Course: SR STAR SUPER CHAINA GRAND TEST-07 Ex. Date: 19.02.

2024
Time: 3 Hrs 20 Min NEET Max. Marks: 720
PHYSICS
SECTION-A
1. Match the following
Column I Column II
A. Practical unit i) radian
B. Base unit ii) light year
C. Derived unit iii) Kg-ms–1
D. Complementary unit iv) second
1) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii) 2) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
3) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i) 4) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
2. A body is moving with velocity 30 m/s towards east. After 10 s it travels towards north with same
velocity. The average acceleration of the body is
1) 30 2 m / s 2 N  W 2) 30 2 m / s 2 N  E 3) 3 2 m / s 2 N  W 4) 3 2 m / s 2 N  E

3. A body is thrown vertically upward at t=0. It is at a height 80 m at two instants t1 and t2, then t1t2is (Take
g = 10 m/s2):-
1) 30 2) 24 3) 16 4) 12
0
4. A person swims at 135 to current of river, to meet target on reaching opposite point. The ratio of
person’s velocity to river water velocity is

1) 3 :1 2) 2 :1 3) 1: 2 4) 1: 3

5. A stone is projected from the ground with velocity 50 m/s at an angle of 60 o with vertical. It crosses a

wall after 3 sec. How far beyond the wall the stone will strike the ground (g  10 m / sec 2 )

1) 100 3 m 2) 125 3 m 3) 50 3 m 4) 75 3 m

6. The momentum of a body in two perpendicular direction at any time t are given by

3t 2
px  2t 2  6 and Py  3
2 force acting on the body at t = 2s is
1) 5 unit 2) 2 unit 3) 10 unit 4) 15 unit
7. Figure shows the vertical section of frictionless surface. A block of mass 2 kg is released from the
position A; its KE as it reaches the position C is (g=10 m/s2):
 1) 180 J 2) 140 J 3) 40 J 4) 280 J
8. There identical spheres each of radius ‘R’ are placed touching each other on the horizontal table as
shown fig (Top view). The coordinates of centre of mass are
y

 2R   R R  R
1) (R,R) 2)  R,  3)  ,  4)  R, 
 3 2 2  3

9. Three identical rings of mass m and radius r are placed as shown in figure. Find moment of inertia of the

system about axis XX 1 ?

7 2 7 2 3 2 3 2
1) mr 2) mr 3) mr 4) mr
2 5 7 5
10.
If a man at the equator would weigh 4/5th of his weight, the angular speed of earth is
g 5g 3g 2g
1)
5R 2) 3R 3) 2R 4) 5R

11. An object floats in water with 20% of its volume outside and in oil 40% of its volume outside. The
specific gravity of the oil is
1) 1.33 2) 0.33 3) 2 4) 7
12. The acceleration displacement graph of a particle executing simple harmonic motion shown in fig. Then
the time period of simple harmonic motion is
a(ms-2 )

37 0

x(m)

4 2 3 
1) s 2) s 3) s 4) s
3 3 3 3
13. The graph drawn between pressure and volume in Boyle’s law experiment is shown in figure for different
molecular weights then

1) M2  M1 2) M1  M2 3) M1  M2 4) M13  M 2

14. Boiling water is changing into steam. Under this condition the specific heat of water is
1) zero 2) one 3) infinite 4) less than one
15. Assertion (A): Potential energy of an ideal gas is zero
Reason (R): The molecules are continuously doing random motion
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true and R is false
4) Both A and R are false
16. PQ is a uniform rod of length  and mass m carrying current I and is suspended in uniform magnetic field

of induction B acting inward as shown in figure. The tension in each string is

mg  Bi mg  Bi
1) mg  Bi 2) mg  Bi 3) 4)
2 2

17. A conducting rod AC of length 4l is rotated about a point O in a uniform magnetic field B directed into
the paper. AO  l and OC  3l. Then,
     B

    
A C
     
O
     
Bl 2 7 9
1) VA  V0  2) V0  Vc  Bl 2 3) V A  Vc  4 B l 2 4) Vc  V0  Bl 2
2 2 2
18. Find out correct answer/s from the following. At resonance
a) In series LC-circuit impedance equals to zero
b) In series LC-circuit current equals to infinity
c) In series LCR-circuit impedance equals to zero
 d) In series LCR-circuit current becomes maximum
1) a and c only 2) a and b only 3) a, b and d only 4) a, b, c and d
1 2
19. An alpha nucleus of energy mv bombards a heavy nuclear target of charge Ze. Then the distance of
2
closest approach for the alpha nucleus will be proportional to
1 1 1
1) 2) v2 3) 4)
Ze m v4
20. In a circuit L, C and R are connected in series with an alternating voltage source of frequency f. The
current leads the voltage by 450. The value of C is
1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
 f  2 fL  R  2 f  2 fL  R   f  2 fL  R  2 f  2 fL  R 

21. When a biconvex lens of glass having refractive index 1.47 is dipped in a liquid, it acts as a plane sheet of
glass. This implies that the liquid must have refractive index.
1) equal to that of glass 2) less than one
3) greater than that of glass 4) less than that of glass
22. The output from a NAND gate is divided into two in parallel and fed to another NAND gate. The
resulting gate is a

1) NOT gate 2) AND gate 3) NOR gate 4) OR gate

23. A source of unknown frequency gives 4 beats/s when sounded with a source of known frequency 250 hz.
The second harmonic of the source of unknown frequency gives five beats per second, when sounded with
a source of frequency 513 Hz. The unknown frequency is
1) 246 Hz 2) 240 Hz 3) 260 Hz 4) 254 Hz
24. In a coil of resistance 10 , the induced current developed by changing magnetic flux through it, is shown
in figure as a function of time. The magnitude of change in flux through the coil in Weber is:

1) 8 2) 2 3) 6 4) 4

25. Energy E of a hydrogen atom with principal quantum number n is given by E  13.6 / n eV . The energy
2

of photon ejected when the electron jumps from n=3 state to n=2 state of hydrogen is approximately
1) 1.9 eV 2) 1.5 eV 3) 0.85 eV 4) 3.4 eV

26. In the reaction, 1 H 1 H 2 He 0 n, if the binding energies of 1 H , 1 H and 2 He are respectively a, b and
2 3 4 1 2 3 4

c (in MeV), then the energy (in MeV) released in this reaction is
1) a  b  c 2) a  b  c 3) c  a  b 4) c  a  b
27. In the circuit shown the cells A and B have negligible resistances. For VA  12V , R1  500 and R  100
the galvanometer (G) shows no deflection. The value of VB is

1) 4 V 2) 2 V 3) 12 V 4) 6 V
28. Two slits in Young’s experiment have widths in the ratio 5:1. The ratio of intensity at the maxima and
I max
minima in the interference pattern, is:
I min
121 49 4 9
1) 2) 3) 4)
49 121 9 4
29. A capacitor is charged to store an energy U. The charging battery is disconnected. An identical capacitor
is now connected to the first capacitor in parallel. The energy in each of the capacitor is
1) U/2 2) 3U/2 3) U 4) U/4
30. S-I: In an electromagnetic wave frequency of electric field, frequency of magnetic field and frequency of
E.M wave is equal to frequency of oscillating charged particle.
S-II: In a linearly polarised electromagnetic wave phase difference between electric field, magnetic field

vectors equals to
2
1) Both S-I and S-II are true 2) Both S-I and S-II are false
3) S-I is true and S-II is false 4) S-I is false and S-II is true
31. Ge and Si diodes conduct at 0.3 V and 0.7 V respectively. In the following figure if Ge diode connection is
reversed, the valve of V0 changes by

1) 0.2 V 2) 0.4 V 3) 0.6 V 4) 0.8 V

32. An organ pipe P1, closed at one end vibrating in its first overtone and another pipe P2 open at both ends
vibrating in third overtone are in resonance with a given tuning fork. The ratio of the length of P1 to that
of P2 is:
1) 8/3 2) 3/8 3) 1/2 4) 1/3
33. A conducting sphere of radius 10 cm has unknown charge. If the electric field at a distance 20 cm from
the centre of the sphere is 1.8  103 NC 1 and points radially inwards. The net charge on the sphere is:
1) 4.5  10 9 C 2) 4.5  10 9 C 3) 8  10 9 C 4) 8  10 9 C
34. The period of oscillation of a freely suspended bar magnet is 4 s. If it is cut into two equal parts length
wise then the time period of each part will be:
1) 0.25 s 2) 0.5 s 3) 2 s 4) 4 s
35. Assertion: Surface of a symmetrical conductor can be treated as equipotential surface
Reason: Charges can easily flow in a conductor
1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3) Assertion is true but reason is false
4) Both assertion and reason are false
SECTION-B
36. The rear side of a truck is open and a box of 40kg mass is placed 5 m away from the open end as shown
in figure. The Coefficient of friction between the box and the surface below it is 0.15 . On a straight road,
the truck starts from rest and accelerates with 2ms 2 . At what distance from the starting point does the
box fall from the truck and the velocity of the truck at the instant is (Ignore the size of the box)

1) 20 m , 2 5 m / s 2) 10 m , 4 5 m / s 3) 20 m , 4 5 m / s 4) 20 m , 4 5 m / s

37. A ball of mass m moving with speed v0 strikes a block of mass 3 m kept at rest. The collision is
completely inelastic. If k is spring constant, the maximum compression of the spring is

mv02 mv02 mv02 mv02

1) 2) 3) 4)
k 2k 3k 4k

38. The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m about the sun S. The shaded area SCD is twice the shaded
area SAB. If t1, is the time for the planet to move from C to D and t2 is the time to move from A to B, then

1) t1  t2 2) t1  4t2 3) t1  2t2 4) t1  t2
39. The bar is subjected to equal and opposite forces as shown in the figure PQ is plane making angle  with
the cross-section of the bar. If the area of cross-section be ‘A’, then what is the shearing stress and
longitudinal stress on PQ?

F sin  cos  F cos 2  F

a) F/A b) c) d)
A A A cos 2 
1) b only 2) b and c 3) a and b 3) a, b and c
40. The restoring couple of a magnet oscillating in the uniform magnetic field is provided by
1) horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field
2) gravity
3) torsion in the suspended thread
4) magnetic field of magnet

41. The coefficient of real expansion  R of a liquid is 5 times the coefficient of linear expansion of the
material of the container in which the liquid is present. The ratio of the coefficient of apparent expansion
and real expansion of the liquid is
1) 5 : 2 2) 1 : 5 3) 2 : 5 4) 5 : 1
42. If a liquid is heated in weightlessness, the heat is transmitted through:
1) conduction
2) convection
3) Both 1 and 2
4) neither, because the liquid cannot be heated in weightlessness
43. Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field a constant speed v. The time in a circle of radius R with
constant speed v. The time period of the motion

1) depends on both R and v 2) is independent of both R and v

3) depends on R and not on v 4) depends on v and not on R
44. Monochromatic radiation emitted when electron on hydrogen atom jumps from first excited to the ground
state irradiates a photosensitive material. The stopping potential is measured to be 3.53 V. The threshold
frequency of the materials is:
1) 4  1015 Hz 2) 5 1015 Hz 3) 1.6 1015 Hz 4) 2.5 1015 Hz
45. In a double slit experiment, the two slits are 1 mm apart and the screen is placed 1 m away. A
monochromatic light wavelength 500 nm is used. What will be the width of each slit for obtaining ten
maxima of double slit within the central maxima of single slit pattern?
1) 0.1 mm 2) 0.5 mm 3) 0.02 mm 4) 0.2 mm
46. Below figure shows a plane mirror onto which a light ray is incident. If the incidenting light ray is turned
by 10o and the mirror by 20o as shown, then the angle turned by the reflected ray is

1) 30o clockwise 2) 30o anticlockwise 3) 50o clockwise 4) 50o anticlockwise

47. See the electric circuit shown in the figure.

Which of the following equations is a correct equation for it?

1)  2  i2 r2  1  i1r1  0 2)  2   i1  i2  R  i2 r2  0

3)  1   i1  i2  R  i1r1  0 4)  1   i1  i2  R  i1r1  0

48. You measure two quantities as A  1.0 m  0.2 m, B  2.0m  0.2m. We should report correct value for

AB as
1) 1.4m  0.4m 2) 1.41m  0.15m 3) 1.4m  0.3m 4) 1.4m  0.2m
49. Figure shows some equipotential lines distributed in space. A charged object is moved from point A to
point B.

1) The work done in figure (i) is the greatest

2) The work done in figure (ii) is the least
3) The work done is the same in figure (i), (ii) and (iii)
4) The work done in figure (iii) is greater than figure (ii) but equal to that in figure (i)
50. A parallel plate capacitor is made of two dielectric blocks in series. One of the blocks has thickness d1 and
dielectric constant K1, and the other has thickness d2 and dielectric constant K2 as shown in figure. This
arrangement can be thought as a dielectric slab of thickness d=(d1+d2) and effective dielectric constant K.
The K is:

K1d1  K 2 d 2 K1d1  K 2 d 2 K1 K 2  d1  d 2  2 K1 K 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
d1  d 2 K1  K 2 K 2 d1  K1d 2 K1  K 2

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51. Which among the following set of quantum numbers is incorrect?
n l m s
1) 4 2 –2 +1/2
2) 3 1 +1 –1/2
3) 5 3 –2 –1/2
4) 2 1 –2 +1/2
52. In acidic solution, dichromate ion on reaction with iodide ion produces molecular iodine and chromium
(III) ion. Select the incorrect match of coefficients in balance reaction (per mole of dichromate ion)
1) Iodide ion+molecular iodine: 9 2) Molecular iodine+water: 13
3) Water+iodide ion: 13 4) Iodide ion+dichromate ion: 9
53. Which of the following is incorrect match of Mendeleev’s predictions for Eka-aluminium (E)
1) Formula of chloride (ECl3) 2) Formula of oxide (EO2)
3) Atomic weight (68) 4) Density (5.9 g/cm3)
54. Intramolecular H-bonding is present in
1) Phenol 2) o-nitrophenol 3) m-nitrophenol 4) p-nitrophenol
55. Work done will be _____, if two moles of an ideal gas expands spontaneously into vacuum
1) Zero 2) 2 J 3) 6 J 4) Infinite
56. Select the correct statements among the following
(a) Molar property of any extensive property is always intensive
(b) Heat capacity depends on the size, composition and nature of the system
(c) In Bomb calorimeter, work done is non-zero for reactions involving gases
(d) Standard enthalpy of sublimation of Naphthalene is 73.0 kJ mol–1
1) only a and b 2) only a and c 3) only a, b and d 4) a, b, c and d
57. Select the correct statement(s) about equilibrium constant
(i) In standard state, both Kc and Kp are dimensionless
(ii) Unit of equilibrium constant (Kc) depends on number of gaseous molecules involves in chemical
reaction
(iii) The numerical value of equilibrium constant depends on the standard state chosen
(iv) During calculation of equilibrium constant, standard state for a solute in solution is 1 molal and for a
pure gas it is 1 atm
1) only i and ii 2) only ii and iii 3) only i, ii and iii 4) only i, ii and iv
58. If kb for NH3 is 1.8x10–5, then value of ka for NH 4 ion is

1) 1.7  10 9 2) 5.5  10 10 3) 2.3  10 5 4) 4.8  10 10

59. In which pair, both the species are acidic in nature?
1) SnO2 and PbO2 2) GeO2 and PbO 3) SnO2 and GeO 4) GeO2 and SiO2
60. IUPAC name of the given compound is

1) 4-Ethyl-2-methylaniline 2) 4-Amino-1-ethyl-3-methylbenzene
3) 4-Ethyl-6-methylaniline 4) 4-Amino-1-ethyl-5-methylbenzene
61. During estimation of Nitrogen present in an organic compound by Kjeldahl’s method, the Ammonia
evolved from 0.4 g of compound is neutralised by 10 mL of 1 M sulphuric acid solution. The percentage
of Nitrogen in the compound is
1) 56% 2) 28% 3) 70% 4) 35%
62. Consider the following reaction sequence; CaC2   A   B   C . Major
H 2O redhot iron tube CH3CH 2CH2Cl
873 K anh. AlCl3

product ‘C’ is

1) 2) 3) 4)
63. The solubility (in mole fraction) of a gas X in Benzene at 298 K under pressure 760 nm Hg is (Henry’s
law constant for the gas X at 298 K is 7.6x105 mm Hg)
1) 1.0  10 4 2) 0.1 3) 1  10 2 4) 1  10 3
64. Calculate the molar conductivity, if electrical resistance of a column of 0.05 M NaOH solution of
diameter 1 cm and length 50 cm is 5.55x103 ohm.
1) 229.6 104 S cm 2 mol 1 2) 229.6 106 S m2 mol 1

3) 229.6 S cm 2 mol 1 4) 229.6 S m2 mol 1

65. Select the correct statement among the following.
1) The energy required to form activated complex is known as activation energy
2) Area under the curve for the plot of fraction of molecules versus kinetic energy of gas molecules,
changes with change of temperature
3) In Arrhenius equation, the factor e  Ea / RT corresponds to fraction of molecules that have kinetic energy
less than activation energy
4) Activation energy of reaction generally increases with increase in temperature
66. The correct order against the indicated property is
1) Melting point: SbH 3  AsH 3  PH 3  NH 3 2) Boiling point: SbH 3  NH 3  AsH 3  PH 3

3) Bond angle: PH 3  NH 3  SbH 3  AsH 3 4) Bond energy: NH 3  PH 3  SbH 3  AsH 3

67. V2O5 reacts with alkalies to give
1) VO 2  2) V2O4 3) VO43 4) V2O3
68. Select the incorrect order of a property mentioned
1) Hf  Ta  W  Re :Melting point 2) Zn  Mn  Fe  V : Enthalpy of atomisation
3) Ti  V  Cr  Mn : Density 4) Ti  Mn  Fe  Zn : First ionization energy
69. Select the correct option(s) for Mn2  CO 10

1) It is named as decacarbonyldimanganese(0)
2) It is made up of two square pyramidal units of Mn(CO)5
3) It contains Mn–Mn bond
4) All of these
70. Mn2+ reacts with peroxodisulphate according to the equation
2 Mn 2  5S 2O82  8 H 2O  2 MnO4  10 SO42  16 H  .

Here 10 mL of 0.1M Mn2+ is equivalent to

1) 50 mL of 0.1M S 2O82  2) 25 mL of 1M S 2O82 

3) 25 mL of 0.1M S 2O82  4) 20 mL of 0.5M S 2O82 

71. Which amino acid contains amide functional group?
1) Glutamine 2) Tyrosine 3) Histidine 4) methionine
72. The alcohol which will react fastest with anhydrous. ZnCl2 and conc.HCl is
1) Pentan-2-ol 2) Pentan-1-ol 3) 3-Methylbutan-2-ol 4) 2-Methylbutan-2-ol
73. 3-Methylpent-1-ene on reaction with Diborane followed by reaction with Hydrogen peroxide and aqueous
sodium hydroxide majority forms
1) 3-Methylpentan-2-ol 2) 3-Methylpentan-1-ol
3) 3-Methylpentan-3-ol 4) 2-Ethylbutan-1-ol
74. Maximum reactivity towards SN1 reaction among the following is of

1) 2) 3) 4)
75. Product C of the given reaction sequence is

1) 2) 3) 4)
76. Match the species given in Column I with the hybridisation given in Column II.
Column I Column II

i) Boron in  B  OH 4  a) sp 2

3
ii) Al in  Al  H 2O 6  b) sp3

iii) Germanium in GeCl6 

2
c) sp3d 2

iv) Silicon in SiO44 d) d 2 sp3

1) i-b, ii-c, iii-c, iv-b 2) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d 3) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a 4) i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a
77. Assertion (A): In the dissociation of PCl5 at constant pressure and temperature, addition of Helium at
equilibrium increases the dissociation of PCl5
Reason (R): Helium removes Chlorine (Cl2) from the equilibrium mixture
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true and (R) is false
4) (A) is false and (R) is true
78. Assertion (A): For measuring resistance of an ionic solution, an AC source is used
Reason (R): Concentration of ionic solution will change, if DC source is used
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true and (R) is false
4) (A) is false and (R) is true
79. Match the items of Column I and Column II in the following.
Column I (Common name) Column II (IUPAC name)
a) Cinnamaldehyde p) 4-Methylpent-3-en-2-one
b) Valeraldehyde q) Prop-2-enal
c) Acrolein r) 3-phenylprop-2-enal
d) Mesityl oxide s) Pentanal
1) a-r, b-s, c-q, d-p 2) a-s, b-q, c-p, d-r 3) a-q, b-p, c-r, d-s 4) a-p, b-r, c-s, d-q
80. Statement-I (S-I): A salt metal carbonate react with dilute H2SO4, colorless and odourless CO2 gas is
evolved with Brisk efferscence
Statement-II (S-II): CO2 gas turns lime water milky due to the formation of CaCO3
1) Both S-I and S-II are true 2) Both S-I and S-II are false
3) S-I is true and S-II is false 4) S-I is false and S-II is true
81. Statement-I (S-I): In the titration of KMnO4 vs Mohr’s salt, aqueous solution of Mohr salt can be
acidified by dil. H2SO4 (or) dil.HNO3 but not by dil.HCl
Statement-II (S-II): KMnO4 reacts with HCl, but HNO3 and H2SO4 are not react with KMnO4
1) Both S-I and S-II are true 2) Both S-I and S-II are false
3) S-I is true and S-II is false 4) S-I is false and S-II is true
82. Correct expression for Heisenberg uncertainty principle is
h h h h
1) X  V  2) X  V  3) X  V  4) X  V 
4 4 m 2 2 m
83. Paramagnetic species is
1) O2 2) O22  3) N2 4) F2
84. Which among the following is not a C-C bond forming reaction?
1) Friedel-Crafts reaction 2) Wurtz reaction
3) Swarts reaction 4) Fittig reaction
85. When a mixture of Acetaldehyde and propionaldehyde is heated in presence of dilute alkali, which of the
given compounds is not formed as a product?
1) CH 3CH  CH  CHO 2) CH 3CH 2CH  CHCHO

3) CH 3  CH  C  CHO 4) CH 3  C  CH  CHO
| |
CH3 CH3

SECTION-B
86. Correct order of boiling point of the given compounds is
1) 2, 2-Dimethylpropane>2-Methylbutane>Pentane
2) Pentane>2-methylbutane>2, 2-Dimethyl propane
3) Pentane>2, 2-Dimethylpropane>2-Methylbutane
4) 2-Methylbutane>pentane>2, 2-Dimethylpropane
87. Color of iron (III) hexacyanidoferrate (II) is
1) Prussian blue 2) Blood red 3) Green 4) Yellow
88. Vapour pressures of two volatile liquids A and B are 300 torr and 450 torr respectively. If 0.1 mole of A
and 0.2 mole of B are mixed, then the mole fraction of component B in vapour phase is
1) 0.56 2) 0.86 3) 0.75 4) 0.25
89. During the corrosion of iron, the reaction taking place at cathode is
1) O2  g   4H   aq   4e  2H 2O  l  2) 2 Fe2  aq   2 H 2O  l   2 Fe  s   O2  g   4H 

3) 2Fe  s   2 Fe2  aq   4e 4) 2 H   aq   2e  H 2  g 

90. The half life time of a zero order reaction is 80 min. If the initial concentration of reactant is 2 M, then the
remaining concentration (approx.) after 50 min will be
1) 0.8 M 2) 1.4 M 3) 1.7 M 4) 0.6 M
91. Which halide ion can be oxidized by oxygen in acidic medium?
1) F– 2) I– 3) Cl– 4) Br–
92. Select the correct statement(s) for oxidation of aldehydes and ketones
(i) Aldehydes are more easily oxidized than ketones
(ii) oxidation of ketones (in the presence of strong oxidizing agents and at elevated temperature) also
involve carbon-carbon bond cleavage
(iii) On heating benzaldehyde with Fehling’s reagent reddish brown precipitate is obtained
1) (i) only 2) (i) and (ii) only 3) (i), (ii) and (iii) 4) (i) and (iii) only
93.

Product ‘C’ is
 1) 2) 3) 4)
CH3
|
94. CH 3  O C  CH 3 can be prepared by the reaction of
|
CH3

CH3 CH3
| |
1) CH 3 C  ONa  CH 3 Br 2) CH 3 C  Br  CH 3ONa
| |
CH3 CH3

CH3 CH3
| |
3) CH 3 CH  ONa  CH 3CH 2 Br 4) CH 3 CH  Br  CH 3CH 2ONa

95. Assertion (A): Simple distillation can help in separating a mixture of propan-1-ol (Bpt: 970C) and
propanone (B.pt: 560C)
Reason (R): Liquids with a difference of more than 200C (sufficient difference) in their boiling points can
be separated by simple distillation
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true and (R) is false
4) (A) is false and (R) is true
96. Match the correct atomic radius with the element.
Column I (Element) Column II (Atomic radius (in pm))
a) Be p) 77
b) C q) 88
c) O r) 111
d) B s) 74
e) N t) 66
1) a-r, b-p, c-t, d-q, e-s 2) a-p, b-t, c-q, d-s, e-r 3) a-t, b-q, c-s, d-r, e-p 4) a-q, b-s, c-r, d-p, e-t
97. Match the complex species given in Column I with the possible isomerism given in Column II and assign
the correct code.
Column I (Complex species) Column II (Isomerism)

a) Co  NH 3 4 Cl2 

p) Optical

b) Cis  Co  en  2 Cl2 


q) Ionisation

c) Co  NH 3 5  NO2   Cl2 r) Co-ordination

d) Co  NH 3 6  Cr  CN 6  s) Geometrical

 1) a-s, b-p, c-q, d-r 2) a-p, b-q, c-r, d-s 3) a-q, b-r, c-s, d-p 4) a-r, b-s, c-p, d-q
98. Assertion (A): Acetanilide is less basic than Aniline
Reason (R): Acetylation of Aniline results in decrease of electron density on Nitrogen
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true and (R) is false
4) (A) is false and (R) is true
99. IV th group cations are not precipitated by dil.HCl+H2S because
1) Ksp of the sulphide of IV th group cations are low
2) Ksp of the sulphides of IV th group cations are high
3) Ksp of the sulphide of III rd group cations are high
4) Suphides of IV th group cations are water soluble
100. Consider the following statements.
a) One molecule of DDT contains six chlorine atoms
b) Freon 12 is CCl2F2
c) Chloroform is slowly oxidised by air in the presence of light to an extremely poisonous gas called
carbonyl chloride
The correct statement/s is/are
1) a and b only 2) b and c only 3) a and c only 4) a, b and c
BOTANY
SECTION-A
101. Statement-I (S-I): Plasmids are self duplicating double stranded, circular polynucleotides
Statement-II (S-II): tet R in p BR322 produces tetracycline antibiotic
1) Only S-I is correct 2) Both statements are correct
3) Only S-II is correct 4) Both statements are incorrect
102. In vitro multiplication of desired DNA is achieved in
1) Cloning vector 2) DNA fingerprinting 3) PCR 4) Southern blotting
103. Statement-I (S-I): Zygote is found in sexually reproducing organisms
Statement-II (S-II): Meiosis is seen only in diploid organisms
1) I & II both are correct 2) II alone is correct
3) I alone is correct 4) I & II both are incorrect
104. Casparian strip
1) Is the deposition of suberin all around the cells of pericycle
2) Makes the plasma membrane of endodermis permeable for water and minerals
3) Is made up of lignin, chitin and cellulose
4) Is found on innermost layer of root cortex
105. Heterospory is found in
1) All vascular plants 2) All seed plants 3) Most pteridophytes 4) Few bryophytes
106. Match the following.
Column I Column II
a) Free RNA without protein coat i) Prion
b) ds DNA with a protein coat ii) TMV
c) ss RNA with a protein coat iii) Bacteriophage
d) Protein coat without nucleic acid iv) Viroid
1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i 2) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv 3) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i 4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
107. Pick the wrong match.
1) Protoplast fusion – somatic hybrid 2) Meristem culture – virus free plants
3) Micropropagation – somaclones 4) Bioreactor – PCR
108. Match the following.
Column I Column II
I) Bulliform cells A) Dicot root
II) Guard cells B) Epidermal tissue system
III) Epiblema C) Monocot leaf
IV) Differentiated mesophyll D) Dicot leaf
1) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D 2) I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-D
3) I-D, II-A, III-B, IV-C 4) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
109. Assertion (A): Bryophytes and Pteridophytes exhibit haplodiplontic life cycle
Reason (R): Both in Bryophytes and Pteridophytes haploid gametophytic generation is dominant
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
110. The type of root modification seen in the Banyan tree, Turnip and Rhizophora respectively
1) Prop roots, storage tap root and pneumatophores
2) Stilt roots, storage adventitious root and photosynthetic roots
3) Prop roots, stilt roots and pneumatophores
4) Stilt roots, storage tap root and photosynthetic roots
111. How many Calvin cycles need to take place in mesophyll cells of sugarcane to produce one hexose sugar?
1) 6 2) 12 3) 18 4) Zero
112. What is a nutritive layer of anther wall in which cells show endomitosis?
1) Epidermis 2) Endothecium 3) Tapetum 4) Middle layers
113. Statement-I (S-I): Pure proteins and fats are never used as respiratory substrates
Statement-II (S-II): Amino acids and fatty acids do not enter respiratory pathway in mitochondria
1) Both S-I and S-II are correct 2) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect
3) S-I is correct but S-II is incorrect 4) S-I is incorrect but S-II is correct
114. Which of the following crosses produce all dihybrid progeny?
A. YYRR x yyrr B. YYrr x yyRR C. Yyrr x yyRr D. YyRr x YyRr
1) A, B 2) C, D 3) A, C 4) B, D
115. The number of F2 phenotypes for human skin colour is
1) 4 2) 7 3) 8 4) 5
116. In a typical plant cell both transcription and translation occur in
A. Nucleus B. Chloroplast C. Cytosol D. Mitochondria
1) A, B 2) C, D 3) A, C 4) B, D
117. Mitosis and meiosis are similar in involving
1) cytokinesis once 2) karyokinesis once
3) crossing over 4) preceded by DNA replication once
118. Match Column I with Column II and select option from codes given below.
Column I Column II
A) Marginal I. Sunflower, marigold
B) Parietal II. Pea
C) Axile III. Mustard, Argemone
D) Free central IV. Hibiscus, tomato, lemon
E) Basal V) Dianthus, Primrose
1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-V, E-I 2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-V, E-IV
3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV, E-V 4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-V, E-I
119. What is denoted by X and Y in the given graph?

X Y
1) Activation energy without enzyme Activation energy with enzyme
2) Activation energy with enzyme Activation energy without enzyme
3) Substrate concentration with enzyme Substrate concentration without enzyme
4) Substrate concentration without enzyme Substrate concentration with enzyme
120. Which one is paired incorrectly?
1) Auxin-Isolated from human urine
2) Zeatin-isolated from corn kernels and coconut milk
3) Gibberellins-Isolated from fungus Gibberilla fujikuroi
4) Abscisic acid-Isolated from ripe oranges
121. The given diagram shows microsporangium of a mature anther. Identify A, B and C

1) A-Middle layer, B-Endothecium, C-Tapetum

2) A-Endothecium, B-Tapetum, C-Middle layer
3) A-Endothecium, B-Middle layer, C-Tapetum
4) A-Tapetum, B-Middle layer, C-Endothecium
122. Select the incorrectly matched pair.
1) Initiation codons-AUG, GUG 2) Stop codons-UAA, UAG, UGA
3) Methionine-AUG 4) Anticodons-Present on mRNA
123. What is the difference between the ATP synthesis (i.e., development of proton gradient) in respiration and
photosynthesis?
1) In respiration, protons accumulate in the matrix of mitochondria, while in photosynthesis protons
accumulate in the stroma of chloroplast
2) In respiration, protons accumulate in the intermembrane space of mitochondria, while in
photosynthesis, proton accumulation is towards the inside of the thylakoid membrane, i.e., in the lumen of
thylakoids
3) In respiration, there is decrease in pH in the matrix of mitochondria while in photosynthesis there is
increase in pH in the lumen of thylakoid
4) Both (2) & (3)
124. Which of the following options is correct regarding the average composition of different biomolecules in
a living cell?
Lipids Proteins Carbo hydrates Nucleic acids
1) 5-10 20-25 5 1-2
2) 2 10-15 3 5-7
3) 10 10-15 3 12-15
4) 2 20-25 15 5-7
125. Match the columns.
Column I Column II
A) Prophase-I i) Crossing over
B) Metaphase-II ii) Centromeric division
C) Anaphase-II iii) Chromosomes on equatorial plate
D) Metaphase-I iv) Bivalents on the equatorial plate
1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii 2) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii 3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii 4) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
126. The given diagram represents a stage of cell division. It is

1) Late telophase 2) Metaphase 3) Early prophase 4) Late prophase

127. Identify the incorrect regarding Calvin cycle.
1) Carboxylation does not require ATP and NADPH
2) Reduction required both ATP and NADPH
3) First product after reduction is a triose phosphate
4) Regeneration requires both ATP and NADPH
128. The following is absent in Cycas
1) Lax 2) Triploid endosperm
3) Male cone 4) Dioecious sporophyte
129. A biogas plant has
1) two inlets, one outlet 2) two inlets, two outlets
3) one inlet, one outlet 4) one inlet, two outlets
130. Assertion (A): In pea, ground nut and gram mature seeds are non-albuminous
Reason (R): In pea, ground nut and gram endosperm formation is absent due to the failure of triple fusion
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
131. Identify the wrong statement.
1) In prokaryotes the DNA is not scattered throughout the cell
2) DNA is positively charged and it is held with some negatively charged histone proteins
3) Pentose sugar, nitrogen base and phosphoric acid are components of nucleotide
4) 5-methyl uracil is found in DNA
132. Which of the aromatic amino acid(s) is/are not coded by more than one codon?
1) Tyrosine 2) Tryptophan
3) Methionine 4) More than one option correct
133. Select the correct statement(s) w.r.t sickle cell anaemia.
1) It is caused due to single base alteration 2) It is an example for point mutation
3) it is caused due to substitution of one purine to another pyrimidine at sixth codon of the beta globin
gene
4) All of these
134. In which part of chloroplast, synthesis of sugars and proteins take place?
1) Stroma lamellae 2) Grana 3) Membrane envelope 4) Stroma
135. Which one among the following exemplifies competitive inhibition?
1) More CO2: RuBP oxygenase 2) Statins: Cholesterol synthesizing enzymes
3) Malonic acid: Succinic dehydrogenase 4) All the above
SECTION-B
136. All of them represent the names of orders except
1) Diptera 2) Primata 3) Insecta 4) Sapindales
137. One of the phenotype is determined by a pair of alleles either in homozygous or in heterozygous
condition: Identify it
1) Yellow seed colour in pea 2) Red flower colour in Snapdragon
3) AB blood group in human 4) White eye colour in Drosophila
138. Bt cotton is
1) Transgenic crop made by insertion of desired gene for pest resistance
2) Transgenic crop for disease resistance
3) Transgenic crop made by deletion of undesirable gene
4) Transgenic crop resistant to dipteran pest insect
139. Match the following.
Column I Column II
a) Selaginella i) Naked seeds
b) Cycas ii) Precursor to seed habit
c) Eucalyptus iii) Seeds are enclosed in fruits
d) Ricinus iv) Endospermic seeds
1) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii 2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv 3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 4) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
140. Statement-I (S-I): In meiosis, chromosomal segregation is preceded by segregation of chromatids due to
centromere division
Statement-II (S-II): Meiosis increases genetic variability from generation to generation due to reduction
of chromosome number to half
1) Both S-I and S-II are correct 2) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect
3) S-I is correct but S-II is incorrect 4) S-I is incorrect but S-II is correct
141. All of the following reactions require ATP except
1) Regeneration of RUBP in C3 cycle
2) Regeneration of fructose 1, 6 biphosphate in E.M.P pathway
3) Formation of 1, 3 bis PGA in glycolysis
4) Regeneration of PEP in HSK (Hatch-Slack) pathway
142. Wrongly matched among the following is
1) Fucus-Isogametic and haplontic life cycle
2) Spirogyra-Isogametic and haplontic life cycle
3) Funaria-Heterogametic and haplodiplontic life cycle
4) Pinus-Heterogametic and diplontic life cycle
143. Match different organisms in Column I with their uses in Column II and select the correct answer from
codes given below.
Column I Column II
A. Lactobacillus acidophilus i. Fermentation of dough
B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae ii. Cyclosporin-A
C. Proplonibacterium sharmanii iii. Conversion of milk into curd
D. Trichoderma polysporum iv. Formation of large holes in swiss cheese
1) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv 2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii 3) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii 4) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
144. Given below are four statements (A-D) each with one or two blanks. Select the option which correctly
fills up the blanks in any two statements
(A) Cellulose is a (i) polysaccharide consisting of (ii) type of monosaccharide(s)
(B) (i) is a polymer of fructose
(C) In glycogen the right end is called (i) end and the left end is called the (ii) end
(D) Exoskeleton of arthropods have a complex polysaccharide called (i) and these are (ii)
1) (D)-(i) chitin, (ii) heteropolymer; (A)-(i) hetero, (ii) two
2) (A)-(i) polymeric, (ii) only one; (B)-(i) Inulin
3) (B)-(i) chitin; (C)-(i) reducing, (ii) non-reducing
4) (C)-(i) non-reducing, (ii) reducing; (D)-(i) chitin, (ii) heteropolymer
145. Identify Y, X in the given diagram respectively

1) Root apical meristem, Central cylinder 2) Central cylinder, Protoderm

3) Central cylinder, Root apical meristem 4) Root apical meristem, Protoderm
146. Identify the mismatch with respect to Nutritive tissue.
Nutritive tissue Ploidy Provides Nourishment to
1) Tapetum 2n or polyploid Cells of sporogenous tissue & microspores
2) Nucellus 2n Embryosac
3) Endosperm of gymnosperm n Embryo
4) Perisperm n Embryosac
147. Choose mismatch combination from the following.
1) Pinus-Male and female cones borne on the same saprophytic plant body
2) Marchantia-Dioecious sporophytes
3) Salvinia-Heterosporous fern
4) Polysiphonia-Reproduces asexually by non motile gametes
148. Match the following.
Column I Column II
A) Water lily I) Entomophily
B) Maize II) Anemophily
C) Commelina III) Hydrophily
D) Yucca IV) Cleistogamy
V) Chasmogamy
1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-V 2) A-III, B-II, C-V, D-IV
3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-V 4) A-II, B-I, C-V, D-IV
149. ‘A’ has more effect on plant rather than on photosynthesis. ‘B’ has no effect on C4 plants but has
inhibitory effect on C3 plants. ‘C’ in the atmosphere has an effect on present levels of C3 plants but not C4.
What is A, B and C?
A B C
1) Water Carbon dioxide oxygen
2) carbon dioxide water oxygen
3) water oxygen carbon dioxide
4) oxygen water carbon dioxide
150. Assertion (A): Disc florets of Asteraceae are bisexual and actinomorphic
Reason (R): Ray florets of Asteraceae are bisexual and zygomorphic
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
 ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A
151. In RAAS the substrate for renin is
1) angiotensinogenase 2) angiotensinogen 3) angiotensin I 4) angiotensin II
152. Which of the following has binding sites for ATP?
1) Tropomyosin 2) Meromyosin 3) Troponin 4) Actin
153. Identify the exclusively marine invertebrate animal with proboscis.
1) Dentalium 2) Amphioxus 3) Doliolum 4) Saccoglossus
154. Which of the following hormones are not antagonistic in action?
1) Insulin: Glucagon 2) TCT: PTH 3) Both (1) and (2) 4) Adrenaline: Noradrenaline
155. Following is a diagrammatic representation of menstrual cycle of 28 days. What will be the duration of
phase A and B, if menstrual phase is of 5 days?

Choose the correct option.

A B
1) 10 days 18 days
2) 9 days 14 days
3) 14 days 14 days
4) 9 days 19 days
156. Which one of the following is allosomal aneuploidy with more number of chromosomes than normal
individual?
1) Down’s syndrome 2) Turner’s syndrome 3) Thalassemia 4) Klinefelter syndrome
157. The male cockroach can be distinguished from the female cockroach by the presence of
1) anal styles 2) anal cerci 3) genital pouch 4) ommatidia
158. The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUD’s that they
1) inhibit gametogenesis 2) suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity
3) make uterus unsuitable for implantation 4) inhibit ovulation
159. Chemical present in ‘smack’ is
1) atropine 2) diacetylmorphine 3) nicotine 4) quinine
160. Choose the incorrect match among the following
1) Parapodia-Ancylostoma 2) Jointed appendages-Limulus
3) Book gills-Limulus 4) Nematocytes-Adamsia
161. Choose the incorrect statements related to Homo erectus.
I) Used hides to protect their body II) Certainly did not eat meat
III) First hominid IV) Lived around 1.5 mya
1) All except I 2) All except II 3) All except III 4) All except IV
162. Which hormone is indispensable for parturition, but does not play a significant role during the pregnancy?
1) Progestogens 2) Estrogens 3) Oxytocin 4) Thyroxine
163. Select the correct statement regarding formed elements in blood.
1) Lymphocytes are responsible for immune responses of the body and coagulation
2) Monocytes are phagocytic granulocytes
3) Eosinophils help in antibody production
4) Thrombocytes are cell fragments without Nucleus
164. Key concepts of Darwinian theory are
1) saltation and randomness of variation
2) inheritance of acquired characters, use and disuse of organs
3) genetic drift, gene flow
4) branching descent and natural selection
165. Choose the incorrect statement.
1) Post synaptic potentials are either excitatory or inhibitory
2) Unmyelinated nerve fibres are devoid of Schwann cell
3) A resting nerve cell has greatest permeability for K+
4) Transmission of an impulse across electrical synapse is very similar to impulse conduction along a
single axon
166. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to satellite DNA.
1) It forms large portion of human genome
2) It is not inheritable
3) It does not code for any protein
4) It was used by Alec Jeffreys as probe
167. Which of the following is a viviparous flying homeotherm?
1) Platypus 2) Psittacula 3) Aptenodyte 4) Pteropus
168. A man whose mother was color blind marries a woman who had a color blind mother and normal father.
What percentage of female children of this couple will be color blind?
1) 25% 2) 0% 3) 50% 4) 75%
169. Somatic neural system relays impulses from CNS to
1) Smooth muscles 2) Visceral organs 3) Cardiac muscles 4) Skeletal muscles
170. Match the following.
List I List II
a) Barbiturates i) depressant
b) Coke ii) effects on cardio vascular system
c) Charas and ganja iii) produce sense of euphoria
d) Heroin iv) used to treat insomnia
1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i 2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii 3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii 4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
171. In DNA fingerprinting technique, blotting refers to
1) separation of DNA fragments
2) hybridisation of DNA fragments
3) transfer of separated DNA fragments onto nylon membrane
4) detection of hybridised DNA fragments
172. Concept of competitive release was explained by
1) Gause 2) Connell 3) Tilman 4) Mc. Arthur
173. Select the correct match.
Column I Column II
A) Scoliodon I) Metagenesis
B) Ctenoplana II) Parapodia
C) Balanoglossus III) Claspers
D) Nereis IV) Bioluminescence
E) Obelia V) Stomochord
VI) Operculum
1) A-V, B-IV, C-II, D-I, E-III 2) A-VI, B-III, C-V, D-II, E-I
3) A-III, B-IV, C-V, D-II, E-I 4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III, E-V
174. Physical and physiological barriers respectively are
1) Skin and mucus membranes 2) Mucus membranes and neutrophils
3) Skin and saliva in mouth 4) Acid in stomach and tears from eyes
175. Inspiratory capacity (IC) and functional residual capacity (FRC) of a person are 3500 mL and 2200 mL
respectively with normal tidal volume. What will be his vital capacity (VC) if he residual volume (RV) is
1200 mL?
1) 4500 mL 2) 3700 mL 3) 5200 mL 4) 5700 mL
176. Which of the following options correctly represents the heart failure?
1) Lumen of arteries become narrow -Heart stops beating
2) Necrosis in heart muscle-Acute chest pain
3) Decreased blood supply to heart-Cardiac arrest
4) Heart is not pumping blood effectively-Congestion of lungs
177. Which of the following hydrophobic hormone produces anti-inflammatory reactions and supress immune
response?
1) Aldosterone 2) Thyroxine 3) Thymosin 4) Cortisol
178. Choose the incorrect statement among the following.
1) Early detection of disease is possible with recombinant DNA technology
2) PCR is used to detect mutations in genes in suspected cancer patients
3) ELISA helps in detecting antibodies synthesized against pathogen
4) Conventional methods cannot help in detecting the pathogen
179. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched with respect to convergent evolution.
1) Lemur-spotted cuscus 2) Flying squirrel-Flying phalanger
3) Anteater-Numbat 4) Bob cat-Numbat
180. Match the following given in Column I and Column II and select the correct option.
Column I Column II
a) David Tilman i) Estimation of global species diversity at about 7 million
b) Paul Ehrlich ii) Species – area relationship
c) Robert May iii) Increased diversity continued to higher productivity
d) Alexander von Humboldt iv) Rivet popper hypothesis
1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii 2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii 3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i 4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
181. What would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 10L, blood volume in the ventricles at the
end of diastole is 150 mL and at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL?
1) 50 beats per minute 2) 75 beats per minute 3) 100 beats per minute 4) 125 beats per minute
182. Assertion (A): Logistic growth model is considered a more realistic one when compared with exponential
growth model.
Reason (R): Resources for growth for most animal populations are finite and become limiting sooner or
later.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
4) (A) is false but (R) is true
183. Which of the following is incorrect?
1) Species composition: Identification and enumeration of plant and animal species in an ecosystem
2) Humification: Conversion of dark coloured amorphous substance into organic nutrients by microbes
3) Stratification: Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels in a forest
4) Primary production: Amount of biomass produced per unit area over a time period by plants during
photosynthesis
184. Statement-I (S-I): Menstrual cycle cease during pregnancy
Statement-II (S-II): Endometrium of uterus regenerates through proliferation phase
1) Both S-I and S-II are true 2) Both S-I and S-II are false
3) S-I is true and S-II is false 4) S-I is false and S-II is true
185. India has only______% of the world’s land area, its share of the global species diversity is an impressive
____%
1) 8.1, 2.4 2) 2.1, 8.4 3) 12, 12 4) 2.4, 8.1
SECTION-B
186. In which of the following assisted reproductive technologies, the zygote or early embryos are transferred
to assist those females who cannot conceive?
1) GIFT and ZIFT 2) ZIFT and IUT 3) AI and ZIFT 4) GIFT and ICSI
187. Columnar epithelium with microvilli on free surface to help in absorption is found in
1) proximal convoluted tubule of nephron 2) bronchioles
3) ducts of glands 4) lining of intestine
188. Which of the following is an example for population interaction which is detrimental for both the
interacting species (__, __)?
1) Copepods on marine fishes
2) Interaction between Abington tortoise in Galapagos islands and goat
3) Barnacles on whales
4) Interaction between Gambusia and mosquito larvae
189. Choose the correct sequence of taxa based on their diversity.
1) Crustaceans<Molluscs<Insects
2) Mosses<Lichens<Algae<Angiosperms
3) Mammals<Aves<Amphibians<Reptiles
4) Animals<Plants
190. The connective tissue that occurs beneath the skin has
1) Cells enclosed in lacunae 2) Fibres arranged in regular pattern
3) No cells 4) Semifluid ground substance
191. Which of the following factors are favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin?
A) High pO2, low pCO2
B) Lesser H+ concentration, lower temperature
C) Low pO2, high CO2
D) High H+ , higher temperature
1) A only 2) A and B 3) B and C 4) B and D
192. Match the contents of List I with List II.
List I List II
A) Hypersecretion of GH in adults I) Dwarfism
B) Hyperthyroidism II) Addison’s disease
C) Hypothyroidsm III) Acromegaly
D) Hyposecretion of GH in children IV) Cretinism
E) Hyposecretion of glucocorticoids V) Grave’s disease
1) A-III, B-V, C-IV, D-I, E-II 2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-V, D-I
3) A-III, B-IV, C-V, D-I, E-II 4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV, E-V
193. Identify the correct set.
1) Round worm-Trichophyton-Fungal disease
2) Pneumonia-Haemophilus-Viral disease
3) Diphtheria-Microporum-Bacterial disease
4) Malaria-Plasmodium-Protozoan disease
194. Which one of the following is the correct matching of three items and their grouping category?
Items Category
1) Femur, Fibula, Coccyx Hind limb bones
2) Ethmoid, Sphenoid, Hyoid Cranial bones
3) Coxal, Clavicle, Scapula Girdle bones
4) Sternum, Atlas, Coccyx Vertebral column
195. Persons with ‘O’ blood group are described as ‘universal donors’. This is due to
1) presence of Anti-A and Anti-B antibodies in plasma
2) absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBC
3) absence of Anti-A and Anti-B antibodies in plasma
4) presence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBC
196. Statement-I (S-I): During oogenesis the 1st meiotic division occurs in secondary oocyte
Statement-II (S-II): Diploid secondary oocyte gives rise to haploid second polar body and ovum
1) Both S-I and S-II are true 2) Both S-I and S-II are false
3) S-I is true and S-II is false 4) S-I is false and S-II is true
197. Number of chromosomes are same in both adult and its gametes in
1) female fowl 2) female fruit fly 3) male honey bee 4) male grasshopper
198. The age pyramid with a broad base indicates
1) Growing population with high percentage of post reproductive individuals
2) Stable population with low percentage of pre-reproductive individuals
3) Expanding population with high percentage of pre-reproductive individuals
4) Declining population with low percentage of young individuals
199. Which of the following combination is correct?
1) Descending limb of loop of Henle: Impermeable to water
2) Ascending limb of loop of Henle: Highly permeable to water
3) Descending limb of loop of Henle: Highly permeable to electrolytes
4) Ascending limb of loop of Henle: Impermeable to water
200. The second most abundant formed elements in blood are
1) Lymphocytes 2) Thrombocytes 3) Basophils 4) Neutrophils

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