Course: SR STAR SUPER CHAINA (REV) GRAND TEST-05 Ex.

Date: 16-02-2024
Duration: 3 Hrs 20Min NEET Max. Marks: 720
Note: Important Instructions
 The test is of 3.20 hours duration and this Test Booklet contains 200 questions.
Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4
marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.
The maximum marks are 720.
 In this Test Paper, each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35
questions (all questions are mandatory) and Section B will have 15 questions.
Candidate can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these 15 questions. In case
if candidate attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be
considered for marking
 The candidate has to write his/her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the
appropriate bubble with the help of Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only as the correct
answer(s) of the question attempted
PHYSICS
SECTION-A

1. Statement – I:- Vector addition of two vectors is always greater than their vector
subtraction.
Statement – II:- Magnitude of resultant of two vectors may be less than the
magnitude of either vector.
1) Both S-I and S-II correct 2) S-I is correct and S-II is incorrect
3) S-I is incorrect and S-II is correct 4) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect
2. Distance travelled by a particle starting form rest and moving with an
4
acceleration of ms 2 , in the second is
3
10 19
1) m 2) m 3) 4 m 4) 6 m
3 3
3. A ball is projected vertically up with an initial velocity. Which of the following
graph represent KE of ball?

1) 2) 3) 4)
4. A ball is projected from ground at angle  with the horizontal. After t = 1 s, it is
moving at 450 with the horizontal and after t = 2 second, it is moving
horizontally. What is speed of projection of ball? [ g  10ms 2 ]
1) 10 2 m / s 2) 10 3 m / s 3) 20 m / s 4) 10 5 m / s
5. In the equation of angular displacement of a particle moving on a circular path
is given as   2t 3  0.5,  is in radian and t in second. The  angular velocity of
the particle at t=2 s is
1) 16.5 rad/s 2) 19.5 rad/s 3) 24 rad/s 4) 12 rad/s
6. A rifle man, who together with his rifle has a mass of 100 kg, stands on a
smooth surface and fires 10 shots horizontally. Each bullet has a mass 10 grams
and a muzzle velocity of 800 m/s. Match the items of Column I with the
respective items of Column – II.
Column – I Column – II
A Velocity acquired by rifle at end of 10 shots (m/s) I 32
B If shots fired in 10s, the average force exerted on the rifle man (N) II 80
C Kinetic energy of the rifle man (J) III -0.8
D Momentum acquired by the rifle man. (kg m/s) IV 8
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A B C D A B C D
1) III IV I II 2) III IV II I
3) I III IV II 4) II IV III I
0
7. A block rests on an inclined plane making an angle of 30 with the horizontal.
The coefficient of static friction between block and the plane is 0.8. If the
frictional force on the block is 10 N, then mass of block (in kg) ( g  10m / s 2 )
1) 2.0 2) 2.5 3) 4.0 4) 1.5
8. A mass of 1 kg is suspended by a thread. It is lifted up with an acceleration of
4.9 ms 2 , and then lowered with an acceleration of 4.9 ms 2 , The ratio of tensions in
first case to second cases is ( g  9.8 ms 2 )
1) 2 : 1 2) 1 : 1 3) 3 : 1 4) 1 : 3
9. A particle moves along x axis from x = 1 m to x = 3 m under the effect of the
force F  3 x 2  2 x  5 N . Work done in process is
1) 24 J 2) 38 J 3) 18 J 4) 28 J
10. In stable equilibrium position, a body has
1) Maximum potential energy
2) Minimum potential energy
3) Minimum kinetic energy
4) Neither maximum nor minimum potential energy
  
11. Two bodies of mass 10 kg and 2 kg are moving with velocities (2 i  7 j  3 k )m / s
  
and (10 i  5 j  3 k )m / s respectively. The velocity of their centre of mass is
      
1) 2 i m / s 2) 2 k m / s 3) 4 i  2 j m / s 4) 6 i  2 j  3 k m / s
12. A flywheel of mass 50 kg and radius of gyration about its axis of rotation of 0.5
m is acted upon by a constant torque of 12.5 N m. Its angular velocity at
t = 5 s is
1) 2 rad/s 2) 5 rad/s 3) 10 rad/s 4) 12 rad/s
13. A body is released from height equal to radius R of the earth. The velocity of
body with which it will strike the earth surface is
gR
1) 2gR 2) 2 gR 3) gR 4)
2
th
1
14. The height at which the weight of an object becomes   of its weight on the
 16 
surface of earth is (R is radius of earth)
1) 3 R 2) 2 R 3) 4 R 4) 5 R
15. A wire can be broken by a load of 20 kg-wt. The force required to break wire of
same material with twice the diameter will be
1) 20 kg-wt 2) 60 kg-wt 3) 90 kg-wt 4) 80 kg-wt
16. If work done in increasing the size of rectangular soap film with dimensions
8 cm  3.75 cm to 10 cm  6 cm is 2 10 4 J . The surface tension of film in newton per
meter is
1) 2.1102 2) 1.65 102 3) 3.3 102 4) 4.2 102
17. Two rain drops reach earth from clouds with different terminal velocities having
ratio 9 : 4. Then the ratio of their volumes is
1) 3 : 2 2) 27 : 8 3) 64 : 81 4) 8 : 27
18. In a thermodynamic process, pressure of fixed mass of a gas is changed in such
a manner that the gas releases 20 J of heat and 8 J of work is done on the gas.
If initial internal energy of the gas was 40 J, what will be final internal energy?
1) 18 J 2) 28 J 3) 52 J 4) 32 J
19. Choose the correct statement
1) Internal energy is a path function, while heat is not
2) Heat is a path function, while internal energy is not
3) Both heat and internal energy are not path function
4) Both heat and internal energy are path function
20. Match Column – I with their respective formula in Column – II
Column – I Column – II
A Electric field outside the spherical shell I ES cos 
B Quantity of heat II 0

C Electric flux through an area element III q 

r
4 0 r 2

D Electric field inside the spherical shell IV Charge

Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A B C D A B C D
1) II IV I III 2) III IV I II
3) I IV III II 4) II III I IV
21. The root mean square speed of molecules of a gas is 1260 m/s. The average
speed of the gas molecules is nearly 0.85  0.922
1) 1154 m/s 2) 1671 m/s 3) 912 m/s 4) 1040 m/s
22. An object on a spring vibrates in a simple harmonic motion at a frequency of 4
hertz and an amplitude of 8 cm. If the mass of the object is 200 g, the spring
constant is
1) 40 N/m 2) 160 N/m 3) 126 N/m 4) 109 N/m
23. A heavy rope is suspended from rigid support. A wave pulse is set up at the
lower end. Then
1) The pulse travels with uniform speed
2) The pulse will travel with increasing speed
3) The pulse will travel with decreasing speed
4) The pulse cannot travel through rope
24. Two waves of wavelength 50 cm and 51 cm produced 12 beats per second. The
velocity of sound is
1) 306 m/s 2) 333 m/s 3) 342 m/s 4) 356 m/s
25. A positive charge is moved from low potential point A to a high potential point
B. Then the electric potential energy
1) Increases 2) Decreases
3) Will remain same 4) Nothing definite can be predicted
26. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and then charging battery is disconnected.
If the plates are now pulled apart with insulated handles
1) The capacitance increases
2) Potential energy decreases
3) Potential difference increases
4) Charge and potential difference both remains same
27. In the shown circuit, current through 4  resistor is

1) 0.6 A 2) 0.7 A 3) 1 A 4) 1.2 A

28. Two identical cells connected in series send 10 A current through a 5 
resistor. When they are connected in parallel, they send 8 A current through
same resistance. What is internal resistance of each cell?
1) 2.5  2) 1 3) 1.5  4) 1.9 
29. Three long wires, carrying current 10 A, 20 A and 30 A are placed parallel to
each other as shown Point P and Q are in midway of wires. What is ratio of
magnetic field at P to the Q?

1) 2 : 1 2) 3 : 2 3) 2 : 3 4) 3 : 1
30. Assertion (A):- Lenz’s law violates the principle of conservation of energy.
Reason (R):- Induced emf always support the change in magnetic flux responsible for
its production.
1) A & R true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) A & R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) Both A and R are false
 
31. A charge particle having charge 2 C is thrown with velocity of (2 i  30 j ) m/s
  
inside a region having E  2 j N / C and magnetic field 5 k T . The Lorentz force
acting on particle is
       
1) (30 i  16 j ) N 2) (15 i  20 j ) N 3) (15 i  30 j ) N 4) (30 i  15 j ) N
32. The relative permeability of iron is 5500. What is its magnetic susceptibility?
1) 1 2) 5499 3) 5501 4) 4999
33. The resistance of a silicon junction diode, whose V - I characteristics is as
shown in figure is (Vk  0.7V )

1) 0.2 k 2) 0.1 k 3) 1.5 k 4) 3.7 k

34. The horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field at a place is 4  10 4 T and dip
is 450 , A metal rod of length 20 cm is placed in north south direction and is
moved at constant speed of 5 cm/s towards East. What is e.m.f. induced in the
rod?
1) 4  10 6 V 2) 2  10 4 V 3) 4  10 5 V 4) 4  10 6 V
35. According to Lenz’s law of electromagnetic induction
1) The induced emf in the direction opposing the change in magnetic flux
2) The relative motion between coil and magnet produces no change in magnetic flux
in any case
3) Only magnet should be moved towards coil
4) Only the coil should be moved towards magnet
SECTION-B
36. A coil has resistance of 30 ohm and inductive reactance 20 ohm at 50 Hz
frequency. If an ac source of 200 V, 100 Hz is connected across the coil, current
in coil will be
1) 2 A 2) 4 A 3) 5 A 4) 6 A
8
37. A plane electromagnetic wave EZ = 100 cos(6 10 t  4 x) V / m, where x is in metre
and t is in second. propagates in medium, what is refractive index of the
medium?
1) 1.2 2) 2.0 3) 1.4 4) 1.5
38. If two coherent waves are represented by y1  4sin t and y2  3sin(t   / 3) interfere
at a point, the amplitude of resulting wave will be about (in SI units)
1) 7.2 2) 6.1 3) 5 4) 12
39. The fringe width in Young’s double slit experiment increases when
1) Wavelength decreases
2) Distance between sources and screen decreases
3) Source slit is moved closer to slit openings
4) Distance between slits plane and screen increases
40. Assertion (A):- The brilliance of a diamond is due to the occurrence of multiple
total internal reflections.
Reason (R):- The critical angle for diamond is 24.40.
1) A & R true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) A & R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) Both A and R are false
41. Rainbow is formed due to
1) Scattering and refraction 2) Scattering and reflection
3) Internal reflection and dispersion 4) Dispersion alone
42. When light of maximum wavelength 300 nm falls on a photoelectric emitter,
photoelectrons are liberated. For another emitter however light of maximum
wavelength 600 nm causes photoelectric emission. The ratio of work functions
of first emitter to second emitter will be
1) 1 : 2 2) 2 : 1 3) 1 : 1 4) 1 : 4
43. The Boolean equation for the circuit as shown in figure is

1) A·B 2) A  B 3) AB 4) A + B
44. After one alpha particle emission and one  – particle emission from a nucleus
1) Mass number reduces by 5 2) Atomic number increases by 1
3) Mass number reduces by 2 4) Atomic number reduces by 1
45. To measure light intensity we use
1) LED with forward bias 2) LED with reverse bias
3) Photodiode with forward bias 4) Photodiode with reverse bias
46. Two trains 101 m and 99 m in length are running in opposite direction with
velocities 54 km/h and 36 km/h. In what time they will completely cross each
other?
1) 20 s 2) 8 s 3) 10 s 4) 16 s
47. A body of mass M is rotating in a vertical circle of radius r with critical speed.
The difference in its kinetic energy at the top and the bottom is
1) 2 Mgr 2) 4 Mgr 3) 6 Mgr 4) 3 Mgr
48. The angular frequency of a simple pendulum is  rad/s. Now the length is made
one fourth of the original length, the angular frequency becomes

1) 2) 2 3) 4 4) 
2
49. Statement – I:- A galvanometer of resistance 240  allows only 4% of the main
current, the resistance of the shunt will be 10  .
Statement – II:- The range of an ammeter can be increased but it’s range cannot be
decreased
 1) Both S-I and S-II correct 2) S-I is correct and S-II is incorrect
3) S-I is incorrect and S-II is correct 4) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect
50. If the distance between successive compressions and rarefaction in a sound
wave is 2 m and velocity of sound is 360 m/s, then the frequency is
1) 180 Hz 2) 45 Hz 3) 120 Hz 4) 90 Hz

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A
51. List-I(Cations) List-II(Group reagent)
(P) Pb 2  (1) ( NH 4 )2 CO3 in presence of NH 4Cl
(Q) Fe 3 (2) H 2 S gas in acidic medium
(R) Cu 2 (3) Dil.HCl
2
(S) Ca (4) NH 4OH in presence of NH 4Cl
Code:
P Q R S P Q R S
1) 4 2 1 3 2) 3 1 4 2
3) 1 2 3 4 4) 3 4 2 1
52. An oxide of metal ‘M’ has 40% by mass of oxygen. Metal ‘M’ has atomic mass of
24. The emperical formula of the oxide is
1) M 2O 2) M 2O3 3) MO 4) M 3O4
53. The ratio of wavelengths of first line of Lyman series in Li 2 and first line of
Lyman series in deuterium (12 H ) is
1) 1:9 2) 9:1 3) 1:4 4) 4:1
54. The number of waves made by a Bohr electron in an orbit of maximum magnetic
quantum number +2
1) 3 2) 4 3) 2 4) 1
55. For the manufacture of ammonia by the reaction N 2  3H 2  2 NH 3  21.9 k Cal, the
favourable conditions are
1) Low temperature, low pressure and catalyst
2) Low temperature, high pressure and catalyst
3) High temperature, low pressure and catalyst
4) High temperature, high pressure and catalyst
56. The solubility product of CuS , Ag 2 S and HgS are 1037 ,1044 and 1054 respectively. The
solubility of these sulphides will be in the order
1) HgS  Ag 2 S  CuS 2) Ag 2 S  HgS  CuS
3) CuS  Ag 2 S  HgS 4) Ag 2 S  CuS  HgS
M M
57. When 20mL of NaOH are added to 10 mL of HCl, the resulting solution will
20 10
1) Turn blue litmus red 2) Turn phenolphthalein solution
3) Turn methyl orange red 4) Will have no effect on either red or blue litmus
58. Heat evolved in the reaction H 2  Cl2  2 HCl is 182 kJ. Bond energies of H-H and
Cl-Cl are 430 and 242 kJ mol 1 respectively. The H-Cl bond energy is
1) 245 kJ mol 1 2) 427 kJ mol 1 3) 336 kJ mol 1 4) 154 kJ mol 1
59. For the redox reaction
Zn  NO3  Zn 2   NH 4 in basic medium, coefficients of Zn, NO3 and OH  in the
balanced equation respectively are
1) 4, 1, 7 2) 7, 4, 1 3) 4, 1, 10 4) 1, 4, 10
60. Which of the following orders of atomic radii are correct
a) Li  Be  Na b) Ni  Cu  Zn c) Ti  V  Cr d) Ti  Zr  Hf
Correct answer is
1) All 2) a, b 3) b, c 4) b, d
61. Which of the following oxides is not expected to react with sodium hydroxide
1) BeO 2) B2O3 3) CaO 4) SiO2
62. In compounds X, all the bond angles are exactly 109 0 28'. X is
1) Chloromethane 2) Carbon tetrachloride
3) Iodoform 4) Chloroform
63. In which of the following pairs, both the species are not isostructural
1) NH 3 , PH 3 2) XeF4 , XeO4 3) SiCl4 , PCl4  4) Diamond, silicon carbide
64. The no.ofantibonding electron pairs in O2 is
1) 4 2) 3 3) 8 4) 6
65. Assertion (A):- During denaturation secondary and tertiary structures are destroyed
but primary structure remains intact.
Reason (R):- Secondary and tertiary structures are held together by strong
dipeptide linkage
1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
2) A is true but R is false
3) A is false but R is true
4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
66. Among the following L-serine is

1) 2)

3) 4)
67. Which reaction gives elimination as a major product

1) 2)

3) 4)
68. With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is
true?
1) Bond angle changes but bond length remains same
2) Both bond angle and bond length change
3) Both bond angles and bond length remains same
4) Bond angle remains same but bond length changes
69. The reaction

is called
1) Schotten Bauman reaction 2) Kolbe’s reaction
2) Reimer-Tiemann reaction 4) Sandmeyerreaction
70. Which of the following is not a metamer of C4 H10O
1) Diethyl ether 2) Methyl n-propyl ether
3) 2-Methoxy propane 4) Isobutyl alcohol

71. Decreasing order of –I effect of the triad [  NO2 ,  N H 3 ,  CN] is
 
1)  N H 3   NO2   CN 2)  N H 3   CN  NO2
 
3)  CN   NO2   N H 3 4)  NO2   CN   N H 3
72. The correct order of acidic strength of the following compounds is
A) Phenol B) p-Cresol C) m-Nitrophenol D) p-Nitrophenol
1) C  B  A  D 2) D  C  A  B 3) B  D  A  C 4) A  B  D  C
73.

What is ‘Q’ ?
1) isobutane 2) isopropane 3) tert.butyl chloride 4) propane

74. Which of the following is not the product of dehydration of ?

1) 2) 3) 4)
75. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by substitution to form an alkyl bromide
which by Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous hydrocarbon containing less
than four carbon atoms. (A) is
1) CH  CH 2) CH 2  CH 2 3) CH 3  CH 3 4) CH 4
76. Match List – I with List – II.
List – I List – II
(Polyhalogen) (Uses)
A Dichloromethane I. Antiseptic
B Triiodomethane II. Manufacturing of refrigerants
C Tetrachloromethane III. Aerosol propellants
D Freons IV. Paint remover
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III 2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I 4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

77. In the case of first order reaction, the ratio of time required for 99.9%
completion to 50% completion is
1) 2 2) 5 3) 10 4) 8
0 0
78. If PA and PB are 108 and 36 torr respectively. What will be the mole fraction of A
in vapour phase if B has mole fraction in solution 0.5
1) 0.25 2) 0.75 3) 0.60 4) 0.35
79. In the galvanic cell
Cu ( s) | Cu 2 (1 M ) || Ag  (1 M ) | Ag (s) the electrons will travel in the external circuit
1) From Ag to Cu 2) From Cu to Ag
3) Electrons do not travel in the external circuit 4) In any direction
80. Statement I :The correct order of boiling points of group 15 hydrides is
BiH 3  SbH 3  NH 3  AsH 3  PH 3
Statement II :H-bonding in NH3 dominates over vander Waals’ force in SbH 3
molecules.
1) Both statement I statement II are false
2) Statement I is true but statement II is false
3) Statement I is false but statement II is true
4) Both statement I and statement II are true
81. The emf of the cell
Ni | Ni 2 (1.0 M ) || Au 3 (0.1M ) / Au
[ E 0 for Ni 2 / Ni  0.25 V, E 0 for Au 3 / Au  1.50V ] is given as
1) 1.25 V 2) -1.75 V 3) 1.75 V 4) 1.73 V
82. The stability of +1 oxidation state among Al, Ga, ln and Tl increases in the
sequence
1) Tl  ln  Ga  Al 2) ln  Tl  Ga  Al
3) Ga  ln  Al  Tl 4) Al  Ga  ln  Tl
83. Which of the following statement regarding interstetial compounds is incorrect
1) They are chemically inert 2) They are soft and nonconductive
3) They retain metallic conductivity 4) They have high melting point
84. Diamagnetic Lanthanoid ions are:
1) Nd 3 and Eu 3 2) La 3 and Ce 4 3) Nd 3 and Ce 4 4) Lu 3 and Eu 3
85. Which one of the following high-spin complexes has the largest CFSE(Crystal
field stabilization energy)
1) [ Mn( H 2 O ) 6 ]2  2) [Cr( H 2 O) 6 ]2 3) [Mn( H 2 O ) 6 ]3 4) [Cr( H 2O ) 6 ]3
 SECTION-B
86.

Identify D

1) 2) 3) 4)
87. Which of the following compound is the product of an aldol reaction

1) 2) 3) 4)
88. Aniline in a set of reactions yielded end product D

The structure of the product D would be

1) C6 H 5CH 2OH 2) C6 H 5CH 2 NH 2 3) C6 H5 NHOH 4) C6 H 5 NHCH 2CH 3
89. Assertion(A): Aqueous solution of K 2Cr2O7 is preferred as a primary standard in
volumetric analysis over Na2Cr2O7 aqueous solution.
Reason(R): K 2Cr2O7 has a higher solubility in water than Na2Cr2O7
1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
2) A is true but R is false
3) A is false but R is true
4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
90. Match List – I with List – II.
List – I List – II
(Element)  eg HKJ mol 1 
A Oxygen I. -328
B Lithium II. -141
C Fluorine III. +48
D Helium IV. -60
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I 2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II 4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
 91. The correct IUPAC name of K 2 MnO4 is
1) Potassium tetraoxopermanganate (VI)
2) Potassium tetraoxidomanganate (VI)
3) Dipotassiumtetraoxidomanganate (VII)
4) Potassium tetraoxidomanganese (VI)
92. On passing a gas ‘X’ through Nessler’s reagent, a brown precipitate is obtained.
The gas ‘X’ is
1) H 2 S 2) CO2 3) NH3 4) Cl2
93. Which of the following is more stable
1) Pb 4 2) Sn4 3) Ge4 4) Si 4
94. Which of the following reaction does not take place
1) F 2 2Cl   2 F  Cl 2 2) Br 2 2 I   2 Br   I 2
3) Cl 2 2 Br   2Cl   Br 2 4) Cl 2 2 F   2Cl   F 2
95. Among the following molecules
I) XeO3 II) XeOF4 III) XeF6
Those having same number of lone pairs on Xe are
1) II and III only 2) I and II only 3) I, II and III only 4) I and III only
96. Which of the following has maximum Pka value

1) H 2 S 2) H 2 O 3) H 2Te 4) H 2 Se
97. Number of bridged CO groups in  Co2  CO 8  is
1) 2 2) 1 3) 3 4) zero
98. In the graph drawn between logK and 1/T the intercept is equal to
Ea Ea log A
1)  2) log A 3)  4)
2.303R 2.303R 2.303
99. Choose the correct option for the free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic
condition from the following:
1) q  0, T  0, W  0 2) q  0, T  0, W  0
3) q  0, T  0, W  0 4) q  0, T  0, W  0
100. A binary solution of Ethanol and Acetone is an example of
1) Ideal solution
2) Non-ideal solution with positivedeviation
3) Non-ideal solution with negative deviation
4) Unpredictable behaviour

BOTANY
SECTION-A

101. The common characters between a tiger and a dog will be maximum at the level
their
1) Genus 2) Family 3) Order 4) Species
102. Which of the following bonds is not associated with dehydration
1) Glycosidic bond 2) Hydrogen bond 3) Ester bond 4) Peptide bond
103. Gametophytes are dioecious in
1) Marchantia 2) Selaginella 3) Cycas 4) All the above
104. Match the column I with column II and choose the correct option
Column – I Column – II
I) Mesophyll cells A) Branched and long
II) Tracheid B) Round and biconcave
III) Red blood cells C) Elongated
IV) Nerve cell D) Round and oval
I II III IV I II III IV
1) D C B A 2) D C A B
3) C D B A 4) C D A B
105. Statement – I:-Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous
Statement – II:-Chasmogamous flowers always exhibit cross pollination
1) Both S-I and S-II correct 2) Only S-I is correct
3) Only S-II is correct 4) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect
106. The enzyme used in the extension step of polymerase chain reaction is a
1) Thermolabile DNA polymerase 2) Thermostable RNA polymerase
3) Thermostable DNA polymerase 4) Ribozyme
107. Which of the following statement is not relevant to the law of dominance?
1) It explains the expression of only one of the parental character in the F 1 generation
2) It explains the expression of both parental characters in the F 1 generation
3) It explains the expression of both parental characters in the F 2 generation
4) It also explains the proportion of 3 : 1 obtained in the F2 generation
108. Find the tRNA among the following which does not exist?
AA AA AA

3' 3' 3'

5' 5' 5'

U A A U A G
1) A U U 2) 3) 4) Both 2 & 3
109. Find the incorrect match from the following with respect to the name of the
microbe and the organic acid obtained from it
1) Aspergillus niger  Fungus - Citric acid
2) Monascus purpurea  yeast – Statins
3) Clostridium butylicum  Fungus – Butyric acid
4) Streptococcus  Bacterium – Clot buster
110. Assertion (A):- The biogas plants are more often built in rural areas
Reason (R):- Cattle dung is available in large quantities in rural areas where cattle are
used for a variety of purposes
1) A & R true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) A & R are true but R is not correct explanation
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true
111. Which of the following does not comes under dedifferentiation
1) Formation of interfasicular cambium
2) Formation of fascicular cambium
3) Formation of cork cambium
4) Formation of callus during plant tissue culture
112. Chloroplasts and mitochondria are not common in
1) Having double membrane bound structure 2) Carrying phosphorylation
3) Synthesising proteins 4) Harvesting light energy
113. The codon of a proteinaceous aminoacid in which ‘R’ group is a hydrogen is
1) GAA 2) GUA 3) GGU 4) GCA
114. Self incompatibility is a genetic mechanism in A flowers to prevent B . Find A
and B respectively
1) Bisexual and self pollination 2) Bisexual and self fertilization
3) Unisexual and autogamy 4) Unisexual and geitenogamy
115. A) Proteins B) Lipids C) Carbohydrates D) Nucleic acids E) Ions
Arrange the above components in an ascending order according to their % of the
total cellular mass
1) E < B < C < D < A 2) A > D > C >B > E
3) B < C < A < D < E 4) D > A > B > C > E
116. Statement – I:- The RQ value of fats generally ranges from 0.7 to 0.71.
Statement – II:- If the RQ values is less than one we can conclude that the
respiratory substrates are fats only.
1) Both Statement are correct 2) Both Statement are incorrect
3) S-I is incorrect and S-II is correct 4) S-I is correct and S-II is incorrect
117. A):- Break down of proton gradient due to the movement of protons across the
membrane to the stroma, increases the pH value in the lumen
B) CF0 of the ATP synthase acts as transmembrane channel
C) CF0 carries out the active transport of protons across the membrane
D) CF1 particle of ATP synthase undergo conformational change by the energy
released due to the breakdown of proton gradient
How many statements are incorrect with respect to chemiosmotichypothesis?
1) A & B only 2) C only 3) A, B & D only 4) C & D only
118. Monoadelphy and diadelphy conditions are observed in which of the following
families respectively?
1) Solanaceae and Fabaceae 2) Fabaceae and Malvaceae
3) Malvaceae and Brassicaceae 4) Malvaceae and Fabaceae
119. Match the column – I with column – II and choose the correct option
Column – I Column – II
I) Malvaceae A) Kpappus
II) Fabaceae B) Epik5-7
III) Asteraceae C) A2+4
IV) Brassicaceae D) C1+2+(2)
I II III IV I II III IV
1) B C A D 2) B D A C
3) C D B A 4) B D C A
120. The organisms used by T.W Engelmann in his experiments that described the
first action spectrum of photosynthesis are
1) Cladophora and cyanobacteria 2) Spirogyra and blue green algae
3) Cladophora and aerobic bacteria 4) Ulothrix and anaerobic bacteria
121. Find the correct match from the following
1) Smallest living cell – Bacteriophage
2) Plant cell without cell wall – Protoplast
3) Membraneless cell organelles – Microbodies
4) Complex locomotory and cytoskeletal structures – Bacteria
122. Assertion (A):- The first constructed rDNA was introduced into E.coli
Reason (R):- The plasmid used in the production of first rDNA was isolated from
Salmonella typhimurium which is closely related to E.coli
1) A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2) A and R are correct and R is the not correct explanation of A
3) Only A is correct but R is incorrect
4) Only A is incorrect but R is correct
123. Water play an important role in the transfer of male gametes during fertilization
in all of the following plants except
1) Marchantia 2) Porphyra 3) Vallisnaria 4) Salvinia
124. The dipterans that are killed by Bt toxins are
1) Tobacco bud worm and Beetles 2) Army worm and mosquitoes
3) Beetles and Flies 4) Mosquitoes and flies
125. The gene ‘I’ coding for blood groups in man is an example of
1) Dominance 2) Co-dominance 3) Multiple allelism 4) All the above
126. Which of the following is the dead mechanical tissue, generally absent in
monocots?
1) Bast fibres 2) Phloem parenchyma
3) Collenchyma 4) More than one option is correct
127. Conjoint, collateral and closed vascular bundles are present in
1) Dicot & Monocot stem 2) Monocot stem & Monocot root
3) Monocot stem & Dicot leaf 4) Dicot leaf & Dicot root
128. Select the correct option from the following representing the labeled regions in
the given diagram

A B A B
1) Calvin cycle Krebs cycle 2) Light reactions Calvin cycle
3) Dark reaction Hill’s reaction 4) TCA cycle Calvin cycle
129. Find the correct match from the following
Name False fruit Edible part
1) Apple Thalamus Thalamus
2) Coconut Drupe Endosperm
3) Strawberry Achene Thalamus
4) Cashew nut Nut Pericarp
130. Which combinations of hormones can be applied to artificially induce flowering
in pine apple plants throughout the year to increase yield?
1) GA and ABA 2) Auxin and Ethylene
3) Cytokinins and GA 4) Cytokinin and ABA
131. Which of the following are the derivatives of shoot apical meristem in the
flowering plants
1) Axillary bud 2) Flower 3) Leaf 4) All the above
132. A) Perisperm B) Antipodals C) Nucellus D) Polar nucleus E) Aleurone layer
F) PEN G) Embryosac H) Carpel
How many of the above are diploid in nature?
1) 3 2) 5 3) 6 4) 4
133. Find the odd one w.r.t to the biofertilizers
1) Rhizobium 2) Mycorrhiza 3) Trichoderma 4) Blue Green Algae
134. Find the incorrect match from the following w.r.t to the organism and its cell
wall degrading enzyme
1) Fungi - Chitinase 2) Algae – Methylase
3) Plant cells – Cellulase 4) Bacteria – Lysozyme
135. Assertion (A):- In E.coli, though not having a defined nucleus, the DNA is not
scattered though out the cell
Reason (R):-DNA is held with some proteins that are positively charged histones in a
region called ‘nucleoid’
1) A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2) A and R are correct and R is the not correct explanation of A
3) A is correct but R is incorrect
4) A is incorrect but R is correct
SECTION – B
136. If malonate is added to a cell culture, which step of the Kreb’s cycle is inhibited
during the aerobic respiration
1) Conversion acetyl Co.A into citric acid
2) Conversion of  -ketoglutaric acid to succinylCo.A
3) Conversion of succinic acid to fumaric acid
4) Conversion of succinylco.A to succinic acid
137. A group of plants or animals with similar traits of any rank is
1) species 2) taxon 3) genus 4) family
138. Statement – I:- The shorter arm and longer arm of a submetacentric chromosome
are referred to as ‘p’ arm and ‘q’ arm respectively
Statement-II:- The symbol ‘p’ for short arm is derived from a French word ‘petit’
which means ‘small’
1) Both Statement are correct 2) Both Statement are incorrect
3) S-I is incorrect and S-II is correct 4) S-I is correct and S-II is incorrect
139. Which characters of Drosophila melanogastor, selected by T.H Morgon produced
the recombinants almost equal to Mendels dihybrid cross in pea plant
1) Body colour and wing size 2) Eye colour and body length
3) Eye colour and body colour 4) Eye colour and wing size
140. Match the Column – I with Column – II and choose the correct option
Column – I Column – II
I) Bacillus thuringiensis A) Source of clot buster
II) Agrobacterium B) Source of first discovered restriction
tumefaciens endonuclease
III) Streptococcus C) Cloning vector for plant genes
IV) Haemophilus influenzae D) Source of cry proteins
 I II III IV I II III IV
1) D C A B 2) D C B A
3) C D A B 4) C D B A
141. The sequence of 3 nucleotides in the coding strand of the gene coding for the ‘  ’
globulin chain of haemoglobin after the point mutation resulting in sickle cell
anaemia (changing glutamic acid to valine) is
1) 3' CTC  5' 2) 5' GUG  3' 3) 5' GTG  3' 4) 3' GTG  5'
142. Which of the following undergoes duplication during S-phase of plant cell?
1) Chloroplast 2) DNA 3) Centriole 4) Both 2 and 3
143. Find the correct option representing the conditions resulting the bell shaped
curve in the graph w.r.t to factors controlling the enzyme activity

X Y
1) Temperature - Enzyme activity
2) pH - Enzyme activity
3) Substrate concentration - Enzyme activity
4) Both 1 and 2
144. Assertion (A):- Selaginella is a heterosporous pteridophyte with sporophylls arranged
compactly in the form of cones
Reason (R):- It produces multicellular, green colour, independent, monoecious
gametophytes
1) A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2) A and R are correct and R is the not correct explanation of A
3) A is correct but R is incorrect
4) A is incorrect but R is correct
145. If Lac ’z’ gene coding for  -galactosidase is inserted in the Pst- I cloning site of
pBR322 and this rDNA is introduced into E.coli bacterium,
1) It will not able to confer ampicillin resistance to the host cell
2) The transformed cells produce  -galactosidase and also resistant to ampicillin
3) It will lead to lysis of the host cell
4) It will produce a novel protein with dual ability
146. The India government has set up organizations such as GEAC which will make
decisions regarding the following except
1) The validity of GM research
2) Safety of introducing GM-organisms for public services
3) Issuing the biopatents
4) More than one option is correct
147. A) Mechanical agitation and pumping air
B) Sequential filtration
C) Secondary sedimentation
D) Anaerobic sludge digestion
E) Primary sedimentation
 Arrange the above processes of sewage treatment in a sequential order
1) B-C-A-E-D 2) B-E-A-C-D 3) E-B-C-A-D 4) E-A-C-B-D
148. The tobacco variety resistant to the nematode Meloidogyne incognita,developed
by a novel strategy RNAi which involves ____
1) Inhibition of transcription of nematode specific m-RNA by host
2) Silencing of plant specific m-RNA by ds RNA molecule which prevents its translation
3) Silencing of nematode specific m-RNA by ds RNA molecule which prevents its
translation
4) Inhibition of transcription of plant specific m-RNA by ds RNA
149. Statement – I:- Heart wood is the secondary xylem which is dark brown and does
not conduct water and mineral due to the absence of vessels
Statement – II:- Deposition of organic compound like tannins, resins, oils, gums
essential oils and aromatic substances in the heart wood makes it hard, durable
and resistant to the attack of microbes and insects.
1) Both Statement are correct 2) Both Statement are incorrect
3) S-I is correct and S-II is incorrect 4) S-I is incorrect and S-II is correct
150. What would be the molar concentration of human DNA in a human cell?
1) 2.2 M 2) 2.10 M 3) 0.0021 M 4) 0.021 M

ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A
151. Find the incorrect information about Aplysia.
1)It is marine 2)It’s body is unsegmented
3)It belongs to the largest animal phylum 4)It is a coelomate animal
152. The last part of the oviduct in humans is
1)Funnelshaped infundibulum 2) With a narrow lumen and joins the uterus
3)Wider part of oviduct 4) With fimbriae
153. Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.
Reason (R):All chordates possess notochord but all vertebrates don’t have vertebral
column
1)Both A and R are correct, R explains A
2)Both A and R are correct, R does not explains A
3)Only R is true 4)Only A is true
154. Identify the odd one with respect to its ploidy
1)Sertoli cell 2)Spermatogonia 3) Spermatid 4) Primary spermatocyte
155. Compound epithelium has limited role in absorption and secretion because
1)It covers the dry surface of the skin
2) It covers the moist surface of buccal cavity
3)Itis made of more than one layer of cells
4) It provides protection against chemical and mechanical stresses
156. Which of the following contraceptive methods may cause harm to uterine wall?
1)Cervical caps 2)Tubectomy 3) Periodic abstinence 4) IUDs
157. Match the following
A.Ichthyophis 1. Oviparous mammal p.4-chambered heart
B.Crocodilus 2. Limbless amphibian q.mammary glands
C.Ornithorhynchus 3.Ectoparasite r.migrate for spawning
D.Petromyzon 4.Internal fertilisation s.cold-blooded animal
1)A – 2 & s, B – 4 &p, C – 1 & q, D – 3 &r 2) A – 2 & r, B – 4 & p, C – 1 & q, D – 3 & s
3) A – 3& s, B – 4 & p, C – 1 & q, D – 2& r 4) A – 2 &r, B – 3& p, C – 1 & q, D – 4& r
158. Find the correct statement related to both Hepatitis-B and HIV
1) Completely curable if detected early and treated properly
2) Can be transmitted from an infected mother to the foetus through colostrum
3) These are veneral diseases or reproductive tract infections
4) They affect only the parts of reproductive tract
159. Tissue that serves as a support framework for epithelium is characterised by
1) Compactlypacked fibres and fibroblasts
2) Semi-fluid ground substance
3) Solid and pliable matrix
4) Hard non-pliable ground substance with calcium salts and collagen fibres
160. Zygote or early embryos formed by in-vitro and also by in-vivo fertilisation could
be used for
1) ZIFT & IUT 2) IUT & IUI 3) GIFT & ZIFT 4) ICSI & IUT
161. Food that reaches the duodenum of frog is
1) Undigested chyme 2) Completely digested chyme
3) Partially digested without HCl 4) Partially digested chyme
162. Insectwithout heterogametic method of sex determination in the following is
1) Grasshopper 2) Apis 3) Drosophila 4) 1 and 3
163. Partial pressure of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood that comes in contact
with mitral valve respectively
1) 95mm Hg and 40mm Hg 2) 40mm Hg and 45mm Hg
3) 45mm Hg and 40mm Hg 4) 104mm Hg and 40mm Hg
164. Statement I: The possibility of a human female becoming haemophilic is extremely
rare.
Statement II:Mother of such female has to be at least carrier and the father should be
haemophilic.
1) Both statement I and II are correct
2) Both statement I and II are incorrect
3) Only statement I is correct 4) Only statement II is correct
165. The least mechanical efforts are required in the respiration of
1) Expiratory reserve volume 2) Inspiratory reserve volume
3) Tidal volume 4) Vital capacity
166. Monosomic condition with short stature is seen in
1) Male with Down’s syndrome 2) Malewith Turner’s syndrome
3) Female with Turner’s syndrome 4) All the above
167. Raising of ribs and sternum is due to the
1) Contraction of external intercostal muscles
2) Relaxation of external intercostal muscles
3) Contraction of diaphragm muscles
4) Relaxation of diaphragm muscles
168. Match the following
List – I List – II
A. Digestion of DNA 1.Gel electrophoresis
B. Separation of DNA 2. Restriction endonucleases
C. Amplification of DNA 3. Blotting
D. Hybridisation of DNA 4. Autoradiography
E. Detection of hybridised DNA 5. VNTR probe
6. PCR
1) A-2, B-1, C-6, D-5, E-4 2) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-5, E-4
3) A-1, B-2, C-6, D-3, E-4 4) A-2, B-1, C-6, D-3, E-4
169. Identify the correct statement
1) Stroke volume divided by heart rate gives the cardiac output
2) Cardiac output divided by heart rate gives the stroke volume
3) Heart rate multiplied by cardiac output gives the stroke volume
4) Stroke volume multiplied by cardiac output gives the heart rate
170. Statement I:- In HGP, the sequence of chromosome 1 was completed only in May
2006.
Statement II:- The largest known human gene being dystrophin at 1.4 million bases
is located on chromosome 1.
1) Both statement I and II are correct
2) Both statement I and II are incorrect
3) Only statement I is correct 4) Only statement II is correct
171. Statement I:- A portal vein does not carry blood directly to heart but forms a network
of capillaries in another organ before reaching the heart.
Statement II:-Hepatic and hypophysial portal systems are present in humans
1) Both statement I and II are correct
2) Both statement I and II are incorrect
3) Only statement I is correct 4) Only statement II is correct
172. Lemur and Spotted cuscus, Spotted cuscus and Numbat explains respectively
1) Convergent evolution and divergent evolution
2) Divergent evolution and convergent evolution
3) Convergent evolution and convergent evolution
4) Divergent evolution and divergent evolution
173. In the normal ECG, after T wave and before P wave
1) Both atria and ventricles are in systolic state
2) Both atria and ventricles are in diastolic state
3) Atria are in systolic and ventricles are in diastolic state
4) Atria are in diastolic and ventricles are in systolic state
174. In an observation supporting evolution by natural selection comes from England,
the collection of moths on trees in 1850s contain
1) More white-winged moths than dark-winged moths
2) More white-winged moths than melanised moths
3) More dark-winged moths than white-winged moths
4) Both 1 and 2
175. Assertion (A): Uric acid can be removed with a minimum loss of water.
Reason (R): Uric acid is the least soluble nitrogenous waste material.
1) Both A and R are correct, R explains A
2) Both A and R are correct, R does not explains A
3) Only R is true 4) Only A is true
176. Which of the following stimulates adrenal cortex to release aldosterone
1) Atrialnatriuretic factor 2) Anti-diuretic hormone
3) ACTH 4) Angiotensin II
177. The biochemical similarities among diverse organisms support
1) Divergent evolution 2) Convergent evolution
3) Artificial selection 4) Anthropogenic action
178. A chordate animal having flame cells as excretory structures is
1) Planaria 2) Rotifer 3) Amphioxus 4) All the above
179. Gene pool includes
1) Total genes but not alleles in a population
2) Total genes and their alleles in a population
3) Total genes but not alleles in a community
4) Total genes and their alleles in community
180. Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by the ___A_____ via a __B__
neuron. Find A and B
A B
1) Central nervous system sensory
2) Peripheral nervous system sensory
3) Peripheral nervous system inter
4) Central nervous system motor
181. Find the incorrect statement related to Salmonella typhi
1) It is a pathogenic bacterium
2) It’s mode of infection is generally contamination
3) It lives only in small intestine
4) It causes intestinal perforations in severe cases
182. Identify the incorrectly matched pair
1) Humerus and radius – fore limb 2) Tibia and fibula – hind limb
3) Frontal and parietal – facial bones 4) Malleus and incus – ear ossicles
183. Read the following diseases
a. Filariasis b. Chikungunya c. Dengue d. Malaria
Identify the viral diseases which can spread through the bite by the female
mosquito vectors from the above list.
1) All a, b, c and d 2) Only a, b and c 3) Only b and c 4) Only b and d
184. Synovial joints help in locomotion and many other movements because
1) These joints are present only in appendicular skeleton
2) These are the only type of joints present in axial skeleton
3) Fluid filled synovial cavity is present between the articulating surfaces of two
bonesof these joints
4) Bones involved in these joints are joined together with the help of cartilages
185. By using recombinant DNA technology, hepatitis B vaccine is produced from
1) Yeast 2) Bacteria 3) Protozoan 4) Virus
SECTION - B
186. Assertion (A): Neurons are excitable cells.
Reason (R): Membranes of neurons are in a polarised state at rest.
1) Both A and R are correct, R explains A
2) Both A and R are correct, R does not explains A
3) Only R is true 4) Only A is true
187. Find the set which is not matched properly
1) Opioid receptors and cannabinoid receptors – brain
2) Opioids and coca alkaloids - taken by snorting
3) Heroin and morphine – obtained from Papaversomniferum
4) Coke and ganja – obtained from Cannabissativa
188. Correct statement related to cerebral hemispheres is
1) White matter surrounds the grey matter
2) Cerebral medulla is thrown into prominent folds
3) Neuron cell bodies are concentrated in medulla
4) Corpus callosum is in white matter
189. Identify the correct gene therapy process which is permanent for ADA deficiency
1) Bone marrow transplantation
2) Enzyme replacement therapy by giving functional ADA enzyme
3) The gene isolated from marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at early
embryonic stage
4) All the above
190. Use of α- 1 – antitrypsin obtained from transgenic animals is
1) Used to treat emphysema 2) Used to treat PKU
3) More balanced product for human babies
4) Both 1 and 2
191. Statement I: Visceral nervous system is the part of the peripheral nervous system
Statement II: Impulses travel from the CNS to smooth muscles and from smooth
muscles to CNS through visceral nervous system
1) Both statement I and II are correct
2) Both statement I and II are incorrect
3) Only statement I is true 4) Only statement II is true
192. Find the correct set related to population interactions with respect to at least
one of the partner
1) Neutral interaction – commensalism and amensalism
2) Detrimental interaction – mutualism and commensalism
3) Beneficial interaction – amensalism and competition
4) All the above
193. Hypocalcemic and hyperglycemicconditions in blood stimulate the release of
hormones respectively
1) Calcitonin and glucagon 2) Parathormone and glucagon
3) Calcitoninand insulin 4) Parathormone and insulin
194. Find the incorrect statement related to a more realistic growth model
1) Population growth is Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth
2) Lag phase, acceleration, deceleration and asymptote are in sequence
3) Population grows in a geometric fashion
4) Carrying capacity plays a significant role
195. Find the correct statement
1) Gonadial hormones act on gonads but gonadotropins act on anterior pitutary
2) All thyroid hormones bind with membrane-bound receptors
3) GnRH receptors are located on gonads
4) Both ADH and aldosterone acts on distal parts of the tubule
196. The pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted because
1) The biomass of fishes far exceeds than that of phytoplankton
2) Small standing crop of phytoplankton supports large standing crop of zooplankton
3) The biomass of producers is always more than that of herbivores
4) Both 1 and 2
197. Read the following
a. Addison’s disease b. Dwarfism c. Cretinism
d. Acromegaly e. Gigantism f. Exopthalmic goitre
g. Diabetes insipidus h. Diabetes mellitus
Which of the above are due to under production of hormones?
1) a, b, c, g and h 2) b, c, g and h 3) b, c, d, e, g and h 4) d, f and e
198. The potency and concentration of reserpine produced by Rauwolfiavomitoria
varies widely in different ranges. Thisexemplifies
1) Genetic diversity 2) Species diversity 3) Ecological diversity 4) All the above
199. Which of the following set of events occur at same place under normal
conditions in humans
1) Release of first polar body and release of second polar body
2) Release of second polar body and implantation
3) Formation of secondary oocyte and fertilisation
4) Formation of ootid and fertilisation
200. Biodiversity hotspots are with
1) Very high levels of species richness, low degree of endemism and accelerated habitat
loss
2) Very high levels of species richness, high degree of endemism and accelerated
habitat loss
3) Low levels of species richness, high degree of endemism and without habitat loss
4) Very high levels of species richness, high degree of endemism and without habitat
loss

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