Section A

1. Which commodity exchange platform has d) Koyna Power Project

launched India’s first options contract on
copper futures? 7. Photosphere is described as the:

a) National Stock Exchange of India a) lower layer of atmosphere

b) Multi Commodity Exchange of India b) visible surface of the sun from which
c) Indian Commodity Exchange radiation emanates
d) Bombay Stock Exchange c) wavelength of solar spectrum
2. . Which footballer has won the 2018 d) focus area of a camera devise
European Golden Shoe? 8. Location of sugar industry in India is
a) Lionel Messi shifting from north to south because of:
b) Mohamed Salah a) cheap labour
c) Cristiano Ronaldo b) expanding regional market
d) Robert Lewandowski Hide Answer c) cheap and abundant supply of power
d) high yield and high sugar content in
3. Who has been appointed as the new
Chairman of Lalit Kala Akademi? sugarcane

a) M L Srivastava 9. The area covered by forest in India is

b) P Krishna Setty about:
c) N K Jaishankar
d) Uttam Pacharne a) 46%
b) 33%
4. Who has won the 2018 Italian Open c) 23%
tennis tournament? d) 19%

a) Alexander Zverev 10. Thirty prizes were given to 5% of the

b) Rafael Nadal original entrants of a contest. If one prize
c) Juan Martin del Potro was given to one person what was the
d) Grigor Dimitrov number of the contestants

5. Which country’s hockey team has won the a) 300

5th Women’s Asian Champions Trophy 2018? b) 500
c) 600
a) South Korea
d) 400
b) India
c) China 11. Parrot : Cage : : Man : ?
d) Myanmar
a) Home
6. Which of the following dams is not on
b) Motor Car
Narmada River?
c) Prison
a) Indira-Sagar Project d) Forest
b) Maheshwar Hydel Power Project
c) Jobat Project
12. Waiting : Boredom : : Education : ? c) voltage
d) electric resistance
a) Class
b) Enlightenment 18. Which of the following is not a chief
c) Schooing organ of the United Nations
d) Cunning Organisations?

13 How many pillars are needed to a) International Labour Organisation

costruct a bridge of 300 meter long, if b) Security Council
pillars? Are at a distance of 12 ½ meters c) International Court of Justice
each d) General Assembly

a) 22 19. The budget deficit means

b) 24
c) 25 a) the excess of total expenditure,
d) 52 including loans, net of lending over
revenue receipts
14. Who wrote the famous book - 'We the b) difference between revenue receipts
people'? and revenue expenditure
c) difference between all receipts and all
a) T.N.Kaul the expenditure
b) J.R.D. Tata d) fiscal deficit less interest payments
c) Khushwant Singh
d) Nani Palkhivala 20. Paper currency first started in India in

15 Who said the words, 'I disapprove of a) 1861

what you say, but I will defend to death b) 1542
your right to say it'? c) 1601
d) 1880
a) George Bernard Shaw
b) Lenin 21. Development expenditure of the
c) Voltaire Central government does not include
d) Mahatma Gandhi
a) defence expenditure
16. Light year is a measurement of b) expenditure on economic services
c) expenditure on social and community
a) Speed of aeroplanes services
b) Speed of light d) grant to states
c) Stellar distances
d) Speed of rockets Directions for Q 22 and 23

17. Kilohertz is a unit which measures In each of these questions a related pair of
words is followed by four pairs of words.
a) power used by a current of one Select the pair that best expresses a
ampere relationship similar to that expressed in
b) electromagnetic radio wave the original pair.
frequencies
Q-22. MOISTEN: DRENCH 27. Which of the following control
techniques available to the researcher
a) Heat: Chill controls for both known and unknown
b) Disregard: Ignore variables?
c) Prick: Stab
a) Building the extraneous variable into
d) Enclose: Confine the design
b) Matching
Q-23. INCUBATOR: INFANT
c) Random assignment
a) Hive: Bee d) Analysis of covariance
b) Greenhouse: Plant
28. In an experimental research study, the
c) Bullet: Revolver
primary goal is to isolate and identify the
d) Goalkeeper: Goalpost
effect produced by the ____.
Directions for Q. 24 and 25
a) dependent variable
These questions of a word in capital b) extraneous variable
letters, followed by four options. Select c) independent variable
the option that is most nearly opposite in d) confounding variable
meaning to the word in capital letters.
29 Which of the following terms best
24. TERMINATE describes data that were originally
collected at an earlier time by a different
a) Depart person for a different purpose?
b) prevent
a) Primary data
c) Begin
b) Secondary data
d) Change
c) Experimental data
25. SKIRT d) Field notes

a) Embroider 30. Open-ended question in a research

b) revert questionnaire provide primarily ______
c) Address data.
d) brook a) Confirmatory data
b) Qualitative data
26. . Analysis of covariance is:
c) Predictive data
a) A statistical technique that can be d) non verifiable data
used to help equate groups on specific
31. The Likert Scale can also be termed as
variables
b) A statistical technique that can be a) differential scale
used to control sequencing effects b) percentage scale
c) A statistical technique that substitutes c) Summated rating scale
for random assignment to groups d) Ranking
d) Adjusts scores on the independent
variable to control for extraneous
variables
32. Which of the following will give a more 36. The longitudnal approach to research
“accurate” representation of the deals with
population from which a sample has been
taken? a) Long-term research
b) Short term research
a) A large sample based on the c) Only experimental research
convenience sampling technique d) Only quantitative research
b) A small sample based on simple
random sampling 37. Action research is a type of
c) A large sample based on simple a) Survey research
random sampling b) population research
d) A small cluster sample c) Qualitative research
33. Which of the following types of d) Applied research
sampling involves the researcher 38. A hypothesis seeks to relate
determining the appropriate sample sizes
for the groups identified as important, and a) Constant to variable
then taking convenience samples from b) Constant to constant
those groups? c) Variable to variable
d) Variable to constant
a) Proportional stratified sampling
b) Quota sampling 39. Which form of reasoning is the process
c) One-stage cluster sampling of drawing a specific conclusion from a set
d) Two-stage cluster sampling of premises?

34. In which of the following nonrandom a) rationalism

sampling techniques does the researcher b) deductive reasoning
ask the research participants to identify c) inductive reasoning
other potential research participants? d) probabilistic

a) Snowball 40. Which of the following is the weakest

b) Convenience experimental design?
c) Purposive a) One group pretest-posttest design
d) Quota b) Quasi- experimental design
c) Two group posttest only design
d) Ex post facto design
35. --------------------- is the preferred 41 Personal interviews conducted in
sampling method then the population is shopping malls are known as………
all fine finite size
a) Mall interviews
a) Area sampling b) Mall intercept interviews
b) purposive sampling c) Brief interviews
d) None of the given options
c) Cluster sampling
d) Systematic sampling
42 Which one of the following sets is the
measure of central tendency?
 a) Mean, standard deviation, mode 47. The chief function of the control
b) Mean, median, standard deviation group in an experiment is that it
c) Arithmetic mean, median, mode
d) Standard deviation, internal validity, a) allows mathematical relationships
mode to be established.
43. In an experimental research study, the b) provides a point of reference
primary goal is to isolate and identify the
against which the behavior of the
effect produced by the ____.
experimental group can be
a) Dependent variable compared.
b) Extraneous variable
c) Independent variable c) balances the experiment to
d) Confounding variable eliminate all extraneous variables.
44. The numerical description that d) is not really necessary.
describe sample may be expected to differ
from those that describe population 48. A correlation coefficient of 0 means
because of random fluctuations inherent that there is
in sampling process.
a) strong negative relationship
a) Sampling design between the two variables.
b) Non-probability sampling
c) Sampling error
d) Probability sampling b) astrong positive relationship
between the two variables.
45. ______ is the evidence that the
instrument, techniques, or process used to c) perfect positive relationship
measure concept does indeed measure the between the two variables.
intended concepts.
d) no relationship between the two
a) Reliability variables.

b) Replicability 49, Type 1 error occurs when

a) The null hypothesis is rejected even

c) Scaling
though it is true
d) Validity b) The null hypothesis is accepted even
though it is false
46. In a study of effects of alcohol on c) Both the null and the alternate hypothesis
driving ability, the control group are r on the all ejected
d) The alternate hypothesis is erroneously
should be given
framed
a) a high dosage of alcohol.
b) one-half the dosage given the 50. _______ refers to inferring about the
experimental group. whole population based on the
observations made on a small part.
c) a driving test before and after
drinking alcohol. a) Deductive inference
b) Pseudo-inference
d) no alcohol at all.
c) Inductive inference
 d) Objective inference

Section B
51. Who is considered the father of b) Collaborations
Administrative Management Theory? c) Strategic planning
d) Joint venture
57. Negotiation of labour contract
a) Max Weber between Union and Management is
b) Frank Gilbraith referred to as
c) Henry Fayol a) Industrial Relations
d) Henry Gantt b) Collective Bargaining
c) Trade Union
52. The process of determining the tasks d) Consumerism
that make-up a job and the skills, abilities
and responsibilities needed to perform 58. The outside third party, who is
the job is called brought into settle a dispute, and he or she
has the authority to settle the dispute is
a) Job Analysis called
b) Job Description a) Government
c) Job Enrichment b) Union
d) Job Specialisation
c) An Arbitrator
53. A Marketing database is built as an aid d) Legal Expert
to
a) Reducing cost of production 59. Mechanism to protect private
b) Market research networks from outside attack is
c) Product-mix expansion a) Firewall
d) Price hike b) Antivirus
c) Digital signature
54. The actual achievements compared
with the objectives of the job is d) Formatting
a) Job performance
b) Job evaluation 60. SMTP is a
c) Job description a) Networking Protocol
d) None of the above b) Protocol used for transferring
message between end user &Mail
55. Which of the following will be helpful Server
for assessing the firm’s capital structure?
c) Protocol used for smart card message
a) Current ratio
interchange
b) Acid test ratio
c) Profitability ratio d) Encryption Standard
d) Debt to equity ratio
61. On the basis of the size and
56. Which one is not the overseas market composition of external debt, “World
entry strategy followed by Multinational Bank” has classified India as a:
Corporations? a) Heavily indebted country
a) Franchise b) Less indebted country
c) Moderately indebted country
 d) Severely indebted country (a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopolistic competition
(c) Oligopoly
(d) Duopoly
62. Changes in the population 68. Which of the following is not
characteristics such as age, gender,
considered as a leadership style?
marital status, income and education are
the examples of
a) Demographic changes
a) Autocratic style
b) Cultural changes b) Paternalistic style
c) Geographic changes c) Futuristic style
d) Economic changes d) Free reign style

63. Porter and Lawler model is related to 69. CMM stands for
a) Perception a) Capability maturity model
b) Attitudes b) Capability monitoring model
c) Motivation c) Capability measuring model
d) Leadership d) Capability matching model

64. A digital signature is a 70. The first step in management by

objectives is:
a) Software to recognize signature
b) Code number of the sender. a) Manager guides his subordinates.
c) Public Key Encryption.
b) Objectives are matched with results.
d) Scanned Signature on Computer
c) Employees are rewarded for
65. Under perfect competition in the long achieving goals.
run
d) Managers set goals for their
(a) A firm earns normal profit departments.
(b) Few firms earn super normal profit
71. Time and motion studies are:
(c) All firms are at break even
(d) None of the above a) Studies of the tasks performed to
complete a job and the time needed to
66. An iso-profit line represents.
do each task.
(a) An infinite number of optimal b) Studies of the work process in order
solutions to find the most efficient way of doing
(b) An infinite number of solution all of things and then teaching people these
which yield the same cost techniques.
(c) An infinite number of solutions all of c) Studies of motivation.
which yield the same profit d) Studies of employee training.
(d) A boundary of the feasible region
72. Other things being equal, an increase
in supply can be caused by
67. The term group equilibrium is related
to a) A rise in the income of the consumer
 b) An improvement in the techniques of d) Altering
production
c) A rise in the price of the commodity 78. Which of the following is not the example
d) An increase in the income of the seller of business to consumer (B to C) e-
commerce?
73. Which technique is used in finding a (a) Amazon.com
solution for optimizing a given objective,
(b) e-bay.com
such as profit maximization or cost
minimization under certain constraints? (c) dell.com
a) Queuing Theory (d) lastminute.com
b) Waiting Line
c) Both A and B 79. For a ‘make or buy decision’, which
d) Linear Programming cost is to be considered?
a) Fixed cost
74. One of the acceptable methods for b) Total cost
obtaining feedback of training is called c) Marginal cost
a) Employee Turnover Rate d) None of the above
b) Performance after Training
c) Improvement after Training
80. Which of the following project
d) Structured Interview
appraisal methods is not based on time
value of money?
75. Cartels are a form of a) Payback method
b) Net present value method
a) Monopoly c) Internal rate of return method
b) Collusive oligopoly d) Discounted payback method
c) Non-Collusive oligopoly
d) None of these 81. Who defined advertising as “any paid
form of non-personal presentation and
promotion of ideas, goods and services by
76. The mathematical model of an LP an identified sponsor?
problem is important because. a) Philip Kotler
b) C.K. Prahlad
a) It helps in converting the verbal c) Chartered Institute of Marketing
description & numerical data into d) American Marketing Association
mathematical expression
b) Decision-makers prefer to work with 82. What is the full form of SWIFT?
formal models
a) Society for Worldwide Internet Financial
c) It captures the relevant relationship
among decision factors Telecommunications.
d) It enables the use of algebraic b) Secret Wide Interbank Financial
technique Telecommunications
c) Society for Worldwide Interbank
77. Customer behavior in which the Financial Telecommunications
customer moves from one queue to d) None of the Above
another in a multiple channel situation is.

a) Balking 83. At which stage of new product

b) Reneging development process, the launching of a
new product will take place?
c) Jockeying
 a) Business Analysis 89. Which level of Managers translate the
b) Commercialization corporate strategy into concrete
c) Test Marketing objectives for their individual business?
d) Marketing Strategy Development a) Business level
b) Corporate level
84. An entrepreneurial person employed c) Functional level
by a corporation and encouraged to be d) Multi-Business level
innovative and creative is referred to as
a) Competitor 90. DNS is
b) Supplier a) The distributed hierarchical naming
c) Entrepreneur system
d) Intrapreneur
b) The vertical naming system
85. The objective of ISO-9000 family of c) The horizontal naming system
Quality management is d) The client server system
a) Customer satisfaction
91 The number of subordinates a superior
b) Employee satisfaction can effectively handle is called
c) Skill enhancement a) Organising people
d) Environmental issues b) Span of control
c) Direction
86.The backbone of decision making in d) Coordination
any organisation is
a) Information flows 92. Penetration pricing is a technique
b) Employee relations applied in case of
c) Management a) Existing products
d) Capital adequacy b) New products
c) Mature products
d) Products in the decline stage
87. Which of the following is not the social
responsibility of the business? 93. Which communication component is
not a paid form of communication?
a) Compulsory audit of financial a) Advertising
statements b) Sales promotion
c) Personal selling
b) Preparation of financial statements
d) Publicity
c) Time bound promotion of employees
d) Appointment of independent 94. Takeover generally involves
directors
a) The acquisition of part of an
88. A light sensitive device that converts undertaking to enable the acquirer to
drawing, printed text or other images into increase the market share of the
digital form is product concerned.
b) The acquisition of certain block of
a) Keyboard equity capital of a company which
b) Plotter enables the acquirer to exercise
c) Scanner control over the affairs of the
d) OMR company.
 c) Taking over the responsibility to have
trade agreement for finished product.
d) Taking over certain long-term
liabilities of another group company
to help it financially. 98. Which of the following is the fastest
95. Telnet is a service that runs
media of data transfer?
a) Television on net
a) Co-axial Cable
b) Remote program
b) Untwisted Wire
c) Cable TV network
c) Telephone Lines
d) Telenext d) Fibre Optic

96. Which of the following is not a function 99. The model that applies to Economic
of distribution agency? Order Quantity for Inventory
a) Manufacturing Management, was proposed to be applied
b) Servicing to Cash Management by
c) Inventorying a) Miller and Orr
d) Transportation b) William J. Baumol
c) William Sharpe
d) David Durand
97. "Better products, Better value, Better
living" is the mission statement of which 100. The only feasible purpose of financial
company: management is
a) VICCO
b) HUL a) Profit maximization
c) P&G b) Sales management
d) NIRMA c) Assets maximization
d) Wealth maximization