RESUMO ATP

Flight Crew Duty Time Limits

Augmented, or unaugmented operations.

Calendar day

Fatigue-reduced mental or physical performance capability

Physiological night’s rest means 10 hours of rest that encompasses the hours of 0100 and
0700 at the flightcrew member’s home base,

Rest period

Short-call reserve-period of time in which a flightcrew member is assigned to a reserve

availability period. For short-call reserve, may not exceed 14 hours.

Theater means a geographical area in which the distance between the flightcrew member’s
flight duty period departure point and arrival point differs by no more than 60 degrees
longitude...based on the local time at the theater in which the flightcrew member was last
acclimated.

Unforeseen operational circumstance- unplanned event of insufficient duration to allow for

adjustments to schedules, including WX, MAINTENANCE, ATC.
prior to takeoff, the PIC and the certificate holder may extend up to 2 hours.
after takeoff, the PIC and the certificate Holder may extend to necessary to safely land the
aircraft at the next destination airport or alternate airport, as appropriate.

Window of circadian low means a period of max sleepiness btw 0200-0559

No accept more than three consecutive flight duty periods.

Flight Duty Periods

(FDP) MAX 60 flight duty h in any 168 consecutive h.

Before beginning any reserve or flight duty period, a flightcrew member must be given at least
30 consecutive h free from all duty within the past 168 consecutive-hour period.

No certificate holder may schedule, and no flightcrew member may accept an assignment if
the flightcrew member’s total flight duty period will exceed 190 FDP hours in any 672
consecutive hours. at least 10 consecutive h immediately before the reserve or flight duty
period.

The maximum flight time for unaugmented operations is as follows (14 CFR §117.11 Table A):
Time of report (acclimated) Maximum flight time
0000-0459 8h
0500-1959 9h
2000-2359 8h

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8706. Fatigue can be evident in others if they
B— yawn excessively.

8707. You did not get a good night’s rest and have been on duty for several hours. A sign you
may be fatigued is
B— decreased short term memory.
.
8708. Under 14 CFR 121, a required flightcrew member of an unaugmented two-pilot flag
operation may not exceed how many hours duty in a seven consecutive day period?
C— 32.

8709. Under 14 CFR 121, a required flightcrew member of an unaugmented two-pilot flag
operation may not exceed how many hours duty in a one calendar month
period?
B— 100.

8227. How does deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty assignment, affect the
computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmembers? It is
C— not considered to be part of a rest period.

8228. Flight duty period hours for flightcrew members are limited to
A— 190 hours in any 672 consecutive hours.

8220. Flight duty period hours for flightcrew members are limited to
B— 190 hours in any 672 consecutive hours.

8221. “Window of circadian low” means a period of maximum sleepiness that occurs between
C— 0200 – 0559.

8219. For a short-call reserve, the reserve availability period may not exceed
B— 14 hours.

8222. If the crew van breaks down en route to the rest facility and delays arrival for nearly 2
hours, does the flightcrew member need to notify the certificate holder?
C— Yes, if the flightcrew member does not have the opportunity for 10 hours of uninterrupted
hours free from duty.

8223. “Airport standby reserve” means

C— a defined duty period during which a flight crewmember is required by the certificate
Holder to be available for possible assignment.

9714. Each flightcrew member must report

C— for any flight duty period rested and prepared to perform his duty.

8211. You are on the last day of a four day trip and haven’t slept well. What is a warning sign
that you are fatigued?
B— Head bobbing.

8224. No flightcrew member may accept an assignment for any reserve or flight duty period
unless the flight crew member is given
A— 10 consecutive hours of rest immediately before beginning a flight duty period or a reserve
period.

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8229. You are a pilot operating under 14 CFR Part 121 and are in a required rest period. When
can you be contacted about your next day duty assignment?
B— At the end of your required rest period.

8231. “Rest period” means

B— a continuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member is free
from all restraint by the certificate holder.

8238. “Theater” means

C— a geographical area in which the distance between the flightcrew member flight duty
period
departure point and arrival point differs by no more than 60 degrees longitude.

9837. “Physiological night’s rest” means

B— 10 hours of rest that encompasses the hours of 0100 and 0700 at the crewmember’s home
base.

9838. In order to be assigned for duty, each flightcrew

member must report
B— to the airport on time, after the designated rest period and fully prepared to accomplish
assigned duties.

9840. In an airplane assigned with a minimum flight crew of two, your flight time may not
exceed
B— 9 hours if assigned to report at 0500.

9841. For unaugmented flightcrew operations, yourmaximum flight duty period limit is
A— 13 hours if assigned to report at 0700 for 4 flight segments. (see the table)

9850. Flightcrew member’s flight duty periods are limited to

A— 60 hours in any 168 consecutive hours.

8724. What is the minimum rest period required before a flight or reserve duty period?
B— 10 consecutive hours rest.

8194. Normally, a dispatcher for domestic or flag operations should be scheduled for no more
than
C— 10 consecutive hours of duty.

Dispatching and Flight Release

FLAG and DOMESTIC

The dispatch release contains the following information.
• The identification number of the aircraft
• The trip number
• The departure, destination, intermediate and alternate airports
• The type of operation (IFR or VFR)
• The minimum fuel supply
• The latest weather reports and forecasts for the complete flight (may be attached to the
release rather than be part of it)

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Domestic flight lands at an intermediate airport named in its original dispatch release and
departs again within 1 hour, it does not need a new dispatch release. If it remains on the
ground for more than 1 hour, a redispatch release must be issued.

Flag flight lands at an intermediate airport named in its original dispatch release and departs
again within 6 hours, it does not need a new dispatch release. If it remains on the ground for
more than 6 hours, a redispatch is required.

The PIC of a flight shall carry in the airplane to its destination:

• A copy of the completed load manifest
• A copy of the dispatch release
• A copy of the flight plan.
copies of these documents for at least 3 months.

SUPPLEMENTAL CARRIER or COMMERCIAL

flight release contain the following information:
• The company or organization name
• Make, model and registration number of the aircraft used
• The flight or trip number and the date of the flight
• The name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant and the pilot designated as PIC
• The departure, destination, intermediate and alternate airports and route
• The type of operation (e.g., IFR or VFR)
• The minimum fuel supply
• The latest weather reports and forecasts for the complete flight (may be attached to the
release rather than be part of it)

8003. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular

geographic area?
A— Operations Specifications.

9745. No person may operate a U.S. registered civil aircraft

B— for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current,
approved AFM or RFM available.

8430. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier
certificate Holder for the purpose of
C— providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable.

8429. An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for
the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is
a/an:
B— provisional airport.

8767. A person who is not authorized to conduct direct air carrier operations, but who is
authorized by the Administrator to conduct operations as a U.S. comercial operator, will be
issued
C— an Operating Certificate.

8768. The kinds of operation a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the
A— certificate holder’s operations specifications.

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9782. All 14 CFR Part 139 airports must report
C— declared distances for each runway.

8292. What information must be contained in,or attached to, the dispatch release for a
domestic air carrier flight?
A— Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number.

8243. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and
termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the
B— pilot in command and director of operations.

8290. Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag
air carrier flight?
A— Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number.

8293. What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release?
B— Minimum fuel supply and trip number.

8283. Where can the pilot of a flag air carrier airplane find the latest FDC NOTAMs?
A— Any company dispatch facility.

8284. Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in
command on all available weather information?
B— Aircraft dispatcher.

8280. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier
airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services?
A— The aircraft dispatcher.

8232. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport.
How long before a redispatch release is required?
A— Not more than 1 hour.

8267. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a
delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release?
C— 0045Z.
No person may continue a flag air carrier flight from na intermediate airport without
redispatch if the airplane has been on the ground more than 6 hours. (PLT398)— 14 CFR
§121.595

8260. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at na intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time
it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is
B— 1915Z.
Except when a domestic air carrier airplane lands at na intermediate airport specified in the
original dispatch release and remains there for not more than 1 hour, no person may start a
flight unless an aircraft dispatcher specifically authorizes that flight. (PLT398) — 14 CFR
§121.593

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8226. What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or
commercial operator carry to the destination airport?
B— Copy of the flight plan.
The pilot-in-command shall carry in the airplane to its destination: load manifest, flight release,
airworthiness release, pilot route certification, and flight plan. (PLT400) — 14 CFR §121.687

8286. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight?.
C— Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and flight plan.

8291. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight
release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in
command are
A— supplemental and commercial.

8287. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or comercial operator retain a record of the
load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan?
B— 3 months.

8295. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and
commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air
carriers is the
B— names of all crewmembers.

“ETOPS entry point” means the first point on the Route of an ETOPS flight that is
(1) more than 60 minutes from an adequate airport for airplanes with two engines, and
(2) more than 180 minutes from an adequate airport for passenger-carrying airplanes with
more than two engines. This is determined using a one-engine inoperative cruise speed under
standard conditions in still air. (PLT425) — 14 CFR §121.7

Before an ETOPS flight may commence, an ETOPS pre-departure service check (PDSC)
Signatory Person, who has been authorized by the certificate holder, must certify by signature,
that the ETOPS PDSC has been completed. (PLT425) — 14 CFR §121.374

9746-2. For flight planning, a Designated ETOPS Alternate Airport

A— for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO
category 4,unless the airport’s RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 30
minutes.

9761. What is considered “north polar”?

C— north of 78° N latitude.

9762. What is considered “south polar”?

A— south of 60° S latitude.

8282. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on
meteorological conditions?
B— Pilot in command.

8281. Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions, weather,
and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight?
C— Pilot in command.

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Fuel Requirements
Domestic flights: A+B+C+45 min .
1. Fly to the airport to which the flight was dispatched;
2. Thereafter, fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport (if an alternate is required)
and
3. Thereafter, fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.
(The fuel required for a flag flight landing in the 48 contiguous states or the District of
Columbia is the same as for domestic flights.)
(The fuel requirements for reciprocating-powered supplemental or commercial operations
landing in the contiguous 48 states is the same as for domestic operations.)

alternate is not required or the flight is being made to a remote airport where no alternate is
available:
A+B+2 hours .
1. Enough fuel to fly to the destination, and then;
2. Fly for two hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

A turbojet supplemental flight (with an alternate available) landing outside the 48 contiguous
states:
A+B+10%+C+30 min 1.500ft holding
1. Fly to the destination, then
2. Fly 10% of the total time required to fly to the destination, then
3. Fly to the alternate, then
4. Fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 feet above the alternate.

Propeller driven flag flights:

A+B+C+30 min+15% total flight time; or
A+B+C+90 min; whichever is LESS.
1. Fly to the airport to which the flight was dispatched;
2. Thereafter, fly to and land at the most distant alternate; and
3. Thereafter, fly for 30 minutes plus 15% of the total flying time to the destination and the
alternate at normal cruising fuel consumption; or fly for 90 minutes, whichever is less.

reciprocating engine powered .

alternate is not required or
no alternate is available:
A+B+3 hours normal cruising fuel consumption.

8268. The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is
B— 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at
the most distant alternate airport. A+B+C+45 min

8269. The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag air carrier turbojet airplane
on a flight within the 48 contiguous United States, after reaching the most distant alternate
airport, should be
A— 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.

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8271. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to na island airport for which an alternate
airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that
airport and thereafter to fly
A— at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

8272. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier,
turbojet-powered airplane on IFR flight outside 48 contiguous US, if enough fuel
B— is aboard the airplane to fly to the Destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at
normal cruising fuel consumption.

8276. A turbine-engine-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no
available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve?
B— 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption.(CONSIDER THE WIND)

8273. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-enginepowered (other than turbopropeller)
supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside
the 48 contiguous United States is
A— 30 minutes

8270. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-
powered airplane flying within the 48 contiguous United States upon arrival at the most
distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly
C— 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.

8274. Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a
turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane?
C— 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise,
whichever is less.

8275. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon
the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is
B— 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

8277. The fuel reserve required for a reciprocatingengine-powered supplemental air carrier
airplane upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight in the 48 contiguous
United States is
A— 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.

8275. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon
the arrival at destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is
B— 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

Carriage of Passengers and Cargo

Before takeoff all the passengers must be briefed on:
• Smoking,
• the location of emergency exits,
• the use of seatbelts,
• the location and use of any required means of emergency flotation.

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Before flight is conducted above FL250, a crewmember must instruct the passengers on the
necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, and must point out to them
the location and demonstrate the use of the oxygen dispensing equipment

“sterile cockpit rule,” crewmembers are required to refrain from nonessential activities during
critical phases of flight.

critical phases of flight - taxi, takeoff, and landing, and all other flight operations below
10,000 FT except cruise flight.

Nonessential activities: eating, reading a newspaper, or chatting.

Law enforcement officers may carry firearms on board an air carrier flight if their duties so
require.

Except in an emergency, the carrier should be given at least one hour prior notice that a
person carrying a deadly weapon is going to be on the flight. If a passenger is carrying a
firearm in their checked baggage, the weapon must be unloaded and the bag locked. The
passenger must retain the key to the bag. The bag must be stowed in a portion of the aircraft
that is inaccessible to both the passenger and to crewmembers in flight.

Prisoners:
-always escorted
-no more than one prisoner who is classified as “maximum risk” on the aircraft.
• The prisoner and escort must be boarded before all other passengers and must stay on
board until all other passengers have deplaned.
• The prisoner and escort must sit in the most rearward passenger seats and the escort must
sit between the prisoner and the aisle.
• may serve the prisoner and the escort food and beverages, but NO alcohol.

If a person who appears to be intoxicated creates a disturbance on a flight, a report of the

incidente must be made to the Administrator (the FAA) within 5 days.

8131. A certificate holder is notified that a person specifically authorized to carry a deadly
weapon is to be aboard an aircraft. Except in an emergency, how long before loading that flight
should the air carrier be notified?
B— A minimum of 1 hour.

8137. When a passenger notifies the certificate Holder prior to checking baggage that an
unloaded weapon is in the baggage, what action is required by regulation regarding this
baggage?
B— The baggage must remain locked and carried in an area that is inaccessible to the
passenger, and only the passenger retains the key.

9763. What is meant by “sterile cockpit”?

B— Crewmembers refrain from nonessential activities during critical phases of flight.

8136. Which applies to the carriage of a person in the custody of law enforcement personnel?
B— No more than one person considered to be in the maximum risk category may be carried
on a flight, and that person must have at least two armed law enforcement escorts.

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8132. When a person in the custody of law enforcement personnel is scheduled on a flight,
what procedures are required regarding boarding of this person and the escort?
A— They shall be boarded before all Other passengers board, and deplaned after all the other
passengers have left the aircraft.

8225. Which announcement must be made if the seat belt sign will be turned off during flight?
B— Passenger should keep their seat belts fastened while seated.

8181. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the

necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flights conducted
above
C— FL 250.

8153. When may two persons share one approved safety belt in a lounge seat?
B— Only during the en route flight.

8234. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies?
B— The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew
compartment.

8244. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons from
admittance to the flight deck
B— in the interest of safety.

8233. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard an air carrier aircraft, the
certificate Holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within
B— 5 days.

8139. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the
passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane?
B— The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access
to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment.

8175. Which restriction applies to a cargo bin in a passenger compartment? The bin
B— must withstand the load factor required of passenger seats, multiplied by 1.15, using the
combined weight of the bin and the maximum weight of the cargo that may be carried in the
bin.

8138. What restrictions must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger
compartment of an airplane operated under 14 CFR Part 121?
C— Cargo may be carried aft of a divider if properly secured by a safety belt or other tiedown
having enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting.

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Part 135
Carriage of Passengers and Cargo
Requirements

8007. Where must a certificate holder keep copies of completed load manifests and
for what period of time?
A— 1 month at its principal operations base, or at a location approved by the
Administrator.

8009. Who is responsible for the preparation of a required load manifest?

C— The certificate holder.

8032. Which restriction must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the
passenger compartment?
A— It is packaged or covered to avoid possible injury to occupants.

9720. A person whose duties include the handling or carriage of dangerous articles
and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an approved training
program established by the certificate Holder within the previous
B— 12 calendar months.

8040. Which is a requirement governing the carriage of cargo, on a scheduled

passenger flight?
A— Cargo must be carried in an approved rack, bin, or compartment.

8039. In a cargo-only operation, cargo must be loaded

B— in such a manner that at least one emergency or regular exit is available to all
occupants.

8043. The load manifest must be prepared prior to each takeoff for
B— any aircraft with more than one engine.

Emergency Equipment and Operations

fire extinguishers,
megaphones,
first aid kits and a
crash ax.

All this equipment must:

• Be inspected regularly.
• Be readily accessible to the crew and, for items in the pax cabin, to the passengers.
• Be clearly identified and marked with its method of operation
Only one crash ax is required on the airplane and must be carried on the flight deck. At least
one hand fire extinguisher must be carried on the flight deck.
The number of extinguishers carried in the cabin is determined by:

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Minimum Number of Hand Fire Extinguishers in the Passenger Cabin:
Passenger Seating Capacity Extinguishers Required
6 through 30 ...................................................................................1
31 through 60..................................................................................2
61 through 200................................................................................3
201 through 300..............................................................................4
301 through 400..............................................................................5
401 through 500..............................................................................6
501 through 600..............................................................................7
601 or more ....................................................................................8

The number of megaphones

seating capacity of 60 - 99 one megaphone in the most rearward location in the passenger
cabin that is readily accessible to a normal flight attendant seat.
seating capacity of 100 +, one megafone at the rear of the cabin and another at the front of
the cabin.

emergency exit light system PAX airplanes.

The system must be operablemanually from
flight crew station and
from a point in the pax compartment readily accessible to a flight attendant.

System ARMED must come ON automatically with electrical power interruption.

EXIT LTS must be ARMED or ON during taxiing, takeoff and landing.
Every EMERGENCY EXIT (except overwing) more than 6 feet from the ground must have a
SLIDE in the event of an emergency evacuation.

PA and a separate crewmember interphone system  more than 19 seats.

Each crewmember must have a FLASHLIGHT

above 10,000 ft  enough oxygen for all crewmembers for the entire flight at those altitudes,
and MIN a 2-hour supply.

above FL250 each flight crewmember on flight deck duty must have an oxygen mask, within
immediate reach, rapidly placed on his/her face, a “quick-donning” oxygen mask. it can be put
on the user’s face within 5 seconds.
above FL250, one pilot leaves his/her station, the other pilot must put on his oxig mask.
Above FL410 one pilot must wear his/her mask at all times. Notice that the rule
Above FL250 the F.E. needs only have a quick-donning mask readily available.
cabin altitude above 15,000 ft  oxygen to all passengers.

Passengers on turbine airplanes must be supplied oxygen:

• above 10,000 to 14.000 ft CABIN ALT oxy to 10% of the pax in excess of 30 min.
• above 14,000 to 15,000 ft CABIN ANL oxy to 30% of the pax for the entire time.
• above 15,000 ft CABIN ALT oxy for all the passengers for the entire time of flight.

first aid oxygen for pax on flights above FL250. MINIMUM 2 oxy bottles.

extended over-water flights (> 50 NM) LIFE PRESERVER for each occupant of the aircraft,
and enough life rafts to accommodate all the occupants.

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• Each LIFE RAFT and each LIFE VEST with a survivor locator light.
• A SURVIVAL KIT must be attached to each life raft.
• at least one portable emergency radio transmitter.

fly over uninhabited terrain, FLAG or SUPPLEMENTAL or COMMERCIAL

SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT:
• pyrotechnic signaling.
• survival-type ELT.
• survival kits for all the occupants of the airplane.

In an emergency situation that requires immediate decision and action, the pilot-in-command
may take any action that he/she considers necessary under the circumstances. In such a case
the PIC may deviate from prescribed procedures and methods, weather minimums and
regulations to the extent required in the interest of safety.

If the dispatcher cannot communicate with the pilot, he/she shall declare an emergency and
take any action he/she considers necessary under the circumstances.

emergency or emergency evacuation.

emergency training annually on several subjects. Besides the training they must perform
emergency drills in:
• operation of emergency exits;
• Hand fire extinguishers;
• emergency oxy system and protective breathing equipment (PBE);
• Donning, inflation and use of individual flotation equipment; and
• Ditching.

Crewmembers who FLY above 25,000 ft must receive instruction in hypoxia, respiration and
decompression.
Recurrent training at least each 24 months.

PIC must report ground radio station of the ENGINE STOP in flight as soon as practicable and
must keep that station informed of the progress of the flight.
As a general rule, when an engine fails or is shutdown, the PIC must land the aircraft at the
nearest suitable airport,
for airplanes with 3 or more engines If only 1 engine has failed, the PIC may continue to
destination if this is as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.

declaring the emergency the person shall send a written report of any deviation through the
air carrier’s operations manager to the Administrator (FAA).
A dispatcher must send this report within 10 days after the date of the emergency.
A PIC must send the report within 10 days after returning to his/her home base.

When ATC gives priority to an aircraft in an emergency, the chief of the ATC facility involved
may ask the PIC to submit a report.  If asked, the PIC must submit a detailed written report
to the ATC facility manager within 48 hours. This is required whether or not there was a
deviation from regulations.

9379. During an emergency, a PIC does not deviate from a 14 CFR rule but is given priority
by ATC. To whom or under what condition is the pilot required to submit a written report?
C— Upon request by ATC, submit a written report within 48 hours to the ATC manager.

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9388. When may ATC request a detailed report on na emergency even though a rule has not
been violated?
A— When priority has been given.

8177. Which requirement applies to emergency equipment (fire extinguishers, megaphones,

first-aid kits, and crash ax) installed in an air carrier airplane?
C— Emergency equipment must be clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate its method
of operation.

8161. How many portable battery-powered megafones are required on an air carrier airplane
with a seating capacity of 100 passengers on a trip segment when 45 passengers are carried?
A— Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location in the pax
cabin.

8176. Which factor determines the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers required for
flight under 14 CFR Part 121?
C— Airplane passenger seating accommodations.

8162. How many portable battery-powered megafones are required on an air carrier airplane
with a seating capacity of 150 passengers on a trip segment when 75 passengers are carried?
C— Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location of the
passenger cabin.

8160. Where should the portable battery-powered megaphone be located if only one is
required on a passenger-carrying airplane?
C— The most rearward location in the passenger cabin.

8144. The EMERGENCY LTS on a passenger airplane must be ARMED or turned ON during
A— taxiing, takeoff, cruise, and landing.

8159. FAR require that interior emergency lights must

B— be operable manually from the flightcrew station and a point in the pax compartment.
8178. A crewmember interphone system is required on which airplane?
C— An airplane with more than 19 passenger seats.

8157. If a passenger-carrying landplane is required to have an automatic deploying escape

slide system, When must this system be armed?
A— For taxi, takeoff, and landing.

8179. An air carrier airplane must have an operating public address system if it
B— has a seating capacity for more than 19 passengers.

8235. Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a
C— flashlight in good working order.

8158. If there is a required emergency exit located in the flightcrew compartment, the door
which separates the compartment from the passenger cabin must be
C— latched open during takeoff and landing.

8173. How much supplemental oxy for EMERG DESC must pressurized turbine-powered
airplane carry for each crewmember on flight deck operating at altitudes above 10,000 ft?
A— A minimum of 2-hours’ supply.

14
8183. Each air carrier flight deck crewmember on flight deck duty must be provided with an
oxygen mask that can be rapidly placed on his face when operating at flight altitudes
C— above FL 250.

8155. If either pilot of an air carrier leaves the duty station while at FL 410, the other pilot
B— shall put on the oxygen mask and breathe oxygen.

8184. A flight crewmember must be able to don and use a quick-donning oxygen mask within
A – 5 seconds.

8156. If a turbine-engine-powered, pressurized airplane is not equipped with quick-donning

oxygen masks, what is the maximum flight altitude authorized without one pilot wearing and
using an oxygen mask?
C— FL 250.
When operating at flight altitudes above flight level 250, one pilot at the controls of the
airplane shall at all times wear and use an oxygen mask secured, sealed, and supplying oxygen,
except that the one pilot need not wear and use an oxygen mask while at or below flight level
410 if each flight crewmember on flight deck duty has a quick-donning type oxygen mask.

8187. What is the highest FL operations may be conducted without the pilot at the controls
wearing and using an oxygen mask, while the other pilot is away from the duty station?
B— FL 250.

8185. For a 2-h flT in a reciprocating airplane at a cabin pressure altitude of 12,000 feet, how
much supplemental oxygen for sustenance must be provided? Enough oxygen for
A— 30 minutes for 10 percent of the passengers.

8174. What is the pax oxygen supply requirement for a flight, in a turbine-powered aircraft,
with a cabin pressure altitude in excess of 15,000 feet? Enough oxygen for
A— each passengers for the entire flight above 15,000 feet cabin altitude.

8186. For flights ABV which CABIN ALT must oxy be provided for all pax during the entire flight.
A— 15,000 feet.

8180. What is the minimum number of acceptable oxygen-dispensing units for first-aid
treatment of occupants who might require undiluted oxygen for physiological reasons?
A— Two.

8164. Which emergency equipment is required for a flag air carrier flight between JFK and
London, England?
B— An appropriately equipped survival kit attached to each required liferaft.

8169. Life preservers required for overwater operations are stored

A— within easy reach of each passenger.
B— under each occupant seat.
C— within easy reach of each seated occupant.
The required life rafts, life preservers, and survival-type emergency locator transmitter must be
easily accessible in the event of a ditching without appreciable time for preparatory
procedures.

15
8167. For a flight over uninhabited terrain, an airplane operated by a flag or supplemental air
carrier must carry enough appropriately equipped survival kits for
B— all aircraft occupants.

8166. Each large aircraft operating over water must have a life preserver for each
A— aircraft occupant.

8168. When a supplemental air carrier is operating over an uninhabited area, how many
appropriately equipped survival kits are required aboard the aircraft?
C— One for each occupant of the aircraft.

8170. An airplane operated by a supplemental air carrier flying over uninhabited terrain must
carry which emergency equipment?
B— Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices.

8172. An airplane operated by a flag air carrier operator flying over uninhabited terrain must
carry which emergency equipment?
A— Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices.

8245. If an aircraft dispatcher cannot communicate with the pilot of an air carrier flight during
an emergency, the aircraft dispatcher should
A— take any action considered necessary under the circumstances.

8171. An airplane operated by a commercial operator flying over uninhabited terrain must
carry which emergency equipment?
C— An approved survival-type ELT

8218. How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment,
after initial training? Once every
C— 24 calendar months.

8236. If an engine’s rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon
as practicable, to the
A— appropriate ground radio station.

8200. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an
emergency shall be assigned by the
C— certificate holder.

8237. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine
turbojet airplane, the pilot in command
C— may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the
nearest suitable airport.

8204. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and
decompression to crewmembers serving on pressurized airplanes operated above
C— FL 250.

8241. What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of
the two engines on an air carrier airplane?
B— Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made.

16
8246. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an
emergency?
C— Person who declares the emergency.

8239. An aircraft dispatcher declares an emergency for a flight and a deviation results. A
written report shall be sent through the air carrier’s operations manager by the
A— dispatcher to the FAA Administrator within 10 days of the event.

8725. Bird strikes in flight will be reported to the

B— FAA on an FAA form 5200-7.

8163. In the event of an engine emergency, the use of a cockpit check procedure by the
flightcrew is
B— required by regulations to prevent reliance upon memorized procedures.

8240. When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot
should submit a written report within
C— 10 days after returning to home base.

Part 135 Oxygen Requirements

8020. Which is a requirement for flightcrew use of oxygen masks in a pressurized cabin
airplane?
B— At altitudes above 25,000 feet MSL, if one pilot leaves the pilot duty station, the remaining
pilot at the controls shall use an oxygen mask.

8055. The two pilot stations of a pressurized aircraft are equipped with approved quick-
donning oxygen masks. What is the maximum altitude authorized if one pilot is not wearing an
oxygen mask and breathing oxygen?
B— 35,000 feet MSL.

8056. At altitudes above 10,000 feet through 12,000 feet MSL, each pilot of an unpressurized
airplane must use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight that is of a duration of more
than
B— 30 minutes.

8072. A pressurized airplane being operated at FL 330 can descend safely to 15,000 feet MSL in
3.5 minutes. What oxygen supply must be carried for all occupants other than the pilots?
A— 60 minutes.
B— 45 minutes.
C— 30 minutes.
No person may operate a pressurized aircraft above 15,000 feet MSL unless it is equipped to
supply oxygen to each occupant, other than the pilots, for 1 hour. This is reduced to a 30-
minute supply if the aircraft, at all times during flight above 15,000 feet MSL, can safely
descend to 15,000 feet within 4 minutes.

8080. The oxygen requirements for occupants of a pressurized airplane operated at altitudes
above FL 250 is dependent upon the airplane’s ability to descend safely to an altitude of
C— 15,000 feet MSL in 4 minutes.

17
8073. At what altitude, in an unpressurized airplane, must all passengers be supplied oxygen?
C— Above 15,000 feet MSL.

8021. Above which altitude/flight level must at least one of the two pilots, at the controls of a
pressurized aircraft (with quick-donning masks) wear a secured and sealed oxygen mask?
A— FL 300.
B— FL 350.
C— FL 250.
One pilot of a pressurized aircraft must wear an oxygen mask any time the aircraft is flown
above 35,000 feet MSL.

8074. Between what altitudes must oxygen be available to at least 10 percent of the
occupants, in an unpressurized airplane, other than the pilots?
B— Above 10,000 feet through 15,000 feet MSL, if flight at those altitudes is of more than a
30-minute duration

8023. Which is a pilot requirement for oxygen?

C— On unpressurized aircraft, flying above 12,000 feet MSL, pilots shall use oxygen
continuously.

8030. Which is a requirement regarding the carriage and operation of oxygen equipment for
medical use by passengers?
A— No person may smoke within 10 feet of oxygen storage and dispensing equipment.7

8081. An unpressurized aircraft with 20 occupants Other than the pilots will be cruising at
14,000 feet MSL for 25 minutes. For how many, if any, of these occupants must there be an
oxygen supply?
A— Five.
B— Two.
C— None.
In unpressurized aircraft, at altitudes above 10,000 feet MSL through 15,000 feet MSL, oxygen
must be available for 10% of the occupants, other than the pilots, for the part of the flight, at
those altitudes, in excess of 30-minutes duration. Above 15,000 feet MSL, oxygen must be
available to all occupants, other than the pilots.

8025. Which is a condition that must be met when a person is administered medical oxygen in
flight?
B— A person using oxygen equipment must be seated to avoid restricting access to, or use of,
any required exit.

8031. If a certificate holder deviates from the provisions of regulations which pertain to
medical use of oxygen by passengers, a complete report of the incident shall be sent to the
FAA within
B— 10 working days.

9819. What are the oxygen requirements for passengers if operating at 14,000 feet?
C— available for 10% of the occupants other than the pilots.

18
National Transportation Safety Board
(NTSB)

Aircraft accident  an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft that takes place
between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight, and the time all
such persons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in
which the aircraft receives substantial damage.

Serious injury means any injury that:

• hospitalization for > 48 h commencing within 7 days from the date injury was received.
• Results in fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes or nose).
• Causes severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle or tendon damage.
• Involves any internal organ.
• Involves second or third degree burns or any burns affecting more than 5% of the body
surface.

Substantial damage damage or failure that adversely affects the structural strength,
performance or flight characteristics of the aircraft and that would normally require major
repair or replacement of the affected component. Damage not considered substantial for
accident reporting purposes are as follows:
engine failure or damage limited to an engine if only one engine fails or is damaged, bent
fairings or cowling, dented skin, small punctured holes in the skin or fabric, ground damage to
rotor or propeller blades, and damage to the landing gear, wheels, tires, flaps, engine
accessories, brakes or wing tips.
The operator of an aircraft must immediately notify the nearest NTSB field office if any of the
following occur:
• Flight control system malfunction.
• An aircraft accident.
• Inability of any required flight crewmember to perform his normal flight duties as the result
of injury or illness.
• Failure of structural components of a turbine engine excluding compressor and turbine
blades and vanes.
• Inflight fire.
• Aircraft collide in flight.
• Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimate to exceed $25,000 for repair or fair
market value in the event of total loss whichever is less.
• Certain incidents on large, multi-engine airplanes.
• An aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been involved in an accident.

The operator of an aircraft must submit a written report of an aircraft accident within 10 days
of the accident.
The operator of an overdue aircraft must submit a written report within 7 days if the aircraft is
still missing.
The operator of an aircraft that was involved in an incident requiring immediate notification of
the NTSB must submit a written report of the incident only if requested to do so by the NTSB.

8317. What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by
the NTSB as a “serious injury”?
B— 48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury.

19
8319. Which of the following constitutes “substantial damage” according to NTSB Part 830?
C— Failure of a component which would adversely affect the performance, and which would
require replacement.

8320. Which of the following meets the requirements of a “serious injury” as defined by the
NTSB?
B— An injury which caused severe tendon damage.

8318. Within what time period should the nearest NTSB field office be notified when an
aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage?
A— Immediately.

8323. When is an operator of an aircraft, which has been involved in an incident, required to
submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB?
C— Only if requested to do so by the NTSB.

8321. Which incident requires an immediate notification to NTSB?

A— Aircraft colliding on the ground.
B— Flight control system malfunction.
C— Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $10,000.
The NTSB lists a flight control malfunction or failure as an incident requiring immediate
notification to the field office.

9836. Pilots and/or flightcrew members involved in near midair collision (NMAC) occurrences
are urged to report each incident immediately
C— by radio or telephone to the nearest FAA ATC facility or FSS.

8322. Within how many days must the operator of na aircraft involved in an accident file a
report to the NTSB?
C— 10 days.
The NTSB requires a report to be filed within 10 days of the accident.

Part 135 Regulations

8053. What aircraft operating under 14 CFR Part 135 are required to have a third gyroscopic
bank-and-pitch indicator installed?
A— All airplanes that are turbojet powered.
A third gyroscopic pitch-and-bank indicator is required on all turbojet-powered airplanes.

8075. Which airplanes must have a shoulder harness installed at each flight crewmember
station?
B— All airplanes operating under 14 CFR Part 135, having a seating configuration for 10
persons.

No person may operate a turbojet aircraft or an aircraft having a passenger seating

configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more unless it is equipped with
an approved shoulder harness installed for each flight crewmember station.

20
8054. In airplanes where a third gyroscopic bank-andpitch indicator is required, that
instrument must.
C— continue reliable operation for a minimum of 30 min after total failure of the electrical
generating system.

8165. What emergency equipment is required for extended overwater operations?

C— A life preserver equipped with a survivor locator light, for each person on the airplane.

8069. In which airplanes is a Class A TAWS required?

B-Turbine-airplanes with a passenger seating config, excluding pilot seat, of 10 seats or more.

8088. If the weather forecasts do not require the listing of an alternate airport on an IFR flight,
the airplane must carry sufficient fuel to fly to the destination airport and
A— make one missed approach and thereafter have a 45-minute reserve at normal cruising
speed.
B— fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

No person may operate an aircraft in IFR conditions unless it carries enough fuel (considering
Weather reports and forecasts) to:
1. Complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing;
2. Fly from that airport to the alternate airport (if one is required); and
3. Fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

8115. When computing the takeoff data for reciprocating powered airplanes, what is the
percentage of the reported headwind component that may be applied to the “still air” data?
C— Not more than 50 percent

8116. When computing takeoff data, what is the percentagem of the effective tailwind
component which may be applied to the “still air” data?
A— Not less than 150 percent.

ATS
8089. If the weather forecasts require the listing of na alternate airport on an IFR flight, the
airplane must carry enough fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing, then to the
alternate, and fly thereafter for a minimum of
C— 45 minutes at normal cruise speed.

8050. Which performance requirement applies to passenger-carrying land airplanes being

operated over water?
B— Single-engine airplanes must be operated at na altitude that will allow them to reach land
in case of engine failure.

“Clearway” may be used in computing the takeoff distance of turbine-

engine-powered airplanes certificated after September 30, 1958.

8051. What performance is required of a multiengine airplane with the critical engine
inoperative, while carrying passengers for hire in IFR weather conditions?
C— Climb at least 50 ft/min at the MEA’s of the Route to be flown or 5,000 feet MSL, whichever
is higher.

8792. The crewmember interphone system on a large turbojet-powered airplane provides a

means of two-way communications between ground personnel and at least one of two flight

21
crewmembers in the pilot compartment, when the aircraft is on the ground. The interphone
station for use by ground personnel must be located so that those using the system from that
station
C— may avoid visible detection from within the airplane.

No person may carry cargo, including carry-on baggage in an aircraft unless it is in

an approved cargo rack, bin, or compartment, and it does not obstruct access to, or
use of, the aisle between the passenger and crew compartment.

8833. Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a multiengine
turbine powered airplane
A— may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes.

8842. An airplane, operated by a commuter air carrier, flying in extended overwater operations
must carry enough approved liferafts of a rated capacity and buoyancy to accommodate the
occupants of the aircraft. Each liferaft must be equipped with
A— one approved pyrotechnic signaling device.

8010. An aircraft being operated outside of the United States, over a foreign country, by a 14
CFR part 135 operator must comply with
B— regulations of the foreign country.

8013. What is the lowest altitude above the terrain that an autopilot may be used during en
route operations, if the Airplane Flight Manual specifies a malfunction under cruise conditions?
B— 500 feet.

8033. Who may be allowed to carry a deadly weapon on board an aircraft operated under 14
CFR Part 135?
C— Employees of a municipality or a state, or of the United States.

8004. If previous arrangements have not been made by the operator, where can the procedures
for servicing the aircraft be found?
A— Certificate holder’s maintenance manual.
B— Certificate holder’s manual.

8006. Who is directly responsible for determining the status of each mechanical irregularity
previously entered in the aircraft maintenance log?
C— The next pilot in command.

22