples with small 3) A is true but R is false
families 4) A is false but R is true
4) all the above 171. Select
the correct one w.r.t the Down’s
167. Match
the following carefully and identify the syndrome.
correct answer. A) Congenital heart disease
List - I List - II B) Gynaecomastia
A) IVF - ET i) Barrier C) Many ‘loops’ on finger tips

B) STI ii) Test tube baby D) Trisomy of 18th chromosome

1) A and D only 2) A and C only
C) Vasectomy iii) Genital warts
3) B and D only 4) A, C and D only
D) Vaults iv) Sterilization
 25 Test ID : 904 [A]
172. Identifythe incorrect statements from the 176. The most feared property of malignant tumor
following. is
i) The skull of baby chimpanzee is more like 1) contact inhibition 2) metastasis
adult human skull 3) apoptosis 4) metagenesis
ii) Australopithecines probably lived in East 177. Which of the following organisms breed only
African grasslands at about 1.5 mya once in their life time?
iii) Pre-historic cave art developed about 1800 1) Birds and mammals
years ago 2) Pacific salmon fish and bamboo
iv) Agriculture came around 10,000 years ago 3) Oysters and bamboo
1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 4) both 2 and 3
3) iii and iv 4) i, ii, iii and iv 178. Statement-I: Herbivores
and plants appear to be
173. Assertion(A): Treatment of AIDS with anti more adversely affected by competition than
retroviral drugs is partially effective. carnivores.
Reason (R): They can only prolong the life of Statement-II: Interspecific competition is a
the patient but cannot prevent death, which is potent force in organic evolution.
inevitable. 1) Both Statements I and II are correct
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
explanation of A incorrect
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the 3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
correct explanation of A correct
3) A is true but R is false 4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
4) A is false but R is true 179. Therate of production of organic matter
174. Identify the correct pair of mammals of during photosynthesis is called
Australia that exhibits convergent evolution? 1) gross primary productivity
1) Koala and bandicoot 2) net primary productivity
2) Mouse and marsupial mouse 3) secondary productivity
3) Numbat and bandicoot 4) biomass
4) Tasmanian tiger cat and Tasmanian wolf 180. Theamount of the energy present at the
175. Choose the correct matching pair. secondary consumers is available to
1) Morphine : Cannabinoid 1) top carnivores
2) Morphine : Opioid 2) decomposers
3) Heroin : Coca alkaloid 3) tertiary consumers
4) Marijuana : Coca alkaloid 4) all of these
 26 Test ID : 904 [A]
181. Which of the following is not a character of 3) Both Statements I and II are correct
stable community? 4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
1) More productivity 184. Observe the following pie chart of
2) Decline in productivity invertebrates and identify the animals
3) More species richness represented by A.
4) both 1 and 3
182. What is the goal of World Summit on
sustainable development held in 2002,
Johannesburg, South Africa?
1) To achieve a significant reduction of
biodiversity at global, regional and local 1) Molluscs 2) Insects
levels by 2005 3) Crustaceans 4) Other animal groups
2) To achieve a significant reduction in the 185. Match the following columns and choose the
current rate of biodiversity loss at global, correct option.
regional and local levels by 2010
Column - I Column - II
3) To reduce UV rays falling on earth by 2010
A) Grasshopper i) Feeds on rabbit
4) To reduce the release of chlorofluorocarbons
183. Statement-I:Triploblastic animals with radial B) Lizard ii) Feeds on insects
symmetry are acoelomates. C) Mouse iii) Feeds on grass
Statement-II: Aschelminthes are bilaterally D) Hawk iv) Feeds on seeds
symmetrical animals with false coelom.
1) A- ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv
1) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
2) A- iii, B - ii, C - i, D - iv
incorrect
3) A- iii, B - ii, C - iv, D - i
2) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
correct 4) A- ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii

SECTION – B (15 questions)

Section – B consists of 15 questions. Candidates are allowed to answer any 10 questions only out of 15 questions
given. In case if candidates attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions only considered for
marking.
186. All of the following statements are correct 3) Epithelium which lines the stomach bears
except cilia
1) Cuboidal epithelium is commonly found in 4) In columnar epithelium, nuclei are located
ducts of glands at the base
2) Tissue that lines the air sacs of lungs
forming a diffusion boundary
 27 Test ID : 904 [A]
187. Read the following statements w.r.t largest 190. Opening of tricuspid valves allows the flow of
phylum in the animal kingdom. blood from
a) Over two-thirds of all named species on 1) left ventricle to right ventricle
earth are under this phylum 2) right atrium to right ventricle
b) Triploblastic, segmented and coelomates
3) left atrium to right atrium
c) Body is covered by chitinous exoskeleton
4) right ventricle to pulmonary artery
d) Gills, book gills, book lungs or trachea as
191. Mark the correct statement w.r.t regulation of
excretory organs
cardiac activity by ANS.
e) Statocysts/ balancing organs are present
Choose the correct statements from the option 1) The parasympathetic neural system
given below. stimulates heart rate and stroke volume
1) a, b and d 2) a, c and d 2) The sympathetic neural system stimulates
3) c and d 4) a, b, c and e heart rate and stroke volume
188. Choose the jawless vertebrate from the 3) The parasympathetic neural system
following decreases the heart rate but increases the
speed of conduction of action potentials
4) The sympathetic neural system decrease the
heart rate increase stroke volume.
1) 192. Identify given diagram.

2)
1) sliding of thin filament
2) cross bridge formation
3) 3) rotation of thick filament
4) breaking of cross bridges
193. Statement-I: Brain is the central information
processing organ of our body.
4)
Statement-II: Brain acts as the command and
control system.
1) Both Statements I and II are correct
189. In a population that follows H.W.E the
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
genotypic frequency of recessive individuals is
0.49. What would be the allelic frequency of incorrect
dominant allele? 3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
1) 0.7 2) 0.3 correct
3) 0.42 4) 0.9 4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
 28 Test ID : 904 [A]
194. Thenatural method of contraception in which 2) Cell mediated immunity is antibody
male partner withdraws his penis from the independent
vagina just before ejaculation so as to avoid 3) T-lymphocytes mediate cell mediated
insemination is immunity
1) periodic abstinence 2) coitus interruptus 4) Memory T-cells too can produce antibodies
3) withdrawal 4) both 2 and 3 198. The number of individuals of the population
195. In the given picture ‘C’ indicates ____ who left the habitat and gone elsewhere during
the time period under consideration is called
1) mortality 2) immigration
3) natality 4) emigration
199. Matchthe following columns and choose the
correct option.
Column - I Column - II
i) Intrinsic rate of natural
A) Nt
increase
B) r ii) Population density after time t
C) K iii) Population density at time t
1) stabilising selection
2) directional selection D) N iv) Carrying capacity
3) disruptive selection v) The base of natural
E) No
4) both 1 and 3 logarithms
196. Assertion(A): Male honey bees do not have vi) Population density at time
father and thus cannot have sons. zero
Reason (R): An unfertilized egg develops as a 1) A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii, E - vi
male (drone) by means of parthenogenesis. 2) A - vi, B - i, C - iv, D - iii, E - ii
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 3) A - ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii, E - vi
explanation of A 4) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv, E - vi
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the 200. Whichof the following is not the character of
correct explanation of A biodiversity hotspot?
3) A is true but R is false 1) High levels of species richness
4) A is false but R is true 2) High degree of endemism
197. Choosethe incorrect statement w.r.t acquired 3) Less biodiversity
immunity.
4) Accelerated habitat loss
1) Humoral immune response is antibody
dependent
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