Series CD1BA/3 SET~1

Q.P. Code 30/3/1

Roll No.
 -   - 
-    
Candidates must write the Q.P. Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

NOTE :
(i)       -    23  
Please check that this question paper contains 23 printed pages.
(ii)       -  38   
Please check that this question paper contains 38 questions.
(iii) -        -    -  - 
 
Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
(iv)
Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-
book before attempting it.
(v)  -     15        -     10.15
    10.15   10.30     -      
  -      
15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the
candidates will read the question paper only and will not write any answer
on the answer-book during this period.

MATHEMATICS (Standard)

{ZYm©[aV g‘¶ : 3 KÊQo A{YH V‘ A§H : 80

Time allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 108 A Page 1 P.T.O.

General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :

(i) This question paper contains 38 questions. All questions are compulsory.

(ii) This Question Paper is divided into FIVE Sections – Section A, B, C, D

and E.

(iii) In Section–A, questions number 1 to 18 are Multiple Choice Questions

(MCQs) and question number 19 & 20 are Assertion-Reason based
questions of 1 mark each.

(iv) In Section–B, questions number 21 to 25 are Very Short-Answer (VSA)

type questions, carrying 2 marks each.

(v) In Section–C, questions number 26 to 31 are Short Answer (SA) type

questions, carrying 3 marks each.

(vi) In Section–D, questions number 32 to 35 are Long Answer (LA) type

questions, carrying 5 marks each.

(vii) In Section–E, questions number 36 to 38 are Case Study based questions

carrying 4 marks each. Internal choice is provided in 2 marks questions
in each case-study.

(viii) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided
in 2 questions in Section–B, 2 questions in Section–C, 2 questions in
Section–D and 3 questions in Section–E.

22
(ix) Draw neat diagrams wherever required. Take p = wherever required,
7
if not stated.

(x) Use of calculators is not allowed.

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 3 P.T.O.

 SECTION – A 20 1 = 20

This section consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. The pair of linear equations x + 2y + 5 = 0 and –3x = 6y – 1 has 1

(A) unique solution (B) exactly two solutions

(C) infinitely many solutions (D) no solution

2. The common difference of the A.P. 1

1 1 – 4x 1 – 8x
, , ,................is :
2x 2x 2x

(A) –2x (B) –2

(C) 2 (D) 2x

3. Two dice are thrown together. The probability that they show different
numbers is : 1

(A) 1/6 (B) 5/6

(C) 1/3 (D) 2/3

4. The probability of guessing the correct answer to a certain test question is

x
. If the probability of not guessing the correct answer to this question is
6
2
, then the value of x is : 1
3

(A) 2 (B) 3

(C) 4 (D) 6
30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 5 P.T.O.
5. If a = 22 ´ 3x, b = 22 ´ 3 ´ 5, c = 22 ´ 3 ´ 7 and LCM (a, b, c) = 3780, then x
is equal to 1
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 0

6. The zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 2x2 – 3x – 9 are : 1

–3 –3
(A) 3, (B) –3,
2 2

3 3
(C) –3, (D) 3,
2 2

7. From a point on the ground, which is 30 m away from the foot of a vertical
tower, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower is found to be 60°. The
height (in metres) of the tower is : 1

(A) 10 3 (B) 30 3
(C) 60 (D) 30

3 1
8. If cos q = and sin f = , then tan (q + f) is : 1
2 2

1
(A) 3 (B)
3
(C) 1 (D) not defined

9. Maximum number of common tangents that can be drawn to two circles

intersecting at two distinct points is : 1
(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 1

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 7 P.T.O.

10. In the given figure, if PT is a tangent to a circle with centre O and
ÐTPO = 35°, then the measure of Ðx is : 1

(A) 110° (B) 115°

(C) 120° (D) 125°

11. If the diagonals of a quadrilateral divide each other proportionally, then it

is a : 1
(A) parallelogram (B) rectangle
(C) square (D) trapezium

12. In D ABC, DE úú BC (as shown in the figure). If AD = 2 cm, BD = 3 cm,

BC = 7.5 cm, then the length of DE (in cm) is : 1

(A) 2.5 (B) 3

(C) 5 (D) 6

13. Given HCF (2520, 6600) = 40, LCM (2520, 6600) = 252 ´ k, then the value
of k is : 1
(A) 1650 (B) 1600
(C) 165 (D) 1625

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 9 P.T.O.

14. A pair of irrational numbers whose product is a rational number is : 1
(A) ( 16, 4) (B) ( 5, 2)
(C) ( 3, 27) (D) ( 36, 2)

15. If a digit is chosen at random from the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9; then

the probability that this digit is an odd prime number is : 1
1 2
(A) (B)
3 3
4 5
(C) (D)
9 9

16. The mean of five observations is 15. If the mean of first three observations
is 14 and that of the last three observations is 17, then the third
observation is 1
(A) 20 (B) 19
(C) 18 (D) 17

17. Perimeter of a sector of a circle whose central angle is 90° and radius 7 cm
is : 1
(A) 35 cm (B) 11 cm
(C) 22 cm (D) 25 cm

18. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. MN is the chord and the
tangent ML at point M makes an angle of 70° with MN. The measure of
ÐMON is : 1

(A) 120° (B) 140°

(C) 70° (D) 90°

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 11 P.T.O.

Directions : Questions number 19 and 20 are Assertion and Reason based
questions carrying 1 mark each. Two statements are given, one labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct
answer to these questions from the codes (A), (B), (C) and (D) as given
below :

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of the Assertion (A).

(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

19. Assertion (A) : The point which divides the line segment joining the
æ–1 5ö
points A (1, 2) and B(–1, 1) internally in the ratio 1 : 2 is ç , ÷ 1
è 3 3ø

Reason (R) : The coordinates of the point which divides the line segment
joining the points A (x1, y1) and B(x2, y2) in the ratio m1 : m2 are

æm1x2 + m2x1 m1y2 + m2y1ö

ç , ÷
è m1 + m2 m1 + m2 ø

20. Assertion (A) : In a cricket match, a batsman hits a boundary 9 times out
of 45 balls he plays. The probability that in a given ball, he does not hit
4
the boundary is . 1
5

Reason (R) : P(E) + P(not E) = 1

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 13 P.T.O.

 SECTION – B
This section consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each.

21. One card is drawn at random from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards. Find
the probability that the card drawn
(i) is queen of hearts;
(ii) is not a jack. 1+1

22. (a) If 2x + y = 13 and 4x – y = 17, find the value of (x – y). 2

OR
(b) Sum of two numbers is 105 and their difference is 45. Find the
numbers. 2

23. (a) Find a relation between x and y such that the point P(x, y) is
equidistant from the points A(7, 1) and B(3, 5). 2
OR
(b) Points A(–1, y) and B(5, 7) lie on a circle with centre O(2, –3y) such
that AB is a diameter of the circle. Find the value of y. Also, find the
radius of the circle. 2

EA EB
24. In the given figure, = , prove that DEAB ~ DECD 2
EC ED

cos 45° + sin 60°

25. Evaluate : . 2
sec 30° + cosec 30°

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 15 P.T.O.

 SECTION – C
This section consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.

26. (a) If the sum of first 7 terms of an A.P. is 49 and that of first 17 terms is
289, find the sum of its first 20 terms. 3
OR
(b) The ratio of the 10 th term to its 30th term of an A.P. is 1 : 3 and the
sum of its first six terms is 42. Find the first term and the common
difference of A.P. 3

27. Find the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2 – 15 and verify the
relationship between the zeroes and the coefficients of the polynomial. 3

28. Solve the following system of linear equations graphically : 3

x–y+1=0
x+y=5

29. (a) Find the ratio in which the line segment joining the points (5, 3) and
(–1, 6) is divided by Y-axis. 3
OR
(b) P(–2, 5) and Q(3, 2) are two points. Find the coordinates of the point
R on line segment PQ such that PR = 2QR. 3

sin q – 2 sin3 q
30. Prove that = tan q. 3
2 cos3 q – cos q

31. Prove that the tangents drawn at the end points of a chord of a circle
makes equal angles with the chord. 3

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 17 P.T.O.

 SECTION – D
This section consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each.

32. (a) In a flight of 2800 km, an aircraft was slowed down due to bad
weather. Its average speed is reduced by 100 km/h and by doing so,
the time of flight is increased by 30 minutes. Find the original
duration of the flight. 5

OR

(b) The denominator of a fraction is one more than twice the numerator.
16
If the sum of the fraction and its reciprocal is 2 , find the fraction. 5
21

33. State and prove Basic Proportionality theorem. 5

34. From a point on the ground, the angles of elevation of the bottom and the
top of a transmission tower fixed at the top of a 20 m high building are 45°
and 60° respectively. Find the height of the tower. 5

35. (a) A solid iron pole consists of a solid cylinder of height 200 cm and base
diameter 28 cm, which is surmounted by another cylinder of height
50 cm and radius 7 cm. Find the mass of the pole, given that 1 cm3 of
iron has approximately 8 g mass. 5

OR

(b) A medicine capsule is in the shape of a cylinder with two

hemispheres stuck to each of its ends. The length of the entire
capsule is 14 mm and the diameter of the capsule is 4 mm, find its
surface area. Also, find its volume. 5

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 19 P.T.O.

 SECTION – E
This section consists of 3 case study based questions of 4 marks each :
36. A stable owner has four horses. He usually tie these horses with 7 m long rope
to pegs at each corner of a square shaped grass field of 20 m length, to graze in
his farm. But tying with rope sometimes results in injuries to his horses, so he
decided to build fence around the area so that each horse can graze.

Based on the above, answer the following questions :

(i) Find the area of the square shaped grass field. 1
(ii) (a) Find the area of the total field in which these horses can graze. 2
OR
(b) If the length of the rope of each horse is increased from 7 m to
10 m, find the area grazed by one horse. (Use p = 3.14) 2
(iii) What is area of the field that is left ungrazed, if the length of the
rope of each horse is 7 cm ? 1
37. Vocational training complements traditional education by providing
practical skills and hands-on experience. While education equips
individuals with a broad knowledge base, vocational training focuses on
job-specific skills, enhancing employability thus making the student self-
reliant. Keeping this in view, a teacher made the following table giving
the frequency distribution of students/adults undergoing vocational
training from the training institute.

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 21 P.T.O.

 Age 15-19 20-24 25-29 30-34 35-39 40-44 45-49 50-54
(in years)
Number of 62 132 96 37 13 11 10 4
participants
From the above answer the following questions :
(i) What is the lower limit of the modal class of the above data ? 1
(ii) (a) Find the median class of the above data. 2
OR
(b) Find the number of participants of age less than 50 years who
undergo vocational training. 2
(iii) Give the empirical relationship between mean, median and mode. 1

38. Teaching Mathematics through activities is a powerful approach that

enhances students’ understanding and engagement. Keeping this in mind,
Ms. Mukta planned a prime number game for class 5 students. She
announces the number 2 in her class and asked the first student to
multiply it by a prime number and then pass it to second student. Second
student also multiplied it by a prime number and passed it to third
student. In this way by multiplying to a prime number, the last student
got 173250.
Now, Mukta asked some questions as given below to the students :
(i) What is the least prime number used by students ? 1
(ii) (a) How many students are in the class ? 2
OR
(b) What is the highest prime number used by students ? 2
(iii) Which prime number has been used maximum times ? 1
____________

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 23 P.T.O.

 Marking Scheme
Strictly Confidential
(For Internal and Restricted use only)
Secondary School Examination, 2024
MATHEMATICS PAPER CODE 30/3/1
General Instructions: -
1 You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct
assessment of the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious problems
which may affect the future of the candidates, education system and teaching profession. To
avoid mistakes, it is requested that before starting evaluation, you must read and understand
the spot evaluation guidelines carefully.
2 “Evaluation policy is a confidential policy as it is related to the confidentiality of the
examinations conducted, Evaluation done and several other aspects. It’s leakage to
public in any manner could lead to derailment of the examination system and affect the
life and future of millions of candidates. Sharing this policy/document to anyone,
publishing in any magazine and printing in News Paper/Website etc. may invite action
under various rules of the Board and IPC.”
3 Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should not
be done according to one’s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking Scheme
should be strictly adhered to and religiously followed. However, while evaluating, answers
which are based on latest information or knowledge and/or are innovative, they may be
assessed for their correctness otherwise and due marks be awarded to them. In class-
X, while evaluating two competency-based questions, please try to understand given
answer and even if reply is not from marking scheme but correct competency is
enumerated by the candidate, due marks should be awarded.
4 The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers.
These are in the nature of Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete answer. The
students can have their own expression and if the expression is correct, the due marks should
be awarded accordingly.
5 The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each evaluator
on the first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the instructions given
in the Marking Scheme. If there is any variation, the same should be zero after deliberation
and discussion. The remaining answer books meant for evaluation shall be given only after
ensuring that there is no significant variation in the marking of individual evaluators.
6 Evaluators will mark (✓) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS ‘X” be
marked. Evaluators will not put right (✓) while evaluating which gives an impression that
answer is correct and no marks are awarded. This is most common mistake which
evaluators are committing.
7 If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks
awarded for different parts of the question should then be totalled up and written on the left-
hand margin and encircled. This may be followed strictly.
8 If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded on the left-hand margin and
encircled. This may also be followed strictly.

1|Page
MS_X_ Mathematics_041_30/3/1_2023-24
9 In Q1-Q20, if a candidate attempts the question more than once (without cancelling the
previous attempt), marks shall be awarded for the first attempt only and the other answer
scored out with a note “Extra Question”.
10 In Q21-Q38, if a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving
more marks should be retained and the other answer scored out with a note “Extra Question”.
11 No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalized only once.
12 A full scale of marks __________ (example 0 to 80/70/60/50/40/30 marks as given in
Question Paper) has to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if the answer
deserves it.
13 Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8 hours
every day and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25 answer books per
day in other subjects (Details are given in Spot Guidelines). This is in view of the reduced
syllabus and number of questions in question paper.
14 Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the
Examiner in the past:-
● Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totalling of marks awarded to an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page.
● Wrong question wise totalling on the title page.
● Wrong totalling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark is
correctly and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the X for
incorrect answer.)
● Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks awarded.
15 While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should be
marked as cross (X) and awarded zero (0) Marks.
16 Any un assessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totaling error
detected by the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in the
evaluation work as also of the Board. Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all concerned,
it is again reiterated that the instructions be followed meticulously and judiciously.
17 The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the “Guidelines for
spot Evaluation” before starting the actual evaluation.
18 Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over to
the title page, correctly totalled and written in figures and words.
19 The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request on payment
of the prescribed processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head Examiners/Head
Examiners are once again reminded that they must ensure that evaluation is carried out
strictly as per value points for each answer as given in the Marking Scheme.
2|Page
MS_X_ Mathematics_041_30/3/1_2023-24
 MARKING SCHEME
MATHEMATICS (Subject Code–041)
(PAPER CODE: 30/3/1)

Q. No. EXPECTED OUTCOMES/VALUE POINTS Marks

SECTION A
This section consists of 20 questions of 1 marks each.
1.

Sol. (D) no solution 1

2.

Sol. (B) −2 1
3.

Sol. (B) 5/6 1

3|Page
MS_X_ Mathematics_041_30/3/1_2023-24
4.

Sol. (A) 2 1
5.

Sol. (C) 3 1

6.

Sol. −3 1
(A) 3, 2

7.

Sol. (B) 30√3 1

4|Page
MS_X_ Mathematics_041_30/3/1_2023-24
8.

Sol. (A) √3 1
9.

Sol. (C) 2 1
10.

Sol. (D) 125° 1

11.

Sol. (D) trapezium 1

5|Page
MS_X_ Mathematics_041_30/3/1_2023-24
12.

Sol. (B) 3 1
13.

Sol. (A) 1650 1

14.

Sol. (C) (√3, √27) 1

15.

Sol. 1 1
(A) 3

16.

Sol. (C) 18 1

6|Page
MS_X_ Mathematics_041_30/3/1_2023-24
17.

Sol. (D) 25 cm 1
18.

Sol. (B)140° 1

7|Page
MS_X_ Mathematics_041_30/3/1_2023-24
19.

Sol. (D) Assertion (A) is false , but Reason(R) is true. 1

20.

Sol. (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct 1
explanation of the Assertion (A).
SECTION B
This section consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each.
21.

Sol. Total outcomes = 52

1 1
(i) P (card is queen of hearts) =
52
48 12
(ii) P (not a jack) = 52 or 1
13

22(a).

Sol. 2x + y = 13 ---- (i)

4x – y = 17 ---- (ii)

8|Page
MS_X_ Mathematics_041_30/3/1_2023-24
 Solving (i) and (ii)
x=5 & y=3 1½
x–y=2 ½
OR
22(b).

Sol. Let the numbers be x, y (x > y)

x + y = 105 ………. (i) ½
x – y = 45 ………. (ii) ½
on solving (i) and (ii)
 x = 75 & y = 30 1
 Numbers are 75, 30
23(a)

Sol. PA= PB
⇒PA2 = PB2

(x – 7)2 + (y –1)2 = (x – 3)2 + (y – 5)2 1

 – 8x + 8y +16 = 0 or x – y – 2 = 0 1
23(b).

Sol. Centre O (2, – 3y) is the mid point of AB

𝑦+7 ½
∴ = – 3y
2

 y = −1 ½
Radius = OB = √(5 − 2)2 + (7 − 3)2 = 5 1

9|Page
MS_X_ Mathematics_041_30/3/1_2023-24
24.

Sol. In ∆EAB and ∆ECD

EA EB
= ED
EC

∠AEB = ∠CED 1
∆EAB ~ ∆ECD 1

25.

Sol. 𝑐𝑜𝑠45° +𝑠𝑖𝑛60°

𝑠𝑒𝑐30° +𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐30°
1 √3
+ 1½
√2 2
= 2
+2
√3

2√3+3√2
=
4√2(1+√3) ½

10 | P a g e
MS_X_ Mathematics_041_30/3/1_2023-24
 SECTION C
This section consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.

26(a).

Sol. Let a be the first term and d be the common difference.

7
(2a + 6d) = 49
2

a + 3d = 7....................................(i) ½
𝑆17 = 289
17
(2a + 16d) = 289
2

a + 8d = 17.....................................(ii) ½
solving (i) and (ii)
d=2&a=1 1
20
𝑆20 = [2(1)+19(2)] ½
2

= 400 ½

OR
26(b).

Sol. Let a be the first term and d be the common difference.

𝑎 + 9𝑑 1
= ½
𝑎 + 29𝑑 3
⟹a=d .................(i) ½
6
(2a + 5d) = 42 ½
2

⇒ 2a + 5d = 14 ……………..(ii) ½

Solving (i) and (ii)

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 a = 2 and d = 2 ½+½

27.

Sol. Let P(x) = x2 – 15

= (x − √15)(x + √15) 1

∴ Zeroes of P(x) are −√15 and √15 1

Verification-
0 − coefficient of x ½
Sum of zeroes = −√15 + √15 = 1 = coefficient of x2
−15 costant term
Product of zeroes = −√15 × √15 = −15= = coefficient of x2 ½
1

28.

Sol.

Correct graph 2

Solution is x = 2, y = 3 1

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29(a).

Sol. Let the line segment divides y-axis at (0, y). ½

Let the required ratio be k : 1
(−1)k+5(1) 1
∴ 0= k+1

⇒ k=5 1
Hence ratio is 5 : 1 ½
OR
29(b).

Sol. Let coordinates of R be (x, y) .

PR : RQ = 2 : 1 ½
2(3)+1(−2) 4
x= =3 1
2+1
2(2)+1(5) 1
y= =3
2+1
4
∴ Cordinates of the point R ( 3 , 3) ½

30.

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Sol. sinθ−2sin3 θ
L.H.S =
2cos3 θ−cosθ
sinθ(1−2sin2 θ)
= cosθ(2cos2θ−1) ½
tanθ(1−2sin2 θ) 1
= [2(1−sin2 θ)−1]

tanθ(1−2sin2 θ) 1
= (1−2sin2 θ)

= tanθ = R.H.S. ½

31.

Sol. Correct figure 1

Let AB be the chord of circle.

In ΔPAB
PA = PB 1
∠PAB = ∠PBA 1
SECTION D
This section consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each.
32(a).

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Sol. Let original speed of aircraft be x km/hr.
A.T.Q.
2800 2800 1 2
− =2
𝑥−100 𝑥

⟹ x2 – 100x – 560000 = 0 ½
⟹ (x – 800)(x + 700) = 0 1
x ≠ −700 So, x = 800 ½
2800 7
Original Duration = 800 = 2 hrs or 3 hrs 30 min. 1

OR
32(b).

Sol. Let numerator be x ,

then denominator be (2x + 1) ½
𝑥
Fraction = ½
2𝑥+1

A.T.Q.
𝑥 2𝑥+1 58
+ = 21 1½
2𝑥+1 𝑥

⟹ 11𝑥 2 − 26𝑥 − 21 = 0 ½
⟹ (𝑥 − 3)(11𝑥 + 7) = 0 1
7 ½
x ≠ − 11 So, x = 3
3 ½
∴ Fraction = 7

33.
.
Sol. For correct statement 1
For correct given, to prove, construction and figure 4×½ = 2
For correct Proof 2

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34.

Sol.
Correct Figure. 1

In ∆BPA
20 1
tan 45° = 1 = x

⟹ x = 20 m ………………(i) ½
Now, In ∆CPA

tan 60° = √3 =
ℎ+20 1
x

⟹ h + 20 = x√3 ……………..(ii) ½
Solving (i) and (ii)
h = 20 (√3 − 1) m 1

∴ Height of the tower is 20 (√3 − 1) m.

35(a).

Sol. Radius of lower cylinder = 14 cm ½

22 22
Volume of pole = × 14 × 14 × 200 + × 7 × 7 × 50 1+1
7 7

= 130900 cm3 1
1

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 Mass of the pole= 8 ×130900 ½
=1047200 gm or 1047.2 kg
OR
35(b).

Sol. Radius of hemisphere= radius of cylinder = 2 mm ½

Length of cylindrical part = 14 – 4 = 10 mm. ½
Surface area of the capsule = CSA of cylinder + 2(CSA of hemisphere)
22 22
= 2× × 2 × 10 +2× 2 × ×2×2 1
7 7

= 176 mm2 1

Volume of the capsule = volume of cylinder + 2(volume of hemisphere)

22 2 22
= × 2 × 2 × 10 + 2 × 3 × ×2×2×2 1
7 7
3344
= mm3 or 159.24 mm3 1
21

SECTION E
This section consists of 3 case-study based questions of 4 marks each.

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36.

Sol. (i) Area of square shaped grass field = 400 m2 1

1 22
(ii) (a) area of total field that horses can graze = 4 × 4 × ×7×7 1
7

= 154 m2 1
OR
1
(ii) (b) area grazed by one horse = 4 ×3.14 × 10 × 10 1

= 78.5 m2 1

(iii) Area of the field left ungrazed = area of square field - area of field in
which horses can graze.
1 22
Area of field in which horses can graze = 4 × 4 × ×7×7 ½
7

= 154 cm2 ½
Area of the field left ungrazed = 400 – 0.0154 = 399.9846 m2

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37.

Sol. 1
(i) Modal class is 19.5 – 24.5
Lowe limit =19.5

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 (ii) (a)
Age (in 14.5- 19.5- 24.5- 29.5- 34.5- 39.5- 44.5- 49.5-
years) 19.5 24.5 29.5 34.5 39.5 44.5 49.5 54.5
Number 62 132 96 37 13 11 10 4
of
participa
nts
cf 62 194 290 327 340 351 361 365
Correct table 1
𝑛 365
= =182.5 ½
2 2

median class = 19.5 – 24.5 ½

OR
(ii) (b) 62 + 132 + 96 + 37 + 13 + 11 + 10 = 361 2
(iii) 3median = mode + 2 mean 1

38.

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Sol. 173250= 2 × 53 × 32 × 7 × 11
(i) 3 1
(ii) (a) 173250= 2 × 53 × 32 × 7 × 11 1
Number of students in the class = 3 + 2 + 1 + 1 = 7 1

OR
(ii) (b) 173250= 2 × 53 × 32 × 7 × 11 1
Highest prime number used by students = 11 1
(iii) 5 1

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