211203 S

PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211203 |
Q.1)
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
Constitutional Bodies are those which are established under the provisions of the Constitution of India.
Examples include the Election Commission, Finance Commission, Union Public Service Commission
(UPSC) etc. whereas, Statutory Bodies are those which are established by an Act of Parliament or State
Legislatures.
Option 1 is incorrect. The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) was established in 1993 under
the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. It is a statutory body. The NHRC is dedicated to protecting
and promoting human rights, including the rights to life, liberty, equality, and dignity.
Option 2 is incorrect. Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was originally established in 1964 by an
executive resolution and given statutory status by the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003.
Option 3 is correct. NITI Aayog as established by an executive resolution of the Government of India in
2015, replacing the Planning Commission. It is not backed by a any Act of Parliament or any
Constitutional provision.
Option 4 is incorrect. The Central Information Commission (CIC) was established in 2005 under the
provisions of the Right to Information Act, 2005.
Option 5 is incorrect. National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) is established under Article
338 of the Constitution of India. Hence it is a Constitutional body.
Source: Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth, Chapters- Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies
Subtopic:)
Q.2)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 added Part IX to the Indian Constitution, focusing on
Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRI). It also introduced the Eleventh Schedule, which enumerates 29 subjects
to be devolved to Panchayats.
Statement I is correct. According to Article 243G of the Constitution of India, introduced by the 73rd
Amendment Act of 1992, states have the authority to enact their own Panchayati Raj Acts. This provision
empowers states to define the composition, powers, and functions of Panchayats, enabling them to
function as self-governing institutions tailored to local nee.
Statement II is correct. The subject of "local government" indeed falls under the State List in the
Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. This means that the states have the authority to legislate on
matters related to local government, including Panchayats.
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I: According to the Seventh Schedule of the
Indian Constitution, "Local Government" is a subject listed under the State List. This includes the
"constitution and powers of municipal corporations, improvement trusts, district boards, mining
settlement authorities, and other local authorities for the purpose of local self-government or village
administration." Consequently, state legislatures have the authority to enact laws related to local
governance, including the Panchayati Raj Institutions. This constitutional provision empowers states to
pass their own Panchayati Raj Acts, specifying the establishment and functioning of Panchayats within
their jurisdiction.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Panchayati Raj
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1784198
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[1]
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Panchayati Raj
Subtopic:)
Q.3)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
In 2004, the Government of India decided to create new category of languages called as “classical
languages”. In 2006, it laid down the criteria for conferring the classical language status. Six languages
have been granted the classical language status in India till now by the Ministry of Culture.
Point 1 is correct: Tamil was the first language to be granted classical status in 2004. It qualifies due to its
long history of written records dating back over 2000 years, a rich literary tradition that is original and
not borrowed from another speech community, and a vast ancient literature which is considered valuable
by scholars.
Point 2 is incorrect: Gujarati, while being an important regional language with a significant literary
output, has not been designated as a Classical language. It does not meet the criterion related to antiquity
and historical legacy as required for Classical status.
Point 3 is correct: Malayalam was recognized as a Classical language in 2013. While it shares some
characteristics with Tamil, its distinct script and extensive body of literature from the 12th century
onward support its classification.
Point 4 is incorrect: Bengali is one of the most spoken languages in India and has a rich literary heritage,
especially noted for its modern literary and cultural outputs. However, it has not been classified as a
Classical language primarily because it does not meet the antiquity criteria set for Classical languages.
Point 5 is correct: Kannada was declared a Classical language in 2008. Its history of written texts dates
back to the 5th century AD, and it has a rich and varied literary tradition that includes several old and
significant texts.
Point 6 is correct: Telugu received the Classical language status in 2008, the same year as Kannada. Its
script and vast literature, which date back to at least the 7th century AD, and its profound vernacular
literature from the 11th century provide the basis for its classification.
Knowledge Base:
1) The criteria for declaring a language as classical mandates high antiquity of its early texts/recorded
history over a period of 1,500–2,000 years, a body of ancient literature/texts which is considered a
valuable heritage by generations of speakers and a literary tradition that is original and not borrowed
from another speech community.
2) Also since the classical language and literature is distinct from the modern, there can also be a
discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Source: Ch: 65 - Official Language, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Official language
Subtopic:)
Q.4)
Ans) a
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 mandated that at least one-third of the seats in
Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) be reserved for women. Over the years, various states have taken
progressive steps to increase this reservation to 50%.
[2]
Statement 1 is correct. Many states in India have increased reservations for women in Panchayats to
50%. This initiative is part of broader efforts to ensure gender equality and empower women at the
grassroots level. At present, 21 states out of 28, have 50% reservations for women at the panchayat level.
Which means more than two third of states have 50% reservations for women at the panchayat level.
Statement 2 is correct. Bihar was the first State in the country in 2006 when women were given 50%
reservation in local bodies and panchayats
Statement 3 is incorrect. Some states in India, such as Haryana, have implemented minimum
educational qualifications for candidates contesting Panchayat elections.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/political-pulse/women-reservation-panchayat-
municipality-level-challenges-on-ground-8946576/
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/womens-reservation-bill-bihar-shows-the-
way-claims-jdu/article67322785.ece
https://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-news-india/supreme-court-upholds-minimum-
educational-criteria-for-contesting-polls-in-haryana/
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.5)
Ans) a
Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) aims at generating estimates of household Monthly
Per Capita Consumption Expenditure (MPCE) and its distribution separately for the rural and urban
sectors of the country, for States and Union Territories, and for different socio-economic groups.
Statement 1 is correct: The Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) is conducted by the
National Statistical Organization (NSO) every five years under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As per the Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES), 2022-23, the
average monthly per capita consumption expenditure (MPCE) in Indian households rose by 33.5% since
2011-12. Among the States, the MPCE is the highest in Sikkim for rural (₹7,731). It is the lowest in
Chhattisgarh, where it was ₹2,466 for rural households.
In case of urban areas, the Chandigarh has highest MPCE at ₹12,575 and Chhattisgarh has lowest MPCE
at 4,483.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/after-11-years-household-consumption-
expenditure-survey-findings-released/article67882939.ece
https://www.mospi.gov.in/sites/default/files/publication_reports/Factsheet_HCES_2022-23.pdf
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Household Consumption Expenditure Survey 2022-23
Subtopic:)
Q.6)
Ans) b
Before the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act of 2019, the State of Jammu and Kashmir had a
bicameral legislature consisting of a Legislative Assembly (lower house) and a Legislative Council (upper
house). After the reorganisation, the Legislative Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir became part of the
[3]
unicameral legislature of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir, functioning as the sole legislative
body with the authority to enact laws and regulations.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The legislative assembly of Jammu and Kashmir has the authority to enact laws
on subjects listed in the State List except public order and police. It can also enact legislation related to
land.
Statement 2 is correct: The electoral college for the President of India consists of elected members of
both houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) and elected members of the Legislative
Assemblies of the States and Union territories of NCT of Delhi and Puducherry.
Under the 70th Constitutional Amendment Act, the term ‘State’ mentioned in article 54 of the Constitution
was to include the Union Territories with legislature i.e. The UTs of Delhi and Puducherry.
Since, UT of Jammu and Kashmir is not mentioned under the definition of State in article 54, it does not
form the part of electoral college of President of India. For UT of J & K to become part of electoral college
of President of India, another constitutional amendment is needed under article 54.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/jammu-and-kashmir-assembly-to-
miss-presidential-polls-for-second-time-in-history/article65556747.ece
https://thewire.in/government/rti-questions-whether-jk-reorganisation-denied-right-to-participate-
in-presidential-polls
40 Union Territories
Indian Polity by Laxmikanth
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Union Territories
Subtopic:)
Q.7)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Article 243D of the Indian Constitution mandates the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes in every Panchayat (rural local government). The number of seats reserved should be
proportionate to their population in the respective Panchayat area. Further, one-third of these reserved
seats are specifically allocated for women from these communities. This provision aims to ensure
inclusive representation of marginalized groups in grassroots governance.
Option d is correct: While the reservation of seats in Panchayat elections for Scheduled Tribes is
mandated by Article 243D of the Indian Constitution for most states, there is an exception.
Article 243M (3A): This clause specifically states that the provisions of Article 243D regarding the
reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes do not apply to the state of Arunachal Pradesh. This is
because Arunachal Pradesh has a predominantly tribal population, and the state's laws and policies are
designed to protect and empower its indigenous communities.
Source: Indian Polity by Lakshmikanth- Panchayati Raj
https://lddashboard.legislative.gov.in/sites/default/files/coi/COI_2024.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.8)
Ans) b
[4]
The 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 revolutionized local governance in India by instituting a Panchayati Raj
Institution (PRI) system. It granted constitutional status to PRIs, devolved powers to them, and mandated
regular elections along with reservations for women, Scheduled Castes (SCs), and Scheduled Tribes (STs).
This landmark amendment was designed to strengthen grassroots democracy and promote participatory
governance in rural India.
Statement-I is correct: The 73rd Amendment Act, enacted in 1992, introduced the Panchayati Raj
system across rural India, aiming to decentralize governance. This system provided a framework for
local self-governance through a three-tier structure (Gram Panchayat at the village level, Panchayat
Samiti at the block level, and Zila Parishad at the district level).
By empowering local bodies to take charge of planning and implementing development programs, the
Amendment significantly increased grassroots participation in governance.
Villagers could now directly influence decisions affecting their lives, making governance more
participatory compared to the previous representative model where decisions were made by elected
officials at higher levels without direct local involvement.
Statement-II is correct: 73rd Amendment Act (1992) mandates the reservation of seats in Panchayats
for SCs and STs in proportion to their population in each Panchayat area. Additionally, it provides for
the reservation of not less than one-third of the total seats for women, including the seats reserved for
SCs and STs.
These reservations ensure that marginalized groups have a voice in local governance, helping to promote
social justice and inclusive development.
Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I: Statement II is correct in highlighting the
provision for reservation of seats for SCs and STs, it only represents one aspect of the broader
transformation to a more participatory form of governance achieved through the 73rd Amendment Act
(1992). The establishment of a structured Panchayati Raj system, regular elections, empowerment of
Gram Sabhas, and devolution of powers and functions in the hands of native population from all
section including tribals, scheduled caste, women, youth (above age of 18 years) etc. in that panchayat
constituency collectively decide agenda of governance and hence contributed to this significant shift.
Source: Indian polity-by Laxmikanth (chapter 38- Panchayati Raj),
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.9)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) are a system of local self-governance in rural India. Established
under the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments, they comprise a three-tier structure: Gram
Panchayat (village level), Panchayat Samiti (block level), and Zilla Parishad (district level). PRIs aim to
decentralize power, ensuring local participation in decision-making and implementation of development
programs in rural areas.
Statement 1 is correct: The Royal Commission on Decentralization (1907-09), headed by C.E.H.
Hobhouse, recognized the importance of local self-government institutions like Panchayats for rural
development in India. The commission recommended that the village should be regarded as the basic
unit of local self-government institutions, and every village should have a panchayat.
Statement 2 is correct: The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, appointed in 1957 by Government of India,
played a pivotal role in recommending a three-tier Panchayati Raj system (Gram Panchayat at the
[5]
village level, Panchayat Samiti at the block level, and Zilla Parishad at the district level). This
recommendation was adopted by many states in India and formed the basis for subsequent development
of Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Source: Indian polity- by Laxmikanth (chapter 38) Panchayati Raj),
https://lddashboard.legislative.gov.in/sites/default/files/coi/COI_2024.pdf ,
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/85631/3/Unit-1.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.10)
Ans) d
European Free Trade Association (EFTA) is an intergovernmental organization established in 1960
through the Stockholm Convention. Its members are Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland.
The objective of the organisation is to facilitate free trade and economic integration among its members,
both within Europe and on a global scale.
India has recently signed a free trade agreement (FTA) with four European countries-Iceland,
Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland. The Free Trade Agreement envisions a goal of reaching $100
billion in investments in India and creation of 1 million jobs within 15 years.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/what-do-ftas-with-european-countries-signal-
explained/article67964270.ece
https://forumias.com/blog/india-efta-trade-deal/
Topic:) European Free Trade Association
Subtopic:)
Q.11)
Ans) a
The Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA) was enacted to empower Gram
Sabhas (village assemblies) in Scheduled Areas with significant tribal populations. This act grants Gram
Sabhas several exclusive powers and responsibilities, enhancing their role in local governance and
decision-making.
[6]
Statement 1 is correct: Under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA), Gram
Sabha has the authority to enforce prohibition or regulate and restrict the sale and consumption of
intoxicants, thereby allowing them to manage alcohol and substance use in accordance with their
cultural and social values.
Statement 2 is correct: Under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA), the
Gram Sabha's authority to own and manage minor forest produce recognizes tribal communities'
traditional rights, empowering them to manage and benefit from resources like fruits, nuts, seeds, and
leaves.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Under the PESA Act, 1996, Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of
land in the Scheduled Areas, declared under Schedule 5 (not tribal areas declared under Schedule 6) of
the Constitution of India. They are empowered to take appropriate action to restore any unlawfully
alienated land of a Scheduled Tribe.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth - Panchayati Raj
https://tribal.nic.in/actRules/PESA.pdf,
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.12)
Ans) d
The State Finance Commission (which is constituted for the Panchayats) shall also, for every five years,
review the financial position of municipalities and make recommendations to the governor regarding
distribution of financial resources to Municipalities.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (CAA), 1992 provides for the
establishment of the State Finance Commission (SFC). Article 243 I (Part IX) of the Constitution
provides for the constitution of SFC whereas Article 243Y (Part IXA) states that the Finance Commission
constituted under Article 243 I can also review the financial position of Municipalities.
The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act 2003, states that the total number of ministers, including the
Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
It was not related to constitution of State Finance Commission.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The State Finance Commission (SFC) does not work under the supervision of
the Finance Commission of India. SFC is an independent constitutional body established under Article
243I of the Indian Constitution.
Statement 3 is incorrect: SFC can make recommendations to the Governor (not the President) to assign
grants-in-aid to the Municipalities from the Consolidated Fund of State (not Consolidated Fund of
India). Other functions of SFC are as follows:
1) Principles that should govern the distribution between the state and the municipalities of the net
proceeds of the taxes, duties, tolls and fees levied by the state and allocation of shares amongst the
municipalities at all levels.
2) Principles to determine the taxes, duties, tolls and fees that may be assigned to the municipalities
3) The measures needed to improve the financial position of the Municipalities.
4) Any other matter referred to it by the governor in the interests of sound finance of municipalities.
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) State Finance Commission Subtopic:)
[7]
Q.13)
Ans) c
The Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas Act (PESA Act) was enacted in 1996 to extend the tribal self-
rule in the Fifth Schedule areas. The Act extends considerable power to the Gram Sabha and provides an
advisory role to the state legislature to ensure proper functioning of such local bodies. The act, in short,
recognizes the traditional form of decision making of the tribals and stands for their self-governance.
Statement 1 is correct. The PESA Act is based on the recommendations of the Bhuria Committee. The
committee was established in 1994 to work out details as to how structures similar to Panchayati Raj
Institutions can take shape in tribal areas and the scheduled areas.
Statement 2 is correct. The PESA Act is not applicable in the state of Assam. The north-eastern states
which are under the sixth schedule (like Assam) are not covered by PESA, since they have their own
autonomous councils for governance.
https://www.mha.gov.in/sites/default/files/PESAAct1996_0.pdf
http://nirdpr.org.in/nird_docs/rss/RRS%20149_PESA_compressed_07092023.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.14)
Ans) a
PESA Act was enacted in 1996 to provide self-rule to the tribals in scheduled areas of the country. The Act
was passed to protect the scheduled areas not within the scope of the 73 rd constitutional amendment act,
1992. It decentralizes power up to the level of the Gram Sabha and provides self-governance through
them.
Option a is correct. The Gram Sabha is accorded prime place in the PESA Act. It is considered to be the
primary instrument for implementing PESA for giving control to the tribals to take care of their affairs
almost autonomously. The PESA Act conferred the absolute powers to Gram Sabha, whereas the State
Legislature has been given an advisory role to ensure the proper functioning of Panchayats and Gram
Sabhas. The fundamental spirit of the Panchayats Extension to Scheduled Areas Act, 1996 for the tribal
areas under the 5th schedule is that it devolves power and authority to the Gram Sabha rather than
delegation. Hence, it paves way for participatory democracy.
https://www.mha.gov.in/sites/default/files/PESAAct1996_0.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.15)
Ans) d
Recently, Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) approved the launch of the beta version of the
T+0 settlement on an optional basis. Under the T+0 trade cycle, the settlement of trades will happen on
the same day after the closure of the T+0 market. This means that if investors sell a share, the money
[8]
will be credited to their account on the same day, and the buyer will receive the shares in their demat
account on the day of the transaction.
Currently on Indian exchanges, the settlement cycle for all traded instruments is T+1 day, with T
representing the trading day. This means the trades executed on Monday get settled on Tuesday, the
next working day. It was introduced in 2021 in a phased manner and was fully implemented in 2023.
The proposed implementation of T+0 settlement involves two phases:
Phase 1 – An optional T+0 settlement cycle (for trades until 1:30 PM) is envisioned, aiming to conclude the
settlement of funds and securities on the same day by 4:30 PM.
Phase 2 – There’s an option for immediate trade-by-trade settlement (funds and securities). Trading in
this phase will continue until 3:30 PM
Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/markets/stocks/news/t0-trade-settlement-to-begin-
from-march-28-heres-all-you-need-to-know/articleshow/108729292.cms?from=mdr
https://forumias.com/blog/t0-settlement-cycle-sebi-proposes-instant-settlement-cycle/
Topic:) Capital Market
Subtopic:)
Q.16)
Ans) a
The purpose of Scheduled Areas, as provided in the Fifth Schedule, is to preserve the tribal autonomy,
their culture and economic empowerment, to ensure social, economic and political justice, and
preservation of peace and good governance.
Statement-I is correct. Executive power of the Centre to give directions to the states is wider in
scheduled areas, when compared to non-scheduled areas. The Central Government can pass regulations
on one or more number of subjects, across the three legislative lists under 7th schedule, for scheduled
areas, when compared to non-scheduled areas.
Statement-II is correct. In scheduled areas, the executive power of the Central Government extends to
all subject matters, even those which are within the domain of the State Government. However, in
non-scheduled areas, it only extends to subject matters which fall within its legislative domain under the
Seventh Schedule, as provided in Article 256.
According to the Article 256 of Indian Constitution-The executive power of every State shall be so
exercised as to ensure compliance with the laws made by Parliament and any existing laws which apply in
that State, and the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of such directions to a State
as may appear to the Government of India to be necessary for that purpose:
Thus, both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Scheduled and Tribal Areas.
https://cdnbbsr.s3waas.gov.in/s380537a945c7aaa788ccfcdf1b99b5d8f/uploads/2024/07/202407168903
12078.pdf
https://tribal.nic.in/downloads/FRA/5.%20Land%20and%20Governance%20under%20Fifth%20Schedu
le.pdf, https://www.mea.gov.in/Images/pdf1/S5.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Scheduled and Tribal Areas
Subtopic:)
[9]
Q.17)
Ans) c
Scheduled Areas are areas with a majority of tribal population subject to a special governance mechanism
to safeguard the cultural and economic interests of scheduled tribes in the area.
Statement 1 is correct. The criteria for declaring an area as Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule
of the Constitution of India is not spelt out in the Constitution of India. Usually, the criteria as provided
by the First Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes Commission, also known as the Dhebar Commission,
is used to identify a scheduled area under the Fifth Schedule.
Statement 2 is correct. As provided in the Fifth Schedule, the Fifth Schedule may be amended, altered,
or repealed by Parliament, and no such amendment will be construed to be an amendment to the
Constitution under Article 368. Thus, such an amendment can be brought about by a simple majority of
the Parliament.
Source: Chapter 41: Scheduled and Tribal Areas, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth,
12078.pdf
le.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.18)
Ans) a
A Tribal Advisory Council is created for the governance of Fifth Schedule areas. It should have not more
than twenty members, of whom at least three-fourths must be drawn from the elected representatives of
the Scheduled Tribe communities in the State Legislature.
Statement 1 is correct. The main function of the TAC is to provide advice to the Governor, when he seeks
it, on matters relating to “welfare and advancement of Scheduled Tribes” in the State. Statement 2 is
incorrect. It is compulsory for the Governor to consult the Tribes Advisory Council before making any
regulations relating to governance in the Scheduled Areas including land alienation. Such advice is not
binding upon the Governor.
Source: Chapter 41: Scheduled and Tribal Areas, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth
12078.pdf
le.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.19)
Ans) d
The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides for the administration of tribal areas in Assam,
Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram through Autonomous District Councils and Regional Councils. These
[10]
councils have legislative, executive, judicial, and financial powers to ensure self-governance and protect
tribal interests within their respective jurisdictions.
Option 1 is correct: The District Councils and Regional Councils in tribal areas have the authority to
establish, construct, and manage primary schools, dispensaries, markets, cattle ponds, fisheries, roads,
road transport, and waterways in their districts. They are also authorized to prescribe the language and
manner of instruction in primary schools.
Option 2 is correct: The District and Regional Councils are empowered to constitute Village and
District Council Courts for the trial of suits and cases where all parties to the dispute belong to
Scheduled Tribes within the district. No other courts, except the High Courts and the Supreme Court,
have jurisdiction over such suits or cases of the Council Courts. However, these Council Courts cannot
decide cases involving offenses punishable by death or imprisonment for five or more years.
Option 3 is correct: District and Regional Councils can assess and collect land revenue and impose taxes
on professions, trades, animals, vehicles, the entry of goods into the market for sale, tolls on
passengers and goods carried in ferries, and taxes for the maintenance of schools, dispensaries, or roads
within their jurisdiction.
Knowledge Base: Financial Powers:
1) The District and Regional Councils have the power to prepare budgets for their respective Councils.
2) Additionally, the Councils can grant licenses or leases for the extraction of minerals within their
jurisdiction.
3) One of the most important features of the Sixth Schedule is the empowerment of District Councils
to make laws. They can legislate on certain specified matters such as land, forests, canal water, shifting
cultivation, village administration, inheritance of property, marriage and divorce, social customs, and
more. However, all laws made under this provision require the assent of the Governor of the state to take
effect.
Source: Indian polity- for civil services and other state examinations (chapter 41)(Scheduled and tribal
areasj), https://lddashboard.legislative.gov.in/sites/default/files/coi/COI_2024.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.20)
Ans) b
Statement 1 is correct: Algorithmic trading involves the use of computer programs and software to
execute trades on stock exchanges with minimal human intervention. It is the automated use of
algorithms to generate trading signals and execute buy or sell orders with the broker.
Statement 2 is correct: Algorithmic trading can lead to rapid buying or selling, resulting in significant
price fluctuations, which can cause losses for traders.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Algorithmic trading is legal in India for both retail investors and institutional
traders, subject to regulatory guidelines and restrictions imposed by the Securities and Exchange Board
of India (SEBI). On April 3rd 2008, the Securities & Exchange Board of India (SEBI), introduced algorithmic
trading in India.
Source: https://www.business-standard.com/markets/stock-market-news/global-algo-traders-
gearing-up-to-swarm-india-stock-futures-says-sgx-124030400683_1.htm
https://www.indiainx.com/static/algotrading.aspx
https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/business/markets/decoded-sebi-rules-to-regulate-algo-
trading-by-retail-traders-12410891.html
[11]
Topic:) Algorithmic Trading
Subtopic:)
Q.21)
Ans) a
Statement 1 is correct: The Inner Line Permit (ILP) system is a separate mechanism used to regulate
entry into certain areas to protect indigenous communities and is governed by the Bengal Eastern
Frontier Regulation, 1873. It is not mentioned in the Sixth Schedule.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Ladakh has not been granted Sixth Schedule status. Although there have been
demands and discussions around granting such status to protect the unique cultural and tribal heritage of
the region, no official decision has been made yet.
Source: Indian polity- for civil services and other state examinations (chapter 41)(Scheduled and tribal
areasj), https://lddashboard.legislative.gov.in/sites/default/files/coi/COI_2024.pdf
https://www.thestatesman.com/northeast/sixth-schedule-layers-of-autonomy-1502752499.html
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.22)
Ans) a
The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides for the administration of tribal areas in Assam,
Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram through District Councils and Regional Councils. The governor plays
a crucial role in the administration of these areas with several significant powers.
Statement 1 is correct: The Governor is empowered to annul or suspend any act or resolution of a
District or Regional Council if it appears to him that such an act or resolution is not in accordance
with the provisions of the Sixth Schedule or detrimental to the interests of the Scheduled Tribes.
Statement 2 is correct: If there are different Scheduled Tribes in an autonomous district, the Governor
can divide the area into autonomous regions. Each autonomous region has a separate Regional Council.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Under Sixth Schedule (12AA) of Indian Constitution it is the President (not
Governor) has the power to direct that any Act of Parliament shall not apply to an autonomous district
or autonomous region in the State of Meghalaya.
Source: Indian polity- for civil services and other state examinations (chapter 41) (Scheduled and tribal
areas),
https://lddashboard.legislative.gov.in/sites/default/files/coi/COI_2024.pdf,https://www.mea.gov.in/
Images/pdf1/S6.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.23)
Ans) c
Cooperatives are autonomous associations of people united voluntarily to meet their common
economic, social, and cultural needs and aspirations through a jointly owned and democratically-
[12]
controlled enterprise. They are based on the principles of self-help, self-responsibility, democracy,
equality, equity, and solidarity. Their members believe in ethical values of honesty, openness, social
responsibility, and caring for others.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Cooperative societies are a State subject under Entry 32 of the State List in the
Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. This means that state governments have the primary
authority to legislate and regulate cooperative societies within their jurisdiction. However, multi-state
cooperative societies, which operate in more than one state, fall under Entry 44 of the Union List of
the Seventh Schedule.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While Gujarat (82129) has a significant number of cooperative societies,
Maharashtra (222276) has the highest number of registered cooperative societies in India.
Statement 3 is correct: The 'Sahkar Se Samriddhi' mission was launched by the Ministry of
Cooperation in 2021 with the aim of realizing the vision of "prosperity through cooperation." It focuses
on strengthening the cooperative movement in India by promoting the formation and growth of
cooperatives across various sectors and ensuring their equitable and widespread reach.
Knowledge base: The Indian Farmers Fertilizer Cooperative Limited (IFFCO) and Krishak Bharati
Cooperative Limited (KRIBHCO) are two of the largest and most successful cooperative societies in the
world.
1) IFFCO (Indian Farmers Fertilizer Cooperative Limited): A multi-state cooperative society, it is the
world's largest fertilizer cooperative and a leading player in India's agricultural sector. IFFCO
manufactures and markets fertilizers, agrochemicals, and other agricultural inputs, playing a crucial role
in enhancing farmers' productivity and income.
2) KRIBHCO (Krishak Bharati Cooperative Limited): Another major cooperative society in India,
KRIBHCO is engaged in the production and distribution of fertilizers, seeds, and bio-fertilizers. It
operates multiple fertilizer plants across the country and is committed to promoting sustainable
agriculture and empowering farmers through various initiatives.
They are registered in India and play a crucial role in the agricultural sector by providing fertilizers and
other inputs to farmers at affordable prices.
Source: kurukshetra-magazine-jan-2023.pdf, Indian polity- for civil services and other state
examinations (chapter 64)(Co-operative societies)
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Cooperative Societies
Subtopic:)
Q.24)
Ans) b
The NCDC plays a pivotal role in fostering the growth of cooperatives, which are crucial for inclusive
and sustainable development in India. By providing financial and technical support, it enables
cooperatives to contribute significantly to the economic and social well-being of the country.
Statement 1 is correct:The NCDC, established in 1963, is a statutory corporation under the Ministry of
Cooperation, Government of India. It serves as a vital financial institution and development agency for
promoting and strengthening the cooperative movement in the country.
Statement 2 is correct: The Government of India provides financial assistance to cooperatives through
the NCDC. This includes loans, grants, and subsidies for various activities like production, processing,
marketing, storage, and export of agricultural produce, as well as other sectors like fisheries,
handlooms, and sericulture.
[13]
Concessional Interest Rates.The NCDC offers loans at concessional interest rates to cooperatives,
making it easier for them to access credit and expand their operations.
Statement 3 is incorrect: NCDC doesn’t supports cooperatives in agriculture sector only but across
various sectors, it has a particular focus on:
1) Agriculture and allied activities: Promoting farmer producer organizations (FPOs) and cooperatives
engaged in dairy, fisheries, poultry, and other agricultural activities.
2) Women and weaker sections: Encouraging the formation and development of cooperatives that
empower women and economically weaker sections of society.
3) Value addition and marketing: Supporting cooperatives involved in processing, value addition, and
marketing of agricultural and non-agricultural products.
Source: https://www.cooperation.gov.in/ncdc-0
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.25)
Ans) b
Recently, Tamil Nadu government has declared reserve forests in Bargur Hills in Erode district, as the
Thanthai Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary.
1) Thanthai Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary is the last protected link between Nilgiris biosphere reserve and
the South Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary.
2) It is part of the corridor that connects the Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (STR) to the Male
Mahadeshwara Hills Tiger Reserve and the Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary, and plays a crucial role in
maintaining a viable tiger population.
3) It is home to 21 species of mammals ranging from the rare honey badger to carnivores such as tigers
and leopards and herbivores such as elephants, 136 species of birds and 118 species of butterflies.
4) The region is part of the Nilgiris Elephant Reserve and is home to a healthy population of large
herbivores including elephants and the Indian Gaur.
5) The landscape of the wildlife sanctuary is the catchment of the Palar River that drains into the
Cauvery River and is a crucial source of water for agricultural activities.
Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/chennai/nature-trail-tamil-nadu-gets-its-18th-
wildlife-sanctuary-at-erode/articleshow/98854158.cms
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/tn-gets-its-18th-wildlife-sanctuary-spanning-
over-80000-hectares-of-reserve-forests-in-erode-district/article67799442.ece
Topic:) Thanthai Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary.
Subtopic:)
Q.26)
Ans) d
Articles 239 to 241 in Part VIII of the Constitution deal with the union territories. Every union territory is
administered by the President acting through an administrator appointed by him.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Only the elected members of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry
(formerly Pondicherry) participate in the Presidential election. The nominated members of these Union
Territories (Puducherry Legislative Assembly has three nominated members) do not have the right to vote
[14]
in the presidential election. According to Article 54 of the Indian Constitution, the President is elected by
the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies
of the States and the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.
Statement 2 is incorrect: According to Article 81 of the Indian Constitution, the maximum number of
representatives from the Union Territories to the Lok Sabha is 20. The maximum strength of the Lok
Sabha is fixed at 552. Out of this, 530 members are to be the representatives of the states, 20 members
are to be the representatives of the union territories and 2 members are to be nominated by the
president from the Anglo-Indian community (now discontinued).
Statement 3 is correct: The Panchayat system, also known as the Panchayati Raj system, exists in all
states except Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram, and in all Union Territories except Delhi.
Source: Laxmikanth Ch 40 Union territories
COI...pdf (legislative.gov.in)
https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/puducherry/centre-appoints-three-bjp-members-as-
nominated-mlas/article34531005.ece
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.27)
Ans) b
Article 239A of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to create specific bodies for certain
Union Territories.
Exercising the power given by the Constitution, the central government made The Government of
Union Territories Act, 1963. This law specifies that the Puducherry legislature will have 30 elected
MLAs, and a maximum of three MLAs nominated by the central government. The law also specifies
that the nominated persons should not be government employees.
Source: Laxmikanth, chapter-40, Union territory
https://cdnbbsr.s3waas.gov.in/s380537a945c7aaa788ccfcdf1b99b5d8f/uploads/2023/05/2023050195.p
df
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.28)
Ans) b
The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991 provided a special status to the Union Territory of Delhi
and redesignated it the National Capital Territory of Delhi and designated the administrator of Delhi as
the lieutenant (lt.) governor.
Statement 1 is correct: The Legislative Assembly of Delhi consists of 70 Members – all chosen by direct
election from as many constituencies. At present 13 seats in the Assembly are reserved for Scheduled
Castes.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 239AA(2)(b) empowers Parliament to regulate matters related to the
division of the National Capital Territory into territorial constituencies. Parliament can regulate the
total number of seats, the number reserved for scheduled castes, and the division of the National Capital
Territory into territorial constituencies (including the basis for such division).
[15]
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Legislative Assembly of Delhi is not empowered to make laws on all
matters enumerated in the State List. According to Article 239AA, the Assembly has the power to make
laws on all matters enumerated in the State List, except for certain specified matters like public order,
police, and land.
Source: Laxmikanth, chapter 40- Union territory
https://delhiassembly.delhi.gov.in/sites/default/files/dlas/rti-files/manual-1_20200218.pdf
df
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.29)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is correct:
Option 1 is correct, and Option 2 & 3 are incorrect: The Administrator of Puducherry can promulgate
Ordinances only when the Legislature is in recess, but not when it is dissolved or suspended.
Article 239B of Constitution of India deals with the Power of administrator to promulgate Ordinances
during recess of Legislature. It states that-
(1) If at any time, except when the Legislature of [the Union territory of [Puducherry]] is in session, the
administrator thereof is satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to take
immediate action, he may promulgate such Ordinances as the circumstances appear to him to require:
Provided that no such Ordinance shall be promulgated by the administrator except after obtaining
instructions from the President in that behalf:
Provided further that whenever the said Legislature is dissolved, or its functioning remains suspended
on account of any action taken under any such law as is referred to in clause (1) of article 239A, the
administrator shall not promulgate any Ordinance during the period of such dissolution or
suspension.
Source: chapter 40- Union territory, laxmikant
Bare Constitution
df
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.30)
Ans) c
The Maritime Anti-Piracy Act is a legislation passed by the Parliament in December 2022, aimed at
combating maritime piracy. The Act is India's first domestic legislation specifically written to criminalize
maritime piracy on the high seas and allow authorities to respond. The Maritime Anti-Piracy Act is a
legislation passed by the Indian Parliament in December 2022, aimed at combating maritime piracy. The
Act is India's first domestic legislation specifically written to criminalize maritime piracy on the high seas
and allow Indian authorities to respond.
[16]
Statement 1 is correct: The Maritime Anti-Piracy Act empowers the Indian Navy and Coast Guard to
board, seize and arrest pirates operating in the high seas, in the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) and
beyond, and Indian courts can prosecute the perpetrators with life imprisonment, fine, or both.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Maritime Anti-Piracy Act 2022 did not include the provision for "trial in
absentia", which means that a person accused of piracy could be tried and convicted even if they were
not present in court. The provision for trial in absentia was dropped through official amendments.
Statement 3 is correct: Under the Maritime Anti-Piracy Act 2022, if a person, while committing an act of
piracy causes or seeks to cause death, he may be punished with death sentence.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/anti-piracy-act-has-been-a-great-enabler-navy-
chief/article67987273.ece
https://www.indiacode.nic.in/bitstream/123456789/19621/1/a2023-03.pdf
https://www.ics-shipping.org/news-item/maritime-anti-piracy-bill-passed-by-indian-parliament/
Topic:) Maritime Anti-Piracy Act 2022
Subtopic:)
Q.31)
Ans) a
The Constitution of India provides for a federal system of government in the country. The Indian federal
system is based on the ‘Canadian model’ and not on the ‘American model’. The ‘Canadian model’ differs
fundamentally from the ‘American model’ in so far as it establishes a very strong centre.
Statement I is correct: Article 371 of the Constitution contribute and tilts Indian federalism towards
asymmetric federalism up to some extent. The principle of Asymmetrical federalism acknowledges
differences between states. It allows the central government to make special provisions for some states
based on their unique needs and circumstances.
Statement II is correct and correctly explains statement I: Article 371 of the Indian Constitution
provides special provisions for certain states, such as Maharashtra, Gujarat, Nagaland, Assam, and
Andhra Pradesh, granting them unique powers and autonomy not available to other states. This has
indeed tilted Indian federalism towards asymmetric federalism, where some states have more powers and
autonomy than others.
Thus, Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Special Provisions for Some States
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Special Provisions for Some States
Subtopic:)
Q.32)
Ans) a
The Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists (including the State List) for the union
territories. The Parliament can make laws for the union territories on subjects of the State List even after
establishing a local legislature for them.
The Parliament can establish a high court for a union territory or put it under the jurisdiction of the
high court of an adjacent state. Delhi is the only union territory that has a high court of its own (since
1966).
Source: Laxmikant, Chapter 40: Union Territories
[17]
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.33)
Ans) c
Article 371-C in Part XXI of the Indian Constitution provides for special provisions with regard to the
state of Manipur.
“Hill areas” means such areas as the President may, by order, declare to be Hill areas.
Statement 1 is correct. Governor shall submit annually, or whenever so required by the President, make
a report to the President regarding the administration of the Hill Areas in the State of Manipur.
Statement 2 is correct. The Central Government can give directions to the state government regarding
administration of the hill areas of Manipur.
Source: Chapter 37: Special Provisions for Some States, Indian Polity by Laxmikant.
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Special Provisions for Some States
Subtopic:)
Q.34)
Ans) b
Civil services in India are key positions within the government filled through competitive exams, crucial
for policymaking and governance. Article 311 of the Constitution contains provisions safeguarding civil
servants by requiring a fair inquiry and providing an opportunity to defend against charges before
dismissal, removal, or reduction in rank. These safeguards ensure fairness and protect civil servants from
arbitrary actions.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Supreme Court has ruled that public servants may be prosecuted without
prior approval from the appropriate authorities, as not all their actions performed in the course of
official duties are shielded by section 197 of the Criminal Procedure Code.
Statement 2 is correct: As per Article 311 of the Constitution of India, a civil servant cannot be dismissed
or removed by an authority subordinate to the one who appointed them. This safeguard prevents
arbitrary actions and ensures impartiality and fairness in the civil service system.
Statement 3 is correct: As per Article 311 (2) of the Constitution of India, Civil servants are generally
entitled to a fair inquiry process and must be given a reasonable opportunity to defend themselves
against any charges before facing dismissal, removal, or reduction in rank.
An exception was made in Union of India v Tulshiram Patel case, the Supreme Court held that the
dismissal, removal or reduction in rank of a person convicted on criminal charges is in public interest,
can be removed without holding an inquiry, and it is not therefore considered violative of Article 311(2) of
the Constitution.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth: chapter: Public services
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Public Services
Subtopic:)
[18]
Q.35)
Ans) d
Statement 1 is correct: Ministry of Cooperation has set up National Cooperative Organics Limited (NCOL)
under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies (MSCS) Act, 2002. It has been formed to realize the
potential of organic products and create a healthy agriculture ecosystem.
Statement 2 is incorrect: NCOL is promoted by five national level cooperative federations viz. National
Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Limited (NAFED), National Dairy Development
Board (NDDB), National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC), Gujarat Cooperative Milk
Marketing Federation Limited (GCMMF) and National Cooperative Consumers Federation of India Limited
(NCCF). It is not promoted by National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) and
Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
Statement 3 is correct: The NCOL has been set up to provide institutional support for aggregation,
certification, testing, procurement, storage, processing, branding, labelling, packaging, logistic facilities,
marketing of organic products and facilitate in arranging financial assistance to the organic farmers
through its member Cooperatives along with promotional and developmental activities of organic
products with the help of various schemes and agencies of the Government.
Source: https://sansad.in/getFile/annex/262/AU1134.pdf?source=pqars
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2013880
Subtopic:)
Q.36)
Ans) d
The Constitution has made special provisions with regard to the scheduled tribes in Part XVI, in order to
achieve the objectives of equality and justice.
Statement 1 is correct. As per Article 342 (1) of the Constitution of India, President may, with respect to
the State, after consultation with the Governor of the state, by public notification specify the tribe or
tribal communities as scheduled tribes in relation to that state.
Statement 2 is incorrect. As per Article 342(2) of the Constitution of India, such a notification, regarding
the scheduled tribes in a state, can only be varied by the Parliament by a law, and not by the President.
The Parliament can include or exclude tribes from this list, by law.
Statement 3 is correct. Indian Constitution is silent regarding the criteria for specification of a
community as scheduled tribe. It leaves it to the President to specify as to what tribes in each state shall
be treated as the scheduled tribe.
Source: Chapter 66: Special Provisions Relating to Certain Classes, Indian Polity by Laxmikant.
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Special Provisions Relating to Certain Classes
Subtopic:)
Q.37)
Ans) c
Part XVI of the Indian Constitution consists of special provisions for certain classes of citizens.
[19]
Option 1 is incorrect. As per Article 341, President may by public notification, after consultation with the
Governor of the state concerned, specify castes as scheduled castes relating to that state.
Option 2 is incorrect. As per Article 342, President may by public notification, after consultation with the
Governor of the state concerned, specify tribes as scheduled tribes relating to that state.
Option 3 is correct. As per Article 342A, every State or Union territory may, by law, prepare and
maintain, for its own purposes, a list of socially and educationally backward classes. This was inserted
by the 105th constitutional amendment act and involves no role of the central government.
Source: Chapter 66: Special Provisions Relating to Certain Classes, Indian Polity by Laxmikant.
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.38)
Ans) d
Government of India in 1999 has approved modalities for deciding claims for inclusion in, exclusion from
and other modifications in Orders specifying lists of Scheduled Tribes (STs). The process for deciding
claims for inclusion in or exclusion from the lists of Scheduled Tribes in India involves the following steps:
1. The proposal for inclusion must originate from the respective State or Union Territory government.
2. Following this, the proposal is sent to the Union Tribal Affairs Ministry, which sends it to the Office of
the Registrar General of India (ORGI).
3. The Registrar General of India (RGI) verifies the claim and sends it to the National Commission for
Scheduled Tribes (NCST) for recommendation.
4. The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) examines the claim and makes a
recommendation to the Central Government.
Only after the concurrence of these institutions will the proposal go forward to the Cabinet to bring in
the appropriate amendment to the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/current-procedure-for-inclusion-of-communities-
in-scheduled-tribes-list-adequate-centre-tells-rajya-
sabha/article66622939.ece#:~:text=According%20to%20the%20modalities%20for,General%20of%20Ind
ia%20(ORGI).
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.39)
Ans) a
The Constitution of India provides protection to Scheduled Tribes to promote social justice, rectify
historical injustices, and ensure equitable opportunities in education, employment, and political
representation.
Statement 1 is correct: Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 is directly linked to enforcing Article 17 of
the Indian Constitution, which abolishes "Untouchability" and makes any practice of it an offense. This
Act was originally the Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955, and was later amended and renamed in 1976 to
strengthen its provisions.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976 is related to Article 23 of the
Constitution, not Article 22. Article 23 prohibits all forms of forced labor, which includes bonded labor,
[20]
and is significant for the Scheduled Castes as many bonded laborers come from these communities. This
Act aims to eliminate bonded labor and facilitate the rehabilitation of freed laborers. Article 25 of the
Indian Constitution deals with the freedom of religion.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth – Fundamental Rights.
Microsoft Word - Inner Page.docx (ncsc.nic.in)
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.40)
Ans) a
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Agalega Island is a part of Mauritius (not Maldives), a small island nation in
the Indian Ocean. It's a remote archipelago with a total area of approximately 24 square kilometers.
Recently, Prime Minister of India and Mauritius jointly inaugurated an airstrip and a jetty that India has
built on Agalega island.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Hambantota Port is a deep-water port located in the southern part of Sri
Lanka. It was built with significant Chinese investment and is considered a strategic location along the
Maritime Silk Road. The port has been the subject of controversy due to concerns over Sri Lanka's debt to
China and the potential for military use.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Chabahar Port is located in southeastern Iran (not Iraq), on the Gulf of
Oman. It's a key transit point for trade between India, Iran, and Afghanistan, and has been developed
jointly by India and Iran.
[21]
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/agalega-airstrip-inagurated-mauritius-
maldives-and-india-9189103/
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/indian-diplomat-met-afghan-authorities-in-kabul-says-
mea/article67929326.ece
https://indianexpress.com/article/world/china-assures-sri-lanka-support-debt-restructuring-
9236063/
Topic:) International Relations- Ports in news
Subtopic:)
Q.41)
Ans) b
Statement 1 is correct: Article 30 of the Indian Constitution grants religious and linguistic minorities
the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice, ensuring their cultural
preservation and educational autonomy.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The National Commission for Minorities was established by the National
Commission for Minorities Act, 1992, which was an act of Parliament, not by a Supreme Court directive.
Statement 3 incorrect: Minority institutions fully funded by the government are not allowed to provide
religious instruction to students. Furthermore, even minority institutions receiving partial government
funding cannot enforce compulsory religious education. These guidelines align with the principles
outlined in Article 28 and Article 30 of the Constitution. Article 28(1) prohibits religious instruction in any
educational institution wholly maintained by state funds. Article 30(1) guarantees the right of religious
and linguistic minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth – Fundamental Rights
constitutional_provisions.pdf (ncm.nic.in)
Supreme Court: Government-funded minority institutes can't impart religious education: SC | India News
- Times of India (indiatimes.com)
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
[22]
Q.42)
Ans) a
Statement 1 is correct: The wearing and carrying of kirpans by Sikhs is recognized as an integral part of
their religious practice under Article 25, which guarantees the freedom of religion. This includes the right
to practice religious rites that are essential to the observance of their faith.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution does not establish separate personal law boards for each
minority community in India; such bodies are often created through community initiatives rather
than constitutional or direct legislative measures. For instance, the All-India Muslim Personal Law
Board (AIMPLB) established in 1973 is an example of community-formed organizations designed to handle
personal law matters for their respective communities.
Source: https://lddashboard.legislative.gov.in/sites/default/files/coi/COI_2024.pdf
all india muslim personal law board - Times of India (indiatimes.com)
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.43)
Ans) c
Article 350 of the Indian Constitution is part of Chapter IV, which deals with Special Directives. This
provision aims to facilitate effective communication and ensure that language barriers don't hinder
citizens from seeking redressal for their grievances.
Statement 1 is correct: Article 350 of Constitution of India states that —Every person shall be entitled to
submit a representation for the redress of any grievance to any officer or authority of the Union or a
State in any of the languages used in the Union or in the State, as the case may be.
Statement 2 is correct: State 350 A of the Constitution states that- It shall be the endeavour of every
State and of every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the
mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups;
and the President may issue such directions to any State as he considers necessary or proper for securing
the provision of such facilities.
Source:
df
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Official Language
Subtopic:)
Q.44)
Ans) b
Statement 1 is correct. The Official Languages Act of 1963 enables the Governor of a state, with the
previous consent of the President of India, to authorize the use of Hindi or any other official language of
the state for judgements, decrees and orders passed by the High Court of the state. But such
judgements, decrees and orders should be accompanied by an English translation.
[23]
Statement 2 is incorrect. According to Article 348, the Parliament (and not President) can authorize the
use of Hindi in Supreme Court. However, Parliament has not made any provision for Hindi in the Supreme
Court. Hence, the Supreme Court hears petitions or appeals in English only.
Statement 3 is incorrect. According to Article 348, the proceedings of a High Court can be in Hindi if
Parliament by law provides for it or the Governor with previous consent of the President authorizes it.
So, both Parliament (and not President) and Governor can authorize the use of Hindi in High Court
proceedings.
Statement 4 is correct. As per article 348, the proceedings of Supreme Court are held in English only.
However, parliament may by law provide for use of any other language in the proceedings of the Supreme
Court. But so far, no such law has been made by the parliament.
Source: Ch: 65 - Official Language - Indian Polity by Laxmikanth
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.45)
Ans) d
Paris club has 22 members, mostly Western nations and members of the Organisation for Economic Co-
operation and Development. Observers include India, International Monetary Fund (IMF), World Bank,
United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD), European Commission, African
Development Bank, Asian Development Bank, European Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(EBRD), and Inter-American Development Bank (IADB).
Statement 1 is correct: The Paris Club is an informal group of creditor countries that work together to
support nations facing financial difficulties, chiefly those struggling to pay off debts.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Paris Club was established in 1956, not in 2001. The Paris Club originated
from a meeting held in Paris in 1956 when Argentina agreed to meet its public creditors. Over time, the
Paris Club has played a significant role in debt agreements worldwide.
Statement 3 is correct: The Paris Club only deals with debt between governments and does not handle
any private or individual loan repayment. The club provides debt treatment to countries. This includes:
1) negotiating new terms for the loan
2) extending repayment deadlines
3) having the owed amount reduced, and
4) cancelling some of the debt owed
Source: https://www.business-standard.com/world-news/the-paris-club-here-is-all-you-need-to-
know-about-the-group-of-creditors-123061500600_1.html
Topic:) Paris Club
Subtopic:)
Q.46)
Ans) d
The Constitution of India does not designate an official language for individual states. According to
Article 345, the Legislature of a State may by law choose any one or more of the languages in use in the
State or Hindi to be used for all or any of the official purposes of that State.
Source: Ch: 65 - Official Language - Indian Polity by Laxmikanth
[24]
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.47)
Ans) c
Statement I is correct. Post-demonetization in 2016, the newly introduced higher denomination
currency notes of Rs 2000 and Rs 500, feature both international numerals and Devanagari numerals.
This marks the first time that Devanagari numerals have been printed on Indian currency notes.
Statement II is incorrect. According to Article 343 of the Constitution of India, the numerals to be used
for the official purposes of the Union shall be the international form of Indian numerals. It does not
explicitly mandate the use of Devanagari numerals for the Union's official purposes. However,
Parliament may by law provide for the use of the Devanagari form of numerals for such purposes.
Hence the Statement I is correct, and Statement II is incorrect.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-news-india/demonetisation-madras-hc-
centre-devanagari-script-on-notes-4389246/
https://scroll.in/article/821350/use-of-devanagari-numerals-on-new-banknotes-draws-complaints-
of-hindi-chauvinism
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.48)
Ans) d
The Indian Constitution has not defined what constitutes a minority, but it has classified minorities into
religious minorities and linguistic minorities according to Article 29.
Minorities in India are notified under the Section 2 (c) of the National Commission for Minorities Act,
1992. Initially five religious communities, viz., Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists and Zoroastrians
(Parsis) were notified as minority communities by the Union Government. Further vide notification dated
27th January 2014, Jains were also notified as another minority community.
Source: https://www.minorityaffairs.gov.in/show_content.php?lang=1&level=0&ls_id=216&lid=221
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Special Provision for Certain Classes
Subtopic:)
Q.49)
Ans) d
Section 2(c) of the National Commission for Minorities (NCM) Act, 1992, defines a ‘minority’ as a
community notified as such by the Central government. The six communities notified as minority
communities at the national level are Christians, Sikhs, Muslims, Buddhists, Parsis, and Jains.
The working definition for linguistic minorities is: "Linguistic Minorities are groups or collectivities of
individuals residing in the territory of India or any part thereof having a distinct language or script of
their own." This definition is not limited to the twenty-two languages mentioned in the Eighth Schedule
of the Constitution.
[25]
Statement 1 is incorrect. A state government has the authority to declare a language as a minority
language in the state and speakers of a specific language as a linguistic minority within its jurisdiction.
For instance, the Karnataka government has designated Urdu, Telugu, Tamil, Malayalam, Marathi, Tulu,
Lamani, Hindi, Konkani, and Gujarati as minority languages in the state of Karnataka.
Statement 2 is incorrect. At the Union level six religious communities, viz., Muslims, Christians, Sikhs,
Buddhists, Zoroastrians (Parsis) and Jains were notified as minority communities by the Union
Government. Judaism is not recognized as minority religion at Union level.
Source: https://www.business-standard.com/article/current-affairs/states-too-can-declare-
religious-or-linguistic-community-as-minority-govt-122032700821_1.html
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/states-free-to-identify-minorities-and-allow-them-to-
administer-educational-institutions/article65265596.ece
https://www.minorityaffairs.gov.in/show_content.php?lang=1&level=0&ls_id=217&lid=222
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Special Provision for Certain Classes
Subtopic:)
Q.50)
Ans) c
Recently, Prime Minister launched the Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha AbhiyaN (PM-JANMAN)
to uplift Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). The scheme aims to bring tribal communities into
the mainstream by providing essential infrastructure and addressing their unique challenges.
Statement 1 is correct: The PM-JANMAN Scheme is an initiative aimed at improving the lives of
Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). It focuses on improving infrastructure, such as housing,
water supply, sanitation, education, healthcare, and connectivity in PVTG-dominated areas.
Statement 2 is correct: The scheme is based on convergence of various interventions and schemes from
different ministries to provide comprehensive support to PVTG families. It involves 11 interventions by 9
ministries, targeting individual beneficiaries with pucca houses, household electrification, and piped
water supply, and community support with connecting roads, mobile medical units, hostels, Anganwadi
Centres, multipurpose centres, VDVKs, and mobile towers.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=1990256
https://www.india.gov.in/spotlight/pradhan-mantri-janjati-adivasi-nyaya-maha-abhiyan-pm-janman
Topic:) Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan (PM-JANMAN)
Subtopic:)
Q.51)
Ans) a
Indian political system is defined by various features such as emergence of regional parties, personality
cult of politicians etc.
Statement-I is correct. Coalition governments have become a common phenomenon in the Indian
political system. There have been multiple coalition governments in India, starting from 1977, when the
one-party dominant system ended. Even after the 2024 National Elections, a coalition government has
come to power with political parties like the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP), Janata Dal (United) (JDU) etc
forming the government.
[26]
Statement-II is correct. Indian political system follows the multi-party system. As per latest publications
from Election Commission of India, there are 6 national parties, 57 state parties, and 2,764 unrecognized
parties. This makes coalition governments a possibility in the country in case no party gets the
required majority of seats in legislature.
Thus, both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation of
Statement-I.
Source: Chapter 67: Political Parties, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth.
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Political Parties
Subtopic:)
Q.52)
Ans) d
The Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail is an independent system attached to the EVMs that allows the
voters to verify that their votes are cast as intended. When a vote is cast, a slip is printed and remains
exposed through a transparent window for seven seconds, showing the serial number, name and symbol
of the candidate. Thereafter, the receipt automatically gets cut and falls into the sealed dropbox of the
VVPAT.
Statement 1 is incorrect. VVPATs with EVMs were used for the first time in a bye-election from the 51-
Noksen (ST) Assembly Constituency of Nagaland in 2013.
Although, EVMs were first used in the 70-Parur Assembly Constituency of Kerala in 1982.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) is an independent system attached to
the Electronic Voting Machines that allows the voters to verify that their votes are cast as intended.
When a vote is cast, a slip is printed containing the serial number, name and symbol of the candidate and
remains exposed through a transparent window for 7 seconds. Thereafter, this printed slip automatically
gets cut and falls in the sealed drop box of the VVPAT which means, it is not taken by the voters.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Counting of printed paper slips of VVPAT is done only in the following cases:
Mandatory verification of printed VVPAT paper slips of 01 randomly selected polling station of
(a) Assembly Constituency in case of election to State Legislative Assembly and
(b) each Assembly Segment in case of election to the House of the People.
1) In case of no display of result from the Control Unit, the printed paper slips of the respective VVPAT
is counted.
2) If any candidate, or in his absence, his election agent or any of his counting agents make a written
request to count the printed paper slips of the VVPAT in respect of any polling station or polling stations
under Rule 56 D of the Conduct of Elections Rules 1961, the Returning Officer taking into consideration
various factors decides and issue written orders, whether to count or not to count the printed paper slips
of the VVPAT of that particular polling station(s).
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikant chapter 73
ceomadhyapradesh.nic.in
https://ceomadhyapradesh.nic.in › ...PDF
FAQ : EVM and VVPAT
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Elections
Subtopic:)
[27]
Q.53)
Ans) c
Option c is correct. The Election Commission registers political parties for the purpose of elections
and grants them recognition as either national or state parties on the basis of their poll performance.
The other parties are simply declared as registered-unrecognised parties. Registered Unrecognised
Political Parties are generally newly-registered parties or those that have never contested elections after
being registered.
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.54)
Ans) d
Option d is correct. It is not a condition to be recognized as a state party. The correct conditions are: If it
secured 3% of the total number of seats, or three seats, whichever is more, in the last legislative
assembly elections. Some other conditions to be recognized as a ‘state party are:
1) If a party secured 6% of the valid votes polled in a legislative assembly election and wins at least two
seats in the assembly of the concerned state, or
2) If a party secured 6% of the valid votes polled in an election to the Lok Sabha and wins at least one
seat in the Lok Sabha elections from the concerned state, or
3) at least one MP for every 25 members or any fraction allotted to the state in the Lok Sabha, or
4) If it secures 8% of the valid votes polled in a legislative assembly or Lok Sabha election in the
concerned state.
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.55)
Ans) d
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change notified the Plastic Waste Management
(Amendment) Rules (PWM), 2024 to amend the Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016. The amendment
provides that the manufacture of carry bags and commodities shall be permitted to be made from
compostable plastics or biodegradable plastics subject to mandatory marking and labelling.
Statement 1 is correct. Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules, 2024 defines biodegradable
plastics as not only capable of “...degradation by biological processes in specific environment such as soil,
landfill...” but also as materials that do not leave “any microplastics.
Statement 2 is correct. PWM Rules, 2024 include specific provisions for the labelling and certification of
compostable or biodegradable plastics. It requires the manufacturers of compostable plastic or
biodegradable plastic carry bags or commodities to obtain a certificate from the Central Pollution Control
Board before marketing or selling. This ensures that such materials meet certain standards and can be
identified by consumers and waste managers for proper disposal.
[28]
Statement 3 is correct. The Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules, 2024 assign the
responsibility to manufacturers, producers, importers, and brand owners for the collection and proper
disposal of plastic packaging. This extended producer responsibility (EPR) aims to ensure that those who
introduce plastic products into the market also take part in managing the waste generated.
Source: https://moef.gov.in/storage/tender/GSR201(E)-[14032024]-Plastic-Waste-Mangement-Rules-
2024.pdf
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/no-microplastics-new-rules-queer-
the-pitch-for-biodegradable-plastics/article67977130.ece
Topic:) Plastic waste management (amendment) rules 2024
Subtopic:)
Q.56)
Ans) c
Various provisions have been made for the regulation of the election procedure in India.
Statement 1 is correct. Disputes relating to elections of the State Legislature and Union Legislature are
adjudicated upon exclusively by the High Courts. Election petitions before the High Court are filed under
Section 80 and 80-A of the Representation of People’s Act, 1951.
Statement 2 is correct. Earlier, election tribunals were used to be appointed for the adjudication of
doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with elections to Parliament and to the Legislatures of
States. However, this system of tribunals was removed by the 19th constitutional amendment act, 1966.
It enabled the High Courts to try the election disputes relating to the elections to Parliament or
Legislature of the states. This was done to create an integrated system for trial of election disputes.
Source: https://lawmin.gov.in/sites/default/files/prs2_0.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Elections
Subtopic:)
Q.57)
Ans) c
In India, the power to make laws for elections is divided between Parliament and state legislatures
under the Constitution. Parliament legislates on elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and key
offices, while state legislatures handle elections to their respective legislatures, subject to Parliament's
overriding authority on certain aspects.
Statement-1 is correct: According to Articles 327 and 328 of the Indian Constitution:
1) Article 327: Provides that Parliament may make laws regarding elections to either House of
Parliament or to the House or Houses of the Legislature of a State, including the preparation of
electoral rolls, the delimitation of constituencies, and all other matters necessary for the conduct of such
elections.
2) Article 328: States that subject to the provisions of Article 327, the Legislature of a State may make
laws for all matters relating to or in connection with elections to the House or Houses of the
Legislature of the State.
Statement-II is incorrect: According to the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution:
1) List II (State List), Entry 37: "Elections to the Legislature of the State, subject to the provisions of any
law made by Parliament", deals with election of state legislature.
[29]
2) This entry grants state legislatures the authority to legislate on matters concerning elections to state
legislatures, with the caveat that such laws must not contradict any laws made by Parliament.
3) List I (Union List), Entry 72: "Elections to Parliament, to the Legislatures of States and to the offices
of President and Vice-President; the Election Commission", deals with election of state legislature.
4) This entry specifies that Parliament has the authority to make laws regarding elections to Parliament,
state legislatures, and for the offices of President and Vice-President. It also includes provisions related
to the Election Commission of India, which oversees the conduct of these elections at both the national
and state levels.
Source: Indian polity- for civil services and other state examinations (chapter 71)(Elections),
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Elections
Subtopic:)
Q.58)
Ans) a
Universal adult suffrage is a fundamental principle of democracy, granting all adult citizens the right
to vote, irrespective of their background or social standing. It ensures equal political participation and
empowers individuals to choose their representatives in government. This right is enshrined in the Indian
Constitution, enabling citizens aged 18 and above to participate in elections, shaping the nation's future.
Statement 1 is correct: Article 326 of the Indian Constitution guarantees adult suffrage for elections to
the House of the People (Lok Sabha) and State Legislative Assemblies. This means that every citizen of
India who is 18 years of age or older (as of the qualifying date) and is not disqualified under any law is
entitled to vote.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The 61st Amendment Act of Indian Constitution 1988, not the 73rd, reduced
the voting age from 21 years to 18 years. The 73rd Amendment Act dealt with the establishment of
Panchayati Raj institutions.
Source: Indian polity- for civil services and other state examinations (chapter 71)(Elections),
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Elections
Subtopic:)
Q.59)
Ans) d
Article 326 of the Indian Constitution guarantees universal adult suffrage for elections to the Lok
Sabha (House of the People) and State Legislative Assemblies. This means that every Indian citizen who
is 18 years of age or older, and not disqualified by law, has the right to vote in these elections.
Option 1 is correct: Section 19 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 specifies that a person
must be ordinarily resident in a constituency to be registered as a voter. Non-residence can therefore
disqualify a person from voting.
Option 2 is correct: Section 16(1)(b) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 states that a person is
disqualified for registration in an electoral roll if they are of unsound mind and stand so declared by a
competent court.
Option 3 is correct: According to Section 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951:
[30]
No person shall vote at any election if they are confined in a prison, whether under a sentence of
imprisonment, transportation, or any other reason, or if they are in the lawful custody of the police.
However, this restriction does not apply to individuals subjected to preventive detention under any law
currently in force.
Option 4 is correct: Section 16(1)(c) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 mentions that a
person found guilty of a corrupt or illegal practice under the provisions of any law relating to elections
is disqualified for a period as prescribed by such law.
Source: Indian polity- for civil services and other state examinations (chapter 72)(Elections laws),
constitution,https://indiankanoon.org/doc/30249677/,https://indiankanoon.org/doc/127621568/
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Elections
Subtopic:)
Q.60)
Ans) b
The Supreme Court recently constituted a seven-member committee to find a balance between
conservation measures for the Great Indian Bustard (GIB) and efforts to generate renewable energy.
Statement 1 is correct. The Great Indian Bustard is a large bird found only in India. It is critically
endangered since 2011. It is known to be a key indicator species of the grassland habitat, which means
its survival also signals the health of grassland habitats.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Only 140 Bustards survive in India. Over 120 Bustards are found in Rajasthan
alone; the rest survive in the states of Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh (Madhya
Pradesh, has not recorded a Bustard sighting for several years). Thus largest population of GIB is located
in the state of Rajasthan.
Statement 3 is correct. Great Indian Bustard faces existential threat from overhead power lines. The
poor frontal vision of the GIB’s and their inability to swerve away from overhead power lines in their
flying path, owing to their large size, are two key factors leading to their collision with transmission lines.
Knowledge Base: High voltage lines do not cause death due to electrocution but cause death due to
collision. A 2020 WII study estimated that 18 GIB’s die annually due to collision with overhead high-
tension power lines in the Thar landscape.
Other threats to GIB are loss of their habitat to rising farmlands in semi-arid regions of Rajasthan,
depredation of eggs by other predators such as dogs, monitor lizards and humans
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/great-indian-bustards-recovery-conservation-
9430708/
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/supreme-court-conservation-great-
indian-bustard-9234896/
Topic:) Great Indian Bustard
Subtopic:)
[31]
Q.61)
Ans) a
The Tenth Schedule, introduced into the Indian Constitution through the 52nd Amendment Act of
1985, addresses political defections. It aims to prevent elected representatives from switching parties for
personal gain or other motives by disqualifying them if they voluntarily leave their party or vote against
the party whip without prior permission. This law aims to maintain the stability of political parties and
uphold the mandate given by voters during elections.
Statement 1 is correct. Under the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law), if a member voluntarily gives up
the membership of the political party on whose ticket he/she was elected, they are disqualified from
being a member of the House.
Statement 2 is correct. An independent member who joins any political party after the election is
disqualified from being a member of the House. This provision is aimed at preventing elected
representatives from changing their allegiance for personal gain.
Statement 3 is incorrect. A nominated member of a House cannot join a political party six months after
the date of taking their seat. They are disqualified under the anti-defection law for doing so.
Source: Indian polity- for civil services and other state examinations (chapter 76) (Anti defection),
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Anti defection Law
Subtopic:)
Q.62)
Ans) d
Option d is correct: The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, also known as the anti-defection
law, clearly states that any question regarding the disqualification of a member of a House (Parliament
or State Legislature) on the grounds of defection is to be decided by the Presiding Officer of the House.
This means:
1) For Lok Sabha (Lower House of Parliament): The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
2) For Rajya Sabha (Upper House of Parliament): The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
3) For State Legislative Assemblies: The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
4) For State Legislative Councils: The Chairman of the Legislative Council
Source: Indian polity- for civil services and other state examinations (chapter 76) (Anti defection),
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Anti defection law
Subtopic:)
Q.63)
Ans) a
The Constitution (Ninety-First Amendment) Act, 2003 strengthened India's anti-defection law and was
notified in the Gazette of India on 2 January 2004. It made the following changes in anti-defection laws:
Option 1 is correct: As per Constitution (Ninety-First Amendment) Act, 2003, a member of either House
of Parliament or House of a State Legislature belonging to any political party who is disqualified on the
ground of defection shall also be disqualified to hold any remunerative political post.
[32]
Option 2 is incorrect: The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 did not establish any such special
tribunal to decide on the defection cases. It is the Speaker or Chairman who decides on cases of
defection in the respective houses of the parliament.
Source: Laxmikanth
https://loksabhadocs.nic.in/Refinput/New_Reference_Notes/English/15072022_111659_1021205175.pd
f
https://www.india.gov.in/sites/upload_files/npi/files/amend91.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.64)
Ans) b
In 1969, a committee chaired by Home Minister Y.B. Chavan was formed to examine the issue of political
defection in India. The committee defined defection — and an exception for genuine defectors.
According to the committee, defection was the voluntary giving up of allegiance of a political party on
whose symbol a legislator was elected, except when such action was the result of the decision of the
party. In its report, the committee noted “that the lure of office played a dominant part in decisions of
legislators to defect”.
1) It pointed out that out of 210 defecting legislators in seven states, 116 were given ministerial berths in
governments which they helped form by their defections.
2) To combat this, the committee recommended a bar on defecting legislators from holding ministerial
positions for a year — or until the time they got themselves re-elected. It also suggested a smaller Council
of Ministers both at the levels of the Centre and the states.
3) The committee was in favour of political parties working together to help evolve a code of conduct to
effectively tackle disruptions
Source: Laxmikanth 76. Anti-Defection Law
https://loksabhadocs.nic.in/Refinput/New_Reference_Notes/English/15072022_111659_1021205175.pd
f
chapter1.pdf (legalaffairs.gov.in)
Report of the Committee on Defections | INDIAN CULTURE
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.65)
Ans) b
India's three-stage nuclear power program, aims to achieve long-term energy security by harnessing the
country's abundant thorium reserves. In the first stage, Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) use
natural uranium to generate electricity and produce plutonium-239. The second stage involves Fast
Breeder Reactors (FBRs), which use plutonium-239 and uranium-238 to breed more plutonium and
convert thorium-232 into uranium-233. The third stage focuses on Thorium-Based Reactors, utilizing
uranium-233 derived from thorium, for sustainable energy production.
[33]
Statement 1 is correct. Fast breeder reactors are designed to use a mix of plutonium-239 and uranium-
238. Plutonium-239 is typically bred from uranium-238 in the reactor, enabling the reactor to generate
more fissile material than it consumes, which is the key characteristic of a breeder reactor.
Statement 2 is incorrect. India's first indigenous fast breeder reactor, the Prototype Fast Breeder
Reactor (PFBR), is constructed and operated by Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Limited (BHAVINI).
Statement 3 is incorrect. Fast breeder reactors typically use liquid sodium as a coolant because of its
excellent heat transfer properties. Deuterium oxide, or heavy water, is used as a moderator and coolant
in Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs)
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/india-first-indigenous-fast-breeder-reactor-
kalpakkam-nuclear-9212492/
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2011347
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/pm-modi-witnesses-commencement-of-core-
loading-at-indias-first-indigenous-fast-breeder-reactor-at-kalpakkam/article67913484.ece
Topic:) Fast Breeder Reactor
Subtopic:)
Q.66)
Ans) b
The Multi-State Cooperative Societies (MSCS) (Amendment) Act 2023 aims to strengthen governance,
enhance transparency, increase accountability, reform electoral processes, and supplement existing
legislation by incorporating provisions from the Ninety-seventh Constitutional Amendment for Multi-
State Cooperative Societies.
Statement 1 is correct: The Multi-State Cooperative Societies (MSCS) (Amendment) Act 2023 indeed
establishes the Co-operative Election Authority to conduct and supervise elections for the members of
the board of multi-state co-operative societies.
Statement 2 is correct: The Multi-State Cooperative Societies (MSCS) (Amendment) Act 2023 creates
the Co-operative Rehabilitation, Reconstruction, and Development Fund to revive multi-state
cooperative societies that are in financial distress. A sick multi-state cooperative society is defined as
one that has accumulated losses equal to or exceeding its paid-up capital, free reserves, and surpluses,
and has experienced cash losses in the previous two financial years.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Multi-State Cooperative Societies (MSCS) (Amendment) Act, 2023, allows
the Central Government to appoint the Co-operative Ombudsman to provide a mechanism to address
grievances of members of the MSCS. The Ombudsmen's role is to investigate complaints from members
of multi-state cooperative societies regarding their deposits, equitable benefits, and other matters.
Source: https://prsindia.org/billtrack/the-multi-state-co-operative-societies-amendment-bill-2022
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1983119
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Cooperatives
Subtopic:)
Q.67)
Ans) d
A pressure group is a group of people who are organised actively for promoting and defending their
common interest. The pressure groups in India can be broadly classified into various categories like
[34]
Business group, Trade Union, Agrarian groups, Professional Association, Student Organisations, Religious
organisation, Caste groups etc.
Option 1 is correct: The Narmada Bachao Andolan is a prominent pressure group in India, advocating
for the ecological integrity of the Narmada river and the rights of those displaced by dam projects. It
mobilizes public opinion and legal action to influence policy decisions.
Option 2 is correct: Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) was established in 1895, CII is a business
association founded by prominent industrialists. It aims to influence economic policies and promote
industrial growth..
Option 3 is correct: Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM) founded in
1920. ASSOCHAM is a commerce and industry body that lobbies for business-friendly policies and
economic reforms.
Option 4 is correct: Centre of Indian Trade Unions (CITU) was established in 1970, founded by B.T.
Ranadive, CITU is a national trade union affiliated with the Communist Party of India (Marxist),
advocating for workers' rights and labour law reforms.
Source: Laxmikanth Ch Pressure Group
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Pressure Groups
Subtopic:)
Q.68)
Ans) d
The All-India Services Act, 1951 provides that the Central Government may make rules for regulating the
recruitment and the conditions of service of persons appointed to the All-India Services (AIS). Presently
only the IAS, the IPS and the IFS have been constituted as All India Services.
Option a is correct: Under Article 312 of the Constitution of India, Parliament of India has the power to
create new All India Services (AIS) through legislation. Article 312 of the Indian Constitution empowers
Parliament to establish new All India Services (AIS) if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution declaring it's in
the national interest. The resolution must be supported by two-thirds of the Rajya Sabha members
present and voting.
Option b is correct: AIS officers hold positions across both the Central Government and State
Governments. They serve both the central and state governments.
Option c is correct: As per Article 320 of the Constitution of India, Union Public Service Commission
(UPSC) is responsible for recruitment to the All-India Services (AIS). Although the All-India Services
Act, 1951 and the Rules and Regulations therein are framed by Government of India to govern
recruitment policy and service conditions for the AIS.
Option d is incorrect: Central Government has the power to transfer All India Service (AIS) officers
from one state to another, but it must have the concurrence of the state governments involved. The
government can also transfer officers permanently to a state after an initial three-year deputation. The
Central Government is the Cadre Controlling Authority for the three All India Services: the Indian
Administrative Service (IAS), the Indian Police Service (IPS), and the Indian Forest Service (IFS).
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth – Public Service
https://upsc.gov.in/about-us/divisions/all-india-services-ais-branch/introduction
df
https://interstatecouncil.gov.in/wp-content/uploads/2015/06/CHAPTERVIII.pdf
https://documents.doptcirculars.nic.in/D2/D02ser/Guidelines-AIS-Officer-14012015.pdf
[35]
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.69)
Ans) a
All-India services are those services which are common to both Central and state governments. At
present, there are three all-India services. They are: Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Police
Service (IPS), Indian Forest Service (IFS). There has been demand for creating an All-Indian Service for
Judiciary which will be known as All India Judicial Service. So far it has not been created.
Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 312, the Parliament can create new All India services
including an All-India judicial service, if the Council of State passes a resolution or declaring that it is
necessary or expedient in the national interest to do so. Such a resolution in the Council of State should
be supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. This power of
recommendation is given to the Council of State to protect the interests of states in the Indian federal
system.
Statement 2 is incorrect: All-India judicial service is created when the Council of State passes a
resolution supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting. There is no provision that
recommendation of Chief Justice is needed for creation of AIJS.
Statement 3 is correct: Article 312 states that the AIJS cannot include any post inferior to that of a
district judge. According to Article 236, a district judge can include a city civil court judge, additional
district judge, joint district judge, assistant district judge, chief judge of a small cause court, chief
presidency magistrate, additional chief presidency magistrate, sessions judge, additional sessions judge,
and assistant sessions judge.
Source: chapter 66 – Public Services – Indian Polity by M. Laxmikant
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.70)
Ans) c
Option a is incorrect. The Kunming Declaration is a significant international commitment aimed at
addressing biodiversity loss and promoting the protection and restoration of ecosystems. The Kunming
Declaration was adopted on October 13, 2021, during the first part of the 15th meeting of the Conference
of the Parties (COP 15) to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). The declaration emphasizes the
urgent need to halt biodiversity loss and commit to sustainable practices that protect and restore
ecosystems.
Option b is incorrect. The Glasgow Pact 2021, signed at the UN Climate Change Conference in Glasgow
(COP26) calls for a doubling of finance to support developing countries in adapting to the impacts of
climate change and building resilience.
Option c is correct. The Yaounde Declaration, 2024 focuses on combating malaria in African countries
with high burden of malaria. It aims to reduce malaria-related deaths significantly through collaborative
efforts among African nations. The health ministers of 11 African countries with the highest burden of
malaria signed this declaration. They have committed to take accelerated action to end deaths from the
[36]
malaria disease. Signatory countries– Burkina Faso, Cameroon, the Democratic Republic of the Congo,
Ghana, Mali, Mozambique, Niger, Nigeria, Sudan, Uganda and Tanzania.
Option d is incorrect. Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction (2015-2030) which was adopted at
third UN World Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction, Sendai, Japan in 2015. It aims to achieve
substantial reduction of disaster risk and losses in lives, livelihoods, and health, and in the economic,
physical, social, cultural, and environmental assets of persons, businesses, communities, and countries.
Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/africa/yaounde-declaration-health-ministers-of-11-african-
countries-commit-to-end-malaria-deaths-94922
https://www.un.org/en/climatechange/cop26
https://www.cbd.int/doc/c/df35/4b94/5e86e1ee09bc8c7d4b35aaf0/kunmingdeclaration-en.pdf
Topic:) Yaounde declaration
Subtopic:)
Q.71)
Ans) d
The Central Civil Services (CCS) in India are a group of government services that operate exclusively
under the jurisdiction of the Central Government. These services are distinct from the All India Services,
which are common to both the Central and State Governments, and the State Civil Services, which fall
under the purview of individual states.
Statement 1 is correct: Article 309 empowers Parliament to regulate the recruitment and the
conditions of service of the persons appointed to public services and posts under the Centre. Until such
laws are made, the president can make rules to regulate these matters. This ensures an interim legal
framework for the Union’s public services, maintaining administrative continuity and governance
standards.
Statement 2 is correct: According to Article 310, members of the defence services, the civil services of
the Centre and the all-India services or persons holding military posts or civil posts under the Centre,
hold office during the pleasure of the president. Similarly, members of the civil services of a state or
persons holding civil posts under a state, hold office during the pleasure of the governor of the state.
Statement 3 is correct: Article 311 provides two safeguards to civil servants against any arbitrary
dismissal from their posts:
1) A civil servant cannot be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to that by which he was
appointed.
2) A civil servant cannot be dismissed or removed or reduced in rank except after an inquiry in which he
has been informed of the charges against him and given a reasonable opportunity of being heard in
respect of those charges
Source: chapter 66 – Public Services – Indian Polity by M. Laxmikant
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.72)
Ans) d
Delimitation literally means the act or process of fixing limits or boundaries of territorial constituencies
across nation or within states for the purpose of conducting election.
[37]
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Delimitation Commission is not a Constitutional body, rather it is a

Statutory body created under the provision of the Delimitation Acts. The act is enacted by the
Parliament.
Statement 2 is incorrect: A Judge of the Supreme Court, to be appointed by the Central Government
acts, as the Chairperson of the Commission. The Chief Election Commissioner or an Election
Commissioner nominated by the Chief Election Commissioner is the ex-officio member (not
chairperson) of the Commission.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Delimitation Commission in India is a high-power body whose orders will
be laid before the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assembly concerned, but no modifications are
permissible therein by them. Hence Lok Sabha as well as State legislatures cannot change the order of
the commission. Further the orders of the commission will have the force of law and cannot be called in
question before any court.
Source: Laxmikanth - Chapter 72 (Election Laws)
https://www.indiacode.nic.in/show-
data?actid=AC_CEN_3_20_00030_200233_1517807324510&sectionId=27989&sectionno=7&orderno=7#:
~:text=there%20is%20a-,difference,-of%20opinion%20among
https://www.indiacode.nic.in/show-
data?actid=AC_CEN_3_20_00030_200233_1517807324510&sectionId=27985&sectionno=3&orderno=3#
:~:text=the%20Chief%20Election-,Commissioner,-or%20an%20Election
https://eci.gov.in/delimitation-website/delimitation/#:~:text=concerned%2C%20but%20no-
,modifications,-are%20permissible%20therein
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Elections
Subtopic:)
Q.73)
Ans) a
The Constitution makes a provision for the establishment of a Joint State Public Service Commission
(JSPSC) for two or more states. The chairman and members of a JSPSC are appointed by the President.
They hold office for six years or until they attain 62 years, whichever is earlier. They can be suspended or
removed by the President.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The UPSC and the SPSC are created directly by the Constitution under article
315, whereas JSPSC can be created by an act of Parliament on the request of the state legislatures
concerned. Thus, a JSPSC is a statutory and not a constitutional body.
Statement 2 is correct: A Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) can be created for two or more
states. A JSPSC can be created by an act of Parliament on the request of the state legislatures
concerned.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Previously, Punjab and Haryana had a JPSC for a brief period after Haryana's
creation from Punjab in 1966. Currently, there are no Indian states that have a Joint State Public
Service Commission (JSPSC).
Source:
chapter 44 – State Public Service Commission – Indian Polity by M. Laxmikant
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) State Public Service Commission
Subtopic:)
[38]
Q.74)
Ans) b
Parallel to the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) at the Centre, there is a State Public Service
Commission (SPSC) in a state. Articles 315 to 323 in Part XIV of the Constitution deal with the
composition, appointment and removal of members, power and functions and independence of UPSC and
SPSC.
Option a is correct: According to article 319 of the Constitution of India, the chairman of UPSC on
ceasing to hold office is not eligible for further employment in the Government of India or a state.
Option b is incorrect: According to article 319 of the Constitution of India, the chairman of a SPSC on
ceasing to hold office is eligible for appointment as the chairman or a member of the UPSC or as the
chairman of any other SPSC, but not for any other employment under the Government of India or a
state.
Option c is correct: According to article 319 of the Constitution of India, a member of UPSC on ceasing
to hold office is eligible for appointment as the chairman of UPSC or a State Public Service Commission
(SPSC), but not for any other employment in the Government of India or a state.
Option d is correct: According to article 319 of the Constitution of India, a member of a SPSC on ceasing
to hold office is eligible for appointment as the chairman or a member of the UPSC, or as the chairman
of that SPSC or any other SPSC, but not for any other employment under the Government of India or a
state.
Source: chapter 43 and 44 – UPSC and SPSC – Indian Polity by M. Laxmikant
https://upsc.gov.in/about-us/constitutional-provisions/article-319-prohibition-holding-offices-
members-commission-ceasing-be-such-members
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) State Public Service Commission + Union Public Service Commission
Subtopic:)
Q.75)
Ans) b
Sangeet Natak Academy is the national academy for performing arts in India. It was established to
preserve and promote the rich heritage of Indian music, dance, and drama.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Sangeet Natak Akademi (also known as the National Academy of Music,
Dance, and Drama) is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.
Sangeet Natak Academy was created by a resolution of the Ministry of Education, Government of
India, in 1953. Its First President was Dr P.V. Rajamannar. It confers prestigious awards like the Sangeet
Natak Academy Fellowship and the Academy Puraskar to eminent artists.
Statement 2 is correct: The Chairman of the Sangeet Natak Academy is appointed by the President of
India for a term of 5 years. The registered office of the academy is in New Delhi.
Source: Official website of Sangeet Natak Akademi, Ministry of Culture, Government of India
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2017499,
Topic:) Sangeet Natak Academy
Subtopic:)
[39]
Q.76)
Ans) a
Articles 294 to 300 in Part XII of the Constitution deal with the property, contracts, rights, liabilities,
obligations and suits of the Union and the states. In this regard, the Constitution makes the Union or the
states as juristic (legal) persons.
Article 294 of Indian Constitution deals with the transfer of existing assets from British rule to
independent India, while Article 296 of Indian Constitution deals with situations where property would
have gone to the British Crown or princely rulers, but now goes to the government due to lack of rightful
claimants.
Option 1,2 and 3 are correct: As per Article 296 of Indian Constitution, Any property in India that would
have accrued to King of England or ruler of Indian state (princely) by (i) escheat (death of a person inte-
state without any heir), (ii) lapse (termination of rights through disuse or failure to follow appropriate
procedures) or (iii) bona vacantia (property found without any owner) for want of a rightful owner, would
now vest in the State if the property is situated there, and in the Union, the property accrues to the
government as there is no rightful owner (claimant).
Option 4 is incorrect: In case of succession, the ownership of property is transferred from British to
Government of India but not due to absence of rightful owner but as the orderly passage of power,
assets, or other property from one entity to another.
As per Article 294 of the Indian Constitutional property and assets which immediately before such
commencement were vested in His Majesty for the purposes of the Government of the Dominion of India
and all property and assets which immediately before such commencement were vested in His Majesty
for the purposes of the Government of each Governor’s Province shall vest respectively in the Union and
the corresponding State from the commencement of this Constitution.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikant - Rights and Liabilities of the Government
https://www.mea.gov.in/Images/pdf1/Part12.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Rights and Liabilities of the Government
Subtopic:)
Q.77)
Ans) c
Article 297 of the Indian Constitution states that all valuable resources beneath the ocean within India's
territorial waters and continental shelf belong to the Union. India has sovereign rights over resources in
its exclusive economic zone (EEZ). Initially, the President set the limits of these maritime zones.
However, the 40th Constitutional Amendment Act transferred this power to the Parliament, enabling
it to define the boundaries of territorial waters, the continental shelf, the EEZ, and other maritime zones
as needed.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) defines a
territorial sea as a 12-nautical mile zone from the baseline of a coastal state. As per Article 297(3) of the
Indian Constitution, the limits of the territorial water are specified by the law made by Parliament of
India (not by the littoral states).
Statement 2 is correct: The continental shelf of a coastal State comprises the seabed and subsoil of the
submarine areas that extend beyond its territorial sea to a distance of 200 nautical miles from the
baselines from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured where the outer edge of the
[40]
continental margin does not extend up to that distance. As per Article 297(3) of the Indian Constitution,
the limits of the continental shelf are specified by the law made by Parliament of India.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) is an area beyond and adjacent to the
territorial sea, subject to the specific legal regime established in this Part, under which the rights and
jurisdiction of the coastal State and the rights and freedoms of other States are governed by the relevant
provisions of under UNCLOS. As per Article 297(3) of the Indian Constitution, the limits of the EEZ are
specified by the law made by Parliament of India (not by the executive actions of President of India).
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikant - Rights and Liabilities of the Government
https://www.india.gov.in/my-government/constitution-india/amendments/constitution-india-
fortieth-amendment-act-1976#:~:text=%2D%20(1)%20All%20lands%2C,%22.
https://www.un.org/depts/los/convention_agreements/texts/unclos/part6.htm
https://www.noaa.gov/maritime-zones-and-boundaries
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.78)
Ans) b
As per Article 298 of the Constitution of India, the union and state shall carry out any trade or business
and for that purpose, it can acquire, dispose or hold any property and can enter into contract. The
Constitution lays down three conditions which must be fulfilled by such contracts Article 299 such as
1) All contracts made in exercise of the executive power of the union or state shall be expressly made by
the President or by the Governor of a State (not by the Parliament or State legislature).
2) All such contracts and the assurance of property shall be executed on behalf of the President or
Governor of a State.
3) They must be executed by such person or in such manner as the President or Governor may direct or
authorize.
The President or Governor shall not be made personally liable for in respect of contract or assurance
made for the purpose of the constitution nor shall any such individual person executing contract or
assurance on behalf of them shall be made personally liable.
Source: Indian Polity by Lakshmikant, chapter, 67 Rights and Liabilities of the Government
https://legalserviceindia.com/legal/article-6162-liability-of-administration-in-contract-government-
contract.html
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.79)
Ans) b
Article 300 of the Indian Constitution outlines the government's liability for torts. It states that the Union
or a State can be held liable for civil wrongs based on English law principles. Initially, the government
could be sued for torts committed by officials during non-sovereign functions but not for sovereign
functions like administering justice or military actions. However, this has evolved through court rulings.
Option 1,2,3 and 4 are incorrect: In the Nagendra Rao case (1994), the Supreme Court took a more
liberal stance on the tort liability of the State.
[41]
According to it, Test to determine if the legislative or executive function is sovereign in nature is,
whether the State is answerable for such actions in courts of law. For instance, the State remains
immune from lawsuits regarding functions indicative of external sovereignty, such as defense, raising
and maintaining armed forces, making peace or war, foreign affairs, and acquiring and retaining
territory.
These are functions which are indicative of external sovereignty and are political in nature. Therefore,
they are not amenable to jurisdiction of ordinary civil court. No suit under Civil Procedure Code would lie
in respect of it. The State is immune from being sued, as the jurisdiction of the courts in such matters is
impliedly barred. So, the option 1,2,3 and 4 are incorrect
Option 5 is correct. Judiciary, in the Nagendra Rao case, emphasized that no constitutional system could
excuse the negligent functioning of the State or its officers, especially in the non-maintenance of
essential commodities, on grounds of State necessity or public policy. So, union government can be
sued for torts committed by its officials
Source: Indian Polity by Lakshmikant - Rights and Liabilities of the Government
https://www.legalserviceindia.com/legal/article-13664-tortious-liability-in-administrative-law-a-
global-perspective.html
https://legalaffairs.gov.in/sites/default/files/(XI)%20Liability%20of%20State%20in%20Tort.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.80)
Ans) b
Geological Survey of India (GSI) under Ministry of Mines declares geo-heritage sites/ national geological
monuments for protection and maintenance. At present there are 34 Geological Heritage Sites in India.
Pair 1 is incorrect. Pandavula Gutta, a geological marvel older than the Himalayan hills, has been
officially recognised as the sole Geo-heritage site in Telangana. It is known for rock paintings by early
man. The rock art paintings depict wildlife like bison, antelope, tiger and leopard, besides swastika
symbol, circles and squares, and weapons.
Pair 2 is correct. A 3-km diameter Ramgarh Crater formed 165 million years ago due to a
meteor impact was recently declared as Geo Heritage Site. It is located in the state of Rajasthan. The
Ramgarh Crater is significant for its ecosystem services, biodiversity, cultural, and heritage value for the
local communities and society.
Pair 3 is incorrect. Badlands of Karai Formation with Cretaceous fossils is a Geo Heritage Site located in
Tamil Nadu. The Karai Formation of Uttatur Group at Karai-Kulakkalnattam section in Perambalur
district forms the lower part of the Cretaceous sedimentary succession of the Cauvery Basin. The Karai
Formation is exposed as badlands with a series of conical mounds separated by gulleys.
Pair 4 is correct. Lake Lonar, located in the Buldhana district of Maharashtra, is a unique and
mysterious crater. It is the only known saline crater lake in the world, formed by the
impact of a meteorite about 50,000 years ago. Its water is actually seven times saltier than sea water! The
lake has a diameter of 1.2 kilometers and a depth of 150 meters.
Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/telanganas-pandavula-gutta-gets-geo-
heritage-tag-101711219540739.html
https://vikaspedia.in/education/childrens-corner/geological-heritage-sites-of-india
https://tnmines.tn.gov.in/geologica-
features.php#:~:text=The%20Karai%20formation%20is%20a,well%20known%20in%20this%20sectorhtt
[42]
ps://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/jaipur/rajasthan-govt-recognizes-ramgarh-crater-as-indias-
1st-geo-heritage-site/articleshow/108555120.cms
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/etimes/trending/the-mysterious-lonar-crater-lake-the-indian-
lake-that-surprises-even-nasa/articleshow/107629005.cms
Geo-Heritage Sites (pib.gov.in)
Topic:) Geo Heritage Sites
Subtopic:)
Q.81)
Ans) c
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is the central recruiting agency in India. Articles 315 to 323
in Part XIV of the Constitution contain elaborate provisions regarding the composition, appointment and
removal of members along with the independence, powers and functions of the UPSC.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 316(1) of Indian Constitution provides that the Chairman and other
members of a Union Public Service Commission shall be appointed by the President. However, the total
strength of UPSC is not mentioned under Indian Constitution and has left the matter to the discretion
of the President, who determines its composition.
According to the article 318 of Indian Constitution —In the case of the Union Commission or a Joint
Commission, the President determine the number of members of the Commission by regulation and
their conditions of service
Statement 2 is incorrect: As per Article-321 of the Indian Constitution an Act(not by regulation) made
by Parliament or, as the case may be, the Legislature of a State may provide for the exercise of
additional functions by the Union Public Service Commission or the State Public Service Commission as
respects the services of the Union or the State and also as respects the services of any local authority or
other body corporate constituted by law or of any public institution.
Statement 3 is correct: As per Article 317(1) of the Indian Constitution, , the Chairman or any other
member of a Public Service Commission shall only be removed from his office by order of the
President on the ground mentioned under the Constitution of India (a) If he is adjudged an insolvent
(that is, has gone bankrupt); (b) If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside
the duties of his office; or (c) If he is, in the opinion of the president, unfit to continue in office by reason
of infirmity of mind or body.
In addition, the President can also remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC for
misbehaviour. However, in this case, the president has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an
enquiry.
Therefore, they enjoy security of tenure.
Source: Indian Polity by Lakshmikant, chapter Union Public Service Commission
https://indiankanoon.org/doc/237570/
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Union Public Service Commission
Subtopic:)
Q.82)
Ans) c
[43]
The powers and functions of the Election Commission with regard to elections to the Parliament, State
Legislatures and offices of President and Vice-President can be classified into three categories, viz, 1.
Administrative 2. Advisory 3. Quasi-Judicial
Statement I is correct: Election Commission of India (ECI) is a quasi-judicial body. This means that it has
powers and procedures similar to those of a court of law, and is required to objectively determine facts
and draw conclusions to provide the basis for official action. ECI's Quasi-judicial functions includes:
1) Settlement of disputes: The ECI resolves disputes related to elections, such as those concerning
recognition of political parties, allotment of election symbols, and disqualification of candidates for
violating election laws.
2) Hearing cases: The ECI conducts hearings and examines evidence presented by different parties
involved in election-related disputes.
3) Passing orders: The ECI issues binding orders based on its findings, which can include disqualifying
candidates, ordering re-polls in a constituency, etc.
Statement II is incorrect: Once the polls are completed and result declared, the Commission cannot
review any result on its own. This can only be reviewed through the process of an election petition,
which can be filed before the High Court, in respect of elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures.
In respect of elections for the offices of the President and Vice President, such petitions can only be filed
before the Supreme Court.
Source: Laxmikanth Ch 42 Election Commission of India
df (bare Constitution)
https://www.eci.gov.in/about-eci
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Constitutional and Extra-Constitutional Bodies
Subtopic:)
Q.83)
Ans) a
Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body. It is
constituted by the President of India every fifth year or at such earlier time as he considers necessary
Statement 1 is correct: The Finance Commission's primary function is to recommend the distribution of
revenue between the Central Government and State Governments. This includes recommending
principles for grants-in-aid to States that need financial assistance (Article 280 (3)).
Statement 2 is incorrect: The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only of advisory
nature and hence, not binding on the government. It is up to the Union government to implement its
recommendations on granting money to the States.
‘It is nowhere laid down in the Constitution that the recommendations of the commission shall be
binding upon the Government of India or that it would give rise to a legal right in favour of the
beneficiary States to receive the money recommended to be offered to them by the Commission.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Finance Commission of India submits its report to the President of India.
The President (not Finance Minister) lays it before both the Houses of Parliament along with an
explanatory memorandum as to the action taken on its recommendations (Article 281).
Source: Laxmikanth Ch 45 Finance
Commissionhttps://cdnbbsr.s3waas.gov.in/s380537a945c7aaa788ccfcdf1b99b5d8f/uploads/2023/05/2
023050195.pdf (bare Constitution)
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
[44]
Q.84)
Ans) c
The National Investigation Agency (NIA) was constituted in 2009 under the provisions of the National
Investigation Agency Act, 2008 (NIA Act). It is the central counter-terrorism law enforcement agency in
the country.
Statement 1 is correct: The NIA was established in the backdrop of the 2008 Mumbai terror attacks,
popularly known as the 26/11 incident. This national horror led to the realisation of the need for a
separate federal agency to deal with terror-related crimes in the country.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The NIA is headed by a Director-General. He is appointed by the central
government. The NIA works under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs,
Government of India. The headquarters of the NIA is at New Delhi. The branch offices of the NIA are
located at Hyderabad, Guwahati, Mumbai, Lucknow, Kochi, Kolkata, Jammu and Raipur.
Statement 3 is correct: The powers of Director General are similar to the powers exercisable by a
Director-General of Police in respect of the police force in a State, including investigation and
prosecution of offences under the NIA Act.
Source: Laxmikanth Ch 62 National Investigation Agency
https://www.nia.gov.in/about-us.html
https://www.mha.gov.in/sites/default/files/2022-
08/The%2520National%2520Investigation%2520Agency%2520Act%2C%25202008_1%5B1%5D.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.85)
Ans) a
The 2023 World Air Quality Report included data from 7,812 locations in 134 countries, regions and
territories.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The World Air Quality Report 2023 was released by Swiss organisation IQAir
and not World Meteorological Organization (WMO).
Statement 2 is correct: Begusarai in Bihar stood out as the most polluted metropolitan area globally
with an average PM2.5 concentration of 118.9 micrograms per cubic metre as per the World Air Quality
Report- 2023. Delhi's PM2.5 levels worsened from 89.1 micrograms per cubic metre in 2022 to 92.7
micrograms per cubic metre in 2023.It was ranked the most polluted capital city in the world.
Statement 3 is incorrect: India had the third worst air quality out of 134 countries in 2023 after
Bangladesh and Pakistan according to the World Air Quality Report 2023. In 2022, India was ranked as the
eighth most polluted country.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Delhi/delhi-worlds-most-polluted-capital-city-again-
report/article67967236.ece
Topic:) World Air Quality Report- 2023
Subtopic:)
[45]
Q.86)
Ans) b
Disaster Management Act, 2005 provided for the creation of the National Disaster Management Authority
(NDMA) to spearhead and implement a holistic and integrated approach to disaster management in the
country.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The NDMA consists of a chairperson and other members, not exceeding nine.
The Prime Minister (not Minister of Home Affairs) is the ex-officio chairperson of the NDMA. The
other members are nominated by the chairperson of the NDMA. The chairperson of the NDMA designates
one of the members as the vice-chairperson of the NDMA. The vice chairperson has the status of a
Cabinet Minister while the other members have the status of a Minister of State.
Statement 2 is correct: The NDMA is the apex body for disaster management in the country. It works
under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs. The Ministry provides
logistical and administrative support to the NDMA in carrying out its disaster management activities.
Source: Laxmikanth Ch 63 National Disaster Management Authority
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Constitutional and Extra Constitutional Bodies
Subtopic:)
Q.87)
Ans) a
The establishment of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was recommended by the Santhanam
Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–1964). The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers
from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act (DSPE Act), 1946.
Statement 1 is correct: As per the DSPE Act, CBI can suo-moto take up investigation of offences
notified in section 3 only in the Union Territories. Taking up investigation by CBI within the boundaries
of States requires prior consent of that State as per Section 6 of the DSPE Act.
Statement 2 is correct: The Central Government can authorize the CBI to investigate a crime in a State,
but it requires the consent of the concerned State Government. This is based on Section 6 of the DSPE
Act.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Both the Supreme Court and High Courts (not only Supreme Court) can
direct the CBI to investigate a crime anywhere in the country without the consent of the State
Government. This power is derived from their inherent jurisdiction under the Constitution.
Source: https://cbi.gov.in/faq
Laxmikanth 60 Central Bureau of Investigation
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.88)
Ans) a
Elections in India, constitute a democratic process ensuring representation at various levels of
government. Legislative bodies such as the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, state legislatures, and local bodies
conduct elections at regular intervals. Article 324 of the Constitution entrusts the Election Commission of
India with the responsibility of overseeing these elections to ensure they are conducted freely and fairly.
[46]
Statement 1 is correct: Part XV of the Constitution of India (Articles 324 to 329) pertains to elections.
These articles establish the framework for the conduct of elections in India, delineate the powers and
functions of the Election Commission, and include other related provisions.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 324 of the Indian Constitution vests the power of superintendence,
direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission of India. As part of this, the President of
India is responsible for appointing the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election
Commissioners (ECs).
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Election Commission of India was originally a single-member body. It
was established on January 25, 1950, with only a Chief Election Commissioner. The Election
Commission became a three-member body on October 1, 1993, when two additional Election
Commissioners were appointed. Since then, it has typically been a three-member body, but this was not
the case since independence.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikant(Chapter – Election commission),
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.89)
Ans) c
The Representation of the People Act, 1950, primarily deals with the preparation of electoral rolls, the
allocation of seats in Parliament and state legislatures, and the delimitation of constituencies. The
Representation of the People Act, 1951, regulates the actual conduct of elections, addresses electoral
offenses, and outlines qualifications and disqualifications for candidates.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The RPA, 1950, addresses pre-election preparations, including voter
registration and the preparation of electoral rolls for parliamentary constituencies. In contrast, the
RPA, 1951, governs the conduct of elections, covering aspects such as candidate nominations, polling,
and vote counting.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The RPA, 1950 provides the allocation of seats in, and the delimitation of
constituencies for the purpose of election to, the House of the People and the Legislatures of States, the
qualifications of voters at such elections, the preparation of electoral rolls etc.. The registration of
political parties is covered under the RPA, 1951, which also deals with the conduct of elections, including
nominations, polling, and counting.
Statement 3 is correct: The RPA, 1950 provides for procedures for delimitation of constituencies, while
the RPA, 1951 includes provisions to curb corrupt practices and other electoral offences, as well as the
procedures for settling election disputes.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikant(Chapter – Election commission, Elections laws),
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Elections
Subtopic:)
Q.90)
Ans) d
Cotton is one of the most important commercial crops cultivated in India and accounts for
[47]
around 24% of the total global cotton production. It plays a major role in sustaining the
livelihood of an estimated 6 million cotton farmers and 40-50 million people engaged in
related activities such as cotton processing & trade.
Statement 1 is incorrect. As per the Committee on Cotton Production and Consumption (COCPC) the
cotton yield in India is decreasing from the past five years. It decreased from the 500 kg/ha in 2017/18
to 441 kg/ha in 2023/24.
Statement 2 is incorrect. As per the Committee on Cotton Production and Consumption (COCPC) the
export of cotton has declined in the past five years from 67.59 lakh bales in 2017-18 to 8.60 lakh bales in
2023-24 (exception being year 2020-21 with 77.59 lakh bales).
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/agri-business/indias-cotton-panel-ccpc-
estimates-higher-crop-export-and-consumption/article67954475.ece
https://texmin.gov.in/sites/default/files/%E0%A4%95%E0%A4%AA%E0%A4%BE%E0%A4%B8%20%E
0%A4%95%E0%A5%8D%E0%A4%B7%E0%A5%87%E0%A4%A4%E0%A5%8D%E0%A4%B0%20%E0%A4%
AA%E0%A4%B0%20%E0%A4%A8%E0%A5%8B%E0%A4%9F.pdf
Topic:) Cotton Production in India
Subtopic:)
Q.91)
Ans) c
In India, a recognized political party is one that has been officially acknowledged by the Election
Commission of India (ECI). The ECI is responsible for this recognition, which is based on specific criteria
such as the party’s performance in past elections and its organizational structure.
Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) was founded on April 6, 1980, following the
dissolution of the Janata Party. BJP was founded by Atal Bihari Vajpayee and Lal Krishna Advani. Atal
Bihari Vajpayee was unanimously elected as its first president. The BJP's ideological roots trace back to
the Bharatiya Jana Sangh (BJS), established by Shyama Prasad Mukherjee in 1951.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: The Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was founded by Kanshi Ram on April 14,
1984. The party was established to represent the Bahujans, including Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes,
Other Backward Classes (OBCs), and religious minorities.
[48]
Pair 3 is correctly matched: The National People's Party (NPP) was founded by P. A. Sangma on January
6, 2013, following his expulsion from the Nationalist Congress Party (NCP) in July 2012. The NPP holds
significant influence in the state of Meghalaya and is notable for being the first political party from
Northeastern India to achieve National Party status.
Pair 4 is correctly matched: The Communist Party of India (CPI) advocates for the working class and
agrarian unity, which are central to its ideology. M. N. Roy, a prominent founding member, was a
significant Indian revolutionary, radical activist, and political theorist. Other founding members include
Mohammad Ali (Ahmed Hasan), Mohammad Shafiq Siddiqui etc..
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikant(Chapter – Political Parties and Role of Regional Parties),
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.92)
Ans) b
The All India Services (AIS) are civil services shared by both the Central and State governments, created
and regulated by the Indian Parliament under Article 312 of the Constitution. This article allows the Rajya
Sabha to establish AIS if it passes a resolution with a two-thirds majority, deeming it essential for national
interest.
Option 1, 2 and 4 are correct: The All-India Services currently consist of:
The All India Services, created under Article 312 of the Indian Constitution, include the Indian
Administrative Service (IAS), governed by the IAS (Cadre) Rules, 1954; the Indian Police Service (IPS),
regulated by the IPS (Cadre) Rules, 1954; and the Indian Forest Service (IFS), under the Indian Forest
Service (Cadre) Rules, 1966. Each service plays a crucial role in governance and development.
Option 3 and 5 are incorrect: The Indian Revenue Service (IRS) is Central Civil Services, not All India
Services. The IRS, under the Revenue Act, 1963, manages tax administration. The Indian Railway
Personnel Service (IRPS) is a Group 'A' Central Civil Service cadre of the Government of India, it is not an
All India Services.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikant(Chapter – Public services),
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.93)
Ans) b
The Central Information Commission (CIC) of India, established under the Right to Information Act, 2005,
empowers citizens to request information from public authorities, enhancing transparency and
accountability. It adjudicates RTI appeals and complaints, ensuring public access to information and the
right to be informed.
The Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019 changed the tenure, salary, and service conditions of the
Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) and Information Commissioners (ICs) at the central and state
levels.
[49]
Statement 1 is incorrect: Before the 2019 amendment, the CIC and ICs had a 5-year tenure or served
until age 65, whichever came first. Post-amendment, there is no fixed tenure for CIC and ICs and their
tenure is now at the central government’s discretion, which has raised concerns about their autonomy
and the potential impact on their roles’ effectiveness.
Statement 2 is correct: Before the 2019 amendment, the CIC and ICs’ salaries were on par with the Chief
Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners, respectively, including similar allowances. After the
amendment, their salaries and allowances are determined by the central government.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The 2019 amendment to the RTI Act did not introduce the penalty-imposing
powers of the Chief Information Commissioner. These powers were already established in the original
2005 RTI Act, allowing the CIC to levy penalties under certain conditions.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikant (Chapter – Central/State Information Commission),
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.94)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is a statutory body. It was established in 1993 under a
legislation enacted by the Parliament, namely, the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. The
commission is the watchdog of human rights in the country, that is, the rights relating to life, liberty,
equality and dignity of the individual guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in the international
covenants and enforceable by courts in India.
Statement 1 is correct. The NHRC is empowered to inquire into any violation of human rights or
negligence in the prevention of such violation by a public servant, either on its own initiative (Suo motu)
or based on a petition presented to it or upon an order of a court. This is a core function of the NHRC to
ensure the protection and enforcement of human rights.
Statement 2 is correct. The NHRC has the authority to intervene in any proceeding involving any
allegation of violation of human rights pending before a court with the approval of such court. This
function allows the NHRC to actively participate in legal processes to safeguard human rights.
Statement 3 is correct. The NHRC is mandated to visit jails and other places of detention to study and
evaluate the living conditions of inmates. The Commission can make recommendations based on its
findings to improve the conditions and ensure they meet human rights standards.
Statement 4 is incorrect. While the NHRC plays a crucial role in promoting and protecting human rights,
it does not provide legal aid to victims of human rights violations. Instead, it can recommend to the
government or relevant authorities to take necessary actions, including providing legal aid, but it does
not have the mandate to offer legal aid itself. Government has formed NALSA for Fee legal aid to make
the Justice accessible and affordable to the public.
Source: Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth Chapter National Human Rights Commission
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
[50]
Q.95)
Ans) d
Option a is incorrect. A form of asexual reproduction in which an organism regenerates lost body parts
refers to regeneration. In this process organisms replace or restore lost or damaged body parts. It is seen
in certain species like starfish, planarians, and some lizards, but it does not involve the production of
offspring from an egg without fertilization.
Option b is incorrect. A form of sexual reproduction in which two parent organisms combine genetic
material to produce offspring. It produces genetically unique offspring. This process involves the fusion
of gametes (sperm and egg), which is not characteristic of parthenogenesis.
Option c is incorrect. A form of asexual reproduction in which an organism splits into two equal-sized
offspring refers to binary fission. It is common in prokaryotic organisms like bacteria. In binary fission,
the organism divides into two equal-sized cells, each becoming a new organism. This process does not
involve the development of an egg without fertilization.
Option d is correct. Parthenogenesis is a form of asexual reproduction in which an egg develops into an
individual without being fertilized by a sperm. This form of reproduction is seen in some plants,
invertebrates (like bees and ants), and a few vertebrates (like some reptiles and fish). It results in offspring
that are genetically similar to the parent.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/drosophila-species-parthenogenesis-genetic-
modification/article67938538.ece
https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/lebo101.pdf
https://ncert.nic.in/desm/pdf/desm_biology.pdf
Topic:) Parthenogenesis
Subtopic:)
Q.96)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, which added Part IX-A to the Constitution, provides
for the reservation of seats in municipalities.
Statement 1 is correct. The Constitution of India under Article 243T (1) provides for the reservation of
seats for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in every municipality in proportion to their
population in the municipal area.
Statement 2 is correct. The Constitution of India under Article 243T (2) mandates that not less than
one-third of the total number of seats in every municipality are reserved for women. This includes the
seats reserved for women belonging to the SCs and STs.
Statement 3 is correct. The Constitution of India under Article 243T (6) states the state legislature is
empowered to provide for the manner of reservation of offices of chairpersons in municipalities for SCs,
STs, and women.
Source: Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth Chapter - Municipalities
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Municipalities
Subtopic:)
[51]
Q.97)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
Electoral reforms in India have been guided by various committees, including the Dinesh Goswami
Committee (1990), the Indrajit Gupta Committee (1998), and the National Commission to Review the
Working of the Constitution chaired by M.N. Venkatachaliah (2002).
Option 1. The voting age was reduced from 21 years to 18 years by the 61st Constitutional Amendment
Act, 1988, which came into force on March 28, 1989. This amendment was made to provide the youth of
the country an opportunity to participate in the electoral process.
Option 2. The Election Commission of India decided to issue photo identity cards to electors throughout
the country in 1993 to curb electoral malpractices like bogus voting and impersonation.
Option 3. The Election Commission introduced Braille signage features in EVMs during the General
Elections to the 15th Lok Sabha in 2009 to facilitate visually impaired voters.
Option 4. The “None of the Above” (NOTA) option was introduced in India in 2013 by a ruling of the
Supreme Court. This option allows voters to express their disapproval of listed candidates by selecting
NOTA on the ballot.
Hence, the correct chronological order is:
1) Lowering of voting age from 21 years to 18 years - 1989
2) Introduction of Elector's Photo Identity Card (EPIC) - 1993
3) Introduction of Braille signage features in EVMs – 2009
4) Introduction of None of the Above (NOTA) option – 2013
Source: Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth Chapter - Electoral Reforms
https://ceopuducherry.py.gov.in/admin/important_instruction/202403140507081753315139.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Elections
Subtopic:)
Q.98)
Ans) c
According to Article 243G of the Constitution the State Legislature may endow the Panchayats with
such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as institutions of self-
government.
Statement 1 is correct. According to Article 243G of the Indian Constitution, the State Legislature may
endow Panchayats with powers necessary for self-government, which includes preparing plans for
economic development and social justice, thereby enabling them to effectively implement schemes
related to these areas as entrusted to them.
Statement 2 is correct. The public distribution system is indeed one of the 29 functions listed in the
Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution that can be devolved to Panchayats by the State Legislature.
Source: Indian Polity - by Laxmikanth -Panchayati Raj
Subject:) Polity
Subtopic:)
Q.99)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
[52]
The Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971, specifies certain acts that are considered
disrespectful and are punishable under the law. Various offenses included are under
1) Offence of insulting the National Flag
2) Offence of insulting the Constitution of India
3) Offence of preventing the singing of National Anthem
Option 1 is correct. The act of burning the national flag is covered under section 2 of The Prevention of
Insults to National Honour Act, 1971.
Option 2 is incorrect. The act of assaulting a member of the Parliament is not covered under The
Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971.
Option 3 is incorrect. The act of using the national emblem for commercial purposes is not an offence
under The Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971.
Option 4 is incorrect. According to the section 2 of The Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act,
1971, criticism of the Constitution or of the Indian National Flag or of any measures of the Government
with a view to obtain an amendment of the Constitution of India or an alteration of the Indian National
Flag by lawful means do not constitute an offence under this section.
Option 5 is correct. According to the explanation 4 (e) (ii) to the section 2 of The Prevention of Insults to
National Honour Act, 1971, the disrespect to the Indian National Flag means and includes using the Indian
National Flag by embroidering or printing it on cushions, handkerchiefs, napkins,
undergarments or any dress material.
Source: The Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971
www.indiacode.nic.in/bitstream/123456789/15401/1/insults_to_national_honour_act%2C_1971.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Miscellaneous
Subtopic:)
Q.100)
Ans) b
The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999, governs the registration
and protection of geographical indications (GIs) in India. The duration of GI registration is valid for ten
years. A GI tag is conferred upon products originating from a specific geographical region, signifying
unique characteristics and qualities.
Pair 1 is incorrect. The famous Rupa Tarakasi, or silver filigree work of Odisha’s Cuttack, has received
the geographical indication (GI) tag. Silver filigree work is of intricate design and fine craftsmanship. In
Odia, “tara” means wire and “kasi” means to design. Thus, as part of Rupa Tarakasi, silver bricks are
transformed into thin fine wires or foils and used to create jewellery or showpieces.
[53]
Pair 2 is correct. Narasapur crochet lace craft of the Godavari region of Andhra Pradesh has got the
Geographical Indications (GI) tag. It has intricate form of needlework. Narsapur crochet lace is
characterized by its delicate patterns and fine quality. The lace is made from thin cotton thread and
crocheted using tiny hooks.
Pair 3 is correct. Risa’ textiles from Tripura got its GI Tag. The traditional Tripuri female attire consists
of three parts — risa, rignai and rikutu. Risa is a handwoven cloth used as a female upper garment, and
also as headgear, a stole, or a present to express respect. As an upper garment, it is wrapped around the
torso twice. Rignai is primarily worn as the lower garment and literally means ‘to wear’. It can be
understood as an indigenous variety of the sari of mainland India. Rituku is mainly used as a wrap, or like
a ‘chunri’ or a ‘pallu’ of the Indian saree.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-culture/cuttacks-silver-filigree-
work-gi-tag-9198045/ https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/narasapur-
crochet-lace-craft-gets-geographical-indication-tag/article67912994.ece
https://indianexpress.com/article/india/tripura-traditional-attire-risa-gi-tag-manik-saha-9193575/
Topic:) Geographical Indication
Subtopic:)
[54]

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PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211203 |

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Delimitation Commission is not a Constitutional body, rather it is a

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