Biology Board Papers & Question Bank
Biology Board Papers & Question Bank
Biology Board Papers & Question Bank
General Instructions:
The question paper is divided into four sections.
(1) Section A: Q. No. 1 contains Ten multiple choice type of questions carrying one mark each. Evaluation will
be done for the first attempt only.
Q. No. 2 contains Eight very short answer type of questions carrying one mark each.
(2) Section B: Q. No. 3 to 14 are short answer type of questions carrying two marks each. (Attempt any Eight)
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(3) Section C: Q. No. 15 to 26 are short answer type of questions carrying three marks each. (Attempt any Eight)
(4) Section D: Q. No. 27 to 31 are long answer type of questions carrying four marks each. (Attempt any Three)
(5) Begin the answer of each section on a new page.
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SECTION A
Q.1. Select and write the correct answer for the following multiple choice type of questions: [10]
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i. Identify the growth hormone in plants which causes inhibitory effect.
(A) Cytokinins (B) Abscisic acid (C) Gibberellin (D) Ethylene
ii. Which one of the following is not a part of lac operon?
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(A) Promoter (B) Regulator (C) Inducer (D) Operator
iii. In absence of fertilization, corpus luteum degenerates into _______.
(A) tunica albuginea (B) membrana granulosa
(C) zona pellucida (D) corpus albicans
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iv. Which of the following divides nasal cavity?
(A) Hyaline cartilage (B) Mesethmoid cartilage
(C) Ligamentum arteriosum (D) Laryngopharynx
v. Which of the following is caused by unsterilized needle?
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Area
(A) Line ‘A’ represent S-CA2 (B) Line ‘B’ represents log C = log A + Z log S
(C) Line ‘A’ represents S = CAZ (D) Line ‘B’ represent log S = log Z + C log A
1
Biology
Q.2. Answer the following questions: [8]
i. What are vestigeal organs?
ii. Expand the term ZIFT.
iii. Give the name of endocrine gland which is prominent at birth but gets gradually atrophied in
adult stage.
iv. What is the full form of IAA?
v. Give the name of microbial source of antibiotic chloromycetin.
vi. Which cells of islets of Langerhans produce a hormone insulin?
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vii. How many meiotic divisions are required for the formation of 300 seeds in angiosperm?
viii. Explain the term Emigration.
SECTION B
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Attempt any EIGHT of the following questions: [16]
Q.3. What are the reasons for the success of Mendel?
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Q.4. Arrange the following steps of DNA fingerprinting in correct sequence :
i. Gel electrophoresis lic
ii. Isolation of DNA
iii. Southern blotting
iv. Restriction digestion
Q.5. Distinguish between human sperm and ovum.
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Q.6. Enlist the uses of gene therapy.
Q.7. Define the following terms:
i. Gene flow
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A
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B
Q.10. Describe mutualism.
Q.11. Explain the factors affecting water absorption.
Q.12. What is differentiation and redifferentiation?
Q.13. Select and rewrite appropriate disorder of respiratory system with the given symptoms:
[sinusitis, emphysema, silicosis and asbestosis, laryngitis]
i. Breakdown of alveoli, shortness of breath.
ii. Inflammation of the sinuses, mucous discharge.
ii. Inflammation of larynx, vocal cord, sore throat, hoarseness of voice, mucous build up and cough.
Q.14. Explain the steps involved in preliminary treatment of sewage.
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Board Question Paper: March 2024
SECTION C
Attempt any EIGHT of the following questions: [24]
Q.15. Give the different steps involved in formation of m-RNA from hn-RNA.
Q.16. What is reproductive isolation? Describe any two types each of pre-mating and post-mating
isolating mechanism.
Q.17. Explain unique features of acquired immunity.
Q.18. Name and describe hormones secreted by ovaries.
Q.19. Explain different steps involved in PCR technique.
Q.20.
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A B C
Identify A, B and C from the above diagrams and give their functions.
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Q.21. What are the limitations of root pressure theory?
Q.22. Explain green house effect with reference to gases responsible for it and their sources.
Q.23. Describe physiological effects and applications of ethylene.
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Q.24. Give the name and type of I, IV and VII cranial nerves.
Q.25. Describe pyramid of energy with the help of diagram.
Q.26. What is lac? Enlist economic importance of lac.
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SECTION D
Attempt any THREE of the following questions: [12]
Q.27. Describe histological structure of Testis with well labelled diagram.
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Q.28. What are chromosomal disorders? Describe Turner’s syndrome and Klinefelter’s syndrome.
Q.29. Describe nervous system in Planaria with well labelled diagram.
Q.30. Explain following terms:
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i. Grafting
ii. Apomixis
iii. Polyembryony
iv. Pathenocarpy
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Q.31. Interpret the given diagrams A and B. Enlist the changes occurring during inspiration and
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expiration.
Air Air
A B
3
Board Question Paper: July 2023
General Instructions:
The question paper is divided into four sections.
(1) Section A: Q. No. 1 contains Ten multiple choice type of questions carrying one mark each.
(i) For each multiple choice type of question, it is mandatory to write the correct answer along
with its alphabet, e.g., (A) ……. / (B) ……. / (C) ……. / (D) ……. etc. No mark/s shall be
given if ONLY the correct answer or alphabet of the correct answer is written.
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(ii) In case of MCQ, evaluation will be done for the first attempt only.
Q. No. 2 Contains Eight very short answer type of questions carrying one mark each.
(2) Section B: Q. No. 3 to 14 are short answer type of questions carrying two marks each. (Attempt any
Eight)
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(3) Section C: Q. No. 15 to 26 are short answer type of questions carrying three marks each. (Attempt any
Eight)
(4) Section D: Q. No. 27 to 31 are long answer type of questions carrying four marks each. (Attempt any
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Three)
(5) Begin the answer of each section on a new page.
SECTION − A
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Q.1. Select the correct alternatives and write the answers: [10]
i. If members of two populations have difference in the structure of reproductive organs, then this type
of isolation is called _______.
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(A) ethological (B) seasonal
(C) mechanical (D) habitat
ii. The primary precursor of Indole-3-Acetic acid is _______.
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(C) 32 (D) 64
iv. The specific gravity of CSF is _______.
(A) 1.005 (B) 1.02
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v. Cardiac output of a person is 5400 ml and heart rate 72 per min. What will be his stroke volume?
(A) 65 ml (B) 74 ml
(C) 75 ml (D) 78 ml
vi. Detritus food chain starts from _______.
(A) producers (B) dead organic matter
(C) parasite (D) photosynthesis
vii. Plants absorb _______ water.
(A) gravitational (B) capillary
(C) combined (D) hygroscopic
viii. The organisms having tolerance for wide range of salinity are called _______.
(A) stenothermal (B) euryhaline
(C) stenohaline (D) eurythermal
1
Biology
ix. Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed by crossing _______.
(A) Bikaneri ram and Marino ewe (B) Bikaneri ram and Bikaneri ewe
(C) Marino ram and Bikaneri ewe (D) Marino ewe and Marino ram
x. Perforins are secreted by _______.
(A) Helper T-cells (B) Cytotoxic T-cells
(C) Suppressor T-cells (D) Memory T-cells
Q.2. Answer the following questions: [8]
i. Mention the chromosome number having the mutated gene for β-Thalassemia.
ii. Which organ produces calcitriol?
iii. If the megaspore mother cell has 26 chromosomes, what will be the total number of
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chromosomes in endosperm of the same plant?
iv. Define the term − Facilitated diffusion.
v. Give reason − Energy pyramid is always upright.
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vi. What will be the base sequence on the template strand of DNA, which codes for methionine?
vii. Deficiency of which element causes Brown heart disease in plants?
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viii. Where are the cells of Rauber situated in the blastocyst of human embryo?
lic SECTION − B
Attempt any EIGHT of the following questions: [16]
Q.3. i. Give one example each of:
a. Autosomal dominant traits
b. Autosomal recessive traits
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ii. If a carrier woman marries a colorblind man, what will be the phenotype of their progeny?
Show in the form of a chart.
Q.4. Sketch the appropriate diagrams showing following chromosomal aberrations:
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i. deletion
ii. inversion
Q.5. Observe the following diagram of double circulation and identify A, B, C and D:
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A B
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Right Left
ventricle ventricle
D C
Q.6. i. Select the names of fresh-water fishes from the given list:
Sardinella, Rastrelliger, Cirrhina, Harpadon, Labeo
ii. Write the economic importance of Lac (Any Two).
Q.7. i. Define the term − Ecological succession.
ii. What is the reason of eutrophication?
Q.8. i. Mention any two ill-effects of UV-rays on human beings.
ii. Give significance of Ecosan.
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Board Question Paper: July 2023
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Attempt any EIGHT of the following questions: [24]
Q.15. i. Define − Palaeontology.
ii. Give any four points of significance of palaeontology.
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Q.16. i. What is pollination?
ii. Differentiate between Anaemophily and Entomophily with reference to :
a. pollinating agent
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b. stigma
c. nectar
d. fragrance lic
Q.17. i. Differentiate between hypotonic and hypertonic solutions.
ii. Mention the effect of exo-osmosis and endo-osmosis on shape of the cell.
iii. Give one difference between symplast and apoplast pathway.
Q.18. i. Mention the control measures to prevent ascariasis.
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ii. With appropriate terms, complete the following chart and rewrite it.
Sr. No. Name of disease Name of pathogen
_____ _____
a. ? Entamoeba histolytica
_____ _____
b. Typhoid ?
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_____ _____
c. ? Wuchereria bancrofti
_____ _____
d. ? Plasmodium species
Q.19. i. Define − Adaptation.
ii. Explain any two adaptations in Opuntia and Seal.
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Q.20. Match the disease resistant varieties given in Column-I with the crops in Column-II and rewrite:
Column-I Column-II
i. Himgiri a. Chilli
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Biology
Q.25. i. Mention the position of the following in human heart:
a. Eustachian valve
b. Bicuspid valve
ii. Differentiate between open and closed circulation with reference to:
a. blood pressure
b. exchange of material
Q.26. Draw a neat and proportionate diagram of Graafian follicle and label oocyte and antrum. Explain its
structure in brief.
SECTION − D
Attempt any THREE of the following questions: [12]
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Q.27. i. What is placenta?
ii. Give reason − Placenta is considered as a temporary endocrine gland.
iii. Give significance of hCG.
Q.28. Describe in brief the structural and hormonal changes during ovarian cycle.
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Q.29. i. Name the formed elements which are useful in blood coagulation. Give its normal number per
cubic milimeter (mm3) in human blood.
ii. Comment on the shape and secretion of the above mentioned formed elements.
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iii. Explain in brief the mechanism of blood coagulation.
Q.30. i. Give full form of the cloning vectors BAC and YAC.
ii. Write the appropriate palindrome for Eco RI and indicate by an arrow its recognition sequence.
iii.
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Give any four uses of gene therapy.
Q.31. Explain any four contrivances to prevent self pollination in plants with an appropriate example of
each type.
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Board Question Paper: March 2023
General Instructions:
The question paper is divided into four sections.
(1) Section A: Q. No. 1 contains Ten multiple choice type of questions carrying one mark each.
(i) For each multiple choice type of question, it is mandatory to write the correct answer along with its
alphabet, e.g., (A) ……. / (B) ……. / (C) ……. / (D) ……. etc. No mark/s shall be given if ONLY the
correct answer or alphabet of the correct answer is written.
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(ii) In case of MCQ, evaluation will be done for the first attempt only.
Q. No. 2 contains Eight very short answer type of questions carrying one mark each.
(2) Section B: Q. No. 3 to 14 are short answer type of questions carrying two marks each. (Attempt any Eight)
(3) Section C: Q. No. 15 to 26 are short answer type of questions carrying three marks each. (Attempt any Eight)
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(4) Section D: Q. No. 27 to 31 are long answer type of questions carrying four marks each. (Attempt any Three)
(5) Begin the answer of each section on a new page.
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SECTION A
Q.1. Select and write the correct answer for the following multiple choice type of questions: [10]
i. Histones are rich in _______.
(A) Lysine and Arginine
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(C) Serine and Leucine (D) Phenyl alanine and Lysine
ii. How many mitotic divisions take place during the formation of a female gametophyte from a
functional megaspore?
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(A) One (B) Two
(C) Three (D) Four
iii. Which of the following is the only gaseous plant growth regulator?
(A) ABA (B) Cytokinin
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Biology
Q.2. Answer the following questions: [8]
i. Which disease is caused by HPV?
ii. Which device is used to clean both dust and gases from polluted air?
iii. Mention the name of sterile animal produced by intergeneric hybridisation.
iv. Give the name of first transgenic plant.
v. A child has low BMR, delayed puberty and mental retardation. Identify the disease.
vi. Identify ‘A’ in the given graph of population growth:
‘A’
(size or weight of the organism)
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Growth
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Lag phase
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Time
vii. Complete the following box with reference to symptoms of mineral deficiency:
Pre-mature fall of flowers,
Abscission
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fruits and leaves
Appearance of green and
non-green patches on leaves
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viii. Give an example of plant having both kidney and dumb-bell shaped guard cells in stomata.
SECTION B
Attempt any EIGHT of the following questions: [16]
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and re-write.
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2
Board Question Paper: March 2023
Q.10. Complete the following chart regarding energy flow in an Ecosystem and re-write:
? Herbivores
Primary Producer ?
? Man, Lion
Secondary consumer ?
Q.11. i. What is biofortification?
ii. Mention one example each of fortification with reference to –
a. Amino acid content b. Vitamin-C content
Q.12. Differentiate between X-chromosome and Y-chromosome with reference to –
i. length of non-homologous regions
ii. type as per position of centromere.
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Q.13. Define the terms:
i. Genetic drift
ii. Homologous organs
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Q.14. i. What is ex-situ conservation?
ii. Mention any two places where the ex-situ conservation is undertaken.
SECTION C
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Attempt any EIGHT of the following questions: [24]
Q.15. i. Define – Incomplete dominance.
ii.
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If a red flowered Mirabilis jalapa plant is crossed with a white flowered plant, what will be
the phenotypic ratio in F2 generation? Show it by a chart.
Q.16. i. Differentiate between sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system with reference to the
following:
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a. Pre and post ganglionic nerve fibres.
b. Effect on heart beat.
ii. Give reason – All spinal nerves are of mixed type.
Q.17. i. Draw a suitable diagram of replication of eukaryotic DNA and label any three parts.
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ii. How many amino acids will be there in the polypeptide chain formed on the following
mRNA?
5GCCACAUGGAGAUGACGACAAAAUUUUACUAGAAAA3
Q.18. Describe the steps in breathing.
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ii. Which fossil animal is considered as the connecting link between reptiles and birds? Give any
one character of each class found in it.
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Q.21. Complete the following chart regarding population interaction and re-write:
Sr. No. Name of interaction Interaction between
_____ _____
1 ? Plasmodium and Man
_____ _____
2 ? Leopard and Lion
_____ _____
3 ? Clown fish and Sea-anemone
Q.22. i. What is composition of bio-gas?
ii. Mention any four benefits of bio-gas.
Q.23. i. Give reason – Water acts as thermal buffer.
ii. Draw a neat and proportionate diagram of root hair and label mitochondria, nucleus and
vacuole.
Q.24. Explain three main functions of free antibodies produced by B-lymphocytes.
3
Biology
Q.25. i. Following are the diagrams of entry of pollen tube into ovule. Identify the type A and B.
Pollen tube
embryo sac
Pollen tube
Funicle
A B
ii. Give any four points of significance of double fertilization.
Q.26. i. Name the hormone which is responsible for apical dominance.
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ii. A farmer wants to remove broad-leaved weeds from the jowar plantation in his field. Suggest
any plant hormone to remove such weeds.
iii. Mention any two applications of cytokinin.
SECTION D
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Attempt any THREE of the following questions: [12]
Q.27. i. What is blood pressure?
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ii. Give the name of the instrument which is used to measure the blood pressure.
iii. Differentiate between an artery and a vein with reference to lumen and thickness of wall.
Q.28. i. Describe any three adaptations in anemophilous flowers.
ii.
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Mention any one example of the anemophilous flower.
Describe any three adaptations in hydrophilous flowers.
Mention any one example of the hydrophilous flower.
Q.29. i. What is polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?
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ii. Describe three steps involved in mechanism of PCR.
Q.30. i. Give any four significances of fertilization in human.
ii. Mention the names of any two organs each derived from ectoderm and mesoderm.
tP
4
\ Board Question Paper: July 2022
General Instructions:
The question paper is divided into four sections.
(1) Section A: Q. No. 1 contains Ten multiple choice type of questions carrying one mark each.
(i) For each multiple choice type of question, it is mandatory to write the correct
answer along with its alphabet, e.g., (a) ……. / (b) ……. / (c) ……. / (d) ……. etc.
No mark/s shall be given if ONLY the correct answer or alphabet of the correct
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answer is written.
(ii) In case of MCQ, evaluation will be done for the first attempt only.
Q. No. 2 contains Eight very short answer type of questions carrying one mark
each.
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(2) Section B: Q. No. 3 to 14 are short answer type of questions carrying two marks each.
(3) Section C: Q. No. 15 to 26 are short answer type of questions carrying three marks each.
(4) Section D: Q. No. 27 to 31 are long answer type of questions carrying four marks each.
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(5) Begin the answer of each section on a new page.
SECTION − A
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Q.1. Select and write the correct answer for the following multiple choice type of questions: [10]
(i) In lac operon the structural gene z codes for _______ enzyme.
(a) β-galactosidase (b) β-galactoside permease
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(c) transacetylase (d) RNA polymerase
(ii) The special hygroscopic tissue found in the aerial roots of some epiphytic plants is _______.
(a) velamen (b) epiblema
(c) endodermis (d) xylem
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(iii) Due to specific mating behaviour, the members of population do not mate in _______ type of
isolation.
(a) Ecological (b) Seasonal
(c) Ethological (d) Mechanical
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(iv) The sequence of nitrogenous bases on DNA molecule is ATCGA. Which of the following is
the correct complementary sequence of nitrogenous bases on mRNA Molecule?
(a) TAGCT (b) TAGCA
(c) UAGCU (d) UACGU
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(v) The oral vaccine for prevention of typhoid recommended by WHO is _______.
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(ix) Which of the following sets or organisms are used as cloning organisms in plant
biotechnology?
(a) E.coli and Rhizobium (b) E.coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(c) Azobacterium and Rhizobium (d) E.coli and Azobacterium
(x) Aspergillus niger is the microbial source of _______.
(a) Vitamin C (b) Vitamin B2
(c) Vitamin B12 (d) Vitamin B6
Q.2. Answer the following questions: [8]
(i) Write the name of the small molecule required to initiate / start the process of synthesis of
new complementary strand during replication of DNA.
(ii) Name the country where industrial melanism was observed in moths due to industrialization.
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(iii) Give the other name for epidermal cells in roots of plants.
(iv) Name the hormone used for early rooting in propagation by cutting.
(v) In human pharynx, there is a set of lymphoid organs called _______.
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(vi) State the other name for Dentist’s nerve.
(vii) Name the type of Mycorrhiza that grows in between and within the cortical cells of root.
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(viii) Identify the part labelled ‘A’ in the given diagram:
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SECTION − B
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Q.5. A woman is unable to conceive due to blockage in her upper segment of oviduct. State the infertility
treatment to be given to her and describe it.
Q.6. Identify the types of chromosomal aberrations in the following figures A, B, C, D:
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A B C D E FG H A BCE FGH
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A B C D E FG H A BC B C D E F GH
B
A B C DE FG H AD CB E FG H
C
AB C D E FGH M N OC D E F G H
D
Q.7. The process of transcription takes place on a part of DNA molecule known as transcription unit.
Draw a well labelled diagram of the same showing different regions of the unit.
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\ Board Question Paper: July 2022
Q.8. Identify labels A, B, C, D:
I
Multiplication
Phase
(Mitotic
divisions)
II A
Growth B
Phase
I Polar body (n)
III
Maturation
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Phase
D
C
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Column I Column II
(a) Connecting link between ape and man (1) Homo erectus
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(b) Ape man (2) Homo habilis
(c) Handy man like (3) Neanderthal man
(d) Advanced prehistoric man (4) Australopithecus
S-T
+1 segment
Millivolts
T
A
0
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-1
0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0 1.2 1.4 1.6
Time (sec)
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Q.14. The following diagram indicates which type of interaction? Write a note on the same.
Alga
3
Biology
SECTION − C
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Q.18. Complete the following chart and rewrite:
Blood Group Genotype Antigen on the Surface of RBC Antibody in serum
A IAIA or IAIO – –
– IBIB or IBIO B a
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AB – A and B (Nil)
– IOIO (Nil) –
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Q.19. Explain the various steps of biogas production.
Q.20. How ‘melt in mouth’ vaccines are administered? Mention any two benefits of the same.
Q.21. Enumerate or enlist the various levels of biodiversity. Explain any one of it.
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Q.22. Write down various sequential stages of hydrarch succession in plants after phytoplankton stage.
Q.23. With the help of a suitable example, write the mechanism of hormone action through membrane
receptors.
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Q.24. Classify the given proteins produced by rDNA technology to treat various diseases in human and
rewrite as shown in the table:
Disorders / Diseases / Health Conditions Recombinant Protein (s)
Atherosclerosis Platelet derived growth factor
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Anaemia
Parturition
Blood clots
Diabetes
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Haemophilia A
Haemophilia B
(Factor VIII, Insulin, Relaxin, Factor IX, Erythropoietin, Tissue plasminogen activator)
Q.25. Write a note on transport of carbon dioxide by bicarbonate ions at tissue level.
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Q.26. Anita observed apical dominance in her plant. Name and describe the plant hormone that will
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SECTION − D
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tP
r ge
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5
Board Question Paper: March 2022
General Instructions:
The question paper is divided into four sections.
1. Section A: Q. No. 1 contains Ten multiple choice type of questions carrying one mark each.
i. For each multiple choice type of question, it is mandatory to write the correct answer along
with its alphabet, e.g., (a) ……. / (b) ……. / (c) ……. / (d) ……. etc. No mark/s shall be
given if ONLY the correct answer or alphabet of the correct answer is written.
ii. In case of MCQ, evaluation will be done for the first attempt only.
Q. No. 2 contains Eight very short answer type of questions carrying one mark each.
2. Section B: Q. No. 3 to 14 are short answer type of questions carrying two marks each.
3. Section C: Q. No. 15 to 26 are short answer type of questions carrying three marks each.
4. Section D: Q. No. 27 to 31 are long answer type of questions carrying four marks each.
5. Begin the answer of each section on a new page.
SECTION A
Q.1. Select and write the correct answer for the following multiple choice type of questions: [10]
i. How many meiotic and mitotic divisions occur during the development of male gametophyte from
the microspore mother cell?
(A) One meiotic and two mitotic
(B) Two meiotic only
(C) Two mitotic only
(D) One mitotic and one meiotic
ii. During replication of DNA, the separated strands are prevented from recoiling by using _______.
(A) single strand binding protein (B) reverse transcriptase
(C) endonuclease (D) polymerase
iii.
A B C DE FG H A D CB E FG H
1
Time
viii. What do you mean by Pioneer species?
SECTION B
Attempt any EIGHT of the following questions: [16]
Q.3. Identify A, B, C, D, in the given diagram of human reproductive system:
C
D
B
Q.4. Identify chromosomal disorder caused due to non-disjunction of 21st number of chromosome and
enlist its symptoms.
Q.5. Write the aims of human genome project.
Q.6. Match the parts of ovule given in column I with parts of seed given in column II:
Column I Column II
(a) egg (1) testa
(b) nucellus (2) tegmen
(c) outer integument (3) perisperm
(d) inner integument (4) embryo
2
Board Question Paper: March 2022
Heart
Right
atrium
Lungs Body organs
Left
ventricle
3
Q.30. Explain the law of dominance and compare how it differs from incomplete dominance and
co-dominance.
Q.31. Describe hormonal control in various phases of menstrual cycle.
4
महारा शासन
द.ु ०२०२४४७६९३८ शालेय श ण व डा वभाग
Email- रा य शै णक संशोधन व श ण प रषद,महारा
sciencedept@maa.ac.in ७०८ सदा शव पेठ, कुमठे कर माग, पण
ु े ४११०३०.
इय ा:- बारावी
मा यम:- इं जी
सच
ू ना-
1
Subject -BIOLOGY (56)
INDEX
E
5. ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION OF LIFE 15
N
7. PLANT GROWTH AND MINERAL NUTRITION 21
12. BIOTECHNOLOGY 41
2
1. REPRODUCTION IN LOWER AND HIGHER PLANTS
E
female gametophyte in angiosperms is...
A. 1 meiosis and 2 mitosis
N
B. 1 mitosis and 3 meiosis
C. 1 meiosis and 1 mitosis
D. 1 meiosis and 3 mitosis.
4
U
Identify the odd one with respect to pollinating agent.
A. Baobab
B. Bottle brush
,P
C. Kadamb
D. Sausage
5 In vitro pollen germination and pollen tube elongation can be induced by—
A. boric acid
M
B. glucose
C. lactose
D. sucrose
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C. micropyle
D. stigma
8 ……… is an example of helobial endosperm.
A. Adoxa
B. coconut
C. Asphodelus
D. sunflower
9 The single shield shaped cotyledon in monocot seed is known as ……
A. coleoptile
B. scutellum
C. aleurone layer
D. perisperm
10 The example of dicot endospermic seed is ….
A. castor B. pea
C. mango D. bean
3
11 Grafting is not possible in monocots because of ---
A. scattered vascular bundles
B. open vascular bundles
C. radial vascular bundles
D. absence of cambium
12 Conidia formation is commonly seen in
A. Amoeba
B. Paramecium
C. Sponges
D. Penicillium
13 Which of the following is not the method of asexual reproduction?
A. Budding
B. Fragmentation
C. Sowing
D. Binary fission
E
14 The plant part used for raising stem in grafting is –
A. Scion
B. Stock
N
C. Leafy shoot
D. Any plant part
1 What is reproduction?
U
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (1 MARK EACH)
,P
2. What are clones?
3 Give example of organism which produces zoospore.
4 Why anther is called as tetrasporangiate structure?
M
5 At which stage pollen grains are shed from the anther in Angiosperms?
6 What is hilum with respect to ovule?
7 What is protandry?
8 Name any one plant in which double fertilization was discovered?
RT
4
SHORT ANSWER TYPE (SA-II) QUESTIONS (3 MARKS EACH)
E
12 Explain various categories of apomixis.
N
1 Explain various horticultural methods of vegetative reproduction with the help of
labelled diagram.
2
3
U
Describe the structure of anatropus ovule with the help of labelled diagram.
Describe the development of female gametophyte of angiosperms with the help
of diagram.
,P
4 Give an account of various abiotic agencies used in pollination along with their
adaptations for pollination.
5 Give an account of pollen pistil interaction in detail.
M
6 Describe the process of double fertilization in angiosperms and add a note on its
significance.
E RT
SC
5
2. REPRODUCTION IN LOWER AND HIGHER ANIMALS
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 MARK EACH)
1 The primary sex organ in human males is
A. prostate gland
B. seminal vesicle
C. penis
D. testis
2 Seminal fluid is ------- in nature.
A. acidic
B. neutral
C. sugary
D. alkaline
3 Which of the following is not a part of uterus?
A. body
B. cervix
E
C. fundus
D. cornua
4 Meanrch, menstrual cycle and menopause are controlled by-----
N
A. thyrotropic hormone
B. gonadotropic hormone
C. somatotropic hormone
5
D. corticotropin
Nebenkern is ---------
A. acrosome of sperm
U
,P
B. neck of sperm
C. middle piece of sperm
D. mitochondrion of sperm
M
D. mesoderm
7 The average period of pregnancy in human lasts for……. days of pregnancy.
A. 280
B. 270
C. 266
E
D. 290
8 ……… is not a permanent method of birth control.
A. vasectomy
SC
B. tubectomy
C. withdrawal
D. castration
9 The organism which causes Gonorrhoea is……
A. Trepenoma
B. Neisseria
C. Entamoeaba
D. Salmonella
10 How many pairs of testis are present in human male?
A. 2 pairs
B. 1 pair
C. only one testis
D. only one ovary
6
11. The animals produced by asexual reproduction are ................ to their
parents.
A. genetically similar
B. morphologically similar
C. morphologically and genetically similar
D. neither morphologically nor genetically similar
E
D. Planaria
N
gemmule is called as
A. Archesporial cells
Archegonial cells
C. Archaeocytes
D. Sporogenous tissue
U
,P
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK EACH)
1 What is gemmule?
M
7
SHORT ANSWER TYPE (SA-I) QUESTIONS (2 MARKS EACH)
E
1 Draw a well labelled diagram of gemmule.
2 Write a note on budding.
N
3 Draw a well labelled diagram of L.S. human testis.
4 Describe the structure of Graafian follicle.
5 Write a short note on fallopian tube.
6
7
8
U
Give an account of external genitalia in human females.
Explain the structure of secondary oocyte.
Write an account of cleavage during embryonic development in humans.
,P
9 Identify the parts labelled in the given diagram.
M
E RT
8
4 Describe the histological structure of human ovary (diagram not expected).
5 Explain the structure of human sperm with labelled diagram.
6 Describe the process of oogenesis in human female.
7 Write a note on implantation.
8 Human pregnancy shows three prominent trimesters. Answer the following
E
question based on these trimester.
i) What is morning sickness during first trimester?
N
ii) Name the hormone secrete in second trimester.
iii) The organ which secretes hormone in second trimester is…
9 Explain the process of parturition.
10
11 U
Explain any three measures to achieve goals of RCH.
Explain any three methods that can be used to overcome infertility.
,P
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS(LA) (4 MARKS EACH)
reproductive system.
2 Explain ovarian cycle with its different phases.
3 Describe the process of spermatogenesis with the help of a diagram.
4 Explain mechanism of fertilization in humans.
RT
9
3. INHERITANCE AND VARIATION
E
pink .This is an example of
A. Dominant -recessive
B. Incomplete dominance
N
C. Hybrid
D. Supplementary genes
4 The word chromosome was coined by
A. Benda
B. Waldeyer
C. Robert Hooke
U
,P
D. T.H.Morgan
5 Nullisomy is represented by.....
A. (2n-1)
M
B. (2n-2)
C.(2n+1)
D.(2n+2)
6 Identify the odd one:-
RT
A. Monoploidy
B.Diploidy
C.Polyploidy
D.Hyperploidy
7 In humans, the sex chromosome complement is
E
A.XX-XY
B. XX-XO
C.ZZ-ZO
SC
D. ZW-ZZ
8 A family has five daughters and expecting sixth child. The chance of its beings
a son is ……
A. zero
B.25%
C.50%
D. 100%
9 In human beings 45 chromosomes/single X/XO abnormality causes
A. Down's syndrome
B. Klinfelter's syndrome
C. Turner's syndrome
D. Edward's syndrome
10 Webbed neck is characteristic of … syndrome.
A.XXX B. YY
C. XXY D. XO
10
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK EACH)
1 Define inheritance.
2 What is allelomorph?
3 What is test cross?
4 Define euploidy.
5 Give an example of complete linkage.
6 How many linkage groups are present in Drosophila melanogaster?
7 Which genes show straight inheritance?
8 How drones are produced in honey bees?
9 What is the reason for 21st trisomy?
10 Give the example of X- monosomy you have studied.
E
1 Discuss any two points due to which Mendel got success in his experiment?
2 Give any two points of difference between homozygous and heterozygous.
N
3 Explain test cross with suitable example and state its ratios.
4 Give an account of incomplete dominance with suitable example.
5 Explain codominance in colour coat in cattle with checker board method.
6
7
8
Write a note on sex linkage.
U
Write an account of chromosomal theory of inheritance.
1 Enlist dominant and recessive characters in pea plant with respect to position of
flower, colour of seed and colour of pod in tabulated form.
RT
6 Write a note on bleeder’s disease and its inheritance with a suitable chart.
7 Explain the mechanism of sex determination in humans with suitable chart.
8 Write a note on Down’s syndrome.
SC
9 What are the different characters that develop due to Klinfelter’s syndrome?
10 Give reasons for development of Turner’s syndrome and also mention its
symptoms.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (LA) (4 MARKS EACH)
1 Define inheritance. Give statements for various laws of inheritance.
2 Explain intragenic and intergenic interaction with the help of example.
3 Explain structure of chromosomes with labelled diagram.
4 Give a detailed account of sex linked inheritance.
5 Give an account of one Mendelian and one chromosomal disorder you have
studied.
11
4. MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE
E
A Adenine
B Uracil
N
C Cytosine
D Thymine
4 If a DNA has 20 Adenine and 30 cytosine bases. What will be the total
A 20
B 50
U
number of purine bases in the given sample?
,P
C 30
D 100
5 Semiconservative mechanism of DNA was detected using:
A 35S
M
B 14C
C 32P
D 15N
RT
D GTACTAATG
7 During DNA replication, the separated strands of DNA are prevented from
recoiling by
SC
A DNA primase
B Sigma factor
C Rho-factor
D SSBP
8 In which of the following synthesis of DNA strand is not involved directly?
A m RNA
B t RNA
C Another DNA strand
D Protein
9 Wobble hypothesis is related with
A Ambiguity in codon
B Purine pyrimidine equality
C Genetic code is triplet
D Degeneracy of genetic code and economy of tRNA molecules in the cell
12
10 During elongation of polypeptide chain, sigma factor is :
A Functionless
B Retained for specific function
C Released for re-use
D Required during closing of chain
11 Enzyme required for peptide formation is :
A Peptidase
B Peptidyl transferase
C Nitrogenase
D Nitrate reductase
12 Exon segments are reunited after splicing by
A RNA primase
B RNA protease
C RNA polymerase
D RNA ligase
E
13 In lac operon, lactose acts as:
A Inducer
B Co-inducer
N
C Repressor
D Co-repressor
14 A unit of lac-operon which in the absence of lactose, suppresses the activity
of operator gene is :
A Structural gene
B Regulatory gene
U
,P
C Repressor protein
D Promoter gene
15 A DNA segment has 75 cytosine and 40 thymine nucleotides. What shall be
TM
13
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS(SA-I) (2 MARKS EACH)
E
1 Explain the Griffith’s experiment in detail with diagram.
2 Describe any three characteristics of Genetic code.
N
3 Mention any three objectives of Human Genome project.
4 Explain different step involved in DNA Fingerprinting.
5 Draw a neat and labelled diagram of transcription and processing of hn-RNA
6
7
experiment.
U
Draw a neat and labelled diagram explaining Meselson’s and Stahl’s
inducer.
10 Define Genomics. Give any two applications of genomics.
14
5. ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION OF LIFE
E
A gene pool
B gene frequency
N
C gene flow
D genetic drift
4 Transfer of a part of chromosome or set of genes to a non-homologous
A deletion
B duplication
U
chromosome is called ___________.
,P
C inversion
D translocation
5 Any random fluctuation in allele frequency, occurring in the natural population
by pure chance is called __________.
TM
A gene pool
B gene mutation
C genetic recombination
D genetic drift
6 One major criticism against Darwin’s theory is that It does not
ER
B. p2+2pq+q
C. p2+2pq+q2
D. p2+pq+q2
8 Homologous organs have ..................
A. Dissimilar ancestry and dissimilar structure
B. Similar ancestry but similar or dissimilar functions
C. Dissimilar ancestry and dissimilar function
D. Dissimilar ancestry and similar functions
9 In which epoch rise of monocots was seen?
A. Miocene
B. Oligocene
C. Eocene
D. Palaeocene
15
10 Which of the following is not the vestigial organ?
A. Third eye
B. Coccyx
C. Wisdom teeth
D. Brain
11. Wings of bird and wings of butterfly are-
A. Vestigial organ
B. Analogous organs
C. homologous organs
D. similar structures
12 The plant used by Lamarck to explain his postulates was
A. Morning prime rose
B. Pea plant
C. Evening prime rose
E
D. Drosophila
N
1 What is abiogenesis?
2 Which theory explains the continuity of life but not the origin of life?
3
4
5
What are protobionts?
U
Why ‘hot dilute soup’ did not show any degradation?
What was the proportion of methane, ammonia and hydrogen in Urey and
,P
Miller’s experiment?
6 What is the major evidence in support of RNA world hypothesis?
7 Define natural selection.
TM
8 Define mutation.
9 What is speciation?
10 Which epoch represents ‘age of mammals?
11 Define the term ‘Mendelian population’.
12 Define Gene pool.
13 Name the ancestor of human also known as man with ape brain.
ER
16
14 Distinguish New world and old-world monkeys based on their tail along with
their examples.
15 What is hybrid sterility?
16 What led to better utilization of hands for holding objects effectively and better
motor skills?
17 Describe modern man.
18 Distinguish between Australopithecus and Neanderthal man
19 Distinguish between Homo erectus and Neanderthal man
E
5 Name any three types of premating isolating mechanisms.
6 Name any three types of postmating isolating mechanisms.
7 Explain Geographical Isolation
N
8 Write down the three main concepts of modern synthetic theory.
9 What is chromosomal aberration? Give any two types of aberrations found in
the population.
10 U
Complete the table based on the special features of Human ancestors showing
their cultural and social development.
,P
Ancestors Special features
Homo erectus
Buried their dead
M
variation.
5 Explain the concept of Natural Selection with the example of Industrial
Melanism.
17
6. PLANT WATER RELATION
E
3 ______________ type of tissues are present in epiphytic roots
A Meristematic
B Parenchyma
N
C Velamen
D Epithelial
4 In the zone of absorption, epidermal cells form unicellular hair like
extensions called _________
A Epiblema cells
B Roots
U
,P
C Root hairs
D Velamen tissues
5 Outer layer of root hair is made up of _________
M
A Cellulose
B Lignin
C Starch
D Pectin
RT
C Non Permeable
D Impermeable
8 Plasma Membrane is ___________
A Selectively Permeable
B Freely Permeable
C Non Permeable
D Impermeable
9 Root hair is _____________ extension of epiblema cells
A Cytoplasmic
B Protoplasmic
C Nucleoplasmic
D Cellulosic
10 Fine soil particles imbibe or absorb water and hold it. This is called as
___________
A Hygroscopic Water
B Gravitational Water
18
C Combined Water
D Capillary Water
11 To carry put plasmolysis, a cell must be placed in
A. Pure water
B. Hypertonic water
C. Hypotonic solution
D. Hypertonic solution
12 The liquid adsorbed during imbibition is known as
A. Solid
B. Imbibant
C. Imbibate
D. Colloids
13 Water moves either by apoplast or symplast pathway across the root.
Ultimately it becomes symplastic at.
A. Pericycle
E
B. Endodermis
C. Xylem
D. Phloem
N
14 The positive hydrostatic pressure which develops due to absorption of water is
called as
A. Capillary force
B. Transpiration pull
C. Root pressure
D. Transpiration
U
,P
15 The example of amphi-stomatic leaf is
A. Nerium
B. Lotus
M
C. Grass
D. opuntia
1 Draw a neat and labelled diagram of Root tip showing root hair zone.
2 Draw a neat and labelled diagram of Root hair.
3 Write a note on morphological structure of root.
E
4 How roots can act as a water absorbing organ?
5 Why capillarity theory was discarded?
N
6 Explain the concept of water potential.
7 Explain various types of transpiration.
8
9
U
Describe the path of water across the root with the help of labelled diagram
Differentiate between passive and active absorption.
,P
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS(LA) (4 MARKS EACH)
1 Explain the structure of root hair with the help of neat and labelled diagrams.
M
20
7. PLANT GROWTH AND MINERAL NUTRITION
E
A Rice plants
B Tobacco callus
N
C Maize grains
D Human urine
4 The plant growth is oftenly described as localized due to
A. Meristem
B. Permanent tissue
C. Parenchyma only
U
,P
D. Xylem only
5 Actual visible growth is seen during
A. phase of division
B. phase of maturation
M
A. Lt=L0+ rt
B. W1=W0 . ert
C. L0 = Lt +rt
D. L0 = W0 . ert
7 The tissues formed by redifferentiation are
E
21
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS ( 1 MARK EACH)
E
12 Which enzyme is activated by iron?
13 What is the site of nitrogen fixation in BGA?
14 Name the enzyme used in transamination?
N
15 Name the element that plays major role in determination of solute
concentration.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS(SA-I) (2 MARKS)
1
2
U
What type of changes take place during elongation phase?
Identify A,B,C and D in the given diagram,
,P
M
RT
3 Give any two points of difference between exponential and sigmoid growth
E
curve.
SC
22
4
Complete the given flowchart for development.
E
N
U
,P
M
23
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS(SA-II) (3 MARKS EACH)
E
i. Which type of growth is indicated in the graph?
N
ii. What is the mathematical expression for this growth?
iii. Which plant part shows such type of growth?
3 Give the term for the following)
24
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (LA) (4 MARKS)
E
N
U
,P
M
E RT
SC
25
8. RESPIRATION AND CIRCULATION
E
__________.
A) digestion
B) circulation
N
C) excretion
D) respiration
4 The volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximum respiration is
__________.
A) 1000 to 1100 ml
B) 1100 to 1200 ml
U
,P
C) 2000 to 3000 ml
D) 5200 to 5800 ml
5 Find out the example in which due to absence of respiratory pigment transport
M
D) Human
6 Which of the following has thickest wall?
A) Right auricle
B) Right ventricle
C) Left auricle
E
D) Left ventricle
7 The phase of contraction of heart is termed as _____.
SC
A) diastole
B) systole
C) heart beat
D) heart sound
8 The free edges of cuspid valves are attached to the papillary muscles of the heart
by fibres are called ___________.
A) chordae tendinae
B) columnae carneae
C) connecting fibres
D) autorhythmic fibres
9 Ventricular depolarization is represented by __________.
A) P wave B) QRS complex C) T wave D) P and T waves
26
10 The erythropoeitic tissue in adult is mainly found in ___________.
A) kidney
B) liver
C) red bone marrow
D) spleen
11 The technique used to detect blockages in blood vessels is
A. Angiography
B. ECG
C. EEG
D. sphygmomanometer
1 Name the cartilage which divides the nasal cavity into right and left nasal
E
chambers.
2 Give the function of epiglottis.
3 Define total lung capacity.
N
4 Sachin shows symptoms of inflammation of the sinuses and mucous discharge
due to viral and bacterial infection. Identify the disorder.
5 Define haematology.
6
7
8
U
Which type of blood flows through pulmonary veins?
In between which layers of pericardium, pericardial fluid is present?
How many molecules of haemoglobin are found in each erythrocyte?
,P
9 Identify ‘A’ from the following ECG.
M
RT
27
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS(SA-I) (2 MARKS)
E
8 Write an account of silent heart attack.
9 Write a note on symptoms of laryngitis.
N
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS(SA-II) (3 MARKS)
28
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS(LA) (4 MARKS)
1. With the help of labelled diagram explain the exchange of gases between
alveolus and capillary.
2. With the help of chart identify and write the function of any four leucocytes.
Type Leucocytes Name of cell Function
------------ ------------
E
N
------------ ------------
U ------------ ------------
,P
Agranulocytes
M
------------ ------------
RT
valve.
Write a function of Eustachian and tricuspid valve found in human heart.
SC
29
9. CONTROL AND COORDINATION
E
A subliminal
B depolarised
N
C threshhold
D polarised
4 The resting potential of a neuron is _____.
A 30 millivolts
B -30 millivolts
C 70 millivolts
U
,P
D -70 millivolts
5 The third ventricle of brain is connected to the fourth ventricle of brain through
__________.
A Foramen of Monro
M
B Duct of Sylvius
C Metacoel
D Eustachian tube
RT
D Fever
7 ________ is a mineralocorticoid secreted by Adrenal gland.
A Aldosterone
SC
B Cortisol
C Corticoid
D Androgen
8 ________ has an important role in the development of immune system by
maturation of T lymphocytes.
A Thyroxine
B Thymosin
C Aldosterone
D Parathormone
9 Hyper secretion of growth hormone in childhood causes ________.
A Acromegaly
B Dwarfism
C Gigantism
D Goitre
10 __________ shows gastric contractions and inhibits the secretion of gastric juice.
A Gastrin
30
B Secretin
C Entero- gastrone
D Inhibin
E
10 Give one role of hormone therapy.
11. Define reflex arc.
12 What is monosynaptic reflex?
N
13. Which exteroreceptors is located in semi-circular canals?
14 Which receptor denotes the change in B.P.?
15. Which is the outermost layer of human eye?
16
17
18
U
Which cells of retina are responsible for scotopic vision?
Name the structure that connects the middle ear to pharynx.
What is cochlea?
,P
19 Name the membrane that covers the cornea?
31
E
1) What acts as the first messenger?
N
2) Why can’t hormones like catecholamines enter their target cells through
plasma membrane?
3) Name the mode of hormone action shown in the diagram.
6 U
Complete the table based on disorders caused due to under secretion or over
secretion of Thyroid gland.
,P
Secretion Adults Children
Hypo
secretion
M
Hyper
secretion
32
E
N
6 Describe the structure of human external ear.
7. Explain the structure of retina with the help of a labelled diagram.
U
,P
M
E RT
SC
33
10. HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASES
E
B. Acquired through Vaccination
C. Acquired through readymade antibodies
N
D. Acquired by activating immune system of the body
3 'Pathogens' are ____________
U
A. Substances produced against any disease.
,P
B. Chemical substances produced by the host cells to kill the parasite animal.
C. Disease causing organisms.
M
B. Malaria
C. Diabetes
D. Scurvy
E
5 Which one of the following is the most accurate definition of the term ‘health’?
A. Health is the state of body and mind in a balanced condition.
SC
34
7 A person preparing food in an unhygienic place can be a major source of spread of
disease _____________
A. Pneumonia
B. Syphilis
C. Typhoid
D. Cancer
8 Carcinoma is cancer of ____________ cells.
A. Epithelial
B. Connective tissue
C. Bone
E
D. Blood
9 Inactive gene that can cause cancer is called ________
N
A. Transposon
B. Proto-oncogene
C. Tumour promoter gene
D. Tumour suppressor gene
U
,P
10 antiviral proteins released by cells infected by the virus are called ________
A. histamines
M
B. interferons
C. pyrogens
D. allergens
RT
35
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS(SA-I) (2 MARKS)
1 Enlist the four types of T- lymphocytes, responsible for immune response of our
body
2 Enlist any four barriers that contribute to innate immunity.
3 Enlist any four therapies used to treat a cancer patient.
4 Give any four the symptoms of Ascariasis.
5 State the significance of mother’s milk to a new-born.
6 Enlist any two features of Acquired immunity.
7 Sketch and label – Structure of Antibody
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS(SA-II) (3 MARKS)
E
1 When the ELISA test was conducted on an immune-suppressed person, he tested
positive for a pathogen.
N
a) Identify the disease the patient is suffering from.
b) Name the causative entity.
2
U
c) Mention the cells of the body that are attacked by the pathogen.
Explain the importance of epithelial surface in innate immunity.
,P
3 Explain any three causes of substance abuse during adolescence.
4 Explain the three stages of adolescence.
M
36
11. ENHANCEMENT OF FOOD PRODUCTION
E
A D
B B2
N
C B12
D C
4 Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used to produce enzyme ___.
A Invertase
B Pectinase
C Lipase
U
,P
D Cellulase
5 Select the odd one from given herbicides.
A Cactoblastis
B Alternaria
M
C Fusarium
D Phytophthora
6 _________ associated with plants like Azolla and Cycas can be used as a
RT
biofertilizers.
A Anabaena
B Nostoc
C Plectonema
D Oscillatoria
E
C Streptomyces venezuelae
D Streptomyces griseus
8 Indian curd is prepared by inoculating milk with ___________.
A Lactobacillus acidophilus
B Lactobacillus bulgaricus
C Penicillium roquefortii
D Penicillium camembertii
9 Which of the following is not the variety of rice?
A. Jaya
B. Padma
C. Ratna
D. Parbhani- Kranti
10 Identify the variety of crop plant developed for resistance against black rot,
A. Pusa Sawani
B. Pusa Shubhra
C. Pusa Sadabahar
37
D. Pusa Swarnim
11 The mother of bee hive is –
A. Worker bee
B. Drones
C. Queen bee
D. Cater
12 Leaves of which plant are used to feed silkworm?
A. Mango
B. Tulsi
C. Mulberry
D. Strawberry
13. Identify the marine water fish from the following-
A. Common carp
B. Catla
C. Silver carp
E
D. Pomphret
N
1 What is biofortification?
2 Name biofortified wheat variety for high protein content.
3
4
U
What is the main function of a fermenter?
Name the chamber in which the suspended objects are filtered and removed
during sewage treatment?
,P
5 What is mycorrhiza?
6 Name the tank to which the sewage water is passed after the preliminary
treatment?
M
14 What is MOET?
15 Aspergillosis and Favus are poultry diseases. What is the causative agent for these
diseases?
SC
1 Rearrange the names of tanks used in sewage treatment as per the flow of
procedure.
a) settling tank
b) Grit Chamber
c) aeration tanks
d) primary sedimentation tank.
2 Give names of two organisations which provide most commonly used models of
biogas plants.
38
3 A young girl is health conscious. Her dietician advised her to include mushrooms
in her diet. What must be the reason?
4 Match the column A with B and rewrite correct pairs.
A B
i. Atlas 66 a)vit A
ii. Rice b) vit C
iii. Spinach c)protein
iv. bitter gourd d)Iron
5 Name two bacteria which are responsible for fermenting dough of idli, dosa.
6 Name two acids produced by using Aspergillus niger?
7 Name two amino acids found in fortified Maize variety?
8 Explain plant breeding for disease resistance with suitable examples.
9 Differentiate between callus culture and suspension culture.
10 Enlist various steps involved in hybridization technique in sequence.
E
11 Give any two advantages of micropropagation.
12 SCP is useful and is a source of protein. Give two examples of bacteria used as
source of SCP.
N
13 Give an account of dairy farm management.
14 Draw a diagram of artificial bee hive to show any two of honey super, entrance
reducer, queen excluder and hive bodies.
15 Give an account of lac culture.U
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS(SA-II) (3 MARKS)
,P
1 Match the column A with B and rewrite correct pairs
A B
M
I. Mycoherbicides a)Cactoblastis
II. Bacterial herbicides b) Alternaria
III. Insects as herbicides c)Xanthomonas
2 State any three benefits of using Biogas.
RT
solubility of Ca++
2) fumaric acid b) confectionary
3) gluconic acid c) in resins as wetting
agents
39
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (LA) ( 4 MARKS EACH)
A B
a)Penicillium roquefortii i)Alcohol
b)Lactobacillus bulgaricus. ii) Cheese
c)Lactobacillus acidophilus iii) Yoghurt
d)Saccharomyces cerevisiae iv)curd
2 Explain the process of sewage water treatment before it can be discharged into
natural bodies.
3 Match the column A with B and rewrite correct pairs.
E
A B
i. Symbiotic N2 fixing bacteria a) VAM
ii. Free-living N2 fixing bacteria b)Rhizobium
N
iii. Phosphate solubilizer c) Nostoc
iv. Endomycorrhizae d) Microccocus
4
5
U
Define plant breeding. Mention any three objectives of plant breeding.
Mention various advantages of single cell protein.
,P
M
E RT
SC
40
12. BIOTECHNOLOGY
E
C Escherichia coli R225
D Escherichia coli RC
3 The enzyme restriction endonuclease …
N
A cuts double strand of DNA
B joins strand of DNA
C cuts RNA strand
4
D cuts single stranded DNA U
Ti plasmid being used for introducing genes in plants obtained from….
A Agrobacterium rhizogenes
,P
B Escherichia coli
C Agrobacterium T20
D Agrobacterium tumefaciens
M
B tomato
C canola
D sugarcane
8 In Anaemia the Recombinant protein….is produced by r-DNA technology.
A Relasein
B Insulin
C Erythroprotein
D Antoitrpsin
9 In biotechnology GMO refers to….
A generation mediated organisms
B genetically modified organisms
C good modified organisms
D gross modified organisms
10 First biopatent to genetically engineered bacterium….
A Pseudomonas
41
B Agrobacterium
C Azatobacter
D E. coli.
E
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS(SA-I) (2 MARKS)
N
1 What is Biopiracy? Explain it with respect to Turmeric.
2 How Biotechnology is applicable with respect to Genomics?
3 Explain how transgenic fish is commercially beneficial.
4
5
produced?
U
Write any two human disorders and to cure which recombinant proteins are
For production of edible vaccines plants are used. Explain this any one
,P
example.
6 Write a note on uses of somatic cell gene therapy.
7 Define vector? write any two examples.
M
42
13. ORGANISMS AND POPULATION
E
B interacting populations.
C interacting ecosystem
D group of mangroves.
N
3 Regional and local variations within each biome lead to the formation of
variety of…
A Habitats
B niches
C species
D genus
U
,P
4 Maximum absorption of rainfall water is done by….
A tropical evergreen forest.
B tropical deciduous forest.
M
C coniferous forest.
D deserts
5 The cattle egret and grazing cattle in close association is a classic example of…
A Mutualism.
RT
B Parasitism.
C Commensalism.
D Competition
6 The ecological niche of population is a …
A geographical area where it lives.
E
E
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS(SA-I) (2 MARKS)
1 Show the graphical representation of mean annual rainfall with respect to
N
mean annual temperature.
2 Define the term Biome and population.
3 How Habitat differs from Niche?
4
5
6
U
How ‘Temperature’ as an abiotic factor plays a role in ecology?
Define the term Adaptation. State its two advantages.
What is Mortality? What are its two types?
,P
7 Define the term population interactions. State its two types
2 Which are different biotic and abiotic factors involved in ecology and how
they play their role?
3 What is population interaction? Explain the interactions in Mutualism and
Competition.
44
14. ECOSYSTEMS AND ENERGY TRANSFER
E
2 Growth of new grasses and shrubs on a patch of forest burnt down by forest
fire, is a an example of __________
N
A. secondary succession
B. pioneer species
C. climax species
D. primary succession
U
,P
3 All types of ecological succession whether on land or in water always reaches _
A. climax community
M
B. pioneer species
C. climax species
D. secondary succession
RT
C. Carnivores
D. autotrophs
SC
45
7. Humus is
A. dark coloured, amorphous , colloidal organic matter rich in nutrients
B. contains only cellulose
C. red coloured matter
D. product of photosynthesis
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS(1 MARK EACH)
1 What is ‘Sere’?
2 Define ‘Ecological succession’
3 What is ‘Climax community’?
E
4 Define zonation.
5 Define gross primary productivity.
6 What do you understand by the term PAR?
N
7 What is 10% law of energy transfer?
8 What is the reservoir of carbon on the earth?
9 What is the cause of eutrophication?
10 What is fragmentation? U
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS(SA-I) (2 MARKS)
,P
1 Name the types of succession of plants based on the nature of habitat.
2 Give reasons – ‘Primary succession is always slower than secondary succession’
M
E
B Kanha forest as tiger reserve.
C Crocodile bank of Chennai
N
D Sacred groves
3 India boasts a handsome share of ____ % of total biodiversity wealth of the
earth.
A 2.4
B 8.1
C 14
U
,P
D 22
4 Measurement rate of O2 consumption in unit volume of water is
A. biogas generation
B. Biological oxygen demand
M
C. Biosynthesis pathway
D. Fermentation
5 In a coal fired power plant, electrostatic precipitator is used to control emission
RT
of
A. Oxides of nitrogen
B. SPM
C. CO
D. oxides of sulphur
E
C. industrial effluents
D. Pollen of aquatic plants
7. Which of the following is not the component of greenhouse gases?
A. methane
B. carbon dioxide
C. CFC
D. ozone
47
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS(1 MARK EACH)
E
10 Which radiations are responsible for snow blindness?
11 Which treaty was signed in Canada about effects of ozone?
N
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS(SA-I) (2 MARKS)
2
3
i) IUCN ii) NBA
U
Give any four factors that favour high speciation at lower altitudes.
With the help of any one example explain Alien species invasion as one of the
,P
causes of Biodiversity losses.
4 Mention various effects of air pollution.
5 Explain working of electrostatic precipitator.
M
1 Enlist any six categories into which a given species is placed once it has been
E
48