T&D 2022 ANESTHESIA_QUES

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1: a 5-year-old patient is posted for laparoscopic inhaled anesthetic agents in closed circuit
appendicectomy. The child gives a history of ventilation with soda lime as CO2 absorber?
cyanotic spells from childhood. The mother says A: Calcium hydroxide B: Calcium chloride
that her child has a heart condition. Which of the C: Silica D: Potassium hydroxide
following would be a preferred drug for induction
of this patient? 8: Best circuit for Spontaneous respiration in an
A: sevoflurane B: ketamine adult is?
C: etomidate D: propofol A: Mapleson A B: Mapleson D
C: Mapleson F D: Mapleson B
2: You are walking in the park and see an adult
person who is unconscious. What is the next step 9: Which of the following statements are true
that you will take? regarding local anesthetic systemic toxicity?
A. Check Pulse, Start CPR, Call for help A: Lignocaine may be used to treat bupivacaine
B. Call for help, check pulse, start CPR induced arrythmias
C. Go find your friend, carry patient to emergency B: Amiodarone is the drug of choice for treating
D: wait and assess the situation arrythmias
C: Propofol may be used instead of intralipid
3: A 36-year-old patient presents to the operating D: Recovery of LA induced circulatory arrest
room for an appendectomy under general usually takes < 30 mins
anesthesia. He gives a history of cocaine abuse.
Which of the following is the correct statement 10: Mechanism of Action of local anaesthetics?
regarding this patient? A. Decreasing K efflux
A: MAC of sevoflurane will decrease B. Decreasing Ca efflux
B: MAC of sevoflurane will be unchanged C. Altering RMP of cell
C: MAC of sevoflurane will increase D. Binding to sodium channels and causing their
D: MAC of sevoflurane will initially increase and inactivation
then decrease
11: which of the following landmarks are used to
4: A case of head injury with SDH with high perform caudal epidural block?
intracranial pressure to be going for surgical A: sacral hiatus
drainage which anesthesia to be used? B: anterior superior iliac spine
A. Isoflurane C: iliac crest
B. Halothane D: pubococcygeal ligament
C. Ketamine
D. thiopentone 12: What are the components of high-quality CPR?
a) Compression rate 100-120/min
5: Mechanism of action of curare is? b) Depth in adults 5-6cm
A. Activation of GABA receptors in brain c) ventilation 20-25breaths/mins
B. Inhibition of acetylcholine d) allow adequate chest recoil
C. Competitive blocker of acetylcholine receptor Options:
D. Persistent depolarization of acetylcholine A: only a B: only a & b
receptor C: a, b & c D: a, b & d

6: which of the following induction agents can be 13: Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation is
used safely in long term infusion except? used to relieve pain. What is the mechanism?
A: ketamine B: thiopentone A. Descending inhibition
C: etomidate D: midazolam B. Gate control theory
C. Central inhibition
7: Which of the following is responsible for D Sensitization
generation of toxic by-products on long term use of

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 T&D 2022 ANESTHESIA_QUES

14: Which of the following is not a definitive B. One further attempt at direct laryngoscopy with
airway? a bougie.
A: Laryngeal Mask Airway C. Abandon further direct laryngoscopy and insert a
B: Orotracheal tube laryngeal mask airway.
C: Nasotracheal tube D. Abandon further direct laryngoscopy and
D: Tracheostomy tube establish an airway with an emergency cannula
cricothyroidotomy.
15. A 64-year-old man with colon cancer is
anesthetized for hepatic resection of liver 18: post operative Pulmonary complications are
metastases. Medical history is significant for ileal seen/expected in all except
conduit surgery for bladder cancer, diabetes A: BMI>30
treated with glyburide, 50 packs per year smoking B: upper abdominal surgery
history, and family history of malignant C: patient with 7 pack years of smoking
hyperthermia. Anesthesia is provided with D: age > 70
morphine, midazolam, oxygen, and a propofol
infusion. After a 3-unit packed red blood cell (RBC) 19: Match the following clinical conditions with
transfusion and 8 hours of surgery the patient was their appropriate capnography waveforms:
shifted to ICU for elective ventilation on propofol 1: Esophageal intubation
infusion. On post-operative day 2 the patient 2: Bronchospasm
showed metabolic acidosis along with 3: Exhausted CO2 absorber from closed circuit
hyperkalemia. 4: Return of spontaneous circulation during CPR
The most likely cause of this patient’s acidosis is A:
A. Excessive infusion of normal saline
B. Renal tubular acidosis
C. Propofol infusion syndrome
D. Diabetic ketoacidosis

16: Identify the capnogram? B:

A: intraoperative bronchospasm C:
B: spontaneous breathing under the effect of
muscle relaxation
C: rebreathing of CO2
D: hypoventilation

17. A 41-year-old man has been induced for a

laparoscopic cholecystectomy with fentanyl 100
mcg, propofol 200 mg, and atracurium 40 mg. On
direct laryngoscopy it is not possible to pass the D:
back of the tongue and no epiglottis is seen. The
patient is oxygenated with 100 % oxygen,
repositioned, and a further multiple attempts at
direct laryngoscopy are made with no improvement
in the view. What is the next management strategy?
A. One further attempt at direct laryngoscopy with
a laryngoscope.

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 T&D 2022 ANESTHESIA_QUES

Options: 24: which of the following belongs to the

A: 1-C, 2-B, 3, D, 4-A intermediate pressure systems:
B: 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D A: hanger yoke assembly
C: 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B B: flowmeter assembly
D:1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A C: oxygen flush
D: 1st pressure reducing valve
20: ASA I patient posted for laparoscopic
cholecystectomy. During surgery, sudden drop in 25: Which of the following is not cardio depressive?
ETCO2 to 8 mm hg with hypotension and A. Propofol
tachycardia but airway pressures were 18cm H20. B. Thiopentone
What’s the diagnosis? C. Ketamine
1) CO2 embolism D. Etomidate
2) Pneumothorax
3) bronchospasm 26: A patient is posted for posterior fossa surgery
4) single bronchus intubation for intracranial tumour in a 60-year-old male
A. 1 only patient. During the surgery there was a sudden
B. 2 only drop in blood pressure from 120\80 mmhg to 70\
C. 1 or 2 both possible 30 mmhg and the oxygen saturation fell from 98 %
D. 3 or 4 both possible to 70 %. Following capnography trace was
observed. Which of the following is the 1st step in
21. Which of the following factors will cause falsely the management?
low reading on the value of pulse oximetry except?
A: Hypotension
B: Black nail paint
C: Severely jaundiced skin
D: Badly positioned probe

22: What manoeuvre is shown in the image:

A: change the position of the table and make it
straight
B: increase FIO2 of the inspired gases to 100 %
C: inform the surgeon and instruct him to flood the
field with normal saline
D: give noradrenaline via an infusion to increase
blood pressure

27: With regard to Train Of Four monitoring, which

of the following is true statement except
A. supramaximal stimulus given at 2Hz
B. 4 stimuli given at a gap of 0.4 seconds
C. duration between 2 TOF stimulations is 10 secs
A. Head tilt chin lift
D. most common used pattern
B. Jaw thrust
C. Mils
28 Cisatracurium is preferred over atracurium
D. Neck extension
because?
A. Less potent and so less laudonosine production
23: How to measure depth of anaesthesia?
B. no histamine release
A: bispectral index B: pupillary dilatation
C. metabolism by Hoffman’s elimination
C: blood pressure D: pulse oximeter
D. shorter duration of action.

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29: After contrast media injection in radiology 35: A 62-year-old patient was operated for
department a patient develops severe hypotension, hemicolectomy and was shifted to ICU with an
bronchospasm, and cyanosis. Which of the epidural catheter insitu for post-operative
following should be used for treatment? analgesia. daily a dose of 3ml epidural morphine
A: atropine B: adrenaline was given with adequate analgesia.one day they
C: dopamine D: aminophylline give 12ml by mistake. Which of the following is not
an expected side effect due to it?
30. After placement of an epidural catheter in a 55- A. desaturation needing Oxygen with NIV
year-old patient for total hip arthroplasty, an entire B. Increased vomiting
epidural dose is administered into the C. Urinary retention
subarachnoid space. Physiologic effects consistent D. severe itching
with subarachnoid injection of large volumes of
local anesthetic include all the following EXCEPT 36. Which of the following pharmacologic agents
A. Hypotension would have the LEAST effect on somatosensory
B. Respiratory depression evoked potential monitoring?
C. bradycardia A. Isoflurane B. Nitrous oxide
D. convulsions C. Vecuronium D. Etomidate

31: a young patient underwent surgery under GA 37. IV administration of which anesthetic drug is
with oxygen , N2O, and desflurane . just after most painful among the following?
extubation the patient started to desaturate. On A. Methohexitol
auscultation there are crepitations. What can be B. Ketamine
most common cause? C. Etomidate
A: pleural effusion D. Propofol
B: negative pressure pulmonary edema
C: ARDS 38. A 78-year-old woman with a history of coronary
D: atelectasis artery disease & diabetes takes aspirin 150 mg,
telmisartan 40, glimepiride 2mg and clopidogrel 75
32. An adult patient in respiratory arrest with a once a day from last 5 years. She is being taken for
pulse is ventilated via bag valve mask: an emergency exploratory laparotomy.
A 8 times per minute Possible side effects associated with her drug
B 10 times per minute history include all the following EXCEPT
C 12 times per minute A. Bradycardia
D 14 times per minute B. hypotension
C. hypoglycaemia
33: which of the following structures are not D. increased risk of bleeding
encountered during epidural anesthesia?
A: supraspinous ligament 39: Most preferred 1st line for ECT in a depressive
B: dura patient?
C: ligamentum flavum A: Midazolam B: Thiopentone
D: interspinous ligament C: Ketamine D: Halothane

34. Pulseless electrical activity is best treated with 40. All of the following anesthetic agents can cause
_______? seizure like activity on EEG except:
A: Epinephrine A: ketamine B: etomidate
B: Magnesium C: enflurane D: thiopentone
C: Atropine
D: Unsynchronized cardioversion 41: there is a sick patient in ward who needs
supplemental oxygen. It will be given from which of
the following cylinder?

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 T&D 2022 ANESTHESIA_QUES

was seen. Which of the following is the correct

statement regarding this patient?

A:

A: anticipated easy intubation and actual difficult

B: intubation
B: anticipated difficult intubation and actual easy
intubation
C: anticipated easy intubation and actual easy
intubation
D: anticipated difficult intubation and actual
difficult intubation

43: halothane causes malignant hyperthermia by

affecting which channels?
A: potassium B: calcium
C: C: sodium D: magnesium

44: Regarding Suxamethonium:

a. It is an antagonist at the nicotinic acetylcholine
receptor
b. It should be given in an increased dose for
patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy
c. Phase 2 block behaves like a non-depolarizing
neuromuscular block
d. It is metabolized by acetylcholinesterase

45: 20 % Intralipid bolus was administered during

resuscitation. Why?
D:
a) Local anaesthetic systemic toxicity
b) pulseless electrical activity
42: A 32-year-old male patient is to be taken for an
c) Electrocution
emergency appendicectomy surgery under general
d) asphyxia due to drowning
anesthesia with endotracheal intubation. On airway
assessment the patient has a mouth opening of
46. A 54-year-old patient is having retinal
comment on the difficulty of 4.5 cms with patient
detachment surgery under general anaesthetic.
able to touch his mentum to chest and on
During the surgery the patient became bradycardic
examination of oral cavity one can see the hard
with heart rate of 40 beats per minute and blood
palate, soft palate but only the base of uvula was
pressure of 75/40. What is the first thing would you
visible. after direct laryngoscopy following picture
do?

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 T&D 2022 ANESTHESIA_QUES

A. Reduce the inspired inhalation concentration of A: 2 mins B: 3 mins

isoflurane. C: 4 mins D: 5 mins
B. Give intravenous glycopyrrolate 200 mcg.
C. Give intravenous atropine 600 mcg. 53. Which of the following muscle relaxants will
D. Stop the surgeon operating and release the cause tachycardia and hypertension on
muscles of the globe. administration?
A. Pancuronium B. Vecuronium
47. Sugammadex in clinical use, which of the C. Mivacurium D. Atracurium
following is true?
a. Can reverse atracurium induced neuromuscular 54: Fastest acting inhalational anaesthetic agent:
blockade A: Isoflurane B: Sevoflurane
b. Can reverse all depths of rocuronium induced C: Ether D: Halothane
neuromuscular blockade
c. Is an effective treatment for rocuronium-induced 55. You have a well-working T10 labor epidural in a
anaphylaxis
woman with a difficult airway and have just been
d. Can only reverse mild level of rocuronium informed that an urgent cesarean section is needed
induced neuromuscular blockade. for a nonreassuring FHR tracing. Which of the
following local anesthetics would give you the
48: Anaesthetic which causes increased cerebral SLOWEST onset of surgical anesthesia?
blood flow and decreased CMR:
A. 3% chloroprocaine with freshly added
A: Isoflurane B: Propofol epinephrine (1:200,000)
C: N20 D: Ketamine
B. 2% lidocaine with freshly added epinephrine
(1:200,000)
49. Block is enhanced with anticholinesterase drugs
C. 2% lidocaine and epinephrine with added
A. True of nondepolarizing blockade only bicarbonate
B. True of phase I depolarizing blockade only
D. 0.5% levobupivacaine with fentanyl
C. True of phase II depolarizing blockade only
D. True of nondepolarizing and phase II
56. Which of the following would increase the
depolarizing Blockade
clinical duration of action of a local anesthetic, and
provide the GREATEST depth of motor and sensory
50: Cream used for skin anaesthesia
blockade when used for anesthesia?
A: Bupivacaine + Lidocaine
A. Increasing the volume of local anesthetic
B: Lidocaine + prilocaine
B. Increasing the concentration of local anesthetic
C: lignocaine + bupivacaine
C. carbonization & adding a vasoconstrictor to local
D: cocaine + adrenaline
anesthetic
D. Placing the patient in the head-down position
51. A mixture of 1% isoflurane, 70% N2O, and 30%
O2 is administered to a patient for 1-hour surgery.
57. Isoflurane (1 MAC)
The expired isoflurane concentration measured is
1%. At the end of surgery N2O is shut off, and a
mixture of 30% O2 and 70% N2 is administered.
Soon after this the patients saturation drops from
100% to 86%. The best explanation for this
observation is
A. Intermittent back pressure (pumping effect)
B. Diffusion hypoxia
C. Concentration effect
D. Effect of N2O solubility in isoflurane

52: Before endotracheal intubation, oxygenation

given for how much time?

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 T&D 2022 ANESTHESIA_QUES

58: A 65-year-old patient is taken for a liver B. low-pressure high-volume cuffs provide better
transplant surgery for chronic liver failure. he is protection against aspiration as compared to high
induced with a combination of etomidate and pressure low volume cuff.
fentanyl and atracurium as a muscle relaxant. C. Nitrous oxide can cause the cuff pressure to
which of the following would be the inhalational increase.
agent of choice for maintenance of anesthesia in D. bevelling of the tip of the ETT provides better
this patient? visualization of vocal cords during intubation.
A: Desflurane B: Sevoflurane
C: Nitrous oxide D: Isoflurane 65: Which of the following is the correct regarding
medical gas cylinders?
59: commonest cause of visual loss during spine a. oxygen, Black body with grey shoulder, pin index
surgery in the prone position is: 1,5
A: corneal abrasion b. nitrous oxide, Grey body with black and white
B: central retinal artery occulusion shoulder, pin index 2,5
C: ischemic optic neuropathy c. oxygen, Black body with white shoulder, pin
D: damage to the optic lens index 2,5
d. entonox, blue body with blue and white shoulder,
60: which of the following nerve fibers are least pin index 3,5
sensitive to the action of local anesthetics?
A: A gamma B: C 66. A 63-year-old woman undergoes total knee
C: B D: A delta arthroplasty under spinal anesthesia. Two days
later she complains of a severe headache. Pain
61: most common nerve used for neuromuscular intensity is not related to posture. The LEAST likely
monitoring is: cause of this headache is
A: femoral nerve B: ulnar nerve A. Caffeine withdrawal
C: facial nerve D: phrenic nerve B. Viral illness
C. Migraine
62. A 57-year-old male is in pre-surgical testing for D. Postural puncture headache (PDPH)
an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy. He has
an otherwise unremarkable medical history, and he 67. Which of the following is true concerning
is scheduled at 1 PM on the day of surgery. Which alternative routes of drug
of the following is against the ASA guidelines for administration?
preoperative fasting? A. Interosseous (IO) access should not be attempted
A. Drinking orange juice at 7 AM in children.
B. Eating toast with apple juice at 7 AM B. The same drug dose should be administered via
C. Coffee with cream at 10 AM the endotracheal tube as via
D. An omelette with pancakes at 5 AM. IV/IO.
C. CPR does not need to be stopped when a
63. With regards to smoking, which of the following medication is administered via the
statements are true, except? endotracheal route.
A. There is an increase in the circulating D. When administering lidocaine, epinephrine, or
catecholamine concentration due to smoking. vasopressin via the endotracheal tube, the dose
B. Abstinence for more than 3 months decreases should be diluted in 10 mL or normal saline or
overall perioperative cardiovascular risk. sterile water.
C. It increases airway reactivity and decrease in
FEV 1. 68: The most common reversible causes of PEA are
D. It has minimal effects on wound healing. called the "H's and T's" and include all the following
EXCEPT:
64. With tracheal tubes, all are true except? A Hypovolemia B Hypoxia
A. Cuff pressure should be kept less than 25 mm hg C Hypocalcaemia D Tamponade

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 T&D 2022 ANESTHESIA_QUES

69. A patient is in ventricular fibrillation. Two 74: Which of the following statements about the
shocks and 1 dose of epinephrine given. Which drug instrument shown is true?
is given next?
A: repeat epinephrine again
B: lignocaine
C: amiodarone
D: vasopressin

70: Which of the following is the shortest acting

opioid:
A: Fentanyl B: Sufentanil
C: Remifentanil D: Alfentanil

71: All the following are Non-invasive methods of

ventilation except
A) Venturi Mask
B) High flow Nasal cannula
C) Helmet mask
D) endotracheal tube
A: is held in right hand and inserted from left angle
72: Ventilation mode not used for weaning? of mouth
A. controlled mechanical ventilation B: has been shown to be better for adult intubations
B. pressure support ventilation C: is easier to insert in restricted mouth opening
C. synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation D: is known as miller blade
D. non-invasive ventilation
75: Chest compressions for an adult are performed:
73: Which of the following is a correct order of A. At a rate between 60 and 80 compressions/ min
route of loss of heat during surgery? B. At a rate of at least 80 compressions per minute
A: conduction > convection > radiation > C. At a rate between 80 and 100 compressions per
evaporation minute
B: convection > radiation >conduction > D. At a rate between 100 and 120 compressions per
evaporation minute
C: radiation > convection >conduction >
evaporation
D: radiation > conduction > convection >
evaporation

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