Bản sao của P2 Tuyen tap de HSg anh Van 10

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO PHÚ YÊN ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TRƯỜNG
TRƯỜNG THPT NGÔ GIA TỰ LỚP 11 THPT - NĂM HỌC 2019-2020

MÔN: ANH VĂN
Thời gian: 120 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề)
Lưu ý: Đề thi có 06 trang. Thí sinh làm bài trên đề thi
LISTENING
I. You will hear a woman talking on the radio about an exhibition of food and cooking. Listen and
fill in the missing information in the numbered space. You will hear the piece twice. (2 points)
THE GOOD FOOD SHOW
At the Capital Exhibition Centre
At the show, you can:

 buy Jane Adams' new book about making (1)__________
 get advice about buying fresh fish
 watch how to cook a lunch just with (2)____________
 learn how to make a dessert in less than (3)___________
 taste food from many different countries - the food from (4)___________
is specially recommended.
The show finishes on (5)___________.
ANSWERS
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
II. You will hear part of a local radio programme in which someone is talking about a shopping
centre. Listen and choose the correct answers. You will hear the piece twice. (2 points)
1. The shopping centre opened __________.
A. three weeks ago B. two months ago C. three years ago
2. The speaker suggests the best way of travelling to Waterside is by __________.
A. coach B. car C. train
3. On Fridays the shops are open from ___________.
A. 9 to 9 B. 10 to 8 C. 10 to 9
4. On the third level, you can ___________.
A. get information B. watch a film C. find a bank
5. What does the speaker complain about?
A. There was nowhere to put rubbish.
B. The food in the café was disappointing.
C. The service in the shops was slow.
ANSWERS
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Trang1
VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Choose the correct answer (4 points)
1. You are old enough to take _______ for what you have done.
A. responsible B. responsibility C. responsibly D. irresponsible
2. She met him in 1995 and they _______ good friends since then.
A. were B. are C. have been D. had been
3. Mary was the last applicant ________.
A. to interview B. interviewing C. being interviewed D. to be interviewed
4. In his family, his father always takes charge of doing _______ lifting.
A. strong B. hard C. heavy D. huge
5. The equipment in our office needs _________.
A. modernizing B. to modernize C. modernize D. to modernizing
6. I hate _______ personal questions by newly-acquainted friends.
A. to ask B. being asked C. to be asked D. asking
7. Tell me the day ________ you want to leave.
A. which B. in which C. that D. when
8. The bank has over 100 branches, _______ in a major urban area.
A. each locating B. and are located C. each located D. the location of which
9. The guidance counselor urged ________ a foreign language.
A. all of us studying B. us all to study C. all that we study D. that all we study
10. As I liked your photo. I had it _______.
A. enlarge B. to enlarge C. enlarging D. enlarged
11. The Eiffel Tower, ________ design was revolutionary at its time, is still a marvelous structure.
A. which B. that C. whose D. of which
12. _____ of all the staff, I would like to wish you a happy retirement.
A. Instead B. In place C. On behalf D. On account
13. Have you been to the new shopping centre on the _____ of town?
A. centre B. middle C. outskirts D. suburbs
14. Global warming is thought ______ by pollution.
A. to be caused B. is caused C. to cause D. be caused
15. ________ travelling is educational, it can also be stressful and expensive.
A. Since B. Providing C. As though D. While
16. I had my sister take care ______ my children while I was _______ business.
A. with/ for B. in/ away C. for/ in D. of/ on
ANSWERS
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.
II. Give the correct form of the word given in brackets (2 points)
The position of sport in today's society has changed out of all recognition. People no longer
seem to think of sport as "just a game" - to be watched or played for the sake of (1.ENJOY)________.
Instead, it has become big business worldwide. It has become accepted practice for
(2.LEAD)__________ companies to provide sponsorship. TV companies pay large sums of money to
screen important matches or (3.COMPETE)_________. The result has been huge
Trang2
(4.FINANCE)_______rewards for athletes, some of whom are now very wealthy, particularly top
footballers, golfers and tennis players. In addition, it is not (5. USUAL)________ for some athletes to
receive large fees on top of their salary, for advertising products or making personal appearances.
A trend towards shorter working hours means that people (6.GENERAL)_______ tend to have
more time, both to watch and to take part in sporting activity; sport has become a
(7.SIGNIFY)_______ part of the recreation industry that we now rely on to fill our leisure hours.
Professional sport is a vital part of that industry, providing (8.PLEASE)_______ for millions of
ordinary people all over the world.
ANSWERS
1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7. 8.
III. Identify the mistake in each sentence and correct them (1 point)
0. Supposing you win the game, what would you do?
1. Sometimes mistakes are made because the tiredness of the machine operators.
2. I would rather to have sandwiches than a cooked lunch.
3. The woman asked me how depth the pool was.
4. Original, there were only 200 paintings in this room, but now there are more than 2000 ones.
ANSWERS: 0. win  won

1. 2.
3. 4.
READING
I. Choose the word that best completes the sentences in the text (1,5 points )
If you take a walk through Reykjavik - the capital of Iceland this summer, you'll see groups of
young people working in parks, gardens and green areas around the city. Most (1)______ these kids
are in high schools but they spend the summer keeping the city green as part of a program (2)_______
as "work school".
The "work school" (3)_______ of a surprisingly large number of Reykjavik's teenagers.
Roughly 75% of Reykjavik's 14-year-olds and 60% of the city's 16-year-olds take (4)_______.
They get paid for their work, and the same time they improve the environment of their city.
They also learn (5)_________ to work as a member of a team which is led by an adult. This
experience provides them with useful skills for (6)_________ they leave education and enter the world
of work.
1. A. for B. of C. from D. with
2. A. called B. noted C. known D. said
3. A. consists B. involves C. contains D. employs
4. A. away B. place C. up D. part
5. A. how B. where C. why D. then
6. A. although B. when C. unless D. while
ANSWERS
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
Trang3
II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (1 point)
BAKING BY SAM JARVIS, AGED 12
My grandmother loves making bread and cakes, and is always surprised that the rest of my
family never do any baking. So my parents decided they'd take me and my younger sister on a course,
so that we could all find out how to make bread - and pizza, our favourite food! We booked our places,
and set off for Oakton Farm in the countryside.
It was a very long drive, and when we arrived we went straight to bed. The next morning we
got up early, fed the ducks on the lake, and looked at the bull in the next field. Then we met our
teacher, Michael, who seemed quite strict, and the other parents and children, who were really friendly.
The cooking part was brilliant. Michael gave us long white coats to wear, which we all felt a bit
silly in. Then we all made bread rolls, mixing flour and water with our hands. My sister kept
complaining at first. Then even she started to enjoy it, and to concentrate on following the instructions.
Dad made lots of mess, I got flour on the floor and in my hair, and Mum didn't even get angry! I took
ages to make my rolls, though.
We finally put our initials on the bottom of each roll, then made some pizzas and decorated
them, which was fun. And we didn't even have to do the washing-up! For something to do while the
pizzas were cooking, we all went for a swim in the lake. It was fantastic. Then we went back inside
and ate our pizzas. They were the best we'd ever tasted!
1. What is Sam trying to do in the text?
A. explain how to bake cakes
B. discuss the importance of knowing how to cook
C. describe how he enjoyed a day with his family
D. inform readers about life on a farm
2. Sam's parents took the children to Oakton Farm because they wanted them to
A. learn a new skill. B. make something for their grandmother.
C. spend time in the countryside. D. meet other people the same age.
3. What do we learn about Oakton Farm?
A. It has lots of animals living there. B. It was far from where they lived.
C. It was just like Sam expected. D. It was run by a friendly man.
4. What does Sam say about his cooking experience?
A. He was better at it than his sister.
B. He liked wearing the clothes he was given.
C. He could be untidy without getting into trouble.
D. He was the first to finish.
ANSWERS
1. 2. 3. 4.
III. Fill in the gap with ONE suitable word (2 points )

Is your school just as you want (0)_______ to be? Or are there things you and your classmates
would change, given the opportunity? This is your chance to express your ideas about (1)_______ the
idea school is like. Our competition is open to (2)________ student between the ages of twelve and
eighteen. You can enter (3)________ an individual or your whole class can work together on a team
entry. Your entry can take any form - a piece of writing, a picture, or even architectural plans. It is
Trang4
completely up to you. What we are looking for is evidence (4)________ originality, imagination and
all, the genuine views of young people.
By (5)_______ part in this, you will help in a study being carried out at a leading university.
All work entered for the competition will be kept at the university and used in research. Entries can not
be returned (6)________ of this. But it also means that, even (7)_______ you do not win, your views
will still be heard and will remain for future educationalists to study.
Entries must reach us no later (8)________ Wednesday 30 October. Winners will receive
valuable prizes of computer equipment and software for their schools.
ANSWERS: 0. it
1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7. 8.
WRITING
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word
given. Do not change the word given (1,5 points )
1. Your new car is very similar to my brother's. LOT
 There is not ____________________________________________.
2. No one has ever stolen my car. HAD
 I have _________________________________________________.
3. The last time I saw Tom was the day he got married in 1995. WEDDING
 I haven't _______________________________________________.
4. You shouldn't take any notice of his advice. LISTEN
 If I were you, ___________________________________________.
5. The wall collapsed because it hadn't been properly reinforced. FAULTY
 It was __________________________________________________.
6. I am absolutely sure we will win the match tomorrow. DOUBT
 There's absolutely ________________________________________.
II. Writing: (3 points )

The earth is being filled with waste materials such as plastic bags and other rubbish. What
should we do to solve this problem?
Write a composition about 150 words to express your idea.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Trang5
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
_________________THE END_________________
Trang6
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO PHÚ YÊN ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TRƯỜNG
TRƯỜNG THPT NGÔ GIA TỰ LỚP 11 THPT - NĂM HỌC 2019-2020
MÔN: ANH VĂN
LISTENING
I. (2 points) (0,4p/ 1 sentence)
1. cakes 2. vegetables 3. 15 minutes 4. Canada 5. March 23rd
II. (2points) (0,4p /1 sentence)

1. A 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. A
VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

I. Choose the correct answer (4 points) (0,25p/1sentence)
1. B 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. D 8. C
9. B 10. D 11. C 12. C 13. C 14. A 15. D 16. D
II. Give the correct form of the word given in brackets (2 points) (0,25p/1sentence)
1. enjoyment 2. leading 3. competitions 4. financial
5. unusual 6. generally 7. significant 8. pleasure
III. Identify the mistake in each sentence and correct them (1 point) (0,25p/1sentence)
1. because  because of 2. to have  have
3. depth  deep 4. Original  Originally
READING
I. Choose the word that best completes the sentences in the text (1,5 points ) (0,25p/1sentence)
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. A 6. B
II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (1point) (0,25p/1sentence)
1. C 2. A 3. B 4. C
III. Fill in the gap with ONE suitable word (2 points ) (0,25p/1sentence)
1. what 2. every/ any 3. as 4. of
5. taking 6. because 7. if 8. than
WRITING
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given.
Do not change the word given (1,5 points ) (0,25p/1sentence)
1. Your new car is very similar to my brother's. LOT
(There is not a lot of difference between your new car and my brother's.)
2. No one has ever stolen my car. HAD
( I have never had my car stolen)
3. The last time I saw Tom was the day he got married in 1995. WEDDING
( I haven't seen Tom since his wedding day in 1995.)
4. You shouldn't take any notice of his advice. LISTEN
( If I were you, I wouldn't listen to his advice)
5. The wall collapsed because it hadn't been properly reinforced. FAULTY
( It was faulty reinforcement that caused the wall to collapse.)
6. I am absolutely sure we will win the match tomorrow. DOUBT
( There's absolutely no doubt in my mind that we will win the match tomorrow.)
II. Writing: (3 points )

The earth is being filled with waste materials such as plastic bags and other rubbish. What should we do
to solve this problem? Write a composition about 150 words to express your idea.
Trang7
VnDoc - Tải tài liệu, văn bản pháp luật, biểu mẫu miễn phí
ĐỀ LUYỆN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 10
MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2019 - 2020
A. LISTENING (15 points)

Part 1. Listen to a conversation between an optometrist and a patient and fill in the form.
Write no more than 3 words or numbers for each blank
Patient record
Time of appointment (1)…………………………..
Given name Simon Anthony
Family name (2)………………………….
Date of birth (3)………………………….., 1989
Address (4)………………………….., Adam Terrace,
Wellington
Name of insurance (5)…………………………..
company
Date of last eye test September 2006
Patient’s observations Problems seeing the distance
Part 2:
You are going to hear a travel agent discussing the holiday booking with 2 customers. Listen
to their conversation and decide whether the statements are True (T), False (F) or Not given
(NG)
Statements T F NG
6. They want to book a holiday for July
7. They have decided where to go for the holiday.
8. Both customers are free to travel in the first week.
9. Last year, both of them visited France
10. They would like to go to the mountains for skiing this year
11. They don’t want to go to Italy because the dates don’t suit
them.
12. They don’t like to go to Sweden because there are no beaches
1
13. It would be 385 pounds for them to visit Portugal.

14. The customers prefer to visit Portugal by flight from London.
15. The flight stops at Manchester on the way to Portugal.
B. PHONETICS (5 points).
Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others.
16. A. community B. developing C. conditioner D. interested
17. A. continue B. importance C. different D. directed
18. A. medicines B. opposite C. pollution D. capable
19. A. preservation B. inspiration C. disposable D. popularity
20. A. exhausted B. atmosphere C. suspect D. computer
C. GRAMMAR- VOCABULARY-LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS
I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence (15 points).
21. Hoa: “Are you going to buy a new computer or just continue using the old one?”
Mary: “_________”
A. Yes, I am. B. Yes, I’d like one. Thank you.
C. That’s impossible. I can’t afford a new one. D. Neither. I’m going to lease one.
22. Mr. Black: “What a lovely house you have!”
Mr John: “_________”
A. No problem B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.
C. Of course not, it’s not costly D. I think so.
23. You have never been to Italy, ________?
A. have you B. haven’t you C. did you D. had you
24. You can’t tell what someone is like just from their ________.
A. character B. looking C. appearance D. personality
25. “How is it going?” - “________”
A. By bike B. Not much C. It sounds better D. Mustn’t grumble
26. ________ a dentist, Mike is very concerned about having healthy teeth.
A. Because B. He is C. As D. That he is
27. ________, you need to achieve a score of 60% or more.
A. To pass this test B. For being passed this test
2
C. In order pass this test D. So that to pass this test

28. As a famous person ________ many children admire, it is important for her to act
responsibly.
A. whose B. whom C. which D. when
29. The brochure says that the hotel has a great ________ of the sea.
A. appearance B. look C. sight D. view
30. Our new coach is popular ________ the whole team.
A. with B. to C. by D. for
31. As soon as you ________ that, I’d like you to go to bed.
A. have done B. did C. will do D. will have done
32. Margaret was slow at school, but she went on ________ Prime Minister.
A. being B. to be C. having been D. to have been
33. In 1870, ________, John D. Rockefeller and others created the Standard Oil Company.
A. in spite of oil prices fluctuated B. despite fluctuating oil prices
C. but the oil prices fluctuated D. oil prices were fluctuating
34. They’re staying in rented accommodation for the time ________.
A. going B. making C. doing D. being
35. “I have an idea. Let’s go for a swim on Sunday afternoon”. - “________”
A. OK, what time? B. You’re kidding C. I know D. I’m sure
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (10 points).
36. We found it ____________ (thrill) to your wonderful news.
37. He left the room without any ____________ (explain).
38. He didn’t feel happy because he worked ____________ (success).
39. Many people expressed ____________ (disagree) with the whole idea.
40. There was a ____________ (wide) dissatisfaction with the government’s policies.
41. Her health has ____________ (bad) considerably since we last saw her.
42. A lot of plants and animals could be used as medicines against cancer, AIDS, heart
diseases and other ____________ (sick).
43. He was ____________ (information) of the consequences in advance.
44. I was kept ____________ (wake) last night by the noise from a party in the flat above.
45. This road is so bad that it needs ____________ (surface).
3
III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting (5 points).
46. Last week unless (A) my mother had had (B) enough money (C), she would have bought (D)
that toy for me.
47. It often takes (A) me about fifteen minutes (B) to go (C) to work from here by foot (D).
48. Those people say that (A) it is such polluted air (B) that they can’t breath (C), don’t they (D)?
49. It is noisy enough (A) in this room, so (B) I would (C) rather you stop (D) shouting like that.
50. Dr. Roberts, the first woman to be elected president (A) of the university, is (B) intelligent,
capable and awareness (C) of the problem to be solved (D).
D. READING
I. There are 5 blanks in the passage below. From the words given in the box, choose the
most suitable for each blank. There are more words than blanks, so you don’t need all of
them. (5 points).
A. terrible B. size C. hope D. wrong E. loose F. problem G. want
Choosing clothes can be difficult. Some people (51)________ to be fashionable, but they don’t want
to look exactly like everybody else. Not all clothes are suitable for work or school, perhaps because
they are not formal enough, or simply not comfortable. It is easy to buy the (52)_________ size, and
find that your trousers are too tight, especially if you are a little bit overweight. Very (53)________
clothes make you feel slim, but when they have shrunk in the washing machine, then you have the
same (54)________! If you buy light cotton clothes, then they might not be warm enough for winter.
If your shoes are not tight, and if you aren’t dressed for the cold, you might look good, but feel
(55)________!
II. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space.
(10 points)
Schools in the United States have not always had a large number of libraries. As (56)________as
1958 about half of the public schools in the United States had no libraries at all. The number of
public school libraries increased dramatically (57)_______ the federal government passed the
Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965, ( 58)_______ provided funds for school districts
to improve their education programs and facilities, including their libraries. (59) ________, many
educators claim that since the legislation was passed federal spending has not increased sufficiently
to meet the rising (60)______ of new library technologies such as computer databases and Internet
access.
4
Because the federal government provides only limited funds to schools, individual school districts
(61) _______ on funds from local property taxes to meet the vast majority of public school expenses.
Therefore, the libraries of the public schools tend to reflect the (62) ______ capabilities of the
communities in which they are located. Districts in wealthy suburbs often have fully staffed libraries
(63) _______ abundant resources, spacious facilities, and curricular and instructional support. In (64)
______, school districts in many poor areas house their libraries in ordinary classrooms or in small
rooms. The libraries in such areas are generally staffed by volunteers, who organize and (65)
______ books that are often out-of-date, irrelevant, or damaged.
56. A. freshly B. recently C. frequently D. newly
57. A. though B. with C. during D. when
58. A. that B. who C. which D. this
59. A. Nevertheless B. Therefore C. Consequently D. Otherwise
60. A. fine B. fee C. cost D. sum
61. A. go B. come C. rely D. stay
62. A. educational B. economical C. political D. financial
63. A. for B. with C. on D. by
64. A. country B. converse C. contrast D. conflict
65. A. attain B. obtain C. contain D. maintain
III. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D(10 points).
Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season.
Drying, smoking and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat,
like that of fresh milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage.
But in 1810, a French inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of
canning. And in the 1850’s an American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing and
preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became more common during the 1860’s, but
supplies remained low because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880, however, inventors had
fashioned stamping and soldering machines that mass-produced cans from tinplate. Suddenly all
kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year.
Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their daily diets.
Growing urban population created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise more
produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great
5
distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890’s, northern city dwellers could
enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously available for a month at
most, for up to six months of the year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to
store perishables. As easy means of producing ice commercially had been invented in the 1870’s,
and by 1900 the nation had more than two thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made
home deliveries. The icebox became a fixture in most homes and remained so until the mechanized
refrigerator replaced it in the 1920’s and 1930’s.
Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly foods that
were heavily in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless, many
families could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to
achieve more varied fare.
66. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Causes of food spoilage
B. Commercial production of ice
C. Population movements in the nineteenth century
D. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet
67. The phrase “in season” in line 1 refers to
A. a particular time of year B. a kind of weather
C. an official schedule D. a method of flavoring
68. During the 1860’s, canned food products were
A. unavailable in rural areas B. available in limited quantities
C. shipped in refrigerator cars D. a staple part of the American diet.
69. It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use
A. before 1860 B. before 1890 C. after 1900 D. after 1920
70. The word “them” in line 13 refers to
A. refrigerator cars B.growers C. perishables D. distances.
71. The word “fixture” in line 18 is closest in meaning to
A. commonplace object B. substance C. luxury item D. mechanical device
72.The author implies that in the 1920’s and 1930’s home deliveries of ice
A. increased in cost B. occurred only in the summer
C. decreased in number D. were on an irregular schedule
6
73. The word “Nevertheless” in line 21 is closest meaning to

A. occasionally B. however C. therefore D. because
74. Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Drying B. Chemical additives C. Canning D. Cold storage
75. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A. Most farmers in the United States raised only fruits and vegetables.
B. People who lived in cities demanded home delivery of foods.
C. Tin cans and iceboxes helped to make many foods more widely available.
D. Commercial ice factories were developed by railroad owners
E. Writing
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentences printed before. (5 points)
76. Having nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.
- Since.............................................................................................................................
77. She was not only bad-tempered but also very lazy.
- As well .....................................................................................................................…
78. “ Nothing will persuade me to apply for that kind of job.” She said.
_ She flatly.......................................................................................................................
79. The school I studied at last year was better than this one.
- This school isn’t..........................................................................................................…
80. You must leave now, or you’ll miss the bus.
- You’ll miss......................................................................................................................
II. Use the suggested words and phrases to write complete sentences of a letter. (10 points)
Dear Sir or Madam.
81. I/ write/ complain/ hair drier/ buy/ your shop/ last Saturday/ and/ treatment/ I receive/ when/ I
try/ return/ a few days later.
82.I buy/ hair drier/ Wednesday, November 22 nd .
83. first time/ try/ use/ handle become/ extremely hot/ and within a few minutes/ part/ plastic casing/
begin/ melt.
84. I turn/ off/ immediately/ return/ with/ receipt/ your shop/ Saturday.
85. I explain/ situation/ one/ assistants/ ask/ money back/ but / be told/ speak/ you.
7
86. Unfortunately you/ not available/ that day/ I/ write instead.

87. I enclose/ hair drier/ copy of/ original receipt.
88. Please send/ full fund/ soon/ possible.
Yours faithfully,
III. Write a paragraph of about 120 words on the following topic: ( 10 points)
What club do you want to be founded in your school? Why?
ĐÁP ÁN
A. LISTENING: ( 15 points) ( 1 point for each correct answer)
Part 1.
1. 10 am 2. Lee
3. June 1 st 4. University Hall 5. Health for Life
Part 2:
6. T 7. F 8. F 9. T 10. NG 11. T 12. NG 13. T 14. F 15. NG
B. PHONETICS: ( 5 points) ( 1 point for each correct answer)
16. D 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. B
C. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS.
I. Choose the word, phrases or expression which best completes each sentence. (15 points) ( 1
point for each correct answer)
21. D 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. D 26. A 27. A 28.B
29. D 30.A 31. A 32. B 33. B 34. D 35.A
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (10 points) (1 point for each correct answer)
36. THRILLING
37. EXPLANATION
38. UNSUCCESSFULLY
39. DISAGREEMENTS
40. WIDESPREAD
41. WORSENED
42. SICKNESSES
43. INFORMED
44. AWAKE
45. RESURFACING
8
III. Choose the underlined word or phrases in each sentence that needs correcting. ( 5
points) (1 point for each correct answer)
46.A 47. D 48. C 49. D 50.C
D. READING:
most suitable for each blank. There are more words than blanks, so you don’t need all of
them. ( 5 points) (1 point for each correct answer)
51. G 52.D 53.E 54.F 55.A
II. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space.
( 10 points) (1 point for each correct answer)
56. B 57. D 58. C 59. A 60. C
61. C 62. D 63. B 64. C 65. D
III. Read the passage and choose the correct answer. ( 10 points) (1 point for each correct
answer)
66.D 67. A 68. B 69.B 70.C 71.A 72.C 73.B 74.B 75.C
E. WRITING.
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as
the sentence printed before it. ( 5 points). ( 1 point for each correct answer)
76. Since we had nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.
Or (Since we didn’t have anything else to do, we decided to go for a walk.)
77. As well as being bad-tempered, she’s very lazy.
78. She flatly refused to apply for that kind of job.
79. This school isn’t as/so good as the one ( that/which) I studied at last year.
Or (This school isn’t as/so good as the one at which/ where I studied last year.)
80. You’ll miss the bus if you don’t leave now.
Or (You’ll miss the bus unless you leave now.)
II. Use the words or phrases suggested to write full sentences to make a letter. (10 points)
Dear Sir or Madam.
81. I am writing to complain about the/a hair drier (0.5)( which/that I) bought in your shop last
Saturday(0.5) and the treatment (which/that) I received (0.5)when trying/I tried to return it
a few days later.(0.5)
9
82. I bought the hair drier(0.5) on Wednesday, November 22 nd .(0.5)

83. The first time I tried to use it,(0.5) the handle became extremely hot (0.5)and within a few
minutes part of the plastic casing began to melt.(0.5)
84. I turned it off immediately (0.5)and returned it with the receipt to your shop on Saturday.(0.5)
85. I explained the situation to one of the/ your assistants (0.5)and asked for my/the money back(0.5)
but I was told (that I had) to speak to you.(0.5)
86. Unfortunately, you were not available that day,(0.5) so I am writing instead.(0.5)
87. I enclose the hair drier(0.5) and a/the copy of the original receipt.(0.5)
88. Please send me a full refund (0.5) as soon as possible (0.5)
Yours faithfully.
III. Write a paragraph of about 120 words on the following topic. ( 10p)
1. Form: (paragraph) (1 point)
2. Content: (4 points )
Good topic sentence (0.5 p) and appropriate supporting ideas (3.5 points)
3. Language: (5 pts)
+ Appropriate vocabulary (1.5p)
+ Suitable connectors (0.5)
+ Correct grammar (2.5 p)
+ Punctuating/ Spelling (0.5p)
Mời bạn đọc tham khảo thêm tài liệu Tiếng Anh lớp 10 tại đây:
Bài tập Tiếng Anh lớp 10 theo từng Unit: https://vndoc.com/tieng-anh-lop-10
Bài tập Tiếng Anh lớp 10 nâng cao: https://vndoc.com/tieng-anh-pho-thong-lop-10
Bài tập trắc nghiệm trực tuyến môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10: https://vndoc.com/test/mon-tieng-anh-lop-10
10
B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR: ( 6 ms)

I. Choose the best option:( 2ms)
1. He was offered the job ………….his qualifications were poor
a. although b. in spite of c. because of d. because
2. It’s no use …………. a language if you don’t try to speak it
a. learned b. to learn c. learn d. learning
3. He …………. me to take a lawyer to the court with me
a. advised c. suggested b. threatened d. insisted
4. She came in quietly ……………the baby
a. in order to not wake b. so as not to wake
c. to not wake d. to wake
5. ……………you have no keys, you ‘ll have to get back before I go out
a. If b. Although c. Unless d. As
6. I really prefer just about anything …………..watching TV
a. from b. or c. than d. to
7. Gold ……………..near San Francisco in 1848 and the gold rush started the following year
a. has been discovered b. discovered c. was discovered d. is discovered
8. I regret ……………. you that we can’t approve your application
a. inform b. to inform c. informing d. informed
9. If I had gone to the bank this morning, I …………money from you now
a. would not borrow b. would not have borrowed
c. will not borrow d. will no have borrowed
II. Give the correct from of the words in brackets: ( 2ms)
1. He is engrossed in doing ( SCIENCE) …………….. research
2. They entered the areas without ( PERMIT) ……………..
3. He wants (WIDTH) ……………… his knowledge of the subject
4. The giant panda is a(n) (DANGER) ……………..species
5. What makes the computer a (MIRACLE). …………device ?
1
6. You may be surprised at the large (VARIED) ……………..of animals in national parks
7. The architecture in the downtown area is a successful (COMBINE) ………….of old and new
8. He came first in the poetry (COMPETED) ……………..
III. Give the correct tenses of the verbs in brackets (2ms)
Mary (1. have) ……………….to go to New York last week, but she almost
(2.miss) ……………the plane. She (3. stand) ………………in the queue at the check-in desk when she
suddenly (4. realize) ………….. that she (5. leave) …………….her passport at home. Fortunately, she
( 6.not/ live)………….. very far from the airport so she (7. have)…………..time to go home to get the
passport. She (8. get) ……………. back to the airport just in time for her flight
C. READING COMPREHENSION: (6ms)
I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (1.5ms):
For the last few years, my children have been going to a summer camp in northern Greece
called Skouras Camp. They always seem to have a good time. , so if you’ re wondering what to do with
the kids for three weeks this summer, you could do worse than send them to this beautiful camp on the
shores of the Aegean Sea. If your children, like mine, are keen on adventure, sports and good company,
the Skouras Camp will keep them busy all day doing the things they most enjoy. Skouras is an
international camp with children from all over the world. My children have made friends with children
with of their own age from Poland , China, Denmark and the United States. Naturally they get lots of
opportunities to practice their English as this is the only language spoken. The camp is located in one of
the most beautiful parts of Chalkidiki. It is huge (120,000 square meters) and is just a stone’s throw
away from the clear, blue Aegean Sea. It takes the children just five minutes to walk to the golden
sandy beach on foot. The programme is packed with exciting activities such as horse riding and table
tennis. Other sports include basketball, volleyball and athletics. The Camps end with a sports contest in
the last week which all parents are invited to attend.
1. All the children come to the camp have to ………..
a. be at the same age b. be only keen on adventure
c. speak English d. practice basketball
2. How many kinds of sports can be played in the Camp?
a. 5 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
3. All the statements are true EXCEPT ………………
a. The children will be busy taking part in the Camp’s programmed activities
2
b. The Camp is quite far from the Aegean Sea

c. The parents can attend their children’s sports contest
d. The children will take more chances of English practice
4. The tone of the passage could best be described as …………….
a. negative b. disbelieving c. supportive d. humourous
5. What should be the best title for the passage?
a. an international summer camp b. Children’s summer activities
c. Advice on children caring in summer d. Chalkidiki’s landscape- the Aegean Sea
6. How long does it take the children to walk to the golden sandy beach on foot?
a. an hour b. 20 minutes c. 5 minutes d. a day
II. Read the following passage and choose the best option to fill in the gap (2.5 ms)
The (1) …………. part in Ioannina is the lake front. Ships fetch more people and tourists to the
island. Near the front lake (2) …………….an ancient castle. If you go for a (3) …………. in the night
to the front lake you’ll see (4) …………. lights that shines in the castle. A second way is to go around
on a mountain. There you can see the whole town. In the night with so many lights, it looks to you
(5) ………….a sky.
Another beautiful part in this town (6) ……………the large clock in the square. Specifically, the
clock (7) ……………… in the center of the city. My town also has many museums. Paul Vrellis, who
is a professor, put in many different and other important people from the 1st and 2nd world war with
wax. In my opinion, it’s (8)…………… museum.
About remains, there are two renowned theaters. There’s the theater of Dodoni, which is
situated in the (9) ………… of the city. It’s normally out of the city. Every summer the most
(10) ………. actors of the capital of Greece come to perform there.
1. a. more beautiful b. as beautiful c. so beautiful d. most beautiful
2. a. there is b. it is c. it has d. there has
3. a. picnic b. walk c. jog d. run
4. a. more brilliant b. as brilliant c. much brilliant d. most brilliant
5. a. from b. as c. like d. to
6. a. be b. are c. is d. to be
7. situated b. is situated c. be situated d. are situated
8. a. the most best b. the better c. the best d. the well
3
9. a. outskirt b. top c. side d. edge

10. a. famous b. fame c. famed d. known
III. Read the passage bellow and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word (2ms)
Today in China (1) …………….……large scale destruction of forests has occurred, the government
has required that every citizen (2)……………..the age of 11 and 60 plant three to five trees
(3) ……………...year or do the equivalent amount of work in other forest services. The government
claims that at ( 4) ……………..1000 million trees have been planted in China every year
(5) ……………..1982. In Western countries, increasing consumer demand for wood products that
have been produced cause forest land-owners and forest industries to become increasingly accountable
for their forest management and timber harvesting practices.
The Arbor Day Foundation’s Rain Forest Rescue programme is a charity that helps to
(6) ………………deforestation. The charity uses money to buy up (7) ……………preserve rainforest
land before the lumber companies can buy it. The Arbor Day Foundation then (8)……………. the land
from deforestation
D. WRITING ( 6ms)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it (2ms)
Example: I haven’t enjoyed myself so much for years
Answer : It’s years since I enjoyed myself so much
1. There’s a large restaurant in the art gallery
→ The art gallery ………………………………
2. I haven’t seen that man here before.
→ It’s ………………………………………….
3. Although Bob didn’t speak Dutch, he decided to settle in Amsterdam
→ In spite of ………………………………………………………………
4. Without this treatment, the patient have died
→ If the patient hadn’t …………………………….
5. The keepers feed the lions at 3 p.m everyday.
→ The lions ………………………………………….
6. John finds astronomy very interesting
→ John is ………………………………..
4
7. The cinema didn’t become an industry until 1915

→ It was not ………………………………………...
8. “I like your coat , I’m looking for one like that myself” she said to me
→ She told me ……………………………………………………………
II. Read the text below and look carefully at each line. Some of the lines are correct, and some
have a word which should not be there. If a line is correct, put a tick (√) by the number in the
space provided. If a line has a word which should not be there, write the word in the space
provided. There is an example at the beginning (2ms)
The Spy Returns is a very interesting film that about a wealthy 0. that……….
man who visits Italy. He doesn’t think that Rome is interesting 1..…………….
and he is very bored with there. Then suddenly one night he is 2.……………
very surprised that a beautiful girl who runs up to him and gives 3.……………
him a mysterious letter. From that moment his life is no longer 4……………
boring. He does too a lot of dangerous things. For example, 5..……………
he jumped into a lake to save a famous person. The film is 6.……………
a very thrilling indeed. I have watched it twice but I always 7.…………...
want to see it again. I think many people do it so 8.…………….
III. Write an essay of 120-150 words expressing the advantages and disadvantages
of the Internet (2ms)
ĐÁP ÁN
B. VOCABUALRY & GRAMMAR: (6 điểm)
I. 2 điểm ( mỗi lựa chọn đúng 0.25 đ)
1. a 5.a
2.d 6.d
3.a 7.c
4.b 8.b
II. 2 điểm (mỗi từ đúng 0.25 đ)
1. scientific 5. miraculous
2. permission 6. variety
3. widen 7. combination
4. endangered 8. competition
5
III. 2 điểm ( mỗi thì chia đúng được 0.25 đ)

1. had 5. had left
2. missed 6. doesn’t live
3. was standing 7. had
4. realized 8. got
C. READING ( 6 điểm)
I. 1.5 điểm ( mỗi lựa chọn đúng o.25 đ)
1. c
2. a
3. b
4. c
5. a
6. c
II. 2.5 điểm ( mỗi lựa chọn đúng 0.25đ)
1. d 6. a
2. a 7.b
3. b 8. c
4. a 9. d
5. c 10. a
III. 2 điểm ( mỗi từ đúng 0.25đ)
1. where
2. between
3. per
4. least
5. since
6. prevent
7. and
8. protects
D. WRITING: ( 6 điểm)
I. 2 điểm ( mỗi câu đúng 0.25 đ)
1. The art gallery has a large restaurant
6
2. It’s the first time ( that) I have seen this man here
3. In spite of not speaking Dutch, Bob decided to settle in Amsterdam
4. If the patient hadn’t been given this treatment, he would have died
5. The lions are fed by the keepers at p.m everyday
6. John is interested in astronomy
7. It was not until 1915 that the cinema became an industry
8. She told me that she liked my coat and (she) was looking fro one like it/that herself
II. 2 điểm ( mỗi câu đúng 0.25 đ)
1. √
2. with
3. who
4. √
5. too
6.√
7. a
8. it
III. 2 điểm
7
SỞ GD&ĐT HẢI DƯƠNG KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH LỚP 10 THPT
********* NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút
(Đề thi có 06 trang)
Chú ý: Thí sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy thi

Phần trắc nghiệm: Chỉ cần viết đáp án A, hoặc B, C, D
Phần tự luận: Viết đầy đủ theo yêu cầu của bài
(Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì.)
A. LISTENING
Hướng dẫn làm bài Nghe:
Bài Nghe gồm có 02 phần, mỗi phần thí sinh được nghe 02 lần. Mở đầu và kết thúc phần nghe có tín
hiệu nhạc.
Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) có trong bài.
Part I: Listen to the recording and choose the best answer to each question (7.0 points):
1. When was gold discovered in San Francisco?
A. In 1784 B. In 1848 C. In 1884 D. In 1948
2. Where is Sutter’s Mill located?
A. In the East of San Francisco. B. In the Northeast of San Francisco.
C. In the Southeast of San Francisco. D. In the Middle of San Francisco.
3. Among 100,000 people who reached the coast of California, only ________ were women.
A. 8,000 B. 18,000 C. 38,000 D. 28,000
4. ________had traveled overland across the American continent.
A. All of them B. Few of them C. Half of them D. More than half of
them
5. ________ were abandoned as everyone rushed to California.
A. Saloons, farms and houses B. Homes and farms
C. Homes, farms, stores and factories D. Homes, farms and stores
6. What happened to many of the ships which were anchored in San Francisco Bay?
A. They were preserved. B. They were sold.

C. They were deserted. D. They were destroyed .
7. It can be inferred from the listening that laws and orders at that time were ________.
A. violated B. respected C. modified D. observed
Part II: Listen to the recording and write down the correct answer A, or B, C to each question
(8.0 points):
SPEAKER WHERE PEOPLE DECIDE TO EAT
1 A. Chinese restaurant B. Fast Fried Chicken C. Fast food
2 A. Quick Burger B. Hamburgers C. Pizza Pit
3 A. home B. out C. restaurant
4 A. steak house B. Korean restaurant C. Japanese restaurant
5 A. seafood restaurant B. pizza restaurant C. steak house
6 A. Korean restaurant B. Japanese restaurant C. Mexican restaurant
7 A. fast-food restaurant B. French restaurant C. Hamburgers
8 A. French restaurant B. home C. Thai vegetarian restaurant
8. Speaker 1:_______ 9. Speaker 2:_______ 10. Speaker 3:_______ 11. Speaker 4:_______
12. Speaker 5:______ 13. Speaker 6:______ 14. Speaker 7:_______ 15. Speaker 8:_______
B. PHONETICS
Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from that of the others (5.0 points):
16. A. photographer B. participant C. professional D. destination
17. A. determine B. interrupt C. impossible D. atomic
18. A. nutritious B. contemptuous C. numerous D. contagious
19. A. questionnaire B. Japanese C. engineer D. practical
20. A. elephant B. rhinoceros C. habitat D. leopard
C. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS

I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence (20 points):
21. A number of houses were ________ so that a new school could be built.
A. wiped out B. destroyed C. demolished D. attacked

22. “I’m sorry, Mrs. Thomson. I didn’t break the clock ________ purpose,” said the little girl.
A. by B. on C. with B. for
23. Lama: “________, Lily?” Lily: “Oh, terrific. Thanks.”
A. What did you do during your geography field trip
B. How was your geography field trip
C. How did you spend your geography field trip
D. Did you have a nice geography field trip
24. It is commonly known that the Greenhouse Effect occurs ________ heat radiated from the Sun.
A. when the earth’s atmosphere trap
B. when does the earth’s atmosphere trap
C. when the earth’s atmosphere is trapped
D. when the earth’s atmosphere traps
25. The floor was so rotten that it almost gave ________ under Tommy’s weight.
A. way B. away C. back D. up
26. Boss: “Have you been able to reach that customer?” Secretary: “________.”
A. Oh, there’s no approval B. Yes, I have known him for 6 years
C. It’s much too high to reach D. Oh, no. The line’s busy
27. In Vietnam, many ________ crafts such as weaving and embroidering are now being revised.
A. ordinary B. traditional C. habitual D. customary
28. ________, Mike always feels lonely and unhappy.
A. Despite his wealthyB. However rich he is C. Rich as is he D. In spite of his
being wealth
29. About 600 years ago, ________ that glass coated with silver nitrate would turn yellow when fired
in an oven.
A. the discovery B. it discovered C. it was discovered D. it was discovering
30. Tom: “Do you want me to give you a hand with the washing?” Maria: “________.”
A. No, thanks. You can say that again B. No, thanks. I can manage it myself
C. Of course, not for me D. Thanks. Your hands are so warm.
31. Jack promised to join us for dinner, but, to our disappointment, he didn’t ________.
A. turn up B. take in C. make off D. pull out
32. The explorers ________ for two days without food before they ________ a small cottage under an
oak.
A. has been walking / saw B. were walking / saw
C. had been walking / saw D. walked / had seen
33. ________ blue whale, breathes air through a hole at the top of its head.
A. The B. The largest mammal C. The largest D. The largest mammal, the
34. Bob: “Take care of yourself, Kevin.” Kevin: “________.”
A. Yes, I do B. Not at all C. I will D. You’re welcome
35. I think my car needs________. It stops running every five or six miles.
A. to repair B. repairing C. to be repairing D. repaired
36. No sooner ________ home ________ that the house had been broken into.
A. had Ms. Taylor arrived / when she found B. had Ms. Taylor arrived / than she finds
C. had Ms. Taylor arrived / than she found D. did Ms. Taylor arrive / when she found
37. Mark: “Do you think that smoking should be banned in public.” Veronica: “________.”
A. Yes, it’s an absurd idea B. Well, that’s very surprising
C. Of course not. You bet D. There’s no doubt about it.
38. ________ to her cousin’s wedding party, she would not have met her old friend, Bob.
A. If Sarah didn’t go B. If Sarah hasn’t gone
C. Had Sarah not gone D. Has Sarah not gone
39. The long journey in an ________ car made the little boy tired out.
A. air-condition B. air-conditioned C. air-conditioner D. air-conditioning
40. The reporters thought that the football manager would be depressed by his dismissal, but he just
________.
A. ran it down B. called it off C. laughed it off D. turned it down
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (5.0 points):
41. As Vietnam is on the way to develop and integrate into the world, there is a great demand for
skillful (TECHNICAL) ________.
42. Many species of plants and animals found in this area can be dated back to (HISTORY)________
times.
43. The Prime Minister showed his nervousness by constantly (STRAIGHT) ________ his tie.
44. There isn’t enough coal for the coming winter, so we have to use it (SPARE) ________.
45. We are sorry for Jackie. She was (ORPHAN) ________ as a baby.
III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting (5.0 points):
46. Thanks to the Internet, businessmen do not hardly have to travel as much as they used to.
A B C D
47. Fertilizers are used primarily to enrich soil and increasing yield.
A B C D
48. It is a fact that each country has their own traditions, some of which have existed for hundreds of
years.
A B C D
49. Eric doesn’t care how much does the motorbike cost because he is going to buy it anyway.
A B C D
50. Surrounded by the forested mountain slopes are the town of Cornel, a former silver mining town
2,357 meters
A B C
above sea level.
D
D. READING
I. There are FIVE blanks in the passage below. From the options given in the box, choose the
most suitable for each blank. There are THREE EXTRA OPTIONS that you do not need to
use (5.0 points):
A. moreover, you will be asked to discuss E. regard geology as an academic subject
B. not necessarily the Earth F. enjoy the geological museum
C. earthquakes and volcanoes G. that is relevant to everyday life
D. however, you will discover that H. and more importantly, the moon
To many people, the word “geology” conjures up a rather dull image of lumps of rock in glass
cases. People tend to (51) ________ that you don’t need to know about unless you have to study it at
school. If you visit the Earth Galleries at London’s Natural history Museum, (52) ________ this image
couldn’t be further from the truth.
The aim of the exhibition is not to procedure future geologists, but rather to inspire interest in a
subject (53) ________ . The Earth Galleries turn the traditional idea of geological museum upside down
literally because you begin at the top. The central space in the museum is a glass-topped atrium. As you
enter, you ride up to the top of this by escalator. On the way, the escalator passes through a massive
revolving globe, measuring eleven meters in diameter. This represents a planet, (54) ________ . Once at
the top, you work your way down through the six different exhibitions that make up the museum.
The individual exhibitions explain natural phenomena such as (55) ________ as well as looking
at the Earth’s energy resources and where our most common building materials come from. These
exhibitions allow everyone to appreciate the fascination of geology.
II. Read the passage below and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space (10 points):
Face-to-face conversation is two-way process: You speak to me, I reply to you and so on. Two-
way (56) ________ depends on having a coding system that is (57) ________by both sender and
receiver, and an agreed convention about (58) ________ the beginning and end of the (59) ________.
In speech, the coding system is the language like English or Spanish; the convention (60) ________
one person speaks at a time may seem too obvious to mention. In fact, the (61)________ that people
use in conversations and meetings are often non-verbal. For example, lowering the pitch of the voice
may mean the end of a sentence, a sharp intake of breath may signal the desire to (62)________,
catching the chairman’s (63)________may indicate the desire to speak in a formal setting like a
(64)________, a clenched fist may indicate anger. When these (65)________ signals are not possible,
more formal signals may be needed.
56. A. communicator B. communication C. communicate D. communicating
57. A. known B. translated C. understood D. heard
58. A. signing B. symbolizing C. signalling D. showing
59. A. message B. topic C. idea D. theme
60. A. to which B. when C. why D. Ø
61. A. symptoms B. signals C. signs D. symbols
62. A. interfere B. interchange C. intercept D. interrupt
63. A. neck B. eye C. shoulder D. hand
64. A. chat B. debate C. broadcast D. lecture

65. A. visual B. auditory C. verbal D. sensory
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question (10 points):
Madison Square Garden, a world-famous sporting venue in New York City, has actually been a
series of buildings in varied locations rather than a single building in one spot. In 1873, P.T. Barnum
built Barnum’s Monster Classical and Geological Hippodrome at the corner of Madison Avenue and
26th Street, across from Madison Square Park. Two years later, bandleader Patrick Gilmore bought the
property, added statues and fountains, and renamed it Gilmore’s Gardens. When Cornelius Vanderbilt
bought the property in 1879, it was renamed Madison Square Garden.
A second very lavish Madison Square Garden was built at the same location in 1890, with a
ballroom, a restaurant, a theater, a rooftop garden, and a main arena with seating for 15,000. However,
this elaborate Madison Square Garden lasted until 1924 when it was torn down to make way for a
forty-storey skyscraper.
When the second Madison Square Garden had been replaced in its location across from
Madison Square Park, boxing promoter Tex Rickard raised six million dollars to build a new Madison
Square garden. This new Madison Square Garden was constructed in a different location, on 8th
Avenue and 50th Street and quite some distance from Madison Square Park and Madison Avenue.
Rickard’s Madison Square Garden served primarily as an arena for boxing prizefights and circus events
until it outgrew its usefulness by the late 1950s.
A new location was found for a fourth for Madison Square Garden, atop Pennsylvania Railroad
Station, and plans were announced for its construction in 1960. This current edifice, which includes a
huge sports arena, a bowling center, a 5,000-seat amphitheater, and a twenty-nine-storey office
building, does retain the traditional name Madison Square Garden. However, the name is actually quite
a misnomer. The building is not located near Madison Square, nor does it have the flowery gardens that
contributed to the original name.
66. The main point of this passage is that Madison Square Garden ________.
A. has had a varied history in various locations
B. was P.T. Barnum’s major accomplishment
C. is home to many different sporting events
D. was named after and adjacent park
67. Which paragraph discusses the third incarnation of Madison Square Garden?
A. The first paragraph. B. The second paragraph.
C. The third paragraph. D. The last paragraph.
68. What is a “venue” in paragraph 1?
A. A place where people come together. B. An event in a competition.
C. An exhibit of various products. D. An invitation to a program.
69. According to the passage, Patrick Gilmore did all of the following EXCEPT that he ________.
A. purchased the property at the corner of Madison Avenue and 26th Street
B. made improvements to the property that he bought
C. named the property that he bought Madison Square Garden
D. sold the property to Cornelius Vanderbilt
70. The word “lavish” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. simple B. modern C. elaborate D. outlandish
71. How long did the second Madison Square garden last?
A. 11 years B. 34 years C. 45 years D. 60 years
72. Which of the following would most likely have taken place at Rickard’s Madison Square Garden?
A. A balloon dance B. A theater production
C. A basketball game D. a tiger show
73. An “edifice” in paragraph 3 is most likely________.
A. an address B. an association C. a competition D. a building
74. Monster Classical and Geological Hippodrome was renamed Gilmore’s Gardens in ________.
A. 1890 B. 1879 C. 1875 D. 1874
75. What can be inferred about the current Madison Square Garden?
A. It is on Madison Avenue. B. It is across from Madison Square Park.
C. It has incredible gardens. D. It is above a transportation center.
E. WRITING
Part I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before (5.0 points):
76. Jenny entered the room quietly so that she would not disturb the lecturer.
 So as …………………………………………………………………………………….……………
77. The price of crude oil has decreased sharply in recent years.
 There ……………………….…………………………………………………….……………………
78. I don’t think it’s a good idea to invest all your money in the property market.
 Were……… ………………………………………………………………….……………………
79. Ben was too exhausted to complete the marathon race.
 So….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………
80. That is the funniest story that my children have ever read.
 My children have never ….. …………………………………………………………………………
Part II: Use the suggested words and phrases below to make a complete letter (10 points):
Dear Sir or Madam,
81. reply / your advertisement / Baltimore Sun newspaper / April 2, 2016 / I / write / apply / post /
secretary.
82. In / advertisement / you / say / you look / secretary / good typing skills / who / fluent / German.
83. I just / complete / two-year secretarial course / College of St. John.
84. At / end / course / I / pass all / exams / flying colors.
85. Before / I / start / course / I / spend / 2 years / Hanover / live / German family.
86. While / I / there / I / learn / speak German / fluent.
87. addition / I / chance / work / part-time office assistant / German company.
88. I / grateful / if / you / send / more information / job / application form.
89. Enclosed / herewith / my resume / and / letter / recommendation.
90. I / look / forward / hear / you.
Yours faithfully,
Catherine Smith
Part III: “Facebook is neither good nor bad. It depends on how you use it.” What do you think
about the statement? In about 150 words, write a paragraph to express your opinion.
--------THE END--------
Họ và tên thí sinh:……………………………………………………. Số báo danh:……………………
Họ và tên giám thị 1:…………………………………………………. Chữ ký:………………………….
Họ và tên giám thị 2:…………………………………………………. Chữ ký:………………………….
SỞ GD&ĐT HẢI DƯƠNG ĐÁP ÁN - BIỂU ĐIỂM

******* ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH LỚP 10 THPT
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC 2015-2016
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH
A. LISTENING
Part I: (7.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer
1. 1848 2. east 3. 8,000 4. the American continent
5. farms and stores 6. deserted 7. broke down
Part II: (8.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer
8. B 9. C 10.A 11. B
12. A 13. C 14. B 15. B
B. PHONETICS
(5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer
16. D 17. B 18. C 19. D 20. B
C. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS

I. (20 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer
21. C 22. B 23. B 24. D 25. A
26. D 27. B 28. B 29. C 30. B
31. A 32. C 33. D 34. C 35. B
36. C 37. D 38. C 39. B 40. C
II. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer

41. TECHNICIANS 42. PREHISTORIC 43. STRAIGHTENING
44. SPARINGLY 45. ORPHANED
III. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer

46. B 47. D 48. B 49. B 50. B
D. READING
I. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer
51. E 52. D 53. G 54. B 55. C
II. (10 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer

56. B 57. C 58. C 59. A 60. D
61. B 62. D 63. B 64. B 65. A
II. (10 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer

66. A 67. C 68. A 69. C 70. C
71. B 72. D 73. D 74. C 75. D
E. WRITING
Part I: (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer
76. So as not to disturb the lecturer, Jenny entered the room quietly
77. There has been a sharp decrease in the price of crude oil in recent years.
78. Were I you / Were I in your position / Were I in your shoes, I would not invest all my / the money
in the property market.
79. So exhausted was Ben that he couldn’t complete the marathon race.
80. My children have never read a funnier story than that (one).
Or, My children have never read such a funny story before.
Part II: (10 points):

Dear Sir or Madam,
81. In reply to your advertisement (0.5 p) in the Baltimore Sun newspaper on April 2, 2016 (0.5 p), I
write / am writing to apply for the post of secretary (0.5 p).
82. In the / your advertisement, you say / said (that) (0.5 p) you are / were looking for a secretary with
good typing skills (0.5 p) who is / must be fluent in German (0.5 p).
83. I have just completed a / the two-year secretarial course (0.5 p) at the College of St. John (0.5 p).
84. At the end of the / my course (0.5 p), I passed all the exams with flying colors (0.5 p).
85. Before I started the / my course (0.5 p), I had spent 2 years in Hanover living with a German
family (0.5 p).
86. While I was / stayed there (0.5 p), I learnt (how) to speak German fluently (0.5 p).
87. In addition, I had a chance to work as a part-time office assistant for / in a German company (1.0 p).
88. I would / should be grateful (0.5 p) if you could send me (some) more information about the job
and an application form (0.5 p).
89. Enclosed herewith is my resume and a letter of recommendation (0.5 p).
90. I look / am looking forward to hearing from you (0.5 p).
Yours faithfully,
Catherine Smith
Part III: (10.0 points)

1. Form: (2 points)
- Correct form
- Easy to follow
- Coherent
2. Content: (4 points)
- Successful fulfillment of the task
3. Language: (4 points)
- Appropriate vocabulary
- Suitable connectors
- Correct grammar
- Punctuating / Spelling
SỞ GIÁO DỤC& ĐÀO TẠO BẮC NINH ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TRƯỜNG
TRƯỜNG THPT THUẬN THÀNH SỐ 3 NĂM HỌC 2015-2016
MÔN THI : TIẾNG ANH 10
( Đề thi có 07 trang) (Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút )
Ngày thi: 29 tháng 3 năm 2016
Họ và tên học sinh: .............................................................Lớp: ..................
Số báo danh: ................................................................... MÃ PHÁCH:…………
MÃ PHÁCH:…………..
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that
of the others.
1. A. food B. good C. tooth D. tool
2. A. classical B.composer C.answer D.serious
3. A. increase B. widespread C. death D. residential
4. A. realize B. teacher C. reason D. feature
5. A. treated B. asked C. sacred D. suggested
II.VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
1. Hurry up! They’ve only got _______ seats left.
A. a little B. a few C. a lot of D. plenty of
2. The paper has ………….. good news today.
A. a B. an C. the D. some
3. I'd rather you _______ anyone what I said.
A. don't tell B. won't tell C. didn't tell D. not to tell
4. Before the meeting finished, they had arranged when ______ next.
A. they met B. they to meet C. to meet D. should they meet
5. Tom is having someone _______ the newspaper to her.
A. bring B. to bring C. bringing D. who brings
6. They were just _______ us about Anna's new boyfriend.
A. talking B. saying C. speaking D. telling
7. You've got to try to keep _______ as you grow older.
A. act B. active C. action D. actor
8. He was offered the job ………….his qualifications were poor
A. although B. in spite of C. because of D. because
PHẦN PHÁCH THÍ SINH KHÔNG VIẾT VÀO ĐÂY !
9. It’s no use …………. a language if you don’t try to speak it

A. learned B. to learn C. learn D. learning
10. He …………. me to take a lawyer to the court with me
A. advised B. suggested C. threatened D. insisted
11. I really prefer just about anything …………..watching TV
A. from B. or C. than D. to
12. Gold ……………..near San Francisco in 1848 and the gold rush started the
following year
A. has been discovered B. discovered C. was discovered D. is discovered
13. I regret ……………. you that we can’t approve your application
A. inform B. to inform C. informing D. informed
14. If I had gone to the bank this morning, I …………money from you now
A. would not borrow B. would not have borrowed
C. will not borrow D. will no have borrowed
15. It was ………….. 2005 that he became an actor.
A. until that B. not when C. not until D. until when
III. Supply the correct form of the word in capital.
1. He is engrossed in doing ( SCIENCE) ……………............... research
2. They entered the areas without ( PERMIT) ……………...................
3. He wants (WIDTH) …………….............… his knowledge of the subject
4. The giant panda is a(n) (DANGER) ……………...............species
5. What makes the computer a (MIRACLE). ……….................…device ?
6. You may be surprised at the large (VARIED) …………..........…..of animals in
national parks
7. He is behaving in a very (MYSTERY) ................................. way.
8. (ACCURATE)...............……….is very important in scientific experiments .(
9. His (DECIDE )........................................ to retire surprised all of the workers.
10. He was very ( PRIDE)………… ..............of the work he had done
IV. Put the verbs into correct forms
1. If I (have) …….........…… your address, I would send you a postcard.
2. Two millions (not/be) …...........……… a large number of money.
3. They (show) …………....………. more than fifty films in Hanoi since June.
4. It’s already 320C. It (be) ….....……. very hot.
5. I get used to (live)……............……… in the big city.
6. I must remind my students that this grammar point needs (revise)…….....………
7. We found it very difficult (reach)……….......…… a decision.
8. The last time he (see)…………....... in the public he (wear)…….......….. a grey suit.
9. Was she to speak to him like that, he (be) ................................very angry.
V. Put into the blank a suitable preposition
1. We started our trip…................... ..foot last week
2. You can’t leave the country...........................a passport.
3. New York is famous........................its skyscrapers.
4. Is modern English different .....................old English?
VI.Writing
1. “You had better go to see the doctor immediately,” Jone said.
John advised...........................................................................................................
2. The painters painted his house last week.
He ...........................................................................................................................
3. It is not worth asking Ms. Hoa to help.
There’s no .................................................................................................................
4. I'm sorry I didn’t go to University
I regret………………………………………………
5.I never intended to go to the meeting.
I never had…………………………………………………….
6. He forgot about the gun until he got home.
Not until……………………………………………………
7.You really should be able to dress yourself by now !
It/ s high time………………………………………………………..
8. As soon as I put the phone down, it rang again!
No sooner...........................................................................................................
9. If I had known that peter was in hospital, I would have visited him
Had ...........................................................................................................
10. People say that he beats his wife.
He……………………………………………………………………………
VII. There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find and correct
it.
1. The sick needs to be looked after. So money must be spent on hospitals.
2. The accident looked seriously at first but nobody was injured.
3. All the students are looking forward to spending their free time to enjoy their
Tet holiday.
4. My family lived in Hue since 1990 to 1996, but we are now living in Sai Gon.
5. She left her job soon to devote more time into her family.
6. It is not until his father came home which he did his homework.
7. The children are exciting about the field trip.
8. In spite interruption, she was still able to finish her assignment before class.
9. Her well-known film, that won several awards, was about the life of Lenin.
10. You've seen her new car, haven't you? What does it like?
Your Answer:
Mistake Correction Mistake Correction
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
VIII. Read the following passage carefully, and then choose the best answer.
We know that every year less than 100 people are attacked by sharks and about 5
to 10 of these people die. But, let's look at the other side of the story - How many
sharks do people kill? Well, I think you already know this: People kill many more
sharks. Every year, people hunt and kill thousands of sharks. One reason people kill
sharks is for sport; they hunt them just for fun. Some people started to have
contests to see who kill the most sharks or the biggest sharks. Another reason that
people kill sharks is for food. In some countries, such as the United States and
Great Britain, shark meat is a popular food. In other countries, such as China,
people use shark fins to make soup. Because so many people like to eat shark,
fishing boats catch a lot of sharks to sell for food.
So, for both of these reasons, people are killing many sharks. Some biologists are
getting worried that the number of sharks is getting too small. That's why many
biologists think we should stop killing so many sharks, and instead try to protect
them - or else some day they may all be gone. Some countries have already passed
some laws to help protect sharks. The United States, for example, has passed laws
that limit the number of sharks that people can kill for food or for sport. So even
though some people like to hunt sharks, we do need to protect them.
1.How many sharks are hunted and killed every year?
A. thousandsB. manyC. five to tenD. one hundred
2.People want to kill sharks because________
A. they are afraid of sharks.
B. shark meat is a popular food.
C. they get their enjoyment from killing sharks
D. B and C are correct.
3.The number of sharks in the world is ________
A. not getting worried by some biologists.
B. being killed.
C. getting bigger.
D getting smaller.
4.Why do biologists want to protect sharks?
A. Because they want to learn more about sharks.
B. Because of the number of sharks that were killed.
C. Because they are afraid some day sharks may no longer exist.
D. Because shark fins can be used in medicine.
5.Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. The governments prohibited people from killing sharks.
B. Laws have been passed in sharks' defence.
C. People like to hunt sharks.
D. People are killing many sharks for some reasons.
IX. Read the passage and choose the correct choice.
All over the world people listen to classical music. Classical music is cult to
describe. It means different things to different people.
Some famous classical composers were Bach, Vivaldi, Haydn and Mozart. In
their music, they did not tell a story or show strong emotion. They wanted to make
a beautiful, interesting design. They wanted to write lovely sounds.
Then composers started to interpret ideas. They told stories about wars, armies
and soldiers. They wrote about religion. Sometimes they composed music for
holidays. They told love stories and showed strong emotion. Some of these
composers were Beethoven, Schumann Chopin, Mendelssohn, Wagner, and
Tchaikovsky.
Classical music stays with people a long time. Bach wrote about 300 years ago,
Beethoven wrote about 200 years ago, and Tchaikovsky wrote over 100 years ago.
Sometimes people close their eyes to listen to classical music. When they close
their eyes, they can see the design. They can listen to the same classical music
many times and enjoy it.
Sometimes it is difficult to understand. The listener has to think about it.
However, we can all learn to enjoy some classical music. It is very important to
people.
1.Classical music is famous ______.
A. in the Western B. in Europe C. in the United States D. all over the world
2.The first classical composers wanted to ______.
A. tell stories about religion B. write lovely sounds
C. show strong emotion D. B and C
3.What kind of stories did some composers not tell in their music?
A. love B. wars C. religion D. racial integration
4.Beethoven ________.
A. composed his music a long time ago.
B. just wanted to make an interesting design. C. did not tell a story.
D. wrote sonic music that was difficult to understand.
5.People sometimes close their eyes when they listen to classical music in order
to ________.
A. understand it clearly.
B. think about the design.
C. form the picture of the design in their mind.
D. hear the same classical music many times.
6.Classical music ________.
A. is different from people to people.
B. is different to understand so the listener always has to think about it.
C. was composed by famous musicians very long time ago.
D. is necessary for people because it makes life more colorful.
X. Choose one option that best fits each of the numbered blank. (2.5 points)
The Statue of Liberty, one of America’s most familiar images, is on [1]______
island in New York Harbour. It is a symbol of freedom. This is the statue of a
woman [2]______ is wearing a loose robe and a crown on her head. Her right hand
holds a burning [3]______ and left hand holds a tablet with the date July 4,1776 on
it. The statue weighs 205 tons and is 46 m high. It stands on a stone and concrete
base. The base and pedestal increase the height of the monument to 93 m. The
outside is made [4]______ copper. Inside, it has an iron frame. The statue was
[5]______ in 1884, and then transported to America in 1886. Tourist can visit the
statue from 9.30 a.m to 5 p.m daily except Christmas Day.
1.A. ф B. a C. the D. an
2.A. whom B. who C. which D. where
3.A. torch B. tablet C. crown D. robe
4.A. in B. with C. of D. from
5.A. was completing B. completes C. had completed D.
completed
XI. Write a short paragraph (about 140 words) about the advantages and
disadvantages of the Internet
.....................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
------------------------------- Hết ---------------------------
SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC KỲ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 10 - THPT NĂM HỌC 2017 - 2018
TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ LUYỆ N 01 (Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề)
Part I: Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D.

1. Our holiday was_________ by the weather.
A. spoilt B. damaged C. overcome D. wasted
2. The_________ charged by the architect for the plans of the new building were unusually high.
A. hire B. price C. fees D. sum
3. He_________ his son of the dangers of driving too fast in his new car
A. warned B. remembered C. threatened D. concerned
4. The child was_________ by a lorry on the safety crossing in the main street.
A. knocked out B. run across C. run out D. knocked down
5. When Ali arrived in London he spent all his time_________ and visited all the important museums
and buildings.
A. sight-seeing B. traveling C. looking D. touring
6. If you want a cheap air ticket you must_________ well in advance.
A. book B. engage C. reserve D. buy
7. His sister was full of_________ for the way in which he had so quickly learned to drive a car.
A. pride B. admiration C. surprise D. jealousy
8. He asked if we would_________ to share the room.
A. accept B. consider C. agree D. approve
9. I wondered whether you would like to_________ to the theater tomorrow.
A. visit B. go away C. go out D. walk out
10. _________ I would like to say how pleased I am to be here.
A. Primarily B. Foremost C. Earliest D. First
11. The independent arbitrator managed to_________ the confrontation between the union and the
employers.
A. refuse B. confuse C. refute D. defuse
12. When I heard the footsteps behind me I was_________ that I would be attacked.
A. horrified B. terror-struck C. terrorized D. terrified
13. His illness made him_________ of concentration.
A. incompetent B. unable C. incapable D. powerless
14. Has the committee_________ a decision yet?
A. done B. made C. arrived D. voted
15. I am a bit hungry. I think_____________ something to eat.
A. I’ll have B. I’ll be having C. I’m going to have D. I’m having
16. What do you plan to do when you_____________ your course at college?
A. finish B. will finish C. have finished D. is going to finish
17. Where_____________? Which hairdresser did you go to?
A. did you cut your hair B. have you cut your hair
C. did you have cut your hair D. did you have your hair cut
18. ‘Shall I stay here?’ ~ ‘I’d rather_____________ with us’.
A. you come B. you to come C. you would come D. you came
19. I_____________ saying what I think.
A. believe B. believe in C. believe for D. believe when
20. Somebody ran in front of the car as I was driving. Fortunately I_____________ just in time.
A. could stop B. could have stopped
C. managed to stop D. must be able to stop
Part II: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write their correct
forms in the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example.
Traditional, mental tests have been divided into two types. 0. traditional → traditionally
Achievement tests are designed to measure acquiring skills and 1. _____________________
knowledge, particularly those that have been explicitness taught. The 2. _____________________
proficiency exams required by few states for high school graduation 3. _____________________
are achievement tests. Aptitude tests are designed and measure a 4. _____________________
person’s ability to acquire new skills but knowledge. For example, 5. _____________________
vocation aptitude tests can help you decide whether you would do 6. _____________________
better like a mechanic or musician. However, all mental tests are in 7. _____________________
some sense achievement tests because they assumption some sort of 8. _____________________
past learning or experience with certainly objects, words, or 9. _____________________
situations. The difference between achievement and aptitude tests is 10. _____________________
the degree and intention use.
Part III: Give the correct form of the words in brackets to fill in the blanks.
Dark black clouds in a dull sky meant one thing and one thing only: there was going to be a
(1.thunder)….. Not one of us had brought an umbrella, or even a (2.rain)……. So when Jack suggested
we should go to a museum, we all agreed immediately. As we had been (3. shop)………all morning we
were now feeling very tired, it would be a (4. pleasant)………...to sit down. We took a bus and arrived
just as large shops of rain were beginning to fall.
The museum was quite (5.desert)……and very peaceful. We sat down in the main hall and listened to
the rain (6. beat)…….against the windows.
Suddenly, there was a great (7. disturb)……..at the (8. enter)……… a large party of schoolboys were
(9. lead) ………in by a teacher. The poor man was trying to keep them quiet and threatening to punish
them, but they did not pay the (10.slight)……. attention.
Section B: Reading
Part I: Read the following passage and choose the best answer to fill in the blanks. Fill each
numbered blank with one suitable word from the list given below.
The shark is a meat- eating fish and one of the most feared animals of the sea. Scientists (1)…………
about 250 species of fish as sharks. These fish live in oceans (2)………..the world, but they are most
common in warm seas.
Sharks (3)………….greatly in size and habits. Whale sharks, the largest kind of shark, may grow 60
feet long. A whale shark weighs up to 15 tons, more than twice (4)…………….much as an African
elephant. The smallest shark may (5)…………..only 4 inches long and weigh less than 1 ounce. Some
kinds of sharks live in the depths of the ocean, but (6)……………are found near the surface. Some
species live in coastal waters, but others (7)……………far out at sea. A few species can even live in
(8)…………..water.
All sharks are carnivores (meat- eaters). Most of them eat (9)…………fish, including other sharks. A
shark’s only natural enemy is a large shark. Sharks eat their prey whole, or they tear off large chunks of
flesh. They also (10)………………..on dead or dying animals.
1. A. classify B. divide C. organize D. arrange
2. A. all B. through C. throughout D. over
3. A. grow B. rise C. evolve D. vary
4. A. as B. so C. very D. exactly
5. A. stretch B. measure C. develop D. expand
6. A. some others B. others C. different kinds D. some sharks
7. A. dwell B. exist C. emigrate D. migrate
8. A. fresh B. sweet C. light D. clear
9. A. uncooked B. live C. lively D. alive
10. A. eat B. swallow C. exist D. feed
Part II: Fill in each blank with a suitable word to fill in the blanks.
Vitamins are substances required for the proper functioning of the body. In this century, thirteen
vitamins have been (1)…………
A lack of any vitamins in a person’s body can cause illness. In some cases, an excess of vitamins can
also (2)…………to illness. For example, sailors in the past were prone to (3)…………from scurvy that
is a disease resulting from the lack of vitamin C. It causes bleeding of the gum, loss of teeth and skin
rashes. Sailors suffer from scurvy because they did not eat fruits and vegetables. Fruits and vegetables
(4)…………vitamin C which is necessary for good (5)…………
Vitamin B complex is composed of eight different vitamins. A lack of any of these vitamins will
lead to different (6)…………For instance, a person who has too little vitamin B1 will suffer from beri-
beri, a disease that causes heart problems and mental (7)…………A lack of vitamin B2 results in eye
and skin problems while deficiency of vitamin B6 causes problems of the nervous system. Too little
vitamin B12 will cause anemia. The (8)…………that vitamin deficiencies caused certain diseases led
doctors to cure people suffering from these illnesses by giving them doses of the (9)……...vitamins.
Today, vitamins are (10)…………in the form of pills and can easily be bought at any pharmacy.
Part III: Read the following passage and answer the questions by choosing the best answer among A,
B, C or D.
Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant
language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after
having incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion of
1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not extended
even as far as Wales, Scotland, or Ireland. However, during the course of the next two centuries,
English began to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade),
colonization, and missionary work. That small enslaves of English speakers became established and
grew in various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the
primary language of international business, banking, and diplomacy.
Currently, more than 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in English.
Two thirds of the world’s science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology,
advertising, media, international airports, and air traffic controllers. Today there are 700 million English
users in the world, and over half of these are nonnative speakers, constituting the largest number of
nonnative users of any language in the world.
1. What is the main topic of the passage?

A. The number of nonnative users of English.
B. The French influence on the English language.
C. The expansion of English as an international language.
D. The use of English for science and technology.
2. English began to be used beyond England approximately.............................
A. in 1066 B. around 1350
C. before 1600 D. after 1600
3. According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around the world
EXCEPT .....................................
A. the slave trade B. the Norman invasion
C. missionaries. D. colonization
4. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Most of the information stored on computer systems is in English.
B. Only one thirds of the world’s science writing is in languages other than English.
C. English is the only language used in technology, and advertising.
D. International airports and air controllers use mostly English.
5. According to the passage, approximately how many nonnative users of English are there in the world
today?
A. A quarter million B. Half a million
C. 350 million D. 700 million.
Part IV: Read the passage then choose the best sentences A-K to fill in each gap. There is one
extra sentence which you do not need to use:
BITTER WATER HITS THE BIG TIME
Chocolate, which has its origins in South America, is now part of a multi-million pound
worldwide business.
At Easter, British people spend over $230 million on chocolate. A massive eight per cent of all
chocolate is bought at this time.
(1)____. Although the large scale industrial production of chocolate began in the last century,
the cacao plant was first cultivated by the Aztec, Toltec and Mayan civilizations of Central America
over three thousand years ago.
The cacao tree is an evergreen, tropical plant which is found in Africa, South and Central
America, the West Indies and South East Asia. The fruit of this tree is melon-sized and contains 20-40
seeds. (2)____. In English – speaking countries, they are called cocoa beans. This is a misspelling from
the 17th century when they were also called cacoa and cocao beans.
The Aztecs used cocoa beans as money. (3)____. This is from the world in the Aztec language,
Nahuatl, meaning “bitter water”. (4)____. The Spanish found the drink more palatable mixed with
cinnamon and sugar, but the recipe did not spread to the rest of Europe for another century. In the late
17th century, chocolate houses were set up in Europe’s capital cities, where people gathered to drink
chocolate.
(5)____. But in 1826, CJ van Houten of the Netherlands invented chocolate powder. (6)____.
The age of the chocolate bar as we know it began in 1847 when a Bristol company, Fry and
Sons, combined cocoa butter with pure chocolate liquor and sugar to produce a solid block that you
could eat. (7)____.
At the turn of the century, the British chocolate market was dominated by French companies.
In 1879 the English company Cadbury even named their Birmingham factory Bournville (ville is the
French word for town) in the hope that a little glamour would rub off. But then came Cadbury’s famous
Dairy Milk bar which began life as a Dairymaid in 1905. (8)____.
It seems that, for the time being at least, chocolate intake in Britain has established at about
four bars each week. (9)____. The latest market trick is the so-called “extended line”. This is when the
humble chocolate bar becomes an ice cream, a soft drink or a dessert, to tempt chocoholics who have
grown tired of conventional snacks.
At the other end of the production process, cacao farmers are still feeling the effects of a crash
in cocoa bean prices at the end of 1980s. (10)____. Perhaps you could spare a thought for them as you
munch your next chocolate bars.
A. This was made by extracting most of the cocoa butter from the crushed beans.
B. A Swiss company then introduced milk solids to the process which gave us milk chocolate.
C. They also used them to make a drink called xocoatl.
D. Until the last century, the chocolate drink was made from solid blocks of chocolate which had to
be melted down in hot water.
E. When dried they become cacao beans, which can be used to make chocolate.
F. Clever advertising which associated it with the healthy qualities of milk from the English
countryside quickly established the bar as a rival to the more decadent French brands.
G. British manufacturers include up to 5 per cent vegetable fat in their chocolate, something
forbidden elsewhere.
H. As most cacao farmers operate on a very small scale, many were forced out of business.
I. This has forced manufacturers to look for new ways to attract customers.
J. In Aztec times the chocolate drink was flavored with spices and used on ceremonial occasions and
for welcoming visitors.
K. Only at Christmas do people eat more of the cocoa-based foodstuffs.
Section C: Writing
Part I: Rewrite the following sentences so that they have a similar meaning with the first one.
1. “Don’t forget to phone the police”, she said
She reminded him .................................................. .................................................. .........
2. It is believed that the man escaped in a stolen car.
The man............................................... .................................................. ...................
3. A small church lies at the foot of the hill.
At the foot .................................................. .................................................. .....................
4. If you changed your mind, you’ll be welcome to join our club .
Were you .................................................. .................................................. ......................
5. We don’t have to do so many things to please him.
It is .................................................. .................................................. .................................
6. I’m sure he didn’t do it by himself.
He................................................ .................................................. ........................................
7. He can’t afford to go to America this summer.
He doesn’t .................................................. .................................................. ......................
8. Timmy has become confident as a result of his success .
Timmy’s success has turned............................................ ................................................
9. I haven't seen my uncle for a long time.
It's a long time .................................................. .................................................. ....................
10. She dances beautifully and she sings sweetly, too.
Not only .................................................. .................................................. .............................
Part II: Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one , using the word in
capital letters which must not be altered in any way:
1. You should think about the price before you decide whether to buy it or not. (consideration)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….
2. People don’t want to buy cars with large engines any more. (call)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….
3. Twenty years ago this region produced twice as much coal as it does now.(halved)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….
4. The prime minister in unlikely to call an early general election. (likelihood)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….
5. The policeman acted quickly and averted an accident (prompt)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….
Part III: Write a composition (300 words) about the following topic:
How do movies and television influence people’s behavior? Use reasons and specific examples to
support your answer.
SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC KỲ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 10 - THPT NĂM HỌC 2017 - 2018
TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ LUYỆ N 01 (Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề)
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

Section A: Grammar & Vocabulary (40điểm)
Part I (1x 20= 20 điểm)
Câu 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A C A D A A B A C D
Câu 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D D C B A A D D B C
Part II (1 x 10 = 10 điểm)
1. acquiring → acquired 6. vocation → vocational
2. explicitness → explicitly 7. like → as
3. few → a few 8. assumption → assume
4. and → to 9. certainly → certain
5. but → to 10. intention → intended
Part III (1 x 10 = 10 điểm)
1. thunderstorm 2. raincoat 3. shopping 4. pleasure 5. deserted
6. beating 7. disturbance 8. entrance 9. led 10. slightest
Section B: Reading (35 điểm)
Part I ( 1x 10 = 10 điểm)
1. A 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. D
Part II (1x 10 = 10 điểm)
1.discovered 2. lead 3. suffer 4. contain 5. health
6. diseases 7. disorders 8. knowledge 9. necessary 10. available
Part III (1x 5= 5 điểm)
1. C 2. D 3. B 4. C `5. C
Part IV (1x 10= 10 điểm)
1.K 2.E 3.C 4.J 5.D 6.A 7.B 8.F 9.I 10H
Section C: Writing (25 điểm)

Part I (1x 10 = 10 điểm)
1. She reminded him to phone the police.
2. The man is believed to have escaped in a stolen car
3. At the foot of the hill lies a small church
4. Were you to change you mind, you’ll be welcome to join our club.
5. It is unnecessary to do so many things to please him.
6. He can’t have done it by himself.
7. He doesn’t have enough money to go to America this summer.
8. Timmy’s success has turned him into a confident person.
9. It’s a long time since I last saw my uncle/ I saw my uncle for the last time.
10. Not only does she dance beautifully but she also sings sweetly.
Part II (1x 5= 5 điểm)
1. You should take the price into consi…..
2. there is no(longer any)/ there isn’t much call for cars……..
3 .coal production/ the coal produced in this region has been halved in the 20 years.
4. there is little likelihood. The likelihood………is small of the PM calling an…/that the PM will call
a…….
5. The policeman’s prompt action averted/ the prompt action of the policeman averted……..
Part III (10 điểm) – Giám khảo tự cho điểm, yêu cầu:
- Thí sinh phải xác định được ảnh hưởng của phim và truyền hình đối với cách ứng xử của con
người, cả về mặt tích cực lẫn tiêu cực
- Nêu được 2- 3 ý nhỏ cho mỗi ý lớn
- Văn viết trôi chảy, diễn đạt gãy gọn (dùng cấu trúc đơn giản nhưng diễn đạt rõ ý)
- Sai không quá 5 lỗi nhỏ (về từ vựng, ngữ pháp, dùng từ…..) thì không trừ điểm
Mời các bạn vào tham khảo các bài tiếp theo tại: https://vndoc.com/tai-lieu-hoc-tap-lop-10
SỞ GD&ĐT THÁI BÌNH ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 10 NĂM HỌC 2015-2016
-------------- Môn: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề gồm 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề.
(Thí sinh làm phần trắc nghiệm vào Phiếu TLTN, Thí sinh làm phần viết vào giấy thi.) Mã đề: 135
SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (16 POINTS)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. adventure B. future C. mature D. figure
Question 2: A. coughed B. weighed C. laughed D. photographed
Question 3: A. musket B. business C. muscle D. muscular
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest
in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 4: A. lyrical B. emotion C. favorite D. classical
Question 5: A. entertain B. atmosphere C. serious D. joyfulness
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6:. It was ………….we could not go out .
A. so cold that B. such cold that C. very so cold D. too cold that
Question 7 : I really prefer just about anything …………..watching TV.
A. from B. or C. than D. to
Question 8: We have a party tonight and Daisy is worried about ………..
A. what to wear B. which wearing C.that she wears D. these wearing
Question 9: As a rule, new comers ______ a party at the end of the first month of their stay.
A. was held B. hold C. have held D. will hold
Question 10: The most interesting films _____ for the festival will be shown next week.
A. are chosen B. having chosen C. chosen D. being chosen
Question 11: However _____ about the results, the children still talk merrily.
A. disappointed are they B. disappointing they are
C. disappointment D. disappointed they are
Question 12: A child _____ to talk does not learn by being corrected all the time.
A. learned B. learns C. learning D. to learn
Trang 1/8 - Mã đề thi 135

Question13: In most ………. developed countries, up to 50% of ……..population enters higher

education at some time in their lives.
A. Ø / Ø B. the / Ø C. Ø / the D. the /
Question 14 : Some businesses use famous cartoon _____ to advertise their products.
A. person B. people C. characters D. samples
Question 15: The first thing you should do when you lose your bank card is to call your bank and ask
them to close your ____.
A. account B. house C. loan D. debt
Question 16: “Oh no! I can’t find my credit card!” “ _________.”
A. Thank you for letting me know
B. Don’t worry. They will be back very soon
C. It is a nice surprise. You should be glad about it
D. Chill out. Try to remember when you last used it
Question 17:.I haven’t …………………………..decided where to go on holiday this year.
A. still B. yet C. already D. then
Question 18: How do you speak this fraction: 3/5?
A. Three over fifth B. Three-fifth C. Three-fifths D. Three-fives
Question19 The number of cars on the roads ______ increasing, so we need to build more roads.
A. is B. was C. were D. are
Question 20 : There is no __________ explanation for what happened.
A. scientifically B. scientist C. science D. scientific
Question 21: I can___ what he’s doing; it’s so dark down there.
A. see through B. make out C. look into D. show up
Question 22: Could you be more specific about what is___ in this particular job?
A. enclosed B. concentrated C. presented D. involved
Question 23 : He retired early……..ill – health.
A. on behalf of B. on account of C. believe D. imagine
Question 24 :The person who writes symphonies or concertos is a ……………..
A. composer B. conductor C. pianist D. playwright
IV. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
As the twentieth century began, the importance of formal education in the United States
increased. The frontier had mostly disappeared and by 1910 most Americans lived in towns and cities.
Industrialization and the bureaucratization of economic life combined with a new emphasis upon

credentials and expertise to make schooling increasingly important for economic and social mobility.
Increasingly, too, schools were viewed as the most important means of integrating immigrants into
American society.
The arrival of a great wave of southern and eastern European immigrants at the turn of the
century coincided with and contributed to an enormous expansion of formal schooling. By 1920
schooling to age fourteen or beyond was compulsory in most states, and the school year was greatly
lengthened. Kindergartens, vacation schools, extracurricular activities, and vocational education
and counseling extended the influence of public schools over the lives of students, many of whom in
the larger industrial cities were the children of immigrants. Classes for adult immigrants were
sponsored by public schools, corporations, unions, churches, settlement houses, and other agencies.
Reformers early in the twentieth century suggested that education programs should suit the needs
of specific populations. Immigrant women were once such population. Schools tried to educate young
women so they could occupy productive places in the urban industrial economy, and one place many
educators considered appropriate for women was the home.
Although looking after the house and family was familiar to immigrant women, American
education gave homemaking a new definition. In pre-industrial economies, homemaking had meant
the production as well as the consumption of goods, and it commonly included income-producing
activities both inside and outside the home, in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century
United States, however, overproduction rather than scarcity was becoming a problem. Thus, the ideal
American homemaker was viewed as a consumer rather than a producer. Schools trained women to
be consumer homemakers cooking, shopping, decorating, and caring for children "efficiently" in their
own homes, or if economic necessity demanded, as employees in the homes of others. Subsequent
reforms have made these notions seem quite out-of-date.
Question 25: The paragraph preceding the passage probably discusses _____.
A. the most important means of integrating immigrants into American society in the nineteen
century.
B. the urbanization in the United States in the nineteen century.
C. the industrialization and the bureaucratization of economic life the United States in the 19th
century
D. the formal schooling in the United States in the nineteen century.
Question 26 : It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that one important factor in the increasing
importance of education in the United States was _____.
A. the increased urbanization of the entire country
B. the expanding economic problems of schools

C. the growing number of schools in frontier communities

D. an increase in the number of trained teachers
Question 27 : The word "means" in line 5 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. probability B. qualifications C. advantages D. method
Question 28 : The phrase "coincided with" in line 7 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. ensured the success of B. began to grow rapidly
C. happened at the same time as D. was influenced by
Question 29: According to the passage, one important change in United States education by the
1920's was that _____.
A. most places required children to attend school
B. adults and children studied in the same classes
C. new regulations were imposed on nontraditional education
D. the amount of time spent on formal education was limited
Question 30: “Vacation schools and extracurricular activities” are mentioned in line 9 to
illustrate _____.
A. the importance of educational changes
B. alternatives to formal education provided by public schools
C. the increased impact of public schools on students
D. activities that competed to attract new immigrants to their programs.
Question 31: According to the passage, early-twentieth century education reformers believed that
_____.
A. different groups needed different kinds of education
B. corporations and other organizations damaged educational progress
C. more women should be involved in education and industry
D. special programs should be set up in frontier communities to modernize them
Question 32: The word "it" in paragraph 4 refers to _____.
A. homemaking B. consumption C. education D. production
Question 33: Women were trained to be consumer homemakers as a result of _____.
A. overproduction in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
B. economic necessity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
C. scarcity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
D. income-producing activities in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
Question 34: The word “others” in paragraph 4 means_______.
A. other women B. other homes C. other children D. other employees

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word for each of the blanks from 35 to 44
SENSES
All five senses are important to us, but the two most important senses are (35) ________ the
sense of sight and the sense of hearing. Blind and deaf people must (36) ________ life difficult
because they are unable to do (37) ________ that the rest of us can do naturally. People who (38)
________their sense of taste can not enjoy food as (39) ________as they used to, whilst (40)
________ who have no sense of smell can not realize, for example , when gas is (41) _______ or
food has gone (42) _______ . In addition to our physical senses, (43) ________ is a great help in life
to have sense of humour, especially when things go wrong, and to have (44) ________ sense,
something which can not be learned from books.
Question 35 : A. probably B. likely C. certainly D. possibly
Question 36 :A. think B. consider C. find D. regard
Question 37:A. things B. everything C. nothing D. what
Question 38 :A. miss B. haven’t C. lack D. lose
Question 39: A. well B. happily C. much D. fully
Question 40 :A. persons B. men C. those D.these
Question 41 :A. losing B. leaking C. breaking D. flowing
Question 42 :A. on B. away C. off D. out
Question 43 :A. which B. here C. there D. it
Question 44 : A. good B. common C. spirit D. intellect
Choose the word or phrase CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
sentences.
Question 45 :The thieves broke into the tomb to steal the treasures.
A. mummies B. bodies C. materials D. valuable objects
Question 46 :Music can also help you to relax and feel rejuvenated.
A. strengthened B. bettered C. refreshed D. recovered
Question 47 :As the old silent films were being replaced by spoken ones on the screen, a new cinema
form appeared, the musical cinema.
A. sounded B. arose C. seemed D. emerged
Choose the word or phrase OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
sentences.
Question 48 :The council demolished it.
A. made B. did C. started D. construct

Question 49 :For example, you can play a ballad, then move on to something more energetic such as
rock ’n’ roll.
A. languid B. ill C. slow D. soft
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underline part that needs
correcting.
Question 50 :Before he retired last month, Mr. Smith has been working as a secretary in the House of
Parliament.
A. has been working B. a secretary C. Before D.
Question 51 : He was one of the first inventor to apply the principles of mass production to the
process of invention.
A. mass production B. to apply
C. the process of invention D. one of the first inventor
Question 52 : Sometimes it is difficult to avoid to drink when we enjoy an informal party.
A. Sometimes B. to drink C. an informal party D. it is difficult
Question 53 : Despite there is a lot of stress and pressure in my job, I have never thought of quitting
it.
A. of quitting B. have never thought C. there is D. pressure
Question 54 : Education, whether it happens at school or anywhere else, is a important part in our
life
A. or B. a important part C. Education D. whether
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
As Christmas evolved in the United States, new customs were adopted and many old ones were
reworked. The legend of Santa Claus, for example, had origins in Europe and was brought by Dutch
settlers to New York in the early 18th century. Traditionally, Santa Claus – from the Dutch Sinter
Klaas – was depicted as a tall, dignified, religious figure riding a white horse through the air. Known
as Saint Nicholas in Germany, he was usually accompanied by Black Peter, an elf who punished
disobedient children. In North America he eventually developed into a fat, jolly old gentleman who
had neither the religious attributes of Saint Nicholas nor the strict disciplinarian character of Black
Peter.
Santa’s transformation began in 1823, when a New York newspaper published the poem A Visit
from Saint Nicholas, which Clement Clark Moore had written to amuse his daughter. The poem
introduced many Americans to the story of a kindly saint who flew over housetops in a reindeer-
drawn sleigh. Portraits and drawings of Santa Claus by American illustrator Thomas Nast further

strengthened the legend during the second half of the 19th century. Living at the North Pole and
assisted by elves, the modern Santa produced and delivered toys to all good children. By the late 19th
century he had become such a prominent figure of American folklore that in 1897, when Virginia
O’Hanlon wrote to the New York Sun newspaper asking if Santa was real, she received a direct
answer: “Yes, Virginia, there is a Santa Claus”.
Question 55 : Who brought the legend of Santa Claus to the USA according to the passage?
A. Sinter Klaas B. Saint Nicholas
C. A German D. Dutch settlers
Question 56 : Santa Claus was traditionally described as a
A. tall man who could walk through the air
B. fat, jolly, old man
C. religious figure
D. fat man riding a white horse
Question 57 : Santa Claus in North America was depicted as
A. a man with the strict disciplinarian character of Black Peter
B. a good old man with less religious character
C. one with religious attributes of Saint Nicholas
D. a jolly man on horseback
Question 58 : Who was Black Peter?
A. an elf accompanying Saint Nicholas
B. an elf who rode a white horse
C. one of the disobedient children
D. a popular traditional figure
Question 59 : What word is closest in meaning to attributes?
A. symbols of a person B. natural qualities
C. effects D. outer appearance
Question 60 : Where did the legend of Santa Claus come from?
A. the North Pole B. Europe
C. North America D. the City of New York
Question 61 : 1823 was mentioned as a year when
A. Clement Clark Moore wrote his first poem
B. Clement Clark Moore’s poem made him popular
C. Saint Nicholas visited New York
D. the image of Santa Claus was transformed

Question 62 : According to Clement Clark Moore’s poem

A. Santa Claus had nothing different in appearance from the traditional one
B. Santa Claus had wings and could fly
C. Santa Claus liked poetry
D. Santa Claus was a kindly saint who flew over housetops in a sleigh
Question 63 : The answer Yes, Virginia, there is a Santa Claus is an illustration for the fact that
A. the New York Sun was popular with children
B. Santa Claus was a prominent figure at that time
C. newspapers are unreliable
D. Virginia O’Hanlon was a reader of the New York Sun
Question 64 : Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Santa Claus was an imaginary old man created by artists based on traditional figures
B. Living in the North Pole, Santa Claus visited children at Christmas
C. Santa Claus was a real figure living in northern America
D. Santa Claus was a story based on Saint Nicholas and Black Peter
SECTION B: WRITING (4 POINTS)
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence printed before it.
Question 65 : The last time I saw him was in 1995.
=> I haven’t ...........................................................................................................
Question 66 : Harry left before we reached the hotel.
=> By the time .......................................................................................................
Question 67 : . School uniform must be worn at all times by young pupils.
=> Young pupils ...................................................................................................
Question 68 : The map was so old that I could not read it.
=> It was such ......................................................................................................
Question 69 : He didn’t hurry, so he missed the train.
=> If ......................................................................................................................
Part II. Write a short paragraph (about 120 words) about the advantages and disadvantages of the
Internet.
_____ THE END_____

SỞ GD & ĐT THÁI NGUYÊN ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TRƯỜNG
TRƯỜNG THPT NĂM HỌC: 2015 - 2016
LƯƠNG NGỌC QUYẾN MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 10
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
ĐIỂM GIÁM KHẢO SỐ 1 GIÁM KHẢO SỐ 2 SỐ PHÁCH

(Họ tên, chữ ký) (Họ tên, chữ ký)
PART A: LISTENING
Question 1- 4: Choose the best answer to each question:
1. Where does the conversation take place?
A. in an office B. in a bookstore C. at a bus stop D. in front of a ticket booth
2. Which office helps overseas students with their particular problems?
A. Sport Club B. Union Societies
C. Accommodation Office D. Welfare Office
3. What kind of sport doesn’t the student mention?
A. basketball B. badminton C. wrestling D. motor racing
4. Where can the Filipino student find his compatriots at the school?
A. Training sessions B. Filipino Society C. Badminton court D. Basketball team
Answers:
1. 2. 3. 4.
Question 5-10: Fill in the gaps numbered 5-10:
Name Caesar
Surname 5 ______________________
City 6 ______________________
Subject 7______________________
Length of the course 8 ______________________
Job in the future 9 _____________________
Reason for choosing this university 10_____________________
1
PART B : PHONETICS ( 5pts )

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line. (2pts)
11. A. creates B. motorbikes C. theatres D. tapes
12. A. excursion B. further C. surgery D. surprise
II. Choose the words with the different stress pattern from the others: (3 pts)
13. A. religious B. environment C. inconvenient D. development
14. A. computer B. composite C. company D. comfortable
15. A. modernization B. urbanization C. mathematician D. influential
Answers:
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
PART C: LEXICAL AND GRAMMAR (45 pts)

I. Choose the option A, B, C or D to indicate the word or phrase which best completes each sentence.(15pts)
16. Do you know that man _____ near the door?
A. stands B. stood C. is standing D. standing
17. Linh informs her aunt about her high school graduation exam results. Select the most suitable response to
fill in the blank.
Linh: "Aunty, I've passed the exam with flying colours." - Aunt: "______"
A. Sorry to hear that. B. Congratulations! C. That's right. D. How many colours?
18. I’m sorry, but I _____ seeing the manager at once.
A. arrange for B. look for C. agree with D. insist on
19. He was found guilty of drunken driving and banned _____ for five years.
A. from driving B. for driving C. to drive D. driving
20. Daisy’s marriage has been arranged by her family. She is marrying a man ___.
A. she hardly knows him B. whom she hardly know
C. she hardly knows D. that she hardly know
21. The more expensive the hotel, ___ the service.
A. better B. best C. the best D. the better
22. _____ a scholarship, I entered the unknown territory of private education.
A. To award B. To be awarded C. Having awarded D. Having been awarded
23. There’s no _____ between Gary and Mark, even though they are brothers.
A. resemblance B. appearance C. correspondence D. reflection
24. No matter _______, Mozart was an accomplished composer while still a child.
A. how it seems remarkable B. how remarkable it seems
2
C. it seems remarkable how D. how seems it remarkable

25. I’ve been ______ advised not to say anything.
A. seriously B. greatly C. strongly D. significantly
26. We expected her at nine but she finally _____________ at midnight.
A. came to B. turned out C. turned up D. came off
27. There was a _________table in the middle of the room.
A. Japanese round beautiful wooden B. beautiful wooden round Japanese
C. beautiful wooden Japanese round D. beautiful round Japanese wooden
28. A:________________ - B: Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday.
A. When have you got this beautiful dress?
B. You’ve just bought this beautiful dress, haven’t you?
C. How a beautiful dress you’re wearing
D. That’s a beautiful dress you have on!
29. According to a recent survey, most people are on good ______ with their neighbours
A. relations B. terms C. acquaintance D. relationships
30. His father is a bank manager, ________ makes him easy to have a good job.
A. which B. whom C. that D. who
Answers:
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
II. Supply the correct tenses/ form of the verb in brackets:(10pts)

31. You look great! You (exercise) _______ at the fitness center?
32. The teacher along with her students (laugh) ________ heartily when the Vice Principal walked past.
33. She doesn’t want (call) _________ at home unless there is an emergency.
34. It is necessary that he (finish) __________ the report on time.
35. Once they have finished the extension to the factory, there (be) _____ room for them to take on a lot more
workers.
36-37. The little boy had a lot of trouble (convince) ___ everyone that he (see) ___ a mermaid.
38. I don’t believe a word he says. I think he (lie) ________.
39. By the time you come back here next year, this new plaza building (complete) ________.
40. I didn’t get home until after midnight last night. Otherwise, I (return) _____ your call.
3
Answers:
31. 32. 33. 34.
35. 36. 37. 38.
39. 40.
III. Give the correct form of the words in brackets:(10pts)

41. Lisa is very ___. She always manages to look good in photographs. (PHOTO)
42. He is ______ for his charitable activities than for his business in the steel (KNOW)
industry.
43. You must learn to __________ between politeness and real kindness. (DIFFERENT)
44. Playing a sport together will teach your children about fair play, _______ and (SPORT)
working with others.
45. People used to suffer from their life-time physical ________. (NORMAL)
46. If we don't ______ on electricity, there will be power cuts. (ECONOMY)
47. Languages are used for ________ purpose. (COMMUNICATE)
48. It is against the law to destroy _______ buildings. (HISTORY)
49. National football teams must compete in _______ within their own regions. (ELIMINATE)
50. Earth Hour is a ______ event organized to raise people’s awareness about the (WORLD)
need to take action on climate change.
Answers:
41. 42. 43. 44.
45. 46. 47. 48.
49. 50.
IV. The following passage contains 10 errors. Find and correct them (10pts)
Air pollution is a cause for ill – health in human beings. It a lot of countries, 0. for --> of
there are laws limited the amount of smoke which factories can produce. Because 51. ________________
there isn't enough information on the amount of smoke in the atmosphere, doctors 52. ________________
have proved that air pollution makes lung cancer. The gases from the exhausts of 53. ________________
cars have also risen air pollution in most cities. The lead in petrol produces a 54. ________________
poisoned gas which often collects in busy streets surrounding by high buildings. 55. ________________
Children who live in areas where there is a lot of lead in the atmosphere cannot 56. ________________
4
think as quick as other children and they are clumsy where they use their hands. 57. ________________
There are long-term effects of pollution. If the gases in the atmosphere continues to 58. ________________
increase, the earth's climate will become warmer. A lot of ice near the Poles may water 59. ________________
and may cause serious floods. 60. ________________
PART D: READING (30 pts)

I. Read the following passage and circle the most suitable answer ( A,B,C or D ) for each space: (10pts)
Good press photographers must have an "eye" for news, just as journalists must have a "nose" for a good
story. They must be (61)_______ to interpret a story and decide rapidly how they can take (62) _____ of the
best opportunities to take pictures. The (63)______ difficult part of a press photographer's job is that he or she
has to be able to (64)______ a complicated situation with just one photograph. They rarely have second (65)
______ and must be able to take required (66) _____ very quickly. Indeed, speed is essential - if the
photographs are not ready for the printing deadline, they are very unlikely to be of any (67)______ . Most
press photographers begin work with a local newspaper. There, the (68)______ is mostly for material of
regional interest. Photographers may be expected to photograph a lot of unexciting events but to (69)______
the enthusiasm to put "something special" (70) ______ every picture.
61. A. able B. possible C. probable D. capable
62. A. profit B. benefit C. advantage D. use
63. A. much B. more C. most D. better
64. A. draw up B. sum up C. put out D. turn
65. A. occasions B. chances C. possibilities D. moments
66. A. image B. illustration C. scene D. shot
67. A. role B. employment C. use D. achievement
68. A. task B. demand C. obligation D. duty
69. A. keep up B. hold on C. stay D. carry on
70. A. into B. out of C. from D. within
Answers:
61. 62. 63. 64. 65.
66. 67. 68. 69. 70.
II. Supply the most suitable word for each blank. (10 pts)
There are several things to remember if you are (71)_____ for a new job. Most companies (72)_____ their
vacancies in the newspaper, and there are normally a lot of (73)_____ for each post. A good letter of
application is (74)_____ very important. You should (75)_____ with it your curriculum vitae, so that the
5
(76)_____ knows about your qualifications and experience. If you are applying to a large company, address
your letter to the Personnel Manager, (77)_____ deals with appointing new staff. If you are invited to an
interview, (78)_____ sure you arrive suitably dressed and (79)_____ time. Remember to (80)_____ politely
about promotion prospects, as well as further training, and last but not least, the salary and holiday
arrangements.
Answers:
71. 72. 73. 74. 75.
76. 77. 78. 79. 80.
III. Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions: (10pts)
One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument of wisdom and
prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C. Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of its
construction make it one of truly great wonders of the world. The thirteen-acre structure near the Nile River is
a solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are the number of hidden passageways and the
burial chamber for the pharaoh. It is the largest single structure in the world. The four sides of the pyramid are
aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east, and west – an incredible engineering feat. The ancient
Egyptians were sun worshippers and great astronomers, so computations for the Great Pyramid were based on
astronomical observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines. Further
scientific study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of events-past, present and future. Many of the
events have been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past. Others are prophesied for
the future generations and are currently under investigation. Many believe that pyramids have supernatural
powers and this one is no exception. Some researchers even associate it with extraterrestrial beings if the
ancient past.Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known
today?
81. What has research of the base revealed?
A. A superior race of people built it.
B. Tomb robbers have stolen the pharaoh’s body.
C. There are cracks in the foundation.
D. The lines represent important events.
82. Extraterrestrial beings are _____.
A. very strong workers B. astronomers in the ancient times
C. researchers in Egyptology D. living being from other planets
6
83. What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages?
A. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the pharaoh.
B. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly.
C. To permit the high priests to pray at night.
D. To enable the pharaoh’s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife.
84. The word “feat” in the first passage is closest in meaning to _____.
A. structure B. accomplishment C. festivity D. appendage
85. What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolize?
A. Dates of important events taking place throughout time.
B. Architect’s plans for the hidden passages.
C. Pathways of the great solar bodies.
D. Astrological computation.
86. In the second passage, the world “prophesied” is closest in meaning to_____.
A. precipitated B. foretold C. affiliated D. terminated
87. What is the best title for the passage?
A. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid.
B. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza.
C. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops.
D. Problems with the construction of the Great Pyramid.
88. On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations?
A. Advanced tools of measurement. B. Knowledge of the earth’s surface.
C. Observation of the celestial bodies. D. Advanced technology.
89. Why was the Great Pyramid constructed?
A. As a solar observatory. B. As a religious temple.
C. As a tomb for the pharaoh. D. As an engineering feat.
90. Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the Seven Wonders of the World?
A. It is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains many prophecies.
B. It is very old.
C. It was selected as the tomb of Pharaoh Cheops.
D. It was built by a super race.
Answers:
81. 82. 83. 84. 85.
86. 87. 88. 89. 90.
7
PART E: WRITING ( 20 pts )

I. Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it. (5pts)
91. You can try to get Mark to lend you his car but you won’t succeed.
 There’s no point ………………………………………………………………………………………………
92. I prefer going out for a meal to staying at home.
 I’d rather ………………………………………………………………………………………………………
93. The plane had hardly left the airport when a big problem occurred.
 No sooner …………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
94. He didn’t become a famous film director until he was 55.
 It was not …………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
95. All the recipes in this cook book are difficult to follow.
 I have …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
II. Rewrite each of the sentences using the given word so that the new one has a similar meaning as the one
preceded. You must not change the given word. (5 pts)
96. People say that the pyramids are worth visiting. (SUPPOSED)
 ……………………………………………………………………….………………………………………
97. The demand was so great that they had to reprint the book immediately. (SO)
 ……………………………………………………………………….………………………………………
98. “Would you like to come to my birthday party, Sarha?” asked Frederic. (INVITE)
 ……………………………………………………………………….………………………….……………
99. My Thuan is the longest bridge that I’ve ever seen. (LONGER)
 ……………………………………………………………………….………………………….……………
100. I am considering visiting my uncle in Da Nang this summer. (ABOUT)
 ……………………………………………………………………….………………………….……………
III. Write a paragraph of 120 – 150 words about the the benefits of doing exercise. (10 pts)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
________________ The end ________________
8
SỞ GD & ĐT THÁI NGUYÊN ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TRƯỜNG
TRƯỜNG THPT NĂM HỌC: 2015 - 2016
LƯƠNG NGỌC QUYẾN MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 10
PART A: LISTENING
1. A 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. Bautisto
6. Manila 7. Development Economics 8. one year 9. UN project adviser 10. a good reputation in
economics
PART B: PHONETICS
11. C 12. D 13. C 14. A 15. D
PART C: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR

Question I:
16. D 17. B 18. D 19. A 20. C
21. D 22. D 23. A 24. B 25. C
26. C 27. D 28. D 29. B 30. A
Question II:
31. have you exercised 32. was laughing 33. to be called 34. will be 35. (should)
finish
36. convincing 37. had seen 38. is lying 39. will have 40. would have
been completed returned
Question III:
41. photogenic 42. better-known 43. differentiate 44. sportsmanship 45. abnormalities
46. economize 47. communicative 48. historical 49. elimination 40. worldwide
Question IV:
51. limited --> limiting 56. surrounding --> surrounded
52. Because --> Although 57. quick --> quickly
53. makes --> causes 58. where--> when
54. risen --> increased 59. continues --> continue
55. poisoned --> poisonous 60. water --> melt
9
PART C: READING COMPREHENSION

Question I:
61. A 62. C 63. C 64. B 65. B
66. D 67. C 68. B 69. A 70. A
Question II:
61. applying 62. advertise 63. applicants 64. therefore 65. enclose
66. employer 67. who 68. make 69. on 70. ask
Question III:
71. D 72. D 73. A 74. B 75. A
76. B 77. B 78. C 79. C 80.A
PART E: WRITING
Question I:
91. There’s no point in getting Mark to lend you his car.
92. I’d rather go out for a meal than stay at home.
93. No sooner had the plane left the airport than a big problem occurred.
94. It was not until he was 55 that he became a famous film director
95. I have difficulty in follow all the recipes in this cook book.
Question II:
96. The pyramids are supposed to be worth visiting.
97. So great was the demand that they had to reprint the book immediately.
98. Frederic invited Sarha to his birthday party.
99. I have never seen a longer bridge than My Thuan (bridge)
100. I am thinking about visiting my uncle in Da Nang this summer.
Question III: Essay:
Marking criteria:
+ Task completion
Tuỳ theo khả năng hoàn thành về bố cục và những yêu cầu nội dung cho mỗi phần (mở bài, thân bài, kết
luận) giám khảo có thể chấm từ 1-4 điểm.
+ Grammatical accuracy and spelling
Bài viết không có lỗi chính tả và từ ba lỗi ngữ pháp trở xuống được cho 3 điểm tối đa. Cứ 4 lỗi chính tả hoặc
ngữ pháp trừ 1 điểm (Trừ không quá 3 điểm).
10
- Coherence and cohesion (tính mạch lạc và sự liên kết câu, đoạn):
Tùy mức độ mạch lạc, liên kết câu, liên kết đoạn của bài viết, giám khảo có thể chấm 1-3 điểm.
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM:
Bài thi chấm theo thang điểm: 20

Tổng số câu thí sinh làm đúng
Điểm bài thi = ---------------------------------------
5
11
SỞ GD&ĐT ĐẮK NÔNG KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH THPT
THPT NGUYỄN TẤT THÀNH NĂM HỌC: 2015-2016
------------------- Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 10
Đề thi có 10 trang Thời gian thi: 180 phút
(không kể thời gian giao đề)
I. LISTENING
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 05 giây, mở đầu và kết
thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.
Mở đầu bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước tín hiệu kết thúc
bài nghe.
Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.
Part 1: You will hear a tellephone message about a Business Studies course. For each
question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space. (1mark)
BUSINESS STUDIES COURSE
Course start date: (1)______________________
Course begins with: (2)______________________ about business
What students mustn’t bring to class: (3)________________________
Visitors’ car park: next to the (4)________________________
Language classes available: Spanish and (5)________________________
Part 2: You will hear a man called Frank, talking on the radio about looking for ships
that sank at sea long ago. Supply the blanks with missing details for questions 6-10. Write
NO MORE THAN THREE words in each space provided. (1mark)
6) Frank is a teacher, not a full- time ___________________________
7) He is looking for ___________________________from an enormous ship called The
Seabird.
8) He used gold which he found on an eighteenth- century sailing ship to make his
___________________________
9) He gave some things from his collection to ______________________
10) He ‘d advise people who enjoy diving to join some excellent
diving___________________________
Part 3: You will hear a man telling a group of students about a trip to the theatre.
Answer the questions, your answer should be short in the form of notes. (1mark)
11) What is the name of the play by Andrew Mc.Vitie?
_________________________________________
12) Where does he hand out the tickets?
_________________________________________
13) How much do the tickets cost?
_________________________________________
14) Where will they go for an ice cream and a coffee?
_________________________________________
15) Where can the students get off to take the bus home?
_________________________________________
Part 4: Listen to an interview with a woman called Rachel who is talking about the shows
she puts on for children and choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to questions 16-20. (1
mark).
16. Before the children were born, Rachel worked as
A. an art teacher.
B. a painter.
C. an actor.
D. a doctor.
17. Who first thought of doing a show at a party?
A. Rachel’s husband
B. Rachel’s children
C. Rachel’s parents
D. Rachel’s students
18. Rachel’s neighbour, Lena, helps by
A. making some dolls for the show.
B. performing in the shows.
C. writing the music for the shows.
D. preparing cloths for the shows.
19. When Rachel did a play about a lion
A. the children laughed too much.
B. the children were frightened.
C. the children’s parents complained.
D. the children loved it too much.

20. How do Rachel’s daughters help her?
A. They show new dolls to their school friends.
B. They think of ideas for new stories.
C. They give their opinions on her new plays.
D. They make new dolls for her plays.
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Part 1: Choose the correct answer (A, B, C, D) to each of the following questions and write
their answers (A, B, C, D) in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.2 point)
1. For a family with two children who need full-time childcare, so-called ______________ in
which one parent is always at home while the other is at work – saves an average of £11,700 a
year.
A. shared parenting B. shift parenting
C. attachment parenting D. filled parenting
2. If you don’t take exercise you__________________the risk of getting ill.
A. stand B. face C. suffer D. run
3.We are all______________ the opinion that hydrocarbons in the atmosphere contribute to
global warming.
A. of B. with C. on D. in
4. Can you wait thirty seconds while I________________in to the post office for some
stamps?
A. saunter B. brezee C. pop in D. go
5. He bought his car on the _______________ , hy hire-purchase.
A. never-never B. now and now C. up and up D. pay tomorrow
6. The police are_______________an accident which took place this afternoon.
A. inspecting B. searching C. looking out D. investigating
7. The chess players tried very hard to___________ each other with every move in the
tournament.
A. outnumber B. outwit C. outcome D. outweigh
8. If you are_____________with this test, perhaps you should attempt an easier one.
A. stumbling B. stressed C. struggling D. straining
9. I am doing badly. I’ll have to pull my_______________up.
A. stockings B. shoes C. socks D. trousers
10. ______________ caculations have shown that the earth’s resources may run out of before
the end of the next century.
A. Raw B. Rude C. Crude D. Blunt
11. I dread _________________ what would have happened if there’d been an accident.
A. think B. to think C. to thinking D. the thought
12. His new method of teaching is like _____________ of fresh air to his students.
A. a blow B. a waft C. a wind D. a breath
Part 2: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in the corresponding numbered
boxes. (0.8 point)
THE DICTIONARY OF NATIONAL BIOGRAPHY
Just over one hundred years ago, the last volume of a tremendous work of reference
entitled The Dictionary of National Biography rolled off the printing presses.
(13)...................(ADMIT), this 21-volume shelf-filler may not immediately sound like the
most thrilling read in the world. As entertainment, you might imagine it ranks some way
below a (14)...................(POLITICS) autobiography. But you would be very, very wrong.
The DNB, like the Oxford English Dictionary, is one of the great monuments to British
culture and also a hugely enjoyable work in its own right. It is, quite simply, an
(15)...................(ALPHABET) dictionary of potted biographies of all the notable men and
women who had lived in Britain since the year dot. It was produced between 1885 and 1900,
and it remains (16)...................(EMPHASIS) an achievement of the Victorian period, richly
redolent of 19th century confidence and (17)...................(CAPABLE), energy and optimism.
It is also a monument to the enormous variety of the British national character, and the
dictionary is immeasurably (18)...................(RICH) by this aspect. There are not only great
statesmen, generals, writers, but also hundreds of wonderfully colourful characters, who you
can discover only by leafing idly through a volume of the DNB on a wet afternoon down at
your local library.
The way in which the DNB was produced was very British too: on a shoestring, out of
sheer dedication, and with no state (19) ...................(INTERFERE) whatsoever. It was the
private endeavour of a group of (20)...................(ENTHUSE), scholars and freelance
journalists, as opposed to, for instance, the Austrian equivalent, produced under the
oppressive auspices of the imperial Academy of Vienna.
Part 3: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or
phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions. (0.5 point)
21. The clubs meet on the last Thursday of every month in a dilapidated palace.
A. neglected B. regenerated C. furnished D. renovated
22. Biologists long regarded it as an example of adaptation by natural selection, but for
physicists it bordered on the miraculous.
A. adjustment B. agility C. flexibility D. inflexibility
23. The International Organizations are going to be in a temporary way in the country.
A. soak B. permanent C. complicated D. guess
24. The US troops are using much more sophisticated weapons in the Far East.
A. expensive B. complicated
C. simple and easy to use D. difficult to operate
25. There has been no discernible improvement in the noise levels since lorries were banned.
A. clear B. obvious C. thin D. insignificant
Part 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or
phrase that is the SAME meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions. (0.5 point)
26. My brother is obsessed with online games.
A. consumed by B. disliked C. interested in D. liked
27. The new cow boy-film catches the fancy of the children.
A. attracts B. amuses C. surprises D. satisfies
28. Teenagers are often apathetic to politics.
A. different B. interested C. lackadaisical D. excited
29. His problems in study all stem from his laziness.
A. result B. caused C. effected D. leaded
30. If I were you, I would regard their offer with considerable reservation.
A. carelessness B. incautious C. imprudent D. carefulness
READING
Part 1: Read the following passage, and write the letter A, B, C, or D in your numbered
boxes to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks from 51 to 60. There is
an example at the beginning (0). (1 mark)
Once upon a time, people left school or university, joined a company and stayed with it until
they retired. The concept of a job for life is now long ……… (0), and nowadays many
employees find it hard to stay loyal to their companies for even a relatively short
(51) …………of time. According to a recent survey, this is particularly (52) ……………in
London, where more than half of those asked said that they constantly (53) ……………on
eye on other job opportunities, (54) …………they are fairy happy in their existing jobs. A
high number of London workers say that they are always on the (55) ……………, although
they are content and motivated in their current position.
Job seekers find that the internet (56) …………them with a quick and easy way to find out
what’s available, and 53 per cent said that they had applied for a job or (57) ……………with
an employment agency in the past 12 months. This proactive (58) ……………means that
people can look for a perfect job match with the (59) ……………of effort. But while this is
good job for job hunters, the growing lack of company loyalty could end up being a big
problem for employers. Perhaps surprisingly, the (60) ……………factor attracting job
seekers was not more money, but challenging and interesting work.
0. A. done B. over C. gone D. finished
51. A. stage B. point C. section D. period
52. A. right B. true C. actual D. real
53. A. hold B. put C. keep D. place
54. A. just as B. as well C. so that D. even if
55. A. lookout B. search C. watch D. pursuit
56. A. serves B. delivers C. provides D. fulfills
57. A. engaged B. registered C. appointed D. recorded
58. A. manner B. approach C. style D. custom
59. A. least B. maximum C. lowest D. minimum
60. A. biggest B. widest C. largest D. highest
Part 2: For questions 61-70, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable
word and write your answers in the corresponding boxes provided below the passage. There
is an example at the beginning (0). (1 mark)
They were all wipes out before science had a chance to discover (0) them , but only the
dodo’s name has lived on. However, experts have now been (61) ………………to reconstruct
the appearance of dozens of long-extinct birds and animals from the same remote tropical
isles (62) ………………the dodo lived.
The islands of Mauritius, Reunion and Podrigues in the Indian Creatures Ocean were home to
hundreds of unique and rare creatures before humans first set foot (63) ………………in 1958.
In about 150 years, at (64) ………………45 species had been lost forever as a
(65) ………………of hunting and the introduction of other species.
“(66) ………………happened on these islands is a sad tale,” says Dr Julian Hume, a pale
ethnologist who worked on the project.
Now researchers have recreated what the extinct animals and birds would looked
(67)………………from fragments of bone, fossils and descriptions made
(68) ………………travelers at the time. Following 30 years of research, they have managed
to produce detailed pictures of (69) ………………the extinct creatures looked and behaved
for a new book (70) ………………The Lost Land Of The Dodo.
Part 3: Read the following passage and answer the questions 71–80.
A. My mum is the team manager for the Olympic diving team and when I was a baby I used
to go with her to the pool and jump in and out now I practice diving every day after school
and on Saturdays. I’m really too tall to be a great diver and my long legs make it difficult to
do somersaults, so I don’t think I’ll ever make it to the top. But nevertheless, I find it
exhilarating when I’m diving well. If it’s a complicated dive, I have to concentrate very hard,
which is difficult if I feel nervous. My dad’s support is very motivating for me. I take part in
about 10 competitions a year, both national and international. The best thing about it is that
you make new friends from different countries. I do trampolining for the regional team, which
prepares me for diving – the moves are similar but you don’t land in water! The one thing I
don’t like about it is that doing my homework takes up my spare time and I don’t have much
time to go out with my friends from school.
B. Last year our netball team was promoted to the top league and so the coach became very
strict. At that level, every move is scrutinized and discussed, which makes everyone feel very
pressured. There’s a lot of competition to get chosen for the team and sometimes I got
substituted. When I played last year, I would look at the subs sitting on the sidelines and not
really care, but when I started to become one myself I had a whole new perspective on the
game. Now I realize that when you’re not the best at a sport it doesn’t seem as much fun as
when you’re a top player. I left the team earlier this year, as the pressure of playing in
matches was too much; it was becoming a frustration instead of a recreation. I still enjoy
playing netball with my friends in gym classes, when I can relax without worrying about
impressing my coach all the time.
C. I was good at football and I really enjoyed playing left back in the school team. Then one
Saturday when I was 14, I went to watch the local ice hockey team play. It was so exciting
and became a real turning point in my life. School football seems so dull in comparison. I
discovered that there was a local women’s ice hockey team just being set up. At first, the
coach thought I was too young and too inexperienced as I’d only done occasional fun skating
on Saturday afternoons. But she agreed to give me a trial and I have been playing for three
years now. I’ll really find out what I can do in June when we go to take part in a women’s
international ice hockey competition in Prague.
D. I knew I was serious about rugby when I scored a try in my first game. I was named
‘player of the year’ at my club last year and I’m also captain of my school team. My uncle
often comes to watch me play. He’s very competitive so that is probably why I am too. Losing
makes me feel that I’ve done something wrong. It doesn’t happen very often, though. I’m not
normally an aggressive person but, on the rugby pitch, I am. I don’t think girls should play
rugby as it’s so aggressive and they could easily get injured. Most of my schoolmates play
rugby and all of them are sporty. I can’t really imagine my life without rugby! I’m going to
agricultural college when I leave school and eventually will take over my uncle’s farm, but l
hope there’ll still be time for lots of rugby. If I have a son, I’ll want to help coach his team
and I’d be disappointed if he wasn’t interested in sports. I’ll definitely be a competitive dad!
For questions 71–80 locate the paragraph in which the following information is mentioned.
Write the letter of each paragraph in the corresponding boxes.
71. He / She thinks winning is the most important thing
72. He / She feel their sport has both a positive and negative impact on their social life
73. He / She thinks that their sport may be inappropriate for a particular group of people
74. He / She has changed their mind about participating in competitive sport
75. He / She has long-term plans which include continued involvement in their sport
76. He / She is realistic about their chances of being very successful
77. He / She thinks playing their sport changes their character
78. He / She is looking forward to a new challenge
79. He / She has friends locally who share their passion for sport
80. He / She thinks it is easier to perform well in their sport when they are calm.
Part 4: For questions 81-85, choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-G from the list of
headings below. Write the correct numbers (i- x) in the corresponding numbered boxes.
There is an example at the beginning (0) ( 1 mark)
Tobacco Industry Fumes over Passive Smoking
A America’s tobacco industry has launched a fresh assault in its war against the anti-
smoking movement. Six tobacco groups are suing the US Environmental Protection Agency,
claiming that its recent report on the dangers of second- hand smoke is based on sloppy
science and is unfairly damaging their trade. Anti- smoking groups say the lawsuit is a
Canute- like attempt to stem a tide of anti- smoking legislation sweeping the US.
B In January, the EPA released a long- awaited report on passive smoking. It considered
more than 30 studies around the world that compared the incidence of lung cancer in non-
smoking woman whose husbands smoked with that in those whose husbands did not. The
report included that wives of smokers had a higher risk of developing lung cancer, and that
the risk increased with the amount of smoke inhaled. Passive smoking causes 3,000 deaths a
year from lung cancer in the US alone, it said. On the basic of this and other evidence- for
instance, that smoke is clearly carcinogenic when inhaled directly- the EPA added
environmental tobacco smoke to its list of known human carcinogens. The report also
concluded that second- hand smoke aggravates asthma and causes respiratory illness and ear
infections in children.
C The tobacco industry countered that the study was shoddy and misleading,
characterized by “ a preference for political correctness over sound science”. The tobacco
groups pointed out that the increased incidence of lung cancer was seen only when the
statistical test was relaxed from the usual 95 per cent confidence to a less rigorous 90 per cent.
They also accused the EPA of ignoring several studies that the contradict the agency’s
conclusion.
D On 22 June, the six groups- Philip Morris, R. J. Reynolds Tobacco and four groups
representing growers and retailers- jointly sued the EPA to have the study declares null and
avoid, and to throw out human carcinogen classification, which they claim goes beyond the
EPA’s legal mandate. “ Unfortunately, it is the tobacco farmers, their families and the
communities who- if the EPA is not stopped- will have to pay for this misguided actions”,
says John Berry, a lawyer for the Council for Burley Tobacco of Lexington, Kentucky.
E The EPA stands by its report. “ We’ve been hearing them for years”, says spokesman
Dave Ryan. “ We think the suit is frivolous”. Major medical groups also back the report.
“ This lawsuit is just another example of tobacco conglomerates blowing smoke in the faces
of American”, says Lonnie Bristow, chair of the American Medical Association’s Board of
Trustees. “ An industry that kills 450,000 citizens every year cannot be trusted”.
F The charge of scientific manipulation is unfounded, says Morton Lippmann, a lung
expert from New York University who chaired an external review of the EPA report. The 90
per cent confidence limit is reasonable given the difficulties of studying second- hand smoke,
he says, as was the omission of some recent studies. “ You could wait forever for this study
and the next study”, he says. In fact, the additional studies they’re so anxious to include
couldn’t possibly change the conclusion. The omitted study most often cited by the tobacco
industry found a 30 per cent increase in the risk of lung cancer in passive smokers exposed to
the highest levels of smoke. Lippmann also notes that the EPA report, while the most
complete, is not the first study to conclude that passive smoking increases the risk of cancer.
List of headings
(i) Danger of passive smoking
(ii) EPA’s opinion of the lawsuit
(iii) Tobacco industry vs. the EPA
(iv) Chances of developing lung cancer
(v) Stop the EPA
(vi) Importance of cigarette warnings
(vii) A groundless report
(viii) A report as good as any
0. Paragraph A
81. Paragraph B
82. Paragraph C
83. Paragraph D
84. Paragraph E
85. Paragraph F
Part 5. Read the following passage and answer questions (86- 95).
For questions 86- 95, choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) according to the text. Write
your answers (A, B, C, or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes.(1,0 mark)
ARE YOU A MACHINE OF MANY PARTS?
What will future historians remember about the impact of science during the last
decade of the 20th century? They will not be much more concerned with many of the marvels
that currently preoccupy us, such as the miraculous increase in the power of home computer
and the unexpected growth of the Internet. Nor will they dwell much on global warming, the
loss of biodiversity and other examples of our penchant for destruction. Instead, the end of the
20th century will be recognized as the time when, for better or worse, science began to bring
about the fundamental shift in our perception of ourselves.
It will be the third time that science has force us to re- evaluate who we are. The first
time, of course, was the revolution that began with Copernicus in 1543 and continued with
Kepler, Galileo and Newton. Despite the Church’s opposition, we came to realize that the
Earth does not lie at the centre of the universe. Instead, we gradually found we live on a small
planet on the edge of a minor galaxy, circling one star in a universe that contains billions of
others. Our unique position in the universe was gone forever.
A few centuries later, we were moved even further from stage centre. The Darwinian
revolution removed us from our position as a unique creation of God. Instead, we discovered
we were just another part of the animal kingdom proud to have “ a miserable ape for a
grandfather”, as Thomas Huxley put it in 1860. We know now just how close to the apes we
are- over 90% of our genes are the same as those of the chimpanzee.
Increasing knowledge of our own genetics, is one of the driving force in the third great
conceptual shift that will soon take place. Others are the growing knowledge of the way our
minds work, our new ability to use knowledge of the nervous system to design drugs that
affect specific states of mind and the creation of the sophisticated scanners which enable us to
see what is happening inside our brains. In the third revolution, we are taking our own selves
to pieces and finding the parts which make up the machine that is us.
Much of the new knowledge from genetics, molecular biology and the neuro- sciences
is esoteric. But its cultural impact is already running ahead of science. People begin to see
themselves not as wholes with a moral centre but the result of the combined action of parts for
which they have little responsibility.
It’s Nobody’s Fault is the title of the popular American book on “ difficult” children.
Many different children, the book explains, are not actually difficult but are suffering from
Attention Deficit Disorder ( ADD). There is nothing wrong with them or the way they have
been brought up. Rather the part of the brain which controls attention is short of a particular
neurotransmitter.
ADD is currently the world’s fastest growing psychological problem. In the United
States, a survey show that 1.5m children between the ages of five and eighteen were being
treated with a drug, Ritalin, for the disorder. Since then the number taking the drug is believed
to have doubled.
You might, as many people do, question the way in which the disorder has been
diagnosed on such a staggering scale. But that is not the point. The cultural shift is that people
are not responsible for the disorders, only for obtaining treatment for t parts of them that have
gone wrong.
The more we know about the parts of ourselves, the more cures for our defects will
appear. Prozac is one example. The best- selling Listen to Prozac claimed the drug “ can
transform pessimists into optimists, turn loners into extroverts”. And Prozac, the book
explained, “ was not so much discovered as planfully created, through the efforts of a large
pharmaceutical firm… the likely result of this form of research is not medicines that correct
particular illnesses but medicines that affect clusters of functions in the human brain.”
Even when a treatment is not to hand, the notion that we are made of “ clusters of
functions” remains strong. Genetic analysis supports this view. A gene linked to alcoholism
has been located and a Gallup poll has revealed that the great majority of Americans consider
alcoholism to be a disease. There are claims of genes too for obesity, homosexuality and even
for laziness.
Some claims about genes may be silly. Or you may think that the current conceptual
shift is just a re- run of old arguments about the relative roles of nature and nurture. Instead,
take one drug, Viagra, as an example of the new way of thinking about ourselves. If you
suffer from impotence, it might have a variety of physiological causes. Or you might just be
anxious about sexual performance. But Viagra does not make such fine distinctions: it acts at
the level of the chemical reactions that control the blood flow needed to maintain an erection.
Once we can dissect ourselves into parts and know how the parts work, it really does
not matter what was the initial cause of the problem. If you own a car and the brakes wear out
quickly, it is not important whether you’ve been driving the car too hard or you bought cheap
brake shoes to begin with. You just need to change the brakes.
The more direct means we have of changing who we are, through changing the parts
that we are composed of, the harder becomes the question of who was the person who made
the decision to change, before becoming someone else. This will be the real issue for the 21th
century: who are we, if we are the sum of our parts and science has given us the power to
change those parts?
86. What is the most important scientific progress in the 20th century?
A. The development of computer technology.
B. The birth and growth of the Internet.
C. Mankind’s ability to control global warning.
D. People’s new knowledge of themselves.
87. What did Copernicus discover?
A. The Earth does not lie at the centre of the universe.
B. The Church was wrong about the history of mankind.
C. Human beings live on a small planet.
D. Mankind have a unique position in the universe.
88. What did Darwin discover?
A. Human beings were a unique creation of God.
B. Human beings and apes shared a common ancestor.

C. Human beings were lucky while apes were miserable.
D. Human beings and chimpanzees were nearly identical.
89. Which of the following is NOT “ one of the driving forces in the third great
conceptual shift” ? ( paragraph 4).
A. Knowledge of our own genetics.
B. Knowledge of the way our mind works.
C. Knowledge of how to use sophisticated scanners.
D. Knowledge of how to design drugs that effect specific states of mind.
90. Which of the following is likely to be the main idea of the book It’s nobody’s Fault?
A. Many children are suffering from ADD.
B. ADD is the problem for the problematic children.
C. Some people’s brains do not have neurotransmitters.
D. The way people are brought up determines their behavior.
91. How many people are taking Ritalin in the US?
A. Less than 1.5 million people.
B. 1.5 million of the people aged 5-18.
C. 3million of the people aged 5- 18.
D. More than 3 million teenagers.
92. Which of the following reflects the cultural shift?
A. More people are diagnosed to be suffering from mental disorders.
B. People do not responsible for the problems they have.
C. More people are seeking mental treatment.
D. People begin t question the accuracy of doctors’ diagnoses.
93. What is Prozac?
A. A book
B. A medicine
C. A type of people
D. A mental disorder.
94. Genetic analysis seem to have confirmed that there is a gene in our body that is
responsible for
A. alcoholism
B. obesity
C. homosexuality
D. laziness
95. Which of the following does the drug Viagra illustrate?
A. “Some claims about genes may be silly” (Paragraph 11)
B. We have a “ new way of thinking about ourselves” (Paragraph 11)
C. A physical disorder “ might have a variety of physiological causes”. (Paragraph 11)
D. “People …are….obtaining treatment for the parts of them that have gone wrong.”
(Paragraph 8)
WRITING
Part 1: For questions 96- 100, finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it
means the same as the sentence printed before it.( 1 point)
96. The bus driver cannot be blamed for the accident in any way.
=> In ...................................................................................................................
97. This button mustn’t be touched under any circumstances.
=> Under no.........................................................................................................
98. She doesn’t get on well with her neighbor any more.
=> She has...........................................................................................................
99. Tom does a very good immitation of the English teacher.
=> Tom takes.......................................................................................................
100. It was necesary for you to go so much trouble on my behalf.
=> You needn’t ...................................................................................................
Part 2: The bar chart below gives information about the percentage of the population
living in urban areas in the world and in different continents. (1.5 point)
Write a report (of about 150 words) describing the information in the chart.
........................................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................................
Part 3:
In many countries today, the eating habits and lifestyle of children are different from
those of previous generations. Some people say this has had a negative effect on their
health. To what extent do you agree or disagree with this opinion? (2.5 point)
Write about 250 words to support your position (and do not include your personal
information).
------------------------------THE END-------------------------
SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC KỲ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 10, 11 THPT NĂM HỌC 2016-2017
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 10 - THPT
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề.
PART A. LISTENING
Section 1. Listen to the telephone conversation and answer the questions. You will hear the
recording TWICE.
Questions 1- 7: Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Event Cost Venue Notes
Jazz band Tickets available for The 1 _________ school Also appearing: Carolyn Hart
15 pounds (play the 2 _________)
Duck 1 pound per duck Start behind the 3 _________ Prize: tickets for 4 _________ held
races at the end of the festival. Ducks
can be bought in the 5 _________
Flower Free 6 __________ Hall Prizes presented at 5 pm by a
show well-known 7 _________
Questions 8- 10: Write the correct letter A, B, C next to Questions 8-10.
Who is each play suitable for?

A mainly for children
B mainly for adults
C suitable for people of all ages
Plays
8. The Mystery of Muldoon _________
9. Fire and Flood _________
10. Silly Sailor _________
Section 2. Listen to a woman talking about the use of soil to reduce carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere and answer the questions. You will hear the recording TWICE.
Questions 11- 15: Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
The use of soil to reduce carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
Rattan Lal:
• claims that 13% of C02 in the atmosphere could be absorbed by agricultural soils.
• Erosion is more likely in soil that is 11 _________.
• Lal found soil in Africa that was very 12 _________.
Soil and carbon:
• Plants turn C02 from the air into carbon-based substances such as 13 _________.
• Some C02 moves from the 14 _________of plants to microbes in the soil.
Regenerative agriculture:
• uses established practices to make sure soil remains fertile and 15 _________.
1
PART B. PHONETICS
Mark A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose main stress differs from that of the others in each group.
1. A. inhabitant B. curriculum C. academic D. diversity
2. A. absorb B. capture C. abroad D. achieve
3. A. volunteer B. engineer C. referee D. committee
4. A. atmosphere B. bachelor C. abundant D. natural
5. A. picturesque B. potential C. outstanding D. nutrition
PART C. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Section 1. Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the following sentences.
1. He worked at workshops for free ___________ develop his knowledge of classic vehicles.
A. in order that B. so that C. in order to D. in addition to
2. Parents need to be able to modify their position in the ___________ of what their child tells.
A. bright B. light C. lamp D. torch
3. It is concluded that frequent _________ to the sun can have a negative effect on the skin.
A. exposure B. expose C. exposed D. exposedly
4. In most _________ developed countries, up to 50% of _________ population enters higher education at
some time in their lives.
A. Ø / a B. the / Ø C. Ø / the D. the / the
5. Items purchased in this store will only be replaced on production of a _________ receipt.
A. reasonable B. valid C. mint D. adequate
6. She believes that all countries should _________ the death penalty as it is inhumane.
A. put down to B. catch up on C. get down to D. do away with
7. The school was closed for a month because of serious _________ of fever.
A. outcome B. outburst C. outbreak D. outset
8. Millie’s father accused her of _________, which made her sad.
A. trying not hard enough B. not trying enough hard
C. not trying hard enough D. trying not enough hard
9. He _________ his life to the skills of the surgeons who are working at the local hospital.
A. owes B. keeps C. preserves D. maintains
10. John: “Excuse me, could you take our picture?”
Jane: “___________”
A. We can store it. You can get it tomorrow.
B. Sure, give me your camera. Ok, say cheese everyone!
C. I’m sorry. My mobile phone needs recharging!
D. It’s a pity that I don’t have a family picture here.
Section 2. Give the correct form of the word in brackets to best complete each sentence.
One of the most delightful places in China is a small island called Gulangyu. It is often called
“piano island” because of the large number of (1. MUSIC) _________ who live there. But perhaps
Gulangyu’s greatest appeal is that although it has 20,000 permanent (2. RESIDE) _________ mostly
living in the centre community one kilometer wide, there are no high-rise buildings and motor
vehicles and bicycles are banned. Personal (3. BELONG) _________ are carried, or pushed on small
wagons.
While Gulangyu is a popular day trip for people from the neighbouring island of Xiamen, it
seems a relatively (4. DISCOVER) _________ destination for visitors from else where in China
2
or further afield. One reason why Gulangyu has not been besieged by Chinese visitors is its
(5. GEOGRAPHY) _________ location. Several mountain ranges on mainland China mean that road
and rail (6. CONNECT) _________ from the prosperous cities to its east and south are very slow. Air
travel, via Xiamen airport, is a possibility, but it is too expensive for the majority of visitors.
There are certainly enough attractions for those tourists who do arrive, including
parks, an aquarium, and souvenir shops. There are also some excellent restaurants, though
they may charge (7. CONSIDER) _________ more than those found in other, less (8. PICTURE)
_________ parts of the country. However, one key tourist business that is not much in (9. EVIDENT)
_________ is hostels – there are only a (10. HAND) _________ in the centre of the island.
Section 3. The passage below contains five mistakes in five different lines. Write down the line
numbers, the corresponding mistakes, and correct them.
It seems that the mystery of why the Pyramids were built may have solved. Until quite recently
people got used to think that they were just tombs for pharaohs. Instead, the connection with
astronomy seems much more important. Egyptologists have often asked themselves how long it spent
to build them and why people built them in the first place. Experts came up with a suggestion that the
Egyptians may have believed that the River Nile was the earthly equivalent of the Milky Way. Many
agree that the size of the three Giza Pyramids are in proportion to the three stars of Orion. Nothing, then,
was by the chance. Rather, the souls of dead pharaohs were deliberately being projected through shafts
to reach their goal of the Orion constellation.
No Line Mistake Correction

1
2
PART D. READING
Section 1. Read the following extract and choose the option (A, B, C or D) which best answers
each of the following questions.
The term "folk song" has been current for over a hundred years, but there is still a good deal
of disagreement as to what it actually means. The definition provided by the International Folk Music
Council states that folk music is the music of ordinary people, which is passed on from person to
person by being listened to rather than learned from the printed page. Other factors that help shape
a folk song include: continuity (many performances over a number of years); variation (changes in
words and melodies either through artistic interpretation or failure of memory); and selection (the
acceptance of a song by the community in which it evolves).
When songs have been subjected to these processes their origin is usually impossible to trace.
For instance, if a farm laborer were to make up a song and sing it to a couple of friends who like it
and memorize it, possibly when the friends come to sing it themselves one of them might forget some
of the words and make up new ones to fill the gap, while the other, perhaps more artistic, might add a
few decorative touches to the tune and improve a couple of lines of text. If this happened a few times,
there would be many different versions, the song's original composer would be forgotten, and the
song would become common property. This constant reshaping and recreation is the essence of folk
music. Consequently, modern popular songs and other published music, even though widely sung by
people who are not professional musicians, are not considered folk music.
3
The music and words have been set by a printed or recorded source, limiting scope for further
artistic creation. These songs' origins cannot be disguised and therefore they belong primarily to the
composer and not to a community.
The ideal situation for the creation of folk music is an isolated rural community. In such a
setting folk songs and dances have a special purpose at every stage in a person's life, from childhood
to death. Epic tales of heroic deeds, seasonal songs relating to calendar events, and occupational
songs are also likely to be sung.
A. Themes commonly found in folk music
B. Elements that define folk music
C. Influences of folk music on popular music
D. The standards of the International Folk Music Council
2. Which of the following statements about the term "folk song" is supported by the passage?
A. It has been used for several centuries.
B. The International Folk Music Council invented it.
C. It is considered to be out-of-date.
D. There is disagreement about its meaning.
3. The word "it" in paragraph 1 refers to _________.
A. community B. song C. acceptance D. memory
4. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a characteristic of the typical folk song?
A. It is constantly changing over time.
B. It is passed on to other people by being performed.
C. It contains complex musical structures.
D. It is usually impossible to trace its origin.
5. The word "subjected" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. reduced B. modified C. exposed D. imitated
6. The author mentions the farm laborer and his friends in order to _________.
A. explain how a folk song evolves over time.
B. illustrate the importance of music to rural workers.
C. show how subject matter is selected for a folk song.
D. demonstrate how a community chooses a folk song.
7. According to the passage, why would the original composers of folk songs be forgotten?
A. Audience prefers songs composed by professional musicians.
B. Singers dislike the decorative touches in folk song tunes.
C. Numerous variations of folk songs come to exist at the same time.
D. Folk songs are not considered an important form of music.
8. The word "essence" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. basic nature B. first phase C. full extent D. growing importance
9. The author mentions that published music is not considered folk music because ________.
A. the original composer can be easily identified
B. the songs attract only the young people in a community
C. the songs are generally performed by professional singers
D. the composers write the music in rural communities
10. Which word best describes the tone of the passage above?
A. humorous B. argumentative C. informative D. sarcastic
4
Section 2. Choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or D to complete each
numbered gap in the passage below.
Parents whose children show a special interest in a particular sport have a difficult decision
to (1) _______ about their children’s career. Should they let their children train to become top
sportsmen and sportswomen? For many children it (2) _______ starting very young and school work,
going out with friends and other (3) _______ have to take second place. It’s very difficult to explain to a
young child why he or she has to train for five hours a day, even at the weekend, when (4) _______ of
his or her friends are playing.
Another problem is of course money. In many countries money for training is (5) _________
from the government for the very best young sportsmen and sportswomen. If this help cannot be
given, it means that it is the parents (6) __________ have to find the time and the money to support
their child’s development- and sports clothes, transport to competitions, special equipment etc. can
all be very expensive.
Many parents are understandably (7) _______ that it is dangerous to start serious training in a
sport at an early age. Some doctors agree that young (8) _______ may be damaged by training before they
are properly developed. Professional trainers, however, believe that it is only by starting young that you
can reach the top as a successful sports person. What is clear is that very (9) _______ people reach the top
and both parents and children should be prepared for (10) ________, even after many years of training.
1. A. do B. plan C. make D. prepare
2. A. should B. means C. helps D. tries
3. A. hopes B. dreams C. satisfactions D. interests
4. A. almost B. few C. most D. none
5. A. enough B. available C. possible D. enormous
6. A. that B. whom C. they D. which
7. A. interested B. excited C. cared D. worried
8. A. bloods B. capacities C. muscles D. physics
9. A. little B. few C. a few D. many
10. A. failure B. failing C. failed D. fail
Section 3. Read the passage carefully and fill in each of the blanks with ONE suitable word.
Air pollution is a well-known problem, but now light pollution is also causing concern. Light
pollution occurs (1) ________ there are many electric lights around us which are so powerful (2) ________ they
stop us seeing the stars in the night sky. It is now such a problem that in some places people (3) _______
outdoor lighting is too bright could even be given a heavy fine. Business owners, supermarkets and
even home-owners that install security lights may face legal action if their lights are so bright that
they spoil (4) ________ neighbours’ enjoyment of the night sky.
Amazingly, many children growing up in big cities today have never seen the night sky
properly because of the (5) ________ in light pollution. And it is (6) ________ only in cities – people living
in the country are also affected (7) ________ lights from nearby towns. It is a problem for those simply
trying to enjoy the stars, and for serious astronomers (8) ________ well.
One university in the UK has come up with an interesting solution. It has built a telescope in
the Canary Islands and allows schools to use this (9) ________ the Internet. But it does seem ridiculous
that children can’t see the stars properly (10) ________ using their computers!
5
PART E. WRITING
Section 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same
as the sentence printed before it.
1. When the minister was asked about the strike, he declined to comment.
On __________________________________________________________.
2. I haven't been to Oxford for at least ten years.
The last time ______________________________________________.
3. I regret not going to the airport to say goodbye to him.
I wish ______________________________________________________.
4. Apart from Philip, everyone else at the meeting was a party member.
With _______________________________________________________.
5. She got down to writing the report as soon as she returned from her walk.
No _________________________________________________________.
Section 2. Essay writing

Cars have changed the way we travel. However, some people believe that there are
more disadvantages to it than advantages.
To what extent do you agree with this opinion?
Write at least 250 words.
……………………………………..THE END……………………………………..
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.
Họ và tên thí sinh:…………………….………..…….…….….….; Số báo danh:……………………….
6
SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC KỲ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 10, 11 THPT NĂM HỌC 2016-2017
(Đáp án có 02 trang) ĐÁP ÁN MÔN: ANH 10 - THPT
Câu Đáp án Điểm

Section 1: Questions 1- 7
1. secondary 2. flute 3. cinema 4. concert 1.0pt
PART A 5. market 6. Bythwaite 7. actor (0.1/item)
LISTENING Questions 8- 10: (0.3 points)
1.5pts 8. A 9. B 10. C
Section 2: 0.5pt
11. dry 12. hard 13. sugar/ sugars 14. roots 15. moist (0.1/item)
PART B
1. C 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. A 0.5pt
PHONETICS
(0.1/item)
0.5 pt
Section 1:
1. C 6. D
2. B 7. C 1.0pt
3. A 8. C (0.1/item)
4. C 9. A
5. B 10. B
Section 2:
PART C 1. MUSICIANS 6. CONNECTIONS
LEXICAL- 2. RESIDENTS 7. CONSIDERABLY 1.0pt
GRAMMAR 3. BELONGINGS 8. PICTURESQUE (0.1/item)
2.5 pts 4. UNDISCOVERED 9. EVIDENCE
5. GEOGRAPHICAL 10. HANDFUL
Section 3:
No Line Mistake Correction
1 1 have solved have been solved
2 2 think thinking 0.5pt
3 3 spent took (0.1/item)
4 6 size sizes
5 7 by the chance by chance
Section 1:
1.0pt
1. B 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. C
(0.1/item)
6. A 7. C 8. A 9. A 10. C
Section 2: 1.0pt
PART 1. C 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. B (0.1/item)
DREADING 6. A 7. D 8. C 9. B 10. A
3 pts Section 3:
1. because/ as/ since 6. not
2. that 7. by 1.0pt
3. whose 8. as (0.1/item)
4. their/ the 9. through/ via/ on
5. increase/rise 10. without
Page 1 of 2
Section 1:
1. On being asked about the strike, the minister declined to comment.
2. The last time I went to Oxford wasat least ten years ago. 0.5pt
3. I wish I had gone to the airport to say goodbye to him. (0.1/item)
4. With the exception of Philip, everyone else at the meeting was a party member.
PART E
READING 5. No sooner had she returned from her walk than she got down to writing the report.
2.5 pts Section 2:
- Task achievement (25% of the total mark)
- Grammar range and Accuracy (25% of the total mark)
2pts
- Coherence and cohesion (25% of the total mark)
- Lexical resource (25% of the total mark)
TOTAL
10
Page 2 of 2
SỞ GD & ĐT BẮC NINH KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TRƯỜNG
TRƯỜNG THPT LÝ THÁI TỔ Năm học: 2017 – 2018
***************** Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
Lớp: 10
Ngày thi: 14/4/2018
Họ và tên: …………………............................. Thời gian: 120 phút(không kể thời gian giao đề)
(Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào tờ đề thi)
Lớp 10A ……………………
Số báo danh: ………………
Lớp: ………
PART 1: PHONOLOGY (2 points)

I. Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from those of the other words. (1pt)
1. A. decision B. excite C. alive D. spite
2. A. quarter B. although C. want D. tall
3. A. juicy B. tuition C. group D. wounded
4. A. raised B. increased C. attacked D. hoped
5. A. telephones B. styles C. describes D. cassettes
II. Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the
other three. (1pt)
1. A. risky B. conserve C. liquid D. forest
2. A. certificate B. individual C. biology D. apartment
3. A. environment B. impossible C. variety D. valuable
4. A. appreciate B. sufficient C. disastrous D. balance
5. A. historic B. expression C. personal D. resources
PART 2: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (8.0 points)
I. Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question. (1 pt)
1. Is this raincoat yours?- No, mine……..there behind the door.
A. is hanging B. has hung C. hangs D. hung
2. Sam liked making…… stories to tell to the children.
A. off B. out C. for D. up
3. He doesn’t use that old car anymore, so I’m going to……him an offer for it.
A. give B. make C. do D. take
4. A lack of cross cultural awareness can result in misinterpretations…………..
A. that offense may cause B. those may cause offense
C. which may cause offense D. for which may cause offense
5. I would like to make………… in the name of Bakers.
A. preservation B. reservation C. reserve D. preservative
6. Can I speak to Helen, please?-……………..
A. Answering B. Calling C. Talking D. Speaking
7. ………………today, she would get home by Friday.
A. Would she leave B. Was she leaving C. Were she to leave D. If she leaves
8. The book…………..by a famous writer.
A. believes to write B. believed to be written C. was believed to write D. was believed to be written
9. People going on a diet choose this kind of……………milk.
A. frost-free B. sugar-free C. environment-friendly D. man-made
10. No sooner…….. the classroom than the bell……..
A. I had entered/ rang B. had I entered/ had rung C. had I entered/ rang D. did I enter/ had rung
II. Supply the correct tense/ form of the verb in brackets. (2 points)
1. I can’t believe Paolo isn’t here yet. I (wait)……………..…… for two hours.
2. The room looked fantastic once it (paint)…………………….
3. When we were at high school, Paul(always forget)………………….…. his pen.
4. We were lucky enough not to miss the trip. When we got to the meeting place, they (leave)………..……..
5. It’s no use(try)………………….…...to make excuses. She won’t believe you.
6. He seems(work)……………………… hard on a solution to the problem. Don’t interrupt him.
7. I’m so confused that I don’t know what should(do)………………....
8. If I(not leave)….. my wallet at home this morning, I(have)…………………….... money for lunch now.
9. She got a degree in Physics and then went on(take)………………………… a course in Applied Maths.
III. Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to show the underlined part that needs correction. (1pt)
1. One of the countries which I want to visit most are France.
A B C D
2. Although her severe pain, Pat decided to come to the meeting so that there would be a quorum.
A B C D
3. Driving on the left side of the road made Lan very surprising when she first visited London.
A B C D
4. Discovery in 1789 and isolated from other elements in 1841, uranium is valued as a source of atomic energy.
A B C D
5. Being the first student finishing the test, John handed in his paper and left.
A B C D
IV. Write a suitable preposition in each given space of the following sentences. (2pts)
1. He had a great talent……….. … singing, and decided to become an opera singer.
2. If you concentrated more………….. your school work, your grades would improve.
3. Going to Australia has always appealed…………. … me.
4. I’ve known her…………..sight for a long time, but I haven’t been introduced to her yet.
5. The winning numbers for the National Lottery are chosen ………. ….random.
6. I can’t use my car at the moment. It’s in the garage………......repair.
7. It’s difficult to see the moon in the sky… ……….….day.
8. Jamie insisted…………. …. helping me clean up after the party.
9. Although there isn’t a ban ……….. …cars, they would prefer people to use public transport to get to work.
10. People ought to be aware …………. … the damage they are causing to the environment.
V. Write the correct form of each CAPITALISED word in the given spaces. (2pts)
Rice field art in Japan
A small farming community in Inakadate, Japan, has invented an(1) ORIGIN………….. ………… new art
form. It all began in 1993 when villagers were looking for ways to make their (2)
SURROUND………………….… ……..more attractive to tourists. The villagers came up with an
interesting(3)SOLVE… ……………..………. They decided to create enormous pictures in the field by using
a (4) COMBINE… ………..……………. of ancient farming techniques and art. To do this, they (5)CARE…
…………………..…..… planned the design they wanted; then planted rice of different colors. By the end of
the summer, the rice had grown and the masterpiece was ready. Now each year hundreds of volunteers and
villagers plant four(6)DIFFER… …………..…. varieties of rice in late May over huge areas of fields. During
the summer, as the plants grow, the artwork can be seen. Although the artwork is (7)
POSSIBLE…………………….. … to see from the ground, it is clearly visible from the top of the village
tower. The villagers have(8) CERTAIN…………..…………….... achieved their goal of attracting tourism to
the area. Inakadate has only 8,700(9) INHABIT … …………………, but over 150,000 tourists a year now
come to this small farming village to see its(10)EXCEPTION… ……..…………..… artwork.
PART 3: READING (5.0 points)
I. Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions. (2.5 pts)
Lake Baikal, the world’s largest lake, is located in southern Siberia, in Russia. It measures 395
miles long by 50 miles wide and it has 1,245 miles of coastline. The lake’s rocky basin consists of three
depressions, which hold a total volume of 14,656 cubic miles of water, 20 percent of the freshwater in the
world. The lake is also very deep, with its deepest point at over 1 mile and an average depth of 2,066 feet.
Furthermore, scientists have determined that Lake Baikal is the oldest lake in the world. From sediment
obtained by drilling deep down below the lake, researchers estimate it to be at least 25 million years old.
To scientists, Lake Baikal is of particular interest because of its unique and isolated ecosystem. More
than 1,000 species of plants and animals found at Lake Baikal exist nowhere else on earth and some can be
dated to prehistoric times. Among its unique fauna is the Baikal freshwater seal. This creature, which local
people call nerpa, is the only mammal which inhabits the lake. Researchers speculate that these seals, which
have been breeding at Lake Baikal for 22 million years, are the descendents of ocean-dwelling seals which
migrated inland in search of food, when the lake was still connected to the sea. Another creature that is unique
to this Siberian Lake is the omu, a fish, which is caught by local fisherman and is considered a great delicacy.
For centuries, the water in Lake Baikal was so clear that it was possible to see down to depths of 40 to 60
feet. Several factors contributed to keeping the water crystal clear. First, the lake contained certain small
zooplankton and small crustaceans that consumed waterweeds, bacteria, and other material that would
otherwise cloud the water. Furthermore, the water in the lake consisted of rainwater and melted snow that
flowed down from a mountain range in about 300 streams and through uninhabited forest. Finally, most of the
watershed has a rocky surface, so the water flowing into the lake did not accumulate mud or organic matter
and had little mineral or chemical content.
Câu 1: The word “which” in the first paragraph refers to __ .

A. the rocky basin B. the lake
C. the total water volume D. three depressions
Câu 2: All of the following is mentioned EXCEPT that __
A. Lake Baikal is the world’s largest lake B. Lake Baikal is located in Russia
C. Lake Baikal is the deepest lake in the world D. Lake Baikal is the oldest lake in the world
Câu 3: All of the following are true about Lake Baikal EXCEPT that __
A. it has a great variety of fish
B. it is near the sea
C. it has the biggest amount of freshwater in the world
D. it is about 25 million years old
Câu 4: Scientists are particularly interested in Lake Baikal because __
A. its ecosystem is special
B. the animals there are similar to elsewhere
C. it has more species of plants than anywhere else
D. it is isolated
Câu 5: Baikal fresh seal is __
A. the only habitants of the lake Baikal B. only found in the lake Baikal
C. has been breeding at the lake for 32 million years D. a species of plant
Câu 6: Omu is mentioned in the passage as __.
A. a local fisherman B. an animal migrating inland from the sea
C. descendents of ocean-dwelling seals D. an animal unique to the lake
Câu 7: The water of the lake Baikal is __
A. used to make crystal B. toxic C. made of crystal D. transparent
Câu 8: According to the passage, there are __ factors contributing to the clarity of the water in Lake Baikal.
A. 2 B. 1 C. 3 D. 4
Câu 9: The word cloud in the final paragraph can be best replaced by __
A. cold B. dirty C. clean D. muddy
Câu 10: The water in the lake is from all of the following EXCEPT __
A. snow B. rainwater C. streams D. forests
II. Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word for each of
the blanks. (2.5pts)
Public awareness of the value of recycling materials such (1)_____ plastic, paper, and glass is increasing daily
in all corners of the globe. In some countries these efforts are being (2)_____ by the local governments and in
others, by individuals. Participation in these programs is at an all-time high. In the small town of Truro in
eastern Massachusetts, for example, space in the local landfill has run out; therefore, residents have had to
think of new ways to (3)_____ of their trash. With no room for items such as newspaper, bottles, and old
lumber at the land fill, local residents have come up with many (4)_____ programs to recycle and/ or reuse
what was once (5)_____ of as only trash. For instance, yard waste such as leaves and grass which used to be
thrown in the landfill is now broken down and made (6)_____ compost used by local people as fertilizer in
their gardens. In addition,(7)_____ plastics, newspapers, bottles and cans are sold to a recycling company,
thereby bringing in revenue for the town. The most popular local innovation, though has been the founding of
a “swap shop”. This is a building to which people bring their unwanted clothing, books, and toys so that others
who need them can (8)_____ them. Since there is so much (9)_____ in all the recycling programs, the dump is
seen as a place to meet with friends and neighbors and catch up on local news. There is even an annual
September evening “dump dance”, where locals dance to live music and have picnics by candlelight at the
dump. This has become a high light of the summer vacation season. As humankind continues to (10)_____ and
the population grows, recycling efforts become even more important. These efforts must continue so that we
will soon see new innovations and ideas concerning the use of recycled materials.
Câu 1: A. as B. alike C. with D. like
Câu 2: A. introduced B. brought C. initiated D. participated
Câu 3: A. disapprove B. dispose C. throw D. discard
Câu 4: A. reforming B. progressive C. improved D. innovative
Câu 5: A. believed B. regarded C. thought D. considered
Câu 6: A. by B. into C. of D. from
Câu 7: A. reproductive B. wasted C. circulating D. recyclable
Câu 8: A. take B. offer C. steal D. bring
Câu 9: A. distribution B. participation C. approval D. fertilization
Câu 10: A. reproduce B. fertilize C. survive D. exist
PART 4: WRITING (5.0 points)

I. Rewrite these sentences so that the new one has a similar meaning as the sentence preceded. (1.25pts)
1. They couldn’t buy a house until they inherited a big sum of money from their parents.
It…………………………………………………………………………………………..
2. Her lies have annoyed him a lot.
He……………………………………………………………………………………………
3. “ No, I won’t give this to anybody else,” Peter said
Peter promised……. ………………………………………………………………....…..
4. The trip next week may be cancelled because of the bad weather.
If…………………………………………………………………………………..………
5. You may get hungry on the train, so take some sandwiches.
In…………………………………………………………………………………………
II. Do not change the given word, use it to write each of the following sentences so that each has a
similar meaning as the original one. (1.25pts)
1. I don’t care whether you come or not. difference
It…………………………………………………………whether you come or not.
2. She tried really hard, but couldn’t persuade us to go with her. how
No…………………………………………………..she couldn’t persuade us to go with her.
3. Keith is very proud of his ability to pick up languages easily. himself
Keith………………………………………………….…………….learning languages.
4. My sister needed more than three hours to finish her homework last night. over
It …………………………………………………. ……..her homework last night.
5. Tom has never thought of changing his job. crossed
The thought……………………………………….…..Tom’s mind.
III. Paragraph writing (2.5pts)

Write a paragraph (140 words) about your music idol..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
THE END
ĐÁP ÁN
SỞ GD & ĐT BẮC NINH KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TRƯỜNG
TRƯỜNG THPT LÝ THÁI TỔ Nămhọc: 2017 – 2018
***************** Mônthi: Tiếng Anh
Lớp: 10
Ngàythi: 14/4/2018
Họ và tên: …………………............................. Thờigian: 120 phút(Khôngkểthờigiangiaođề)
(Thísinhlàmbàitrựctiếpvàođềthi)
Lớp 10A ……………………
Số báo danh: ………………
Lớp: ………
PART 1: PHONOLOGY (2 points)

I. Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from those of the other words. (1pt)
1. A. decision B. excite C. alive D. spite
2. A. quarter B. although C. want D. tall
3. A. juicy B. tuition C. group D. wounded
4. A. raised B. increased C. attacked D. hoped
5. A. telephones B. styles C. describes D. cassettes
II. Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the
other three. (1pt)
1. A. risky B. conserve C. liquid D. forest
2. A. certificate B. individual C. biology D. apartment
3. A. environment B. impossible C. variety D. valuable
4. A. appreciate B. sufficient C. disastrous D. balance
5. A. historic B. expression C. personal D. resources
PART 2: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (8.0 points)
I. Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question. (1 pt)
1. Is this raincoat yours?- No, mine……..there behind the door.
A. is hanging B. has hung C. hangs D. hung
2. Sam liked making…… stories to tell to the children.
A. off B. out C. for D. up
3. He doesn’t use that old car anymore, so I’m going to……him an offer for it.
A. give B. make C. do D. take
4. A lack of cross cultural awareness can result in misinterpretations…………..
A. that offense may cause B. those may cause offense
C. which may cause offense D. for which may cause offense
5. I would like to make………… in the name of Bakers.
A. preservation B. reservation C. reserve D. preservative
6. Can I speak to Helen, please?-……………..
A. Answering B. Calling C. Talking D. Speaking
7. ………………today, she would get home by Friday.
A. Would she leave B. Was she leaving C. Were she to leave D. If she leaves
8. The book…………..by a famous writer.
A. believes to write B. believed to be written C. was believed to writeD. was believed to be written
9. People going on a diet choose this kind of……………milk.
A. frost-free B. sugar-free C. environment-friendly D. man-made
10. No sooner…….. the classroom than the bell……..
A. I had entered/ rang B. had I entered/ had rung C. had I entered/ rang D. did I enter/ had rung
II. Supply the correct tense/ form of the verb in brackets. (2 points)
1. I can’t believe Paolo isn’t here yet. I (wait)………… for two hours. Have been waiting
2. The room looked fantastic once it (paint)………….had been painted
3. When we were at high school, Paul(always forget)……. his pen. Was always forgetting
4. We were lucky enough not to miss the trip. When we got to the meeting place, the(leave)…were leaving….
5. It’s no use(try)……..to make excuses. She won’t believe you. trying
6. He seems(work)…… hard on a solution to the problem. Don’t interrupt him. To be working
7. I’m so confused that I don’t know what should(do)…..be done
8. If I(not leave)….. my wallet at home this morning, I(have)….. money for lunch now. Hadn’t left- would
have
9. She got a degree in Physics and then went on(take)…… a course in Applied Maths. To take
III. Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to show the underlined part that needs correction. (1pt)
1. One of the countries which I want to visit most are France.
A B C D
2. Although her severe pain, Pat decided to come to the meeting so that there would be a quorum.
A B C D
3. Driving on the left side of the road made Lan very surprising when she first visited London.
A B C D
4. Discovery in 1789 and isolated from other elements in 1841, uranium is valued as a source of atomic
energy.
A B C D
5. Being the first student finishing the test, John handed in his paper and left.
A B C D
IV. Write a suitable preposition in each given space of the following sentences. (2pts)
1. He had a great talent…..for… singing, and decided to become an opera singer.
2. If you concentrated more…on.. your school work, your grades would improve.
3. Going to Australia has always appealed…to… me.
4. I’ve known her…by..sight for a long time, but I haven’t been introduced to her yet.
5. The winning numbers for the National Lottery are chosen …at….random.
6. I can’t use my car at the moment. It’s in the garage…..under..repair.
7. It’s difficult to see the moon in the sky…by….day.
8. Jamie insisted….on…. helping me clean up after the party.
9. Although there isn’t a ban ….on…cars, they would prefer people to use public transport to get to work.
10. People ought to be aware …of… the damage they are causing to the environment.
V. Write the correct form of each CAPITALISED word in the given spaces. (2pts)
Rice field art in Japan
A small farming community in Inakadate, Japan, has invented an(1) ORIGIN……ORIGINALLY……… new
art form. It all began in 1993 when villagers were looking for ways to make
their(2)SURROUND……SURROUNDINGS…more attractive to tourists. The villagers came up with an
interesting(3)SOLVE…SOLUTION… They decided to create enormous pictures in the field by using
a(4)COMBINE…COMBINATION……. of ancient farming techniques and art. To do this,
they(5)CARE…CAREFULLY… planned the design they wanted; then planted rice of different colours. By
the end of the summer, the rice had grown and the masterpiece was ready. Now each year hundreds of
volunteers and villagers plant four(6)DIFFER…DIFFERENT…. varieties of rice in late May over huge areas
of fields. During the summer, as the plants grow, the artwork can be seen. Although the artwork
is(7)POSSIBLE…IMPOSSIBLE… to see from the ground, it is clearly visible from the top of the village
tower. The villagers have(8) CERTAIN….CERTAINLY. achieved their goal of attracting tourism to the area.
Inakadate has only 8,700(9) INHABIT …INHABITANTS…, but over 150,000 tourists a year now come to
this small farming village to see its(10)EXCEPTION…EXCEPTIONAL… artwork.
PART 3: READING (5.0 points)

I. Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions. (2.5 pts)
Lake Baikal, the world’s largest lake, is located in southern Siberia, in Russia. It measures 395
miles long by 50 miles wide and it has 1,245 miles of coastline. The lake’s rocky basin consists of three
depressions, which hold a total volume of 14,656 cubic miles of water, 20 percent of the freshwater in the
world. The lake is also very deep, with its deepest point at over 1 mile and an average depth of 2,066 feet.
Furthermore, scientists have determined that Lake Baikal is the oldest lake in the world. From sediment
obtained by drilling deep down below the lake, researchers estimate it to be at least 25 million years old.
To scientists, Lake Baikal is of particular interest because of its unique and isolated ecosystem. More
than 1,000 species of plants and animals found at Lake Baikal exist nowhere else on earth and some can be
dated to prehistoric times. Among its unique fauna is the Baikal freshwater seal. This creature, which local
people call nerpa, is the only mammal which inhabits the lake. Researchers speculate that these seals, which
have been breeding at Lake Baikal for 22 million years, are the descendents of ocean-dwelling seals which
migrated inland in search of food, when the lake was still connected to the sea. Another creature that is unique
to this Siberian Lake is the omu, a fish, which is caught by local fisherman and is considered a great delicacy.
For centuries, the water in Lake Baikal was so clear that it was possible to see down to depths of 40 to 60
feet. Several factors contributed to keeping the water crystal clear. First, the lake contained certain small
zooplankton and small crustaceans that consumed waterweeds, bacteria, and other material that would
otherwise cloud the water. Furthermore, the water in the lake consisted of rainwater and melted snow that
flowed down from a mountain range in about 300 streams and through uninhabited forest. Finally, most of the
watershed has a rocky surface, so the water flowing into the lake did not accumulate mud or organic matter
and had little mineral or chemical content.
Câu 1: The word “which” in the first paragraph refers to __ .
A. the rocky basin B. the lake
C. the total water volume D. three depressions
Câu 2: All of the following is mentioned EXCEPT that __
A. Lake Baikal is the world’s largest lake B. Lake Baikal is located in
Russia
C. Lake Baikal is the deepest lake in the world D. Lake Baikal is the oldest lake in the world
Câu 3: All of the following are true about Lake Baikal EXCEPT that __
A. it has a great variety of fish
B. it is near the sea
C. it has the biggest amount of freshwater in the world
D. it is about 25 million years old
Câu 4: Scientists are particularly interested in Lake Baikal because __
A. its ecosystem is special
B. the animals there are similar to elsewhere
C. it has more species of plants than anywhere else
D. it is isolated
Câu 5: Baikal fresh seal is __
A. the only habitants of the lake Baikal
B. only found in the lake Baikal
C. has been breeding at the lake for 32 million years
D. a species of plant
Câu 6: Omu is mentioned in the passage as __.
A. a local fisherman B. an animal migrating
inland from the sea
C. descendents of ocean-dwelling seals D. an animal unique to the lake
Câu 7: The water of the lake Baikal is __
A. used to make crystal B. toxic
C. made of crystal D. transparent
Câu 8: According to the passage, there are __ factors contributing to the clarity of the water in Lake Baikal.
A. 2 B. 1 C. 3
D. 4
Câu 9: The word cloud in the final paragraph can be best replaced by __
A. cold B. dirty C. clean
D. muddy
Câu 10: The water in the lake is from all of the following EXCEPT __
A. snow B. rainwater C. streams
D. forests
II. Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word for each of
the blanks. (2.5pts)
Public awareness of the value of recycling materials such (6)_____ plastic, paper, and glass is increasing daily
in all corners of the globe. In some countries these efforts are being (7)_____ by the local governments and in
others, by individuals. Participation in these programs is at an all-time high. In the small town of Truro in
eastern Massachusetts, for example, space in the local landfill has run out; therefore, residents have had to
think of new ways to (8)_____ of their trash. With no room for items such as newspaper, bottles, and old
lumber at the land fill, local residents have come up with many (9)_____ programs to recycle and/ or reuse
what was once (10)_____ of as only trash. For instance, yard waste such as leaves and grass which used to be
thrown in the landfill is now broken down and made (11)_____ compost used by local people as fertilizer in
their gardens. In addition,(12)_____ plastics, newspapers, bottles and cans are sold to a recycling company,
thereby bringing in revenue for the town. The most popular local innovation, though has been the founding of
a “swap shop”. This is a building to which people bring their unwanted clothing, books, and toys so that others
who need them can (13)_____ them. Since there is so much (14)_____ in all the recycling programs, the dump
is seen as a place to meet with friends and neighbors and catch up on local news. There is even an annual
September evening “dump dance”, where locals dance to live music and have picnics by candlelight at the
dump. This has become a high light of the summer vacation season. As humankind continues to (15)_____ and
the population grows, recycling efforts become even more important. These efforts must continue so that we
will soon see new innovations and ideas concerning the use of recycled materials.
Câu 6: A. as B. alike C. with D. like
Câu 7: A. introduced B. brought C. initiated D. participated
Câu 8: A. disapprove B. dispose C. throw D. discard
Câu 9: A. reforming B. progressive C. improved D. innovative
Câu 10: A. believed B. regarded C. thought D. considered
Câu 11: A. by B. into C. of D. from
Câu 12: A. reproductive B. wasted C. circulating D. recyclable
Câu 13: A. take B. offer C. steal D. bring
Câu 14: A. distribution B. participation C. approval D. fertilization
Câu 15: A. reproduce B. fertilize C. survive D. exist
PART 4: WRITING (5.0 points)

I. Rewrite these sentences so that the new one has a similar meaning as the sentence preceded. (1.25pts)
1. They couldn’t buy a house until they inherited a big sum of money from their parents.
It………………was not until they inherited a big sum of money from their parents that they could buy a
house……
2. Her lies have annoyed him a lot.
He….has been much annoyed at her lies/ he has been annoyed a lot by her lies……
3. “ No, I won’t give this to anybody else,” Peter said
Peter promised……. Not to give that to anybody else…..
4. The trip next week may be cancelled because of the bad weather.
If…..the weather is bad next week, the trip may be cancelled………
5. You may get hungry on the train, so take some sandwiches.
In……case you get hungry on the train, take some sandwiches……
II. Do not change the given word, use it to write each of the following sentences so that each has a
similar meaning as the original one. (1.25pts)
1. I don’t care whether you come or not. difference
It……makes no difference to me……………………………whether you come or not.
2. She tried really hard, but couldn’t persuade us to go with her. how
No…matter how hard she tried…………………………………..she couldn’t persuade us to go with her.
3. Keith is very proud of his ability to pick up languages easily. himself
Keith……..prides himself on his skill in/ facility for…………….learning languages.
4. My sister needed more than three hours to finish her homework last night. over
It ……took my sister over three hours to finish ……..her homework last night.
5. Tom has never thought of changing his job. Crossed
The thought…..of changing his job never crossed…..Tom’s mind.
III. Paragraph writing (2.5pts)

Write a paragraph (140 words) about your music idol.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
THE END
ÔN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 10 NĂM HỌC 2018 - 2019
MÔN TIẾNG ANH
SECTION I – PHONETICS
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the
same line. (5p)
1. A. several B. suppose C. decisive D. sister
2. A. muddle B. struggle C. bush D. interrupt
3. A. ready B. measure C. steak D. stealth
4. A. wind B. behind C. mind D. find
5. A. chalice B. challenge C. choice D. chemist
II. Pick out the word that has the stress syllable differently from that of the other
words.(5p)
1. A. application B. certificate C. biology D. security
2. A. university B. punctuality C. agricultural D. mathematician
3. A. identify B. secondary C. luxuriously D. majority
4. A. academic B. engineering C. available D. sympathetic
5. A. obligatory B. geographical C. international D. undergraduate
SECTION II- VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete sentence below and write your
answers in the answer sheet. (10p)
1. She refused to eat meat under any ………………… .
A. circumstances B. occasion C. opportunity D. reason

2. It was difficult to guess what he ……………. to the news would be.
A. feelings B. reaction C. capital D. opinion
3. Though badly damaged by fire, the palace was eventually …… to its original splendour.
A. repaired B. renewed C. restored D. renovated
4. He didn’t know anyone at the wedding ………….. than the bride and the groom.
A. except B. other C. apart D. rather
5. When you are an old age pensioner, you have to learn to ………… a very small income.
A. live on B. live up to C. live out D. live down
6. I felt so much better, my doctor ………….. me to take a holiday by the sea.
A. suggested B. considered C. accepted D. advised
7. He said that the plane had already left and that I …………….. arrived an hour earlier.
A. must have B. had to C. should have D. was supposed to
8. Alice didn’t expect ……………. to Bill’s party.
A. to ask B. being asked C. to be asked D. asking
9. The restaurants on the island are expensive, so it’s worth ……………… a packed lunch.
A. take B. to take C. taking D. taken
10. When the alarm went off, Mick just turned ………..…. and went back to sleep.
A. down B. over C. up D. out
II. Put the verb in brackets into the correct tense. (10p)
1. When he ( not arrive) ……….. by 6.00, I ( know) ………. He ( miss) ………… the bus.
2. Something ( tell) ………….. me that you ( not listen) …………… to a single word I
(say) ……….. in the past tense minutes.
3. Same ( not receive) ……………..…… the parcel the last time I ( speak) …………….. to
him.
4. When you ( feel) ……….… hungry, room service ( bring) ………….. you whatever you
want.
III. Give the correct forms of the words in brackets to complete the blank space. (10p)
1. The judges describe Jones as a ….. criminal who was a danger to members of the public.
HARD
2. Rescue team held out little hope of finding other …………. SURVIVE
3. He works for UNESCO in a purely ………….. role. ADVICE
4. …………… of the new system will take several days. INSTALL
5. This type of behaviour is no longer …………. acceptable. SOCIETY
6. Watching television can be very …………….. EDUCATION
7. Teachers must keep a record of students’ ……………….. ATTEND
8. Our school set up a project to ……………. the library system. COMPUTER
9.The breakdown of the negotiations was not ……………….. EXPECT
10. Those countries are ……. on other countries for most of their food. DEPEND
IV. Fill in each gap with a suitable preposition. (10 points)
1.……………… behalf of the department I would like to thank you all.
2. Many people expressed a strong preference …………. the original plan.
3. They were refused entrance ………… the exhibition .

4. He graduated …………….. York with a degree in Psychology.
5. We had an argument ………….. the waiter about the bill.
6. She complimented him ………….. his excellent German.
7. She sacrificed everything ……………. her children.
8. Sit down and make yourself ……………. home.
9. He works away …………… home during the week.
10. The searchers spread ………….. to over the area faster.
SECTION III – READING
I. Read the following passage carefully and then answer the questions below.(10p)
Traditionally the United States has been described as a melting pot, a place where the
previous identities of each immigrant group are melted down to create an integrated, uniform
society. Since the 1960s, many Americans have rejected the melting pot metaphor in favour
of the image of the mosaic, a picture created by assembling many small stones or tiles. In a
mosaic, each peace retains its own distinctive identity, while contributing to a larger design.
Advocates of the mosaic metaphor assert that it better represents the diverse multicultural
society of the United States. Today, may Americans value their immigrant heritage as an
important part of their identity. More recent immigrant groups from Asia, such as
Vietnamese Americans and Korean Americans, have established communities alongside
those populated by the descendants of European immigrants, such as French Americans,
German Americans, Irish Americans and Italian Americans.
1. Why has the United States often been described as a melting pot?
2. Why have people been in favour of the image of the “mosaic”?
3. What does the word “mosaic” mean?

4. What have immigrant groups from Asia done to maintain their identity?
5. Name some recent immigrant groups from Asia in the United States?
II. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word for each space. (10
p)
CAR CATCHES FIRE
Three people jumped ……………( 1) a car on a busy Oxford road after a fire started under
the bonnet this morning. They were just able to rescue their possessions before the car burst
into …………..(2). Mr. Peter Collins, 25, of Wey Road, Berinsfield …………….(3) his
Avenger a state car home ………….(4) work with two friends when he noticed smoke
coming into the car. He stopped, …………(5) was unable to open the bonnet. He poured a
bottle of water over the radiator where the smoke was coming from, but could not put out
the flames. He then ………… (6) to get fire extinguishers from a nearby…………(7) ,
but ………….(8) also failed to have any effect. ……….(9) he telephoned for a ……..(10) ,
but by the time it arrived, the car was totally burned out.
1. A. into B. on C. out of D. over
2. A. flames B. petrol C. smoke D. sparks
3. A. drove B. has driven C. was driving D. was driven
4. A. to B. from C. at D. in
5. A. but B. because C. although D. so
6. A. wandered B. jumped C. walked D. ran
7. A. hospital B. garage C. library D. swimming pool
8. A. this B. those C. that D. these
9. A. At length B. Finally C. At the end D. Terminally

10. A. police car B. ambulance C. taxi D. fire engine
III. Read the passage below carefully. Then choose the correct answer: A, B, C or D that
best answers the question about the passage. (5p)
When we were in England last year, I went fishing with my friend, Peter. Early in the
morning we were sitting quietly by the side of the lake when we had an unpleasant surprise.
We saw a duck come along with three ducklings padding cheerfully behind her. As we
watched them, there was a sudden swirl in the water. We caught a glimpse of the vicious
jaws of a pike- a fish which is rather like a freshwater shark- and one of the ducklings was
dragged below the surface.
This incident made Peter furious. He vowed to catch the pike. On three successive mornings
we returned to the vicinity and used several different kinds of bait. On the third day Peter
was lucky. Using an artificial frog as bait, he managed to hook the monster. There was a
desperate fight but Peter was determined to capture the pike and succeeded. When he had
got it ashore and killed it, he weighed the fish and found that it scaled nearly thirty pounds- a
record for that district.
1. Why do you think Peter was sitting quietly by the lake?
A. He was watching the ducks. C. He was waiting for the pike to appear.
B. He wasn’t very talkative. D. He was fishing
2. To what does surprise in line 3 probably refer?
A. to the duck. B. to the ducklings.
C. to the action of the pike. D. to the time of the day.
3. What were Peter’s feelings about the incident two days later?
A. He caught and killed the pike.
C. He vowed that he would catch the remaining ducklings

B. He remained determined to catch the pike.
D. He caught a frog and used it as bait for the pike.
4. How much was the pike worth?
A. about thirty pounds.
B. about two hundred and forty dollars.
C. the passage contains no information on this point.
D. the passage says that the fish scaled nearly thirty pound.
5. Which of the following titles best sums up the whole passage?
A. Mysterious disappearance of ducklings. C. Record pike caught by an angry

fisherman.
B. Revenge on a duck. D. Huge pike caught by fisherman after desperate struggle at

sea.
Section IV – writing
the sentence printed before it (5 points).
1. But for your unsuspected talents as a mechanic, he would have been stranded there for
hours.
- If …………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Let’s invite the Browns to the party on Sunday.
- He suggested ……………………………………………………………………………..
3. The only thing that prevented the passing of the bill was the death of the Prime Minister.
- Had it not ..………………………….……………………………………………………….

4. I’ve forgotten that commentator’s name but he’s very well-known.
- That commentator, …………………………………………………………………………..
5. I only recognised him when he came into the light.
- Not until ……………………………….……………………………………………………..
II. Using the word given and other words, complete the second sentence so that it has a
similar meaning to the first sentence. (5points)
1.There’s no point in asking George to help. WORTH
- It ………………………………………………………….George to help.
2. The last time I saw him was when I lived in London. SINCE
- I …………………………………….. I lived in London.
3. I don’t normally go into town by car. USED
- I ……………………………………………into town by car.
4. Nobody plays this piece as beautifully as he does. MORE
- He plays this piece………………………………………………….else.
5. I couldn’t go to work because of the transport strike. PREVENTED
- I ……………………………………………to work by the transport strike.
III. Using the cues below to complete each sentence of the following passage. (5p)
1. Teacher/ Day/ Vietnam/ fall/ twenty/ November/ each year.
......................................................................................................................................................
2. General/ it / be/ mean/ schoolchildren/ show/ appreciation/ teacher/ who/ guide/ in/ study.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. In / a/ time/ forget/ bad/ experience/ student/ have/ teacher/ scold/ punish.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Students/ give/ teacher/ flower/ small/ gift.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Small/ party/ hold/ and/ there/ be/ atmosphere/ fun/ amusement/ school.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
IV. Writing an essay (10p)

Living in a traditional family of three or four generations has both advantages and
disadvantages. What do you think of that matter? Write an essay of about 180- 200 words to
support your points.
Bài tập trắc nghiệm trực tuyến Tiếng Anh lớp 10: https://vndoc.com/test/mon-tieng-anh-lop-
10
MÔN TIẾNG ANH
I/ READING:
PART 1: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D). Number 0 is an example.
0. The … A …….-hour accident caused chaos for the local motorists yesterday evening.
A. rush B. high C. traffic D. heavy
1. The unemployment rate of the area ……………..every year until 2003 then started to fall.
A. raised B. rose C. dropped D. decreased
2. It is gravity……………………objects towards the earth.
A. pulling B. to pull C. what pulls D. that pulls
3. …………problems in sailing in tropical seas is the coral reefs.
A. One of the biggest B. The biggest one
C. Of the biggest one D. There are the biggest
4. ……………foreign languages requires great effort.
A. Learn B. Learning C. To learn it D. Learnt
5. "I am tired" “ ……… ”
A. Me too B. Also me C. For me the same D. I also
6. I’m really not satisfied with the way you have …………………the situation.
A. dealt B. handled C. done D. fingered
7. We may win, we may lose- It is just the ………………..of the draw.
A. strike B. odds C. chance D. luck

8. War is ……………as open-armed conflict between countries or factions within countries.
A. delineated B. declared C. defaulted D. defined
9. I hope you won’t take it…………………if I suggest an alternative remedy.
A. offence B. amiss C. upset D. most
10. Claims for compensation could ………………… run into billions of pounds.
A. far B. much C. well D. most
PART 2: Complete the spaces with A, AN, THE or (No article). Number 0 is an example
0: Jason’s father bought him THE bicycle that he had wanted for his birthday.
Countries around (1) ……………….world have begun to deal with

(2) …………………problem in various ways. Some countries, in (3) …………….effort to
circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal reserves. They then
charge admission prices to help defray the costs of maintaining (4) ……… parks, and they
often must also depend on (5) ……………..world organizations for support.
PART 3: Give the correct preposition. Number 0 is an example
0. It is very good OF you to volunteer to help the poor.
1. I’m sure you are capable …………passing the exam.
2. He is not aware ………….the dangers of smoking.
3. Many Vietnamese students have difficulty …………… learning English.
4. I get very annoyed ………………..people who don’t queue at bus stop.
5. If you have any complaints, tell me ………my face. I can’t stand people who do things
behind my back.
PART 4: Give the correct forms and tenses of the verbs in brackets. Number 0 is an
example
0. Her (get) GETTING sick was not expected.
1. She took a risk investing money with them. I’d rather she (not do) ………………..it.
2. He (not catch) …………………cold if he would not have walked in the rain so long.
3. I'll wait until he (finish)………………………….. his novel.
4. By next month I (leave) …………………………….for India.
5. He volunteered ( help) …………………… us.
PART 5: Choose the word which best fits each gap of the passage.
Although all Americans do not (1) ....... the same way, their speech has enough in common
that American English can be recognized as a (2) …… of English distinct from British
English, Australian English and other national varieties. American English has grown up
with the country. It began to (3) ........ from British English during its colonial beginnings
and (4) ........ regional differences and ethnic flavor. Today it (5) …….other languages and
other varieties of English because it is the medium by which the attractions of American
culture - its literature, (6) ........pictures and television programs - are transmitted to the world.
All speakers of English (7)........ a common linguistic system and a basic set of words. But
American English (8) ......... from British English, Australian English and other national
varieties in many of its pronunciations, words, spellings and grammatical (9) ........ Words or
phrases of American (10) ....... and those used in America but not so much elsewhere, are
called Americanisms.
1. A. say B. speak C. talk D. tell
2. A. alteration B. change C. variety D. variation

3. A. diverge B. divert C. digress D. depress
4. A. enquired B. inquired C. required D. acquired
5. A. affluence B. fluency C. influences D. nuances
6. A. motion B. moving C. movement D. removing
7. A. have B. bear C. tear D. share
8. A. differentiates B. differs C. changes D. alters
9. A. constructions B. building C. points D. syntax
10. A. birth B. source C. origin D. tradition
PART 6: Fill in each blank with one suitable word.
Is Photography Dead?
For a long time in the past photography was not regarded as an art. It was simply a skill and
it was criticized for being too mechanical and not creative enough. At last, however,
photography is now accepted as a unique and very important (1)........of art.
The photograph's claim to be an objective record of reality is now seriously challenged, and
the important function of photography in modern-day society is consequently (2) ......threat.
The threat has suddenly become all the more serious as more and more photographers are
(3)....... to the new technology which computers offer. Moreover, a (n) (4) ........ number of
colleges have now begun to offer (5) ....... in computer imaging. All these developments
(6)........ a disturbing question. Is photography, as we know (7).......dead?
In spite of its complete transformation by new technological developments, however,

photography will continue to play a (8) ........role in our culture. Although it may no longer
(9)........ to be realistic, modern photography can continue to provide us with fresh visral
(10) .........about ourselves and the world in which we live.
PART 7: Read the passage below carefully and choose the best answer.
Langston Hughes was one of the greatest American writers of the twentieth century. He was
born in Joplin, Missouri, and moved to Cleveland at the age of 14. Several years later he
spent one year in Mexico before attending Columbia University in New York. For a few
years after that, he roamed the world as a seaman, visiting ports around the world and
writing some poetry. He returned to the United States and attended Lincoln University,
where he won the Witter Bynner Prize for undergraduate poetry. After graduating in 1928,
he traveled to Spain and to Russia with the help of a Guggenheim fellowship. His novels
include Not without Laughter (1930) and The Big Sea (1940). He wrote an autobiography in
1956 and also published several collections of poetry. The collections include The Weary
Blues (1926), The Dream Keeper (1932), Shakespeare in Harlem (1942), Fields of Wonder
(1947), One Way Ticket (1947), and Selected Poems (1959) A man of many talents, Hughes
was also a lyricist, librettist, and a journalist. As an older man in the 1960s, he spent much of
his time collecting poems from Africa and from African-Americans to popularize black
writers. Hughes is one of the most accomplished writers in American literary history, and he
is seen as one of the artistic leaders of the Harlem Renaissance, the period when a
neighborhood that was predominantly black produced a flood of great literature, music, and
other art forms depicting daily city life for African-Americans.
1. What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The life of Langston Hughes B. The Harlem Renaissance
C. African-American writers D. American twentieth-century writers
2 .Where was Langston Hughes born?
A. Spain B. New York C. Missouri D. North Carolina
3. As used in the passage, which of the following words could best replace the word "ports"?
A. Islands B. Ships C. Friends. D. Harbors

4. To which of the following movements might Shakespeare in Harlem refer?
A. The Civil War B. The Harlem Riots
C. The Harlem Renaissance D. The Civil Rights Movement
5. What provided Hughes with assistance for his travel to Spain and Russia?
A. His job as a reporter B. His career as a soldier
C. A literary fellowship D. A college study program
6. The word "talents" in the passage could be replaced by which of the following?
A Desires B. Abilities C. Strategies D. Careers
7. According to the author, what did Hughes do during the later years of his life?
A. Write short stories B. Popularize African-American writers
C. Advocate racial equality . D. Write about life in Harlem
8. Which of the following could best replace the word "accomplished" as used in the
passage?
A Successful B. Prolific C. Brilliant D. Imaginative
9. Which of the following can best substitute for the word "depicting" in the passage?
A. Congratulating Blessing C. Screening D. Portraying
10. According to the passage, Langston Hughes was all of the following EXCEPT:
A A novelist B. A poet C. A historian D. A journalism.
PART 8: Fill each blank with a suitable word or phrase.
1. The car can't have broken down. I........................serviced last week.
2. If I..........................situation, I certainly wouldn't have had the courage to do what you did.
3. Although he had a difficult time during the war, it............................harm.
4. It's no..........................the cold and wet, you'll just have to put up with it.
5. I won't have .............................. their cars in the street outside the entrance to my house!
6. In times of hardship we have to learn to do.................................some basic necessities.
7. I'm................................death of spiders!
8. I heard the thunder...............................in the distance.
9. He's been...................................weather for ages and still isn't back at work.
10. We made the uniforms ourselves as we couldn't ………………..made.
II. WRITING:
PART 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the
same as sentence printed before it. (2ms)
EXAMPLE: “They would be very disappointed if you did not come,” the man said
to his daughter.
 The man told his daughter (that) they would be very disappointed if she did not come.
1. “I am happy you have passed the final exams. Congratulations!” Tom said to me.
 Tom congratulated ………………………………………………………………………
2. You ‘d better not swim too far from the shore,” the lifeguard said to us
 The lifeguard advised ………………………………………………………………
3. Birth rates have fallen sharply recently.
 There ……………………………………………………………………………….
4. I didn’t hear the news until the next day.
 It was not …………………………………………………………………………

5. Although it rain torrentially all day, we all enjoyed the excursion.
 Despite ………………………………………………………………………….
PART 2: Write a new sentence using the word in brackets. Do not alter the word in any
way (2ms)
1. He may choose to take early retirement. (option)
 ……………………………………………………………………………
2. He didn’t take any part in the conversation. (contribute)
 …………………………………………………………………………….
3. We lose our way because the signposts were confusing. ( which)
 ……………………………………………………………………………..
4. He likes to be addressed as “Professor”. (call)
 ……………………………………………………………………………..
5. She always has a good relationship with the children. (gets)
 ……………………………………………………………………………..
PART 3: Write an essay about 200 words on the following topic:
What measures do you take in order to reduce air and water pollution in your city? (3ms)
10
MÔN TIẾNG ANH
Section A: Lexico & Grammar
Part I: Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D.
1. Our holiday was_________ by the weather.
A. spoilt B. damaged C. overcome D. wasted
2. The_________ charged by the architect for the plans of the new building were unusually
high.
A. hire B. price C. fees D. sum
3. He_________ his son of the dangers of driving too fast in his new car
A. warned B. remembered C. threatened D. concerned
4. The child was_________ by a lorry on the safety crossing in the main street.
A. knocked out B. run across C. run out D. knocked down
5. When Ali arrived in London he spent all his time_________ and visited all the important
museums and buildings.
A. sight-seeing B. traveling C. looking D. touring
6. If you want a cheap air ticket you must_________ well in advance.
A. book B. engage C. reserve D. buy
7. His sister was full of_________ for the way in which he had so quickly learned to drive a
car.
A. pride B. admiration C. surprise D. jealousy

8. He asked if we would_________ to share the room.
A. accept B. consider C. agree D. approve
9. I wondered whether you would like to_________ to the theater tomorrow.
A. visit B. go away C. go out D. walk out
10. _________ I would like to say how pleased I am to be here.
A. Primarily B. Foremost C. Earliest D. First
11. The independent arbitrator managed to_________ the confrontation between the union
and the employers.
A. refuse B. confuse C. refute D. defuse
12. When I heard the footsteps behind me I was_________ that I would be attacked.
A. horrified B. terror-struck C. terrorized D. terrified
13. His illness made him_________ of concentration.
A. incompetent B. unable C. incapable D. powerless
14. Has the committee_________ a decision yet?
A. done B. made C. arrived D. voted
15. I am a bit hungry. I think_____________ something to eat.
A. I’ll have B. I’ll be having C. I’m going to have D. I’m having
16. What do you plan to do when you_____________ your course at college?
A. finish B. will finish C. have finished D. is going to finish
17. Where_____________? Which hairdresser did you go to?
A. did you cut your hair B. have you cut your hair
C. did you have cut your hair D. did you have your hair cut
18. ‘Shall I stay here?’ ~ ‘I’d rather_____________ with us’.
A. you come B. you to come C. you would come D. you came
19. I_____________ saying what I think.
A. believe B. believe in C. believe for D. believe when
20. Somebody ran in front of the car as I was driving. Fortunately I_____________ just in
time.
A. could stop B. could have stopped
C. managed to stop D. must be able to stop
Part II: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write
their correct forms in the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done
as an example.
Traditional, mental tests have been divided into two types. 0. traditional → traditionally
Achievement tests are designed to measure acquiring skills and
1. _____________________
knowledge, particularly those that have been explicitness taught.
The proficiency exams required by few states for high school 2. _____________________
graduation are achievement tests. Aptitude tests are designed 3. _____________________
and measure a person’s ability to acquire new skills but
4. _____________________
knowledge. For example, vocation aptitude tests can help you
decide whether you would do better like a mechanic or 5. _____________________
musician. However, all mental tests are in some sense 6. _____________________
achievement tests because they assumption some sort of past
7. _____________________
learning or experience with certainly objects, words, or
situations. The difference between achievement and aptitude 8. _____________________
tests is the degree and intention use. 9. _____________________
10. ____________________
Part III: Give the correct form of the words in brackets to fill in the blanks.
Dark black clouds in a dull sky meant one thing and one thing only: there was going to be a
(1.thunder)….. Not one of us had brought an umbrella, or even a (2.rain)……. So when Jack
suggested we should go to a museum, we all agreed immediately. As we had been (3.
shop)………all morning we were now feeling very tired, it would be a (4.
pleasant)………...to sit down. We took a bus and arrived just as large shops of rain were
beginning to fall.
The museum was quite (5.desert)……and very peaceful. We sat down in the main hall and
listened to the rain (6. beat)…….against the windows.
Suddenly, there was a great (7. disturb)……..at the (8. enter)……… a large party of
schoolboys were (9. lead) ………in by a teacher. The poor man was trying to keep them
quiet and threatening to punish them, but they did not pay the (10.slight)……. attention.
Section B: Reading
Part I: Read the following passage and choose the best answer to fill in the blanks. Fill
each numbered blank with one suitable word from the list given below.
The shark is a meat- eating fish and one of the most feared animals of the sea. Scientists
(1)………… about 250 species of fish as sharks. These fish live in oceans (2)………..the
world, but they are most common in warm seas.
Sharks (3)………….greatly in size and habits. Whale sharks, the largest kind of shark,
may grow 60 feet long. A whale shark weighs up to 15 tons, more than twice
(4)…………….much as an African elephant. The smallest shark may (5)…………..only 4
inches long and weigh less than 1 ounce. Some kinds of sharks live in the depths of the
ocean, but (6)……………are found near the surface. Some species live in coastal waters, but
others (7)……………far out at sea. A few species can even live in (8)…………..water.
All sharks are carnivores (meat- eaters). Most of them eat (9)…………fish, including
other sharks. A shark’s only natural enemy is a large shark. Sharks eat their prey whole, or
they tear off large chunks of flesh. They also (10)………………..on dead or dying animals.
1. A. classify B. divide C. organize D. arrange
2. A. all B. through C. throughout D. over
3. A. grow B. rise C. evolve D. vary
4. A. as B. so C. very D. exactly
5. A. stretch B. measure C. develop D. expand
6. A. some others B. others C. different kinds D. some sharks
7. A. dwell B. exist C. emigrate D. migrate
8. A. fresh B. sweet C. light D. clear
9. A. uncooked B. live C. lively D. alive
10. A. eat B. swallow C. exist D. feed
Part II: Fill in each blank with a suitable word to fill in the blanks.
Vitamins are substances required for the proper functioning of the body. In this century,
thirteen vitamins have been (1)…………
A lack of any vitamins in a person’s body can cause illness. In some cases, an excess of
vitamins can also (2)…………to illness. For example, sailors in the past were prone to
(3)…………from scurvy that is a disease resulting from the lack of vitamin C. It causes
bleeding of the gum, loss of teeth and skin rashes. Sailors suffer from scurvy because they
did not eat fruits and vegetables. Fruits and vegetables (4)…………vitamin C which is
necessary for good (5)…………
Vitamin B complex is composed of eight different vitamins. A lack of any of these vitamins
will lead to different (6)…………For instance, a person who has too little vitamin B1 will
suffer from beri-beri, a disease that causes heart problems and mental (7)…………A lack of
vitamin B2 results in eye and skin problems while deficiency of vitamin B6 causes problems
of the nervous system. Too little vitamin B12 will cause anemia. The (8)…………that
vitamin deficiencies caused certain diseases led doctors to cure people suffering from these
illnesses by giving them doses of the (9)……...vitamins.
Today, vitamins are (10)…………in the form of pills and can easily be bought at any
pharmacy.
Part III: Read the following passage and answer the questions by choosing the best
answer among A, B, C or D.
Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the
dominant language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged
around 1350, after having incorporated many elements of French that were introduced
following the Norman invasion of 1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part,
spoken only in England and had not extended even as far as Wales, Scotland, or Ireland.
However, during the course of the next two centuries, English began to spread around the
globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and missionary
work. That small enslaves of English speakers became established and grew in various parts
of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary
language of international business, banking, and diplomacy.
Currently, more than 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is
in English. Two thirds of the world’s science writing is in English, and English is the main
language of technology, advertising, media, international airports, and air traffic controllers.
Today there are 700 million English users in the world, and over half of these are nonnative
speakers, constituting the largest number of nonnative users of any language in the world.
1.What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The number of nonnative users of English.
B. The French influence on the English language.
C. The expansion of English as an international language.
D. The use of English for science and technology.
2. English began to be used beyond England approximately.............................
A. in 1066 B. around 1350
C. before 1600 D. after 1600
3. According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around
the world EXCEPT .....................................
A. the slave trade B. the Norman invasion
C. missionaries. D. colonization
A. Most of the information stored on computer systems is in English.
B. Only one thirds of the world’s science writing is in languages other than English.
C. English is the only language used in technology, and advertising.
D. International airports and air controllers use mostly English.
5. According to the passage, approximately how many nonnative users of English are there
in the world today?
A. A quarter million B. Half a million
C. 350 million D. 700 million.
Part IV: Read the passage then choose the best sentences A-K to fill in each gap. There
is one extra sentence which you do not need to use:
BITTER WATER HITS THE BIG TIME
Chocolate, which has its origins in South America, is now part of a multi-million pound
worldwide business.
At Easter, British people spend over $230 million on chocolate. A massive eight per cent of
all chocolate is bought at this time.
(1)____. Although the large scale industrial production of chocolate began in the last century,
the cacao plant was first cultivated by the Aztec, Toltec and Mayan civilizations of Central
America over three thousand years ago.
The cacao tree is an evergreen, tropical plant which is found in Africa, South and Central
America, the West Indies and South East Asia. The fruit of this tree is melon-sized and
contains 20-40 seeds. (2)____. In English – speaking countries, they are called cocoa beans.
This is a misspelling from the 17th century when they were also called cacoa and cocao
beans.
The Aztecs used cocoa beans as money. (3)____. This is from the world in the Aztec
language, Nahuatl, meaning “bitter water”. (4)____. The Spanish found the drink more
palatable mixed with cinnamon and sugar, but the recipe did not spread to the rest of Europe
for another century. In the late 17th century, chocolate houses were set up in Europe’s capital
cities, where people gathered to drink chocolate.
(5)____. But in 1826, CJ van Houten of the Netherlands invented chocolate powder. (6)____.
The age of the chocolate bar as we know it began in 1847 when a Bristol company, Fry and
Sons, combined cocoa butter with pure chocolate liquor and sugar to produce a solid block
that you could eat. (7)____.
At the turn of the century, the British chocolate market was dominated by French companies.
In 1879 the English company Cadbury even named their Birmingham factory Bournville
(ville is the French word for town) in the hope that a little glamour would rub off. But then
came Cadbury’s famous Dairy Milk bar which began life as a Dairymaid in 1905. (8)____.
It seems that, for the time being at least, chocolate intake in Britain has established at about
four bars each week. (9)____. The latest market trick is the so-called “extended line”. This is
when the humble chocolate bar becomes an ice cream, a soft drink or a dessert, to tempt
chocoholics who have grown tired of conventional snacks.
At the other end of the production process, cacao farmers are still feeling the effects of a
crash in cocoa bean prices at the end of 1980s. (10)____. Perhaps you could spare a thought
for them as you munch your next chocolate bars.
A. This was made by extracting most of the cocoa butter from the crushed beans.
B. A Swiss company then introduced milk solids to the process which gave us milk
chocolate.
C. They also used them to make a drink called xocoatl.
D. Until the last century, the chocolate drink was made from solid blocks of chocolate
which had to be melted down in hot water.
E. When dried they become cacao beans, which can be used to make chocolate.
F. Clever advertising which associated it with the healthy qualities of milk from the
English countryside quickly established the bar as a rival to the more decadent French
brands.
G. British manufacturers include up to 5 per cent vegetable fat in their chocolate,

something forbidden elsewhere.
H. As most cacao farmers operate on a very small scale, many were forced out of business.
I. This has forced manufacturers to look for new ways to attract customers.
J. In Aztec times the chocolate drink was flavored with spices and used on ceremonial
occasions and for welcoming visitors.
K. Only at Christmas do people eat more of the cocoa-based foodstuffs.
Section C: Writing
Part I: Rewrite the following sentences so that they have a similar meaning with the
first one.
1. “Don’t forget to phone the police”, she said
She reminded him .................................................. .................................................. .........
2. It is believed that the man escaped in a stolen car.
The man............................................... .................................................. ...................
At the foot .................................................. .................................................. .....................
4. If you changed your mind, you’ll be welcome to join our club .
Were you .................................................. .................................................. ......................
5. We don’t have to do so many things to please him.
It is .................................................. .................................................. .................................
6. I’m sure he didn’t do it by himself.
He................................................ .................................................. ........................................
7. He can’t afford to go to America this summer.
He doesn’t .................................................. .................................................. ......................
8. Timmy has become confident as a result of his success .
Timmy’s success has turned............................................ ................................................
9. I haven't seen my uncle for a long time.
It's a long time .................................................. .................................................. ....................
10. She dances beautifully and she sings sweetly, too.
Not only .................................................. .................................................. .............................
Part II: Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one , using the
word in capital letters which must not be altered in any way :
1. You should think about the price before you decide whether to buy it or not.
(consideration)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….
2. People don’t want to buy cars with large engines any more. (call)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….
3. Twenty years ago this region produced twice as much coal as it does now.(halved)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….
4. The prime minister in unlikely to call an early general election. (likelihood)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….
5. The policeman acted quickly and averted an accident (prompt)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….
Part III: Write a composition (300 words) about the following topic:
How do movies and television influence people’s behavior? Use reasons and specific
examples to support your answer.
ĐÁP ÁN
Section A: Grammar & Vocabulary (40điểm)
Part I (1x 20= 20 điểm)
Câu 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A C A D A A B A C D
Câu 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D D C B A A D D B C
Part II (1 x 10 = 10 điểm)
1. acquiring → acquired 6. vocation → vocational
2. explicitness → explicitly 7. like → as
3. few → a few 8. assumption → assume

4. and → to 9. certainly → certain
5. but → to 10. intention → intended
Part III (1 x 10 = 10 điểm)
1. thunderstorm 2. raincoat 3. shopping 4. pleasure 5. deserted
6. beating 7. disturbance 8. entrance 9. led 10. slightest
Section B: Reading (35 điểm)

Part I ( 1x 10 = 10 điểm)
1. A 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. D
Part II (1x 10 = 10 điểm)
1.discovered 2. lead 3. suffer 4. contain 5. health
6. diseases 7. disorders 8. knowledge 9. necessary 10. available
Part III (1x 5= 5 điểm)
1. C 2. D 3. B 4. C `5. C
Part IV (1x 10= 10 điểm)
1.K 2.E 3.C 4.J 5.D 6.A 7.B 8.F 9.I 10H
Section C: Writing (25 điểm)
Part I (1x 10 = 10 điểm)
1. She reminded him to phone the police.

2. The man is believed to have escaped in a stolen car
3. At the foot of the hill lies a small church
4. Were you to change you mind, you’ll be welcome to join our club.
5. It is unnecessary to do so many things to please him.
6. He can’t have done it by himself.

7. He doesn’t have enough money to go to America this summer.
8. Timmy’s success has turned him into a confident person.
9. It’s a long time since I last saw my uncle/ I saw my uncle for the last time.
10. Not only does she dance beautifully but she also sings sweetly.
Part II (1x 5= 5 điểm)
1. You should take the price into consi…..
2. there is no(longer any)/ there isn’t much call for cars……..
3 .coal production/ the coal produced in this region has been halved in the 20 years.
4. there is little likelihood. The likelihood………is small of the PM calling an…/that the PM
will call a…….
5. The policeman’s prompt action averted/ the prompt action of the policeman averted……..
Part III (10 điểm) – Giám khảo tự cho điểm, yêu cầu:
- Thí sinh phải xác định được ảnh hưởng của phim và truyền hình đối với cách ứng xử
của con người, cả về mặt tích cực lẫn tiêu cực
- Nêu được 2- 3 ý nhỏ cho mỗi ý lớn
- Văn viết trôi chảy, diễn đạt gãy gọn (dùng cấu trúc đơn giản nhưng diễn đạt rõ ý)
Sai không quá 5 lỗi nhỏ (về từ vựng, ngữ pháp, dùng từ…..) thì không trừ điểm
10
MÔN TIẾNG ANH
B. PHONETICS (5 points). Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from
the others.
16. A. community B. developing C. conditioner D. interested
17. A. continue B. importance C. different D. directed
18. A. medicines B. opposite C. pollution D. capable
19. A. preservation B. inspiration C. disposable D. popularity
20. A. exhausted B. atmosphere C. suspect D. computer
C. GRAMMAR- VOCABULARY-LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS
I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence (15
points).
21. Hoa: “Are you going to buy a new computer or just continue using the old one?”
Mary: “_________”
A. Yes, I am. B. Yes, I’d like one. Thank you.
C. That’s impossible. I can’t afford a new one.D. Neither. I’m going to lease one.
22. Mr. Black: “What a lovely house you have!”
Mr John: “_________”
A. No problem B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.
C. Of course not, it’s not costly D. I think so.
23. You have never been to Italy, ________?

A. have you B. haven’t you C. did you D. had you
24. You can’t tell what someone is like just from their ________.
A. character B. looking C. appearance D. personality
25. “How is it going?” - “________”
A. By bike B. Not much C. It sounds better D. Mustn’t grumble
26. ________ a dentist, Mike is very concerned about having healthy teeth.
A. Because B. He is C. As D. That he is
27. ________, you need to achieve a score of 60% or more.
A. To pass this test B. For being passed this test
C. In order pass this test D. So that to pass this test
28. As a famous person ________ many children admire, it is important for her to act
responsibly.
A. whose B. whom C. which D. when
29. The brochure says that the hotel has a great ________ of the sea.
A. appearance B. look C. sight D. view
30. Our new coach is popular ________ the whole team.
A. with B. to C. by D. for
31. As soon as you ________ that, I’d like you to go to bed.
A. have done B. did C. will do D. will have done
32. Margaret was slow at school, but she went on ________ Prime Minister.
A. being B. to be C. having been D. to have been

33. In 1870, ________, John D. Rockefeller and others created the Standard Oil Company.
A. in spite of oil prices fluctuated B. despite fluctuating oil prices
C. but the oil prices fluctuated D. oil prices were fluctuating
34. They’re staying in rented accommodation for the time ________.
A. going B. making C. doing D. being
35. “I have an idea. Let’s go for a swim on Sunday afternoon”. - “________”
A. OK, what time? B. You’re kidding C. I know D. I’m sure
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (10 points).
36. We found it ____________ (thrill) to your wonderful news.
37. He left the room without any ____________ (explain).
38. He didn’t feel happy because he worked ____________ (success).
39. Many people expressed ____________ (disagree) with the whole idea.
40. There was a ____________ (wide) dissatisfaction with the government’s policies.
41. Her health has ____________ (bad) considerably since we last saw her.
42. A lot of plants and animals could be used as medicines against cancer, AIDS, heart
diseases and other ____________ (sick).
43. He was ____________ (information) of the consequences in advance.
44. I was kept ____________ (wake) last night by the noise from a party in the flat above.
45. This road is so bad that it needs ____________ (surface).
III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting (5
points).
46. Last week unless my mother had had enough money, she would have bought that toy for
me.
A B C D
47. It often takes me about fifteen minutes to go to work from here by foot.
A B C D
48. Those people say that it is such polluted air that they can’t breath, don’t they?
A B C D
49. It is noisy enough in this room, so I would rather you stop shouting like that.
A B C D
50. Dr. Roberts, the first woman to be elected president of the university, is intelligent,
capable and awareness of the problem to be solved.
A B C
D
D. READING
most suitable for each blank. There are more words than blanks, so you don’t need all
of them. (5 points).
A. terrible B. size C. hope
D. wrong E. loose F. problem G. want
Choosing clothes can be difficult. Some people (51)________ to be fashionable, but they
don’t want to look exactly like everybody else. Not all clothes are suitable for work or
school, perhaps because they are not formal enough, or simply not comfortable. It is easy to
buy the (52)_________ size, and find that your trousers are too tight, especially if you are a
little bit overweight. Very (53)________ clothes make you feel slim, but when they have
shrunk in the washing machine, then you have the same (54)________! If you buy light
cotton clothes, then they might not be warm enough for winter. If your shoes are not tight,
and if you aren’t dressed for the cold, you might look good, but feel (55)________!
II. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each
space. (10 points)
Schools in the United States have not always had a large number of libraries. As
(56)________as 1958 about half of the public schools in the United States had no libraries at
all. The number of public school libraries increased dramatically (57)_______ the federal
government passed the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965, ( 58)_______
provided funds for school districts to improve their education programs and facilities,
including their libraries. (59) ________, many educators claim that since the legislation was
passed federal spending has not increased sufficiently to meet the rising (60)______ of new
library technologies such as computer databases and Internet access.
Because the federal government provides only limited funds to schools, individual
school districts (61) _______ on funds from local property taxes to meet the vast majority of
public school expenses. Therefore, the libraries of the public schools tend to reflect the (62)
______ capabilities of the communities in which they are located. Districts in wealthy
suburbs often have fully staffed libraries (63) _______ abundant resources, spacious
facilities, and curricular and instructional support. In (64) ______, school districts in many
poor areas house their libraries in ordinary classrooms or in small rooms. The libraries in
such areas are generally staffed by volunteers, who organize and (65) ______ books that are
often out-of-date, irrelevant, or damaged.
56. A. freshly B. recently C. frequently D. newly
57. A. though B. with C. during D. when
58. A. that B. who C. which D. this
59. A. Nevertheless B. Therefore C. Consequently D. Otherwise
60. A. fine B. fee C. cost D. sum
61. A. go B. come C. rely D. stay
62. A. educational B. economical C. political D. financial
63. A. for B. with C. on D. by
64. A. country B. converse C. contrast D. conflict
65. A. attain B. obtain C. contain D. maintain
III. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D(10 points).
Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in
season. Drying, smoking and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the
availability of fresh meat, like that of fresh milk, was very limited; there was no way to
prevent spoilage. But in 1810, a French inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the
cooking-and-sealing process of canning. And in the 1850’s an American named Gail Borden
developed a means of condensing and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk
became more common during the 1860’s, but supplies remained low because cans had to be
made by hand. By 1880, however, inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines
that mass-produced cans from tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and
bought at all times of the year.
Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their
daily diets. Growing urban population created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable
farmers to raise more produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers
to ship perishables great distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the
1890’s, northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and
tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of the year. In
addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. As easy means of
producing ice commercially had been invented in the 1870’s, and by 1900 the nation had
more than two thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The
icebox became a fixture in most homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigerator
replaced it in the 1920’s and 1930’s.
Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly
foods that were heavily in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat.
Nevertheless, many families could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits,
vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied fare.
A. Causes of food spoilage C. Population movements in the nineteenth century
B. Commercial production of ice D. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet
67. The phrase “in season” in line 1 refers to
A. a particular time of year B. a kind of weather
C. an official schedule D. a method of flavoring
68. During the 1860’s, canned food products were
A. unavailable in rural areas B. available in limited quantities
C. shipped in refrigerator cars D. a staple part of the American diet.

69. It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use
A. before 1860 B. before 1890 C. after 1900 D. after 1920
70. The word” them” in line 13 refers to
A. refrigerator cars B. growers C. perishables D. distances.
71. The word” fixture” in line 18 is closest in meaning to
A. commonplace object B. substance C. luxury item D. mechanical device
72.The author implies that in the 1920’s and 1930’s home deliveries of ice
A. increased in cost B. occurred only in the summer
C. decreased in number D. were on an irregular schedule
73. The word “ Nevertheless” in line 21 is closest meaning to
A. occasionally B. however C. therefore D. because
74. Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Drying B. Chemical additives C. Canning D. Cold storage
75. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A. Most farmers in the United States raised only fruits and vegetables.
B. People who lived in cities demanded home delivery of foods.
C. Tin cans and iceboxes helped to make many foods more widely available.
D. Commercial ice factories were developed by railroad owners
E. Writing
the sentences printed before. (5 points)
76. Having nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.
- Since.............................................................................................................................
77. She was not only bad-tempered but also very lazy.
- As well ........................................................................................................................
78. “ Nothing will persuade me to apply for that kind of job.” She said.
_ She flatly.......................................................................................................................
79. The school I studied at last year was better than this one.
- This school isn’t.............................................................................................................
80. You must leave now, or you’ll miss the bus.
- You’ll miss......................................................................................................................
II. Use the suggested words and phrases to write complete sentences of a letter. (10
points)
Dear Sir or Madam.
81. I/ write/ complain/ hair drier/ buy/ your shop/ last Saturday/ and/ treatment/ I receive/
when/ I try/ return/ a few days later.
82.I buy/ hair drier/ Wednesday, November 22nd.
83. first time/ try/ use/ handle become/ extremely hot/ and within a few minutes/ part/ plastic
casing/ begin/ melt.
84. I turn/ off/ immediately/ return/ with/ receipt/ your shop/ Saturday.
85. I explain/ situation/ one/ assistants/ ask/ money back/ but / be told/ speak/ you.
86. Unfortunately you/ not available/ that day/ I/ write instead.
87. I enclose/ hair drier/ copy of/ original receipt.

88. Please send/ full fund/ soon/ possible.
Yours faithfully,
III. Write a paragraph of about 250 words on the following topic: (10 points)
Critical thinking makes one be more reasonable and creative.
10
MÔN TIẾNG ANH
I. PRONUNCIATION AND VOCABULARY.

1. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the
others.
1. A. think B. this C. those D. there
2. A. none B. done C. bone D. tongue
3. A. food B. moon C. good D. noodle
4. A. forced B. caused C. stopped D. worked
5. A. rough B. tough C. enough D. though
2. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) which best completes each sentence.
6. He's left his book at home; he's always so________.
A. forgetful B. forgettable C. forgotten D. forgetting
7. 'I'm very________ to you for putting in so much hard work,' the boss said.
A. thanking B. grateful C. considerate D. careful
8. He is the manager of the factory. He’s________ it.
A. charged with B. charged C. in charge D. in charge of
9. He was new on the job, but he quickly fit himself into the________ routine of the office.
A. establishing B. established C. establishes D. establish
10. She looked very________ when I told her the good news.
A. happily B. happiness C. happy D. was happy
11. I don't want much sugar in my coffee. Just_______, please.
A. few B. a few C. little D. a little
12. We must________ our pounds for dollars before going to New York.
A. change B. convert C. turn D. exchange
13. Who is the________ of this company?
A. top B. head C. leader D. minister
14. She________ shyly at him and then lowered her eyes.

A. glanced B. glimmed C. saw D. glared
15. The room was________ of strangers.
A. full B. complete C. crowded D. filled
II. GRAMMAR.
1. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer among four options
(A, B, C or D)
16. Tom and Mary never came to class late. ________________.
A. So did we B. Neither did we C. We did either D. Neither we did
17. I remember________ to Hanoi when I was a very small child.
A. taking B. to take C. to be taken D. being taken
18. At first I found________ to get used to________ on the other side of the road.
A. it difficult - drive B. difficult - drive C. it difficult - driving D. difficult- driving
19. I don’t believe a word she said; I think he just made________ that story.
A. out B. up C. off D. down
20. Jason’s professor had him________ his thesis many times before allowing him to
present it to the committee.
A. rewrites B. rewriting C. rewrite D. to rewrite
21. We should arrive home safe and________ .
A. sound B. soundly C. warm D. warmly
22. The idea got a lot of________ from the children’s parents.
A. opposition B. disagreement C. dislike D. denial
23. Before he let them go, he made them________ not to tell anyone what they________ in
the room.
A. to promised/have seen B. promise/ had seen
C. promised / seeing D. promising/ saw
24. Our teacher came in when we________ noisily.
A. had talked B. have been talking C. were talking D. are talking
25. “We can’t go now. Let’s wait________ the rain stops.”

A. until B. when C. after D. as
26. She is playing a piece of music________ by Beethoven.
A. composed B. composing C. to compose D. composes
27. The man________ must be intelligent and handsome.
A. who loving her B. whom loves her C. she loves D. who love her
28. Linda________ me to wait for her at the school gate.
A. tell B. told C. says D. said
29. Are there enough apples for us to have one________ ?
A. every B. each C. self D. individually.
30. She treated me________ cake, ice-cream and tea.
A. with B .for C .to D .by
31. She took me________ my brother.
A. by B. for C.to D. with
32. Steel_______ with chromium to produce a noncorrosive substance known as stainless
steel.
A. is combined B. that is combined C. combining D. when combined
33. Joe seemed to be in a good mood, ________ he snapped at me angrily when I asked him
to join us.
A. yet B. so C. for D. and
34. A fire must have a readily available supply of oxygen. ________, it will stop burning.
A. Consequently B. Furthermore C. Otherwise D. However
35. “Who has brothers and sisters?” “Everyone ________ Virginia who’s an only
child.”
A. except to B. with C. from D. but
36. Florida, ________ the Sunshine State, attracts many tourists every year.
A. is B. is known as C. known as D. that is known as
37. ________ becoming extinct is of great concern to zoologists.
A. That giant pandas are B. Giant pandas are

C. Are giant pandas D. Giant panda is
38. Her parents gave her everything she asked for. She's a completed _______ child.
A. wounded B. spoilt C. damaged D. destroyed
39. ________ my experience, very few people really understand the problem.
A. To B. In C. With D. From
40. When she died, she gave________ all her money to a charity for cats.
A. away B. out C. on D. off
2. Give the correct form of the word s in brackets:
41. A holiday in America can be________ cheap. SURPRISE
42. These shoes look quite smart but they’re terribly________. COMFORT
43. Burning coal is an________ way of heating a house. Gas is much cheaper.
ECONOMY
44. The police are interested in the sudden________ of the valuable painting. APPEAR
45. He was too________ to tell his teacher about the stupid mistake. SHAME
III. READING COMPREHENSION.
1. Fill in the blank with a suitable word.

Dicky was born in Shoreditch, London in 1890. His family were poor and Dicky
(46)________ had enough to eat. Like many other boys in this area, he became a skillful
thief. He took the things he (47)________ to a Mr Welch, who bought them and then re-sold
them. Dicky brought something to Mr Welch nearly every day and (48)________ the money
he received to his mother.
In Shoreditch there was a priest, Father Sturt, who did (49)________ best to help poor
people. When Dicky was thirteen, Father Sturt had a long talk with him and persuaded him
to lead an honest life. He (50)________ him a job with Mr Grinder, a local shopkeeper, and
Dicky began to serve customers, deliver goods and collect money. Dicky was much happier
leading an honest life and dreamed of the day when he would have his (51)________ shop.
His mother was also pleased about his new job.
(52)________ person, however, was not happy, and that was Mr Welch. He was sorry
to lose the business Dick had brought him. He went to see Mr Grinder and told him
(53)________ Dicky’s dishonest past and said, quite untruthfully, that Dicky intended to
cheat him. Mr Grinder believed these (54)________ and told Dicky never to come near the
shop again. In this way Dicky lost his chance of an honest life and (55)________ to a life of
crime. A year later he was arrested for theft and sent to prison.
2. Read and answer the questions.
After inventing dynamite, Swedish-born Alfred Nobel became a very rich man.
However, he foresaw its universally destructive powers too late. Nobel preferred not to be
remembered as the inventor of dynamite so in 1895, just two weeks before his death, he
created a fund to be used for awarding prizes to people who made worthwhile contributions
to mankind. Originally there were five awards: literature, physics, chemistry, medicine and
peace. Economics was added in 1968, just sixty-seven years after the first awards ceremony.
Nobel’s original legacy of nine million dollars was invested, and the interest on this
sum is used for the awards which vary from $30.000 to $ 125.000.
Every year on December 10th, the anniversary of Nobel’s death, the awards (gold
medal, illuminated diploma, and money) are presented to the winners. Sometimes politics
plays an important role in the judges’ decisions. Americans have won numerous science
awards, but relatively few literature prizes.
No awards were presented from 1940 to 1942 at the beginning of World War II.
Some people have won two prizes, but this is rare, others have shared their prizes.
Questions
56. When did the first award ceremony take place?
57. Why was the Nobel prize established?
58. In which area have American received the most awards?
59. was an award presented in 1941?
60. In how many fields are prizes bestowed?
VII Read the passage bellow and then choose a suitable word A, B, C or D to fill in each
blank :
There is now increasing concern about the world's energy resources, particularly about
those involving fossil (61)________ In less than a hundred years we shall probably
(62)________ all the present (63)________ of oil and gas .The world ' s cold (64)________
should last longer but, once used , these cannot be (65)________ .
It is important, therefore, that we should develop such (66)________ sources of energy as
solar energy and nuclear energy as well as water and wind (67)________ classed as
(68)________ energy). Until these energy (69)________ are widely used .it is important for
the developed countries to reduce energy (70)________ as much as possible .
61. A. fuels B. powers C. forms D. energies.
62. A. end B. complete C. total D. exhaust
63. A. findings B. productions C. amounts D. sources
64. A. reserves B. stores C. mines D. contents
65. A. updated B. repeated C. renewed D. produced
66. A. traditional B. alternative C. surprising D. revolutionary
67. A. force B. strength C. power D. motion
68. A. repeatable B. continual C. renewable D. continuous
69. A. goods B. supplies C. provisions D. materials
70. A. exhaustion B. destruction C. waste D. consumption
III. WRITING
1. Identify the error in each sentence.
71. Helen likes to listen to music (A), to go to the cinema (B), to chat on the phone (C) and
going shopping (D).
72. Many successful (A) film directions(B) are former (C) actors who desire to expand (D)
their experience in the film industry.
73. In my opinion, I think (A) this book is more interesting (B) than the other (C) one (D).
74. People who live in small towns (A) often seem more friendly (B) than people who live
(C) in populated densely (D) areas.
75. Aspirin is recommended (A) to many people (B) for their ability (C) to thin (D) the
blood.
2. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as
the sentence printed before it:
76. When I arrived in Canberra, I wrote a letter home.
 On………………………………………………......................................
77.I like to go with my husband everywhere.
 Wherever he goes…………………………………………….....
78. Our house is going to be painted by a local firm.
 We are ..........................................................................................................................
79. She didn’t say a word as she left the room.
 She left the room ..........................................................................................................
80. Is smoking permitted in Vietnamese cinemas?
 Are we ............... ...........................................................................................................
81. Imagining our life without music is difficult.
 It…………………………………………………………………………………….…
82. Couldn't you have got a bus to the station ?.
 Was not…………………………………………………………………
83. He could not afford to buy the car .
 The car……………………………………………………………………..……
84. I could finish the work early because he helped me
 Thanks…………………………………………………………………………..….…
85. These two boxers weigh exactly the same.
 There is no……………………………………………………………………...…….
86.These new machines have put an end to queuing.
 Before these ………………………………………………………………….…………
87. He never has enough money.

 He is always ………………………………………………………………..………...
3. Write an essay of 150-200 words.
Write a description of one of the popular celebration in Vietnam (about 150-200 words)
_________THE END_________
ĐÁP ÁN
1 A 11 D 21 A 31 B
2 C 12 D 22 A 32 A
3 C 13 C 23 B 33 A
4 B 14 A 24 C 34 C
5 D 15 A 25 A 35 D
6 A 16 B 26 A 36 C
7 B 17 D 27 C 37 A
8 D 18 C 28 B 38 B
9 B 19 D 29 B 39 B
10 C 20 C 30 C 40 A
2. Give the correct form of the word s in brackets:
41. surprisingly
42. uncomfortable
43. uneconomical
44. disappearance
45. ashamed
III. READING COMPREHENSION.
1. Fill in the blank with a suitable word.
46. rarely/seldom/never 51. own
47. stole/pinched 52. One
48. gave/handed/took 53. about/of

49. his 54. lies/stories/tales/untruths/falsehoods
50. got/found 55. returned/reverted
2. Read and answer the questions.
56. When did the first award ceremony take place? In 1901
57. Why was the Nobel prize established? Because Nobel wanted to create a fund to
be used for awarding prizes to people who made the worthwhile contributions to humanity
58. In which area have American received the most awards? science
59. Was an award presented in 1941? No, it was not.
60. In how many fields are prizes bestowed? six
VII Read the passage bellow and then choose a suitable word A, B, C or D to fill in each
blank :
61. A 62. D 63. D 64. A 65. C
66. B 67.C 68. C 69. B 70.D
III. WRITING
1. Identify the error in each sentence.
71. D 72. B 73. A 74. D 75.C
2. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as
the sentence printed before it:
76. On arriving in Canberra, I wrote a letter home.
77. Wherever my husband goes, I will follow him.
78. We are going to have our house painted by a local firm.
79. She left the room without saying a word.
80. Are we allowed to smoke in Vietnamese cinemas?
81. It is difficult to imagine our life without music.
82. wasn't it possible for you to get a bus to the station?.
83. The car was too expensive for him to buy.
84. Thanks to his help, I could finish the work early.

85. There is no difference in weight between these two boxers.
87. Before these new machines were invented, there used to be queues..
87. He is always short of money /broke.
10
MÔN TIẾNG ANH
SECTION A: LISTENING (15 pts)
PART I. Listen to passage. Choose the best answer for each question below. (5ps)
1. How many percents do graduate schools in the United States increase in applications from
international students this year?
A. seven percents B. eight percents C. nine percents D. ten percents
2. When is the increase the same as?
A. two years ago B. three years ago C. four years ago D. five years ago
3. Which countries showed the biggest increases in applications to enter master’s and
doctoral programs this fall?
A. China B. China, Mexico
C. Mexico and Brazil D. China, Mexico and Brazil
4. Which is the top area of study for international students?
A. Engineering B. Business C. Physical D. Earth sciences
5. Who made the survey?
A. South Korea B. The Council of Graduate Schools
C. India D. Brazil
PART II. You'll hear a conversation between two people. Listen and fill in the blanks .
(10pts)
This is the VOA Special English Agriculture Report.

Some (6)_________ in the Netherlands are spending (7)_________ hundred thirty thousand
dollars on a (8)_________ The people are scientists at the University of Maastricht. They
want to (9)_________ that they can make a hamburger that tastes good and does not require
an animal to be (10)_________
Researcher Mark Post and his team have been growing muscle-tissue cells in a laboratory
with muscle taken from (11)_________
MARK POST: “We have committed ourselves to make a couple of thousand of these
small tissues and then assemble them (12)_________ a hamburger.” Several teams around
the world are trying to (13)_________ meat without killing animals. So far the Dutch team
appears to have (14)_________ the most progress.
Mr. Post says he wants to show that the world’s growing demand for meat could be (15)
______ more efficiently and with less harm to the environment.
SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the
rest in the same line. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (3pts)
16. A. seat B. heat C. bread D. leave
17. A. crooked B. involved C. requested D. needed
18. A. flood B. good C. foot D. look
Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three
words in each question. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (2pts)
19. A. pollution B. accident C. relation D. agreement
20. A. picture B. number C. water D. canal
SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)

Question I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. Write the
answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)
21. 1. Even if you are rich, you should save some money for a __________day.
A. rainy B. foggy C. snowy D. windy
22. He managed to finish his thesis under the _____ of his tutor.
A. guidance B. help C. aid D. assistance
23. A: Congratulation! You did great. B: __________
A.That’s okay B. It’s my pleasure
C. You’ve welcome D. It’s nice of you to say so
24. “You . __________have cooked so many dishes. There are only three of us for lunch.”
A. wouldn’t B. oughtn’t C. needn’t D. couldn’t
25. The trouble started only__________the other man came into the room.
A. when B. until C. and then D. too soon
26. You’ll have to __________a better idea than that if you want to win .
A. come in for B. get down to C. bring out D. come up with
27. The curriculum at the public school is as good__________of any private school.
A. or better than B. as or better than that
C. as or better that D. as or better than those
28.Taxis don't follow any schedule: they come and go ________.
A. chronologically B. punctually C. in sequence D. at random
29. Samuel Clemens, __________under the pen name Mark Twain, created characters that
reflected purely American traits and habits.
A. wrote B. who wrote C. and he wrote D. he wrote
30.They received __________advice from their parents that they became successful.
A. so good B. such a good C. so good an D. such good
Question II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on
your answer sheet .(8 pts)
31. The police are stopping all the cars. They (look)_________ for the escaped prison.
32. The woman said she (live) ______________ in this village for over fifty years.
33. The envelop (lie) ____________ on the table has no stamp on it.
34. Peter along with his parents (watch) _________ TV at the moment.
35. It’s a great pity you didn’t come to Brighton with us last Saturday. As you have never
seen the sea before, it (be) _________ a new experience for you.
36. Don’t make the children (come)___________with us if they don’t want to.
37. If you want to see us, come to Tom’s on Sunday. We (wait) _________ for you
there at midday.
38. (Do) ________________ his homework, Nam went to bed late last night.
Question III. Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on
your answer sheet. (7pts)
39. They used to be _________ enemies, but now they have managed to bury the hatchet for
the sake of mutual benefits. (RECONCILE)
40. List the problems facing poor and _________ countries. (POPULATE)
41. I think most of the local ________ around here are very friendly. (INHABIT)
42. It is ________ for beginning students to make mistakes in English. (AVOID)

43. Both Nam and Hoa are stamp _______They share the same hobby (COLLECT)
44. Their plan seemed to be _________ possible. (THEORY)
45. Air ______is a big problem in many cities in the world. (POLLUTE)
Question IV. The passage below contains 5 mistakes ( from 46 to 50 ). Recognize the
mistakes and write their correct forms in your answer sheet. (5 pts)
Personal space is a term that refers to the distance we like to kept between
ourselves and other people. When someone we do not know well gets too close we
usually begin to feel comfortable. If a business colleague comes closer than 1.2
meters, the most common response is to move away. Some interesting studies have
done in libraries. If strangers come too close, many people get up and leave the
building, others use different methods such as turning their back on the intruder.
Live in cities has made people develop new skills for dealing with situations where
they are very close to strangers. Most people on so crowd trains try not to look at
strangers; they avoid skin contract, and apologize if hands touch by mistake. People
using newspapers as a barrier between themselves and other people, and if they do
not have one, they stare into the distance, making sure they are not looking into
anyone’s eyes..
Example: Line 1: kept→ keep
SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question I. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the text below. Write the
answers on your answer sheet. (10 points)
The birthday cake is traditionally highly decorated,and typically covered(51)______ lit

candles when presented; the number of candles often equals the(52)________of the
person.The person (53)_______birthday it is makes a silent wish and then (54)____out the
candles;if done in one breath,the wish is supposed to come (55)______,but only if the person
keeps the wish to himself(or herself). It is also common for the "birthday boy" or" birthday
girl" to cut the initial (56)______of the cake as a newlywed couple might with a wedding
cake.Birthday cakes have been a tradition dating back as (57)_______as the Middle Ages
when the English would conceal symbolic items (58)_______as gold coins,rings and
thimbles inside their cakes.Each item was associated with a prediction.For example, a person
(59)_______a gold coin in a birthday cake would supposedly (60)_______wealthy.
Question II. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase
for each space. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10pts)
YOU CAN’T ESCAPE THE INTERNET
Over the last few years, the use of the Internet has increased dramatically in French
schools, offices, and homes and this trend continues to grow. Who could have imagined,
even in the last decade, that we would be able to (61) _______our friends, colleagues and
clients around the world simply through the (62) _______ of a mouse and a modem? There
is no doubt, like any invention, that the Internet can be used for good or bad but it is here to
stay and has (63) _______ the way we communicate.
In the world of business, no corporation can be competitive unless it has (64)

_______to the Internet. It has become essential to advertise your product and service in this
way and an increasing number of companies are using this opportunity to reach a greater
number of (65) _______ consumers. Indeed, the bigger the website, (66) _______
professional the company seems to be.
Similarly in education, the opportunities that the Internet can (67) _______are vast.
More and more students are (68) _______ on the Internet for their research; for instance, a
physics undergraduate in Paris can download information from a university library in the
States in minutes. From the latest research in scientific and linguistic fields to new theories
in psychology and history; all this may be published on the world-wide web.
What will be the future for the Internet in France? It has been (69) _______ that 60%
of homes and 50% of business will have access to the Internet within five years. Children,
students and professionals will be able to (70) _______and explore the world as they have
never done before.
61. A. contact B. keep touch C. stay in touch D. talk
62. A. tick B. running C. clap D. click
63. A. modified B. been changed C. adapted D. revolutionized
64. A. access B. use C. approach D. downloading
65. A. future B. competent C. potential D. would-be
66. A. more and more B. the more C. more D. the most
67. A. take B. provide C. support D. miss
68. A. relying B. surfing C. working D. downloading
69. A. established B. announced C. claimed D. calculated
70. A. log on B. take on C. log off D. switch on
Question III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. Write the
Millions of people are using cell phones today. In many places, it is actually
considered unusual not to use one. In many countries, cell phones are very popular with
young people. They find that the phones are more than a means of communication - having
a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health
professionals worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer
health problems from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate
about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such
ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health.
On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some
people who use mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be
detected with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at
young age because of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He
would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for
about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family
doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't agree.
What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation.
High-tech machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile
phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to
worry about.
As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile
phones less often. Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your
mobile phone only when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and
convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning
label that says they are bad for your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile
phone too often
71. According to the passage, cell phones are especially popular with young people because
__________ .
A. they make them look more stylish.
B. they keep the users alert all the time.
C. they cannot be replaced by regular phones.
D. they are indispensable in everyday communications.

72. The word "means" in the passage most closely means ________ .
A. meanings B. expression C. transmission D. method
73. Doctors have tentatively concluded that cell phones may _________ .
A. cause some mental malfunction B. change their users’ temperament.
C. change their users’ social behaviours. D. damage their users’ emotions.
74. "Negative publicity" in the passage most likely means _________ .
A. information on the lethal effects of cell phones.
B. widespread opinion about bad effects of cell phones
C. the negative public use of cell phones.
D. poor ideas about the effects of cell phones.
75. The changes possibly caused by the cell phones are mainly concerned with ______ .
A. the resident memory. B. the mobility of the mind and the body.
C. the smallest units of the brain. D. the arteries of the brain.
76. The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cell phone too often, ________ .
A. had a problem with memory. B. abandoned his family.
C. suffered serious loss of mental ability. D. could no longer think lucidly.
77. The word "potentially" in the passage most closely means_________ .
A. certainly B. possibly C. privately D. obviously
78. According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is ________ .
A. their radiant light. B. their rading power.
C. their power of attraction. D. their invisible rays.

79. According to the writer, people should __________ .
A. keep off mobile phones regularly.
B. never use mobile phones in all cases.
C. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies.
D. only use mobile phones in urgent cases.
80. The most suitable title for the passage could be __________ .
A. The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are Popular.
B. The Way Mobile Phones Work.
C. Technological Innovations and Their Price
D. Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time
SECTION E: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Write the answers on your answer
sheet. (5 pts)
81. My grandfather had completely forgotten that he phoned me last night.
My grandfather didn’t have any____________________________________.
82. It wasn’t until he came back to the office that he remembered his mobile phone.
Not until _______________________________________________.
83. Immediately after his appointment to the post, the new editor fell ill.
 No sooner _______________________________________________.
84. You are allowed to play in my garden if you promise not to do anything wrong.
 So long _______________________________________________.
85. If you changed your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.
 Were you _______________________________________________.
Question II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it by using the word given. Do not
change the form of the given word. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (5pts)
86. I don’t mind whether we go to the seaside or not this year. (DIFFERENCE)
It doesn’t ________________________ whether we go to the seaside or not this year.
87. I would prefer you not to phone me at work. (RATHER)
I ______________________________________________________________
88. He is determined to campaign for his son’s freedom. (INTENTION)
He has ________________________________________________________
89. “It is not worth worrying about the past” I told him. (POINT)
I told him that_________________________________________________________
90. I tried as hard as I could, but I just couldn’t get the money. (MATTER)
No _____________________________________________________________
Question III. Essay writing (10 pts)
Some people say that we can get benefits from playing sports. Use relevant evidence and
examples to support this idea. You should write about 200 - 250 words.
----------------- THE END--------------------
ĐÁP ÁN

PART I. For questions 1-5, tick () A, B or C. (5pts)
1. C 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. B
PART II. You will hear a conversation between two people. Listen and complete
questions 6-10. (10pts)
6.people 7. three 8. hamburger 9. prove 10.killed
11. cow 12. into 13. produce 14. made 15. satisfied
Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the
rest in the same line. Write the answers on your answer sheet (3pts)
16.C 17.B 18.A
Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three
words in each question. Write the answers on your answer sheet (2pts)
19.B 20.D
Question I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts)
21.A 22.A 23.D 24.C 25.A
26.D 27.B 28. 29.B 30.D
Question II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on
your answer sheet .(8 pts)
31. must be looking 35. would have been
32. had been living/had lived 36. come

33. lying 37. will be waiting
34. is watching 38. Having done
Question III. Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on
your answer sheet. (7pts)
39. irreconcilable 43. collectors
40. overpopulated 44. theoretically
41. inhabitants 45. polluion
42. unavoidable
Question IV. The passage below contains 5 mistakes ( from 31 to 36 ). Recognise the
mistakes and write their correct forms in your answer sheet. (5 pts)
46. Line 3: comfortable → uncomfortable
47. Line 4: have done → have been done
48. Line 6: Live → Living
49. Line 8: crowd → crowded
50. Line 9: using → use
Question I. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the text below. Write the
51. with 52. age 53. whose 54. blow 55. true
56. piece 57. far 58. such 59. finding 60. become
Question II. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase
for each space. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10pts)
61. A 62. A 63. D 64. A 65. C
66. B 67. B 68. A 69. D 70. A
71. A 72. D 73. A 74. B 75. C
76. A 77. B 78. D 79. D 80. C
Question I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
81. My grandfather didn’t have any recollection of phoning me last night.
82. Not until he came back to the office đi he remember his mobile phone.
83. No sooner had he been appointed to the post than the new editor fell ill.
84. So long as you promise not to do anything wrong,you are allowed to play in my garden.
85. Were you to change your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.
Question II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it but using the word given. Do not
change the form of the given word. (5pts)
86. It doesn’t make any/ much difference to me whether we go to the seaside or not this
year.
87. I would rather you did not phone me at work.
88. He has no intention to stop campaigning for his son’s freedom.
89. I told him that there was no point in worrying about the past.
90. No matter how hard I tried, I couldn’t get the money.
Marking scheme: The impression mark should be based on the following scheme
1. Format: 2 pts ( coherence, cohesion , style )
The essay should include 3 parts:
a. Introduction: should be put in one paragraph in which students’ points of view are
expressed clearly
b. Body: should consist of from two to three paragraphs. Each paragraph must have a topic
sentence, reasonings and examples.
c. Conclusion (summary of the main reasons, students’ comment)
2. Content : 5pts
A provision of main ideas and details as appropriate to support the argument.
3. Language : 3pts (grammatical accuracy , a wide range of vocabulary and structures )
10
ÔN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI NĂM HỌC 2018 - 2019
MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10
SECTION A – PHONETICS
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the
others.
1. A. adventure B. future C. mature D. figure
2. A. increase B. widespread C. death D. residential
3. A. coughed B. weighed C. laughed D. photographed
4. A. realize B. teacher C. reason D. feature
5. A. treated B. asked C. sacred D. suggested
II. Identify the word whose stressed pattern is different from that of the others.
6. A. impossibly B. especially C. naturally D. importantly
7. A. damage B. pollute C. defense D. erode
8. A. recognize B. enemy C. yesterday D. responding
9. A. electrician B. comfortable C. manufacture D. accidental
10. A. comedy B. collection C. comical D. calculate
SECTION B – VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D.
11. Hurry up! They’ve only got _______ seats left.
A. a little B. a few C. a lot of D. plenty of
12. The technological and economic changes of the 19th century had a marked________ on
workers
A. cause B. effect C. impact D. consequence
13. Using the computer competently is an important________ to help one get a good job.
A. reason B. aspect C. factor D. issue
14. The children _______ to the zoo.
A. were enjoyed taken B. enjoyed being taken

C. were enjoyed taking D. enjoyed taking
15. I'd rather you _______ anyone what I said.
A. don't tell B. won't tell C. didn't tell D. not to tell
16. We were so late that we ______ had time to catch the train.
A. nearly B. almost C. hardly D. simply
17. Frank's wallet is lying on the coffee table. He _______ it here last night.
A. must have left B. should have left C. must be leaving D. needn't leave
18. Don’t try too hard. Don’t________ off more than you can________.
A. eat/chew B. bite/swallow C. bite/chew D. eat/swallow
19. Before the meeting finished, they had arranged when________ next.
A. they met B. they to meet C. to meet D. should they meet
20. Washing machines, dishwashers and vacuum cleaners are _______.
A. working machines B. useless machines
C. sewing machines D. labour-saving machines
21. I got up late. I’ve spent all day making up________ the lost time.
A. on B.to C. for D. with
22. Both she and her husband are________ work.
A. out of B. for C. on D. in
23. Tom is having someone________ the newspaper to her.
A. bring B. to bring C. bringing D. who brings
24. They were just________ us about Anna's new boyfriend.
A. talking B. saying C. speaking D. telling
25. Your dress is really nice! Who made it for you?
A. - Oh. It was to the beg B. - Oh. It was on the beg
C. - Oh. It was of the beg D. - Oh. It was off the beg
II. There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find and correct it.
26. The sick needs to be looked after. So money must be spent on hospitals.
27. The accident looked seriously at first but nobody was injured.
28. All the students are looking forward to spending their free time to enjoy their Tet
holiday.
30. She left her job soon to devote more time into her family.
31. We won't mind your being late. Beside, it's hardly your mistake.
32. Congratulations! You’ve gained the first prize in the competitions!
34. Mr. Tam, who has a lot teaching skills at junior level, will be joining our school in
August.
35. You've seen her new car, haven't you? What does it like?
III. Fill in the each gap with the most correct forms of the block word on the right.
36. They daren’t leave their children__________ for even a moment ATTEND
37. Marry wants to _______ her knowledge of the subject. BROAD
38. His _______ to retire surprised all of the workers. DECIDE
39. Some people _______ didn't come. INVITE
40. It is _______ to turn off the lights when it is bright enough. ECONOMY
41. My _______ opinion is that the students should be doing more work PERSON
outside the classroom.
42. These workers got a bonus because they did their jobs _______. EFFECT
43. From 1865 to 1875, a remarkable _______ of inventions was VARIOUS
produced.
44. She received a lot of _______ from her mother. COURAGE
45. He doesn‘t agree with the _____________ that there is life on other BELIEVE
planets.
SECTION C – READING
I. Read the following passage, and fill in the numbered gaps with the correct options
(from A, B, C , D and E below) to make a meaningful reading:
Animals live everywhere. (46)_______. They burrow in the ground. They swim in the
sea. They fly through the air. They creep, they leap, they soar, and they dive. A very few -
including corals and barnacles -stay in one place.
(47)_______. The biggest animals are whales, which can be 100 feet (30 meters) long.
The smallest animals can only be seen through a microscope.
Zoologists (scientists who study animals) have found more than 2 million species of animals.
(48)_______.
Several things make animals different from other living things. (49)_______. Animals
eat other living things - plants and other animals - to get energy. Animal bodies are made up
of more than one cell, unlike bacteria and other life forms with only one cell. Cells are the
building blocks of living things. (50)_______.
A. Unlike plants, animals cannot make their own food.
B. They think they have discovered only a small portion of all animals on Earth.
C. Animals also have senses, such as eyes or ears, that tell them what is going on around
them.
D. They roam the land.
E. Animals come in all sizes.
II. Fill in each numbered gap with one suitable word.
The Great (51)_______ of Giza was built as a (52)_______ of Pharaoh Cheops in
2720 BC. (53)_______ it was built a long time ago, its (54)_______ makes it one of the true
(55)_______ of the world. The four (56)_______ of the pyramid are put almost exactly on
true north, south, east and west.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many
interesting lines. Further (57)_______ study indicates that (58)_______ represent a type of
line of events-past, present and future. Many of the (59)_______ have been interpreted and
found to coincide with known facts of the past.
Was this super structure made by ordinary beings or one built by a race (60)_______
superior to any known today?
III. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D:

Lighthouses are towers with strong lights that help mariners plot their position, inform
them that land is near, and warn them of dangerous rocks and reefs. They are placed at
prominent points on the coast and on islands, reefs, and sandbars.
Every lighthouse has a distinctive pattern of light known as its characteristic. There are
five basic characteristics: fixed, flashing, occulting, group flashing, and group occulting. A
fixed signal is a steady beam. A flashing signal has periods of darkness longer than periods
of light, while an occulting signal’s periods of light are longer. A group- flashing light gives
off two or more flashes at regular intervals, and a group – occulting signal consists of a fixed
light with two or more periods of darkness at regular intervals. Some lighthouses use lights
of different colours as well, and today, most lighthouses are also equipped with radio
beacons. The three types of apparatus used to produce the signals are the catoptric, in which
metal is used to reflect the light; the dioptric, in which glass is used; and the catadioptric, in
which both glass and metal are used.
In the daytime, lighthouses can usually be identified by their structure alone. The most
typical structure is a tower tapering at the top, but some, such as the Bastion Lighthouse on
the Saint Lawrence River, are shaped like pyramids, and others, such as the Race Rock light,
look like wooden houses sitting on high platforms. Still others, such as The American Shoal
lighthouse off the Florida Coast, are skeletal towers of steel. Where lighthouses might be
confused in daylight, they can be distinguished by day- marker patterns – designed of checks
and stripes painted in vivid colors on lighthouse walls.
In the past, the job of lighthouse keeper was lonely and difficult, if somewhat romantic.
Lighthouse keepers put in hours of tedious work maintaining the lights. Today, lighthouses
are almost entirely automated with humans supplying only occasional maintenance. Because
of improvements in navigational technology, the importance of lighthouses has diminished.
There are only about 340 functioning lighthouses in existence in the United States today,
compared to about 1,500 in 1900, and there are only about 1,400 functioning lighthouses
outside the United States. Some decommissioned lighthouses have been preserved as
historical monument.
61: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as one of the functions of
lighthouses?
A. To help sailors determine their location
B. To warn of danger from rocks and reefs
C. To notify sailors that bad weather is approaching
D. To indicate that land is near
62: The word “prominent” is closest in meaning to_________.
A. dangerous B. conspicuous C. picturesque D. famous
63: In the context of this passage, the author uses the term “characteristic” to refer to
a_________.
A. period of darkness B. person who operates a lighthouse
C. pattern painted on a lighthouse D. distinctive light signal
64: According to the passage, what kind of signal has long periods of light that are regularly
broken by two or more periods of darkness?
A. Group occulting B. Flashing C. occulting D. Group flashing
65: According to the passage, a catoptric apparatus is one that uses_________.
A. lights of various colors B. metal C. glass D. a radio beacon
66: For which of the following does the author NOT provide a scientific example in the third
paragraph?
A. A lighthouse shaped like a pyramid
B. A lighthouse made of steel
C. A lighthouse with day-marker patterns
D. A lighthouse that resembles a house on a platform
67: The word “tapering” is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. Narrowing B. Soaring C. Opening D. Rotating
68: It can be concluded from the passage that lighthouses with day- marker patterns would
most likely be found in areas where_________.
A. the weather is frequently bad
B. the structure themselves cannot be easily seen by passing mariners
C. there are not many lighthouses
D. there are a number of lighthouses with similar structures
69: The author implies that, compared to those of the past, contemporary
lighthouses___________.
A. employ more powerful lights B. require less maintenance
C. are more difficult to operate D. are more romantic
70: There is information in the fourth paragraph to support which of these statements?
A. There are more lighthouses in the United States now than there were in 1900.
B. There are more lighthouses in the United States today than in any other single
country.
C. There are more functioning lighthouses in the United States today than there are
lighthouses preserved as historical monuments
D. There were more lighthouses in the United States in 1900 than there are elsewhere
in the world today.
SECTION D – WRITING
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first one.
71. The painters painted his house last week.
 He ....................................................................................................................
72. Joan eats very little so as not to put on weight.
 Joan eats very little because ………………………………. .
73. Andrew went to the supermarket despite the heavy rain
 Although .........................................................................................................................
74. They made him wait for two hours.
 He was ............................................................................................................................
75. David went home before I arrived.

 When I arrived, ...........................................................................................................
76. He is determined to campaign for his son’s freedom.
 He has no …………...................................................................................................
77. I’m always nervous when I take exams.
 Taking ...........................................................................................................................
78. We were late because it rained heavily.
 But for ..........................................................................................................................
79. It is not worth asking Ms. Hoa to help.
 There’s no ................................................................................................................
80. If people drive faster, it is more dangerous.
 The ....................................................................................................................
II. Make right sentences using the following suggestions.
81. Mike/ offer/ opportunity/ study abroad/ yesterday.
 ...............................................................................................................................................
82. They/use/change/scene/camera positions/tell/story/, /actors/play/character parts.
 ..............................................................................................................................................
83. Many species/ plants/ animals/ danger/extinction.
 ...............................................................................................................................................
84. Plants/animals/sea/,/ however/small/oversized/contribute/biodiversity.
 ...............................................................................................................................................
85. Nairobi National Park/Kenya’s smallest/park/,/but/you/surprised/large
variety/animals/live/there.
 ..............................................................................................................................................
_________THE END__________
ĐÁP ÁN
SECTION A – PHONETICS
others.
1. C 2.A 3.B 4.A 5.B
II. Identify the word whose stressed pattern is different from that of the others.
6.C 7.A 8.D 9.B 10.B
SECTION B – VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D.
11.B 12.C 13.C 14.B 15.C
16.C 17.A 18.C 19.C 20.D
21.C 22.A 23.A 24.D 25.D
II. There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find and correct it.
26. needs need 31. Beside Besides
27. seriously serious 32. competitions competition
28. to enjoy enjoying 33. that which
29. lived Had been living 34. A lot A lot of
30. into to 35. like Look like
III. Fill in the each gap with the most correct forms of the block word on the right.
36. unattended 37. broaden 38. decision 39. invited 40. economical
41. personal 42. effectively 43. variety 44. encouragements 45. belief
SECTION C – READING
I. Read the following passage, and fill in the numbered gaps with the correct options (from
A, B, C , D and E below) to make a meaningful reading:
46. D 47. E 48. B 49. A 50. C
II. Fill in each numbered gap with one suitable word.
51. pyramid 52. tomb 53. Although 54. construction 55. wonders
56. sides 57. scientific 58. these 59. events 60. far
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D :
61.C 62.B 63.D 64.A 65.B

66. C 67. A 68. D 69. B 70.D
SECTION D – WRITING
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first one.
71. He ....had his house painted last week.
72. Joan eats very little because …..she doesn’t want to put on weight.
73. Although .......it rained heavily, Andrew went to the supermarket.
74. He was .......made to wait for two hours.
75. When I arrived, .......David had gone home.
76. He has no ……intention of stopping campaign for his son’s freedom.
77. Taking .........exams always makes me nervous.
78. But for ......the heavy rain, we wouldn’t have been late.
79. There’s no ......need asking H to help.
80. The ......faster people drive, the more dangerous it is.
II. Make right sentences using the following suggestions.
81. Mike was offered an opportunity to study abroad yesterday.
82. They used changes of scene and camera positions to tell a story, with actors playing
character parts.
83. Many species of plants and animals are in danger of extinction.
84. Plants and animals of the sea, however small or oversized, all contribute to its
biodiversity.
85. Nairobi National Park is Kenya’s smallest park, but you may be surprised at the large
variety of animals that live there.
10
others.
1. A. sun B. sure C. succeed D. sort
2. A. measles B. tease C. please D. measure
3. A. new B. sew C. few D. nephew
4. A. thus B. with C. smooth D. maths
5. A. worked B. stopped C. forced D. wanted
Choose the word whose the primary stress differs from the other.
6. A. important B. headmaster C. interested D. motorbike
7. A. disappearance B. confusion C. acceptable D. impossible
8. A. polite B. accept C. custom D. provide
9. A. career B. about C. receive D. passage
10. A. kitchen B. enter C. behind D. people
II. Choose the most suitable word or phrase A, B, C or D to complete each sentence.
1. __________ he has never borrowed any money from me.
A. Last week B. Up to now C. Since D. A week ago
2. ‘Go on, finish the food. It needs __________ up because it won’t stay fresh until
tomorrow.
A. eat B. eating C. to eat D. eaten
3. Before he left on his trip to America, the young man promised __________to his parents
regularly.
A. writing B. will write C. to write D. wrote
4. I'm on a(n) __________. I want to lose some weight.
A. excursion B. exercise C. diet D. duet
5. Andrew couldn’t __________ himself laughing at the expression on Maggie’s face.

A. help B. stop C. escape D. avoid
6. It looks like they're going to succeed __________ their present difficulties.
A. despite B. because of C. even though D. yet
7. This motorbike is very economical.
A. is inexpensive B. uses little petrol
C. doesn't pollute the air D. is powerful
8. You must make them __________their homework.
A. do B. did C. to do D. doing
9. No one in my neighborhood knew who the __________ man was.
A. dies B. dead C. died D. death
10. Nam Cao devoted most of his time __________
A. in writing B. to write C. to writing D. to have written
11. My brother sang __________ of all the pupils of the group.
A. more beautifully B. the most beautifully C. less beautifully D. most beautifully
12. If you__________ to my advice in the first place, you wouldn't be in this mess right now.
A. listen B. will listen C. had listened D. listened
13. His government insisted that he __________ until he finished his task.
A. should B. shall stay C. stay D. stayed
14. In Buckingham Palace two men work __________ to look after the 300 clocks.
A. fully B. full-time C. round-clock D. full o'clock
15. My father still hasn’t really recovered from the death of my mother.
A. looked after B. taken after C. gone off D. got over
16. I've been trying to __________ him all day.
A. fall in love with B. take track of C. take advantage of D. keep in touch with
17. When the tenants failed to pay their bill, the authorities decided to _____ the gas supply
to the flat.
A. cut down B. cut out C. cut off D. cut up
18. She didn't mind __________ going with her .

A. she B. his C. he D. himself
19. She told him to shut up and get out.
A. stand up B. clear up C. be prepared D. stop talking
20. Mexico was a Spanish colony.
A. a large coffee farm B. a farming area
C. an international company D. a place or a country that belongs to another country
III. Error identification:
1. Light can travels from the Sun to the Earth in eight minutes and twenty seconds.
A. Light B. travels C. in D. seconds
2. How did you manage getting here so quickly?
A. How B. did C. getting D. so
3. Ms Baker , she spent her life working with the health and welfare of the families of
workers, is an successful woman in the world.
A. she B. her life C. welfare D. the
A. lived B. since C. but D. in
5. You've seen her new car, haven't you? How is it like?
A. seen B. have C. How D. like
A. well-known B. that C. about D. of
7. Mr. Tam, who has a lot teaching skills at junior level, will be joining our school in August.
A. who B. a lot C. be joining D. in
8. It is not until his father came home which he did his homework.
A. not until B. came C. which D. did
9. The children are exciting about the field trip.
A. The B. are C. exciting D. about
10. If I didn’t liked you, I wouldn’t invite you to my house.
A. If B. didn't liked C. wouldn't invite D. to

IV. Read the text below and decide which answer A, B, C, or D, best fits each space.
Everyone wants to reduce pollution. But the pollution problem is (1)______ complicated as
it is serious. It is complicated (2)______ much pollution is caused by things that benefit
people. (3)______, exhaust from automobiles causes a large percentage of air pollution. But
the automobile (4)______ transportation for millions of people. Factories discharge much
(5)______ the material that pollutes the air and water, but factories give employment to a
large number of people.
Thus, to end (6)_______ greatly reduce pollution immediately, people would have to
(7)______ using many things that benefit them. Most of the people do not want to do that, of
course. But pollution can be (8)______ reduced in several ways. Scientists and engineers can
work to find ways to lessen the (9)______ of pollution that such things as automobiles and
factories cause. Governments can pass and enforce laws that (10)______ businesses and
traffic to stop, or to cut down on certain polluting activities.
1. A. as B. more C. less D. like
2. A. so B. while C. though D. because
3. A. Specific B. For example C. Such as D. Like
4. A. takes B. affords C. carries D. provides
5. A. about B. for C. of D. with
6. A. or B. and C. as well D. then
7. A. start B. continue C. stop D. go on
8. A. carefully B. unexpectedly C. gradually D. little
9. A. way B. figure C. number D. amount
10. A. forbid B. prevent C. request D. require
V. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D for each question.
Aspirin's origins go back at least as early as 1758. In that year, Englishman Edward Stone
noticed a distinctive bitter flavor in the bark of the willow tree. To Stone, this particular bark
seemed to have much in common with "Peruvian Bark", which had been used medicinally
since the 1640s to bring down fevers and to treat malaria. Stone decided to test the
effectiveness of the willow bark. He obtained some, pulverized it into tiny pieces, and
conducted experiments on its properties. His tests demonstrated that this pulverized willow
bark was effective both in reducing high temperatures and in relieving aches and pains. In
1763, Stone presented his findings to the British Royal Society.
Several decades later, further studies in the medicinal value of the willow bark were being
conducted by two Italian scientists. These chemists, Brugnatelli and Fontana, determined
that the active chemical that was responsible for the medicinal characteristics in the willow
bark was the chemical salicin, which is the active ingredient of today's aspirin.
The name "aspirin" is the trade name of the drug based on the chemical salicin, properly
known as acetylsalicylic acid. The trade name "aspirin" was invented for the drug in the
1890s by the Bayer Drug Company in Germany. The first bottles of aspirin actually went on
sale to the public just prior to the turn of the century, in 1899.
1. According to the passage, aspirin originated
A. no later than 1758 B. sometime after 1785
C. definitely sometimes in 1758 D. no earlier than 1758
2. It can be inferred from the passage that Peruvian Bark
A. caused fevers B. was ineffective in treating malaria
C. was described to the British Royal Society by Stone D. was in use prior to aspirin
3. The pronoun "it" in line 5 refers to
A. malaria B. willow bark
C. effectiveness D. The British Royal Society
4. The word "properties" in line 5 could best be replaced by
A. ownership B. body C. characteristics D. materials
5. What did the willow bark look like after Stone prepared it for his experiments?
A. It was in large chunks B. It was a thick liquid
C. It was a rough powder D. It was in strips of bark
6. The Italian chemists mentioned in the passage most probably conducted their studies on
willow bark
A. in the 1750s B. in the 1760s C. in the 1770s D. in the 1780s
7. What is true about Brugnatelli and Fontana?
A. They were from America B. They added a chemical to the willow bark
C. They conducted studies on the willow bark D. They were chemical doctors
8. The expression "prior to" in line 15 could best be replaced by _____.
A. at B. before C. during D. after
9. The word "turn" in line 15 could best be replaced by
A. spin B. corner C. change D. reversal
10. Where in the passage does the author name the scientific compound that makes up
aspirin?
A. Lines 2-4 B. Line 7 C. Lines 8-9 D. Lines 12-13
VI. Fill in each blank with a suitable word.
LOOKING FOR A JOB
I finished university six month (1)………….., I’ve got a degree in business
administration. I enjoyed the course very much though I realize I should have studied a lot
harder! A few of my friends have (2)……………got full-time jobs but most, me, are still
waiting (3)………..… something suitable to turn up. Meanwhile, I make sure that I keep
myself busy. I look through the job advertisements (4)…………… the newspapers every
day and I also ask all the people I know to tell me if they hear of any vacancies
(5)……………...they work . What I am looking for is something challenging and I would
certainly be happy to move to another city or even work abroad for a while. The
(6)………….… is not so important at this stage , provided I earn enough to live on, because
I don’t want to continue having to depend on my parents, although they are
(7)………………..generous to me . At the moment, I’m working in a nearby restaurant two
evenings (8)…………….... week, washing up and generally helping out, which brings a
little money. The other people working there are very friendly, and many of them are in the
same (9)………………as me, so we have lots of to talk (10)…………………
VII. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence.
Use the word given and other words to complete each sentence.
1. They are going to repair my car tomorrow.
 I'm going to ........................................................................................................................
2. The trip was so interesting that we couldn't forget it.
 It .........................................................................................................................................
3. Immediately after their arrival, things went wrong.
 No sooner………………………………………………………………………………….
4. If people drive faster, it is more dangerous.
 The.........................................................................................................................................
5. Hearing that an earthquake had occurred was a great shock to us.
 We were ..............................................................................................................................
6. John finds astronomy very interesting.
 John is..... ...............................................................................................................
7. If we took effective actions now, we could still save the rainforests.
 Were.....................................................................................................................................
8. I have never seen such beautiful pictures before.
 These pictures............................. ............................... ............................... ...............
9. "Don't forget to go to the supermarket after work".
 He reminded ................................... ............................... ............................... ...................
10. It was a mistake of mine to park outside the police station.
 I shouldn’t................... ......................................................................................................
VIII. Writing:
Write a short paragraph (about 120 words) about the advantages and disadvantages of the
Internet
____________THE END____________
ANSWER KEYS
Tổng: 20 điểm, cụ thể như sau:
CÂU I: (2 điểm) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm:
1. B 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. D
6. A 7. A 8. C 9. D 10. C
CÂU II: (4 điểm) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2điểm:
1. B 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. A
6. A 7. B 8. A 9. B 10 C
11. B 12. C 13. C 14. B 15. D
16. D 17. C 18. B 19. D 20. D
III: (2 điểm) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm:
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. C
6. B 7. B 8. C 9. C 10. B
CÂU IV: (2 điểm) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm:
1. A 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. C
6. A 7. C 8. C 9. D 10. D
CÂU V: (2 điểm) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm:
1. A 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. C
6. D 7. C 8. B 9. C 10. D
CÂU VI: (2 điểm) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm:
1. ago 2. already 3. for 4. in 5. where
6. salary 7. very 8. a/per 9. situation 10. about
CÂU VII: (3 điểm) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,3 điểm:
1.  I'm going to have my car repaired tomorrow.
2.  It was such an interesting trip that we couldn't forget it.
3.  No sooner had they arrived than things went wrong
4.  The faster people drive, the more dangerous it is.
5.  We were (greatly/very) shocked to hear/when we heard that an earthquake had

occurred
6.  John is interested in astronomy.
7.  Were we to take effective actions now, we could still save the rainforests.
8.  These pictures are the most beautiful (that) I've ever seen
9.  He reminded me/her/us/them to go to the supermarket after work.
10.  I shouldn’t have parked outside the police station.
CÂU VIII: (3 điểm)
Yêu cầu:
+ Viết đúng bố cục của một bài luận.
+ Trình bày rõ ràng, sạch sẽ.
+ Không phạm nhiều lỗi về chính tả và ngữ pháp
10
Part A. PRONUNCIATION AND VOCABULARY
I. Phonetics: Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently
from the rest (1point).
1. A. explored B. delighted C. composed D. fastened
2. A. emotions B. fines C. crops D. features
3. A. serene B. solemn C. jellyfish D. endanger
Pick out a word which is stressed on different position from the others.
4. A. powerful B. comedy C. variety D. stimulate
5. A. ordinary B. solemn C. altitude D. communicate
II. Vocabulary. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to complete each sentence:
(1points).
6. Van Mieu was representative of Confucian ways of thought and behavior.
A. traditional B. typical C. memorial D. cultural
7. The stone stelae were_______ with the name of the doctor laureates.
A. written B. cut C. designed D. engraved
8. The collection has been sold to the British Museum where it will be_______ for the nation.
A. conserved B. existed C. preserved D. impressed
9. She felt intense fear mingled_______ excitement.

A. in B. to C. of D. with
10. Hoi An is famous tourist attraction with many_______ sites.
A. royal B. natural C. cultural D. attractive
III/Complete the passage with appropriate words from the box. (1point).
short, short, comic, character, moustache, terrifying
Charlie Chaplin was an English film actor and director who did most of his work in the US.
Most people consider him the greatest (11)_______ actor of the silent cinema. He appeared
in many of his films as the best- known (12)_______ he created, a poor man with a small
(13)_______ and trousers and shoes that are too big for him, causing him to walk in a funny
way. He made many (14)_______ comedy films, such as The Kid ( 1921), and several
longer films, such as City Lights (1931) and Modern Times (1936), which combined
comedy with social and political comments. He was made a (15)_______ in 1975.
PART B: LEXICO- GRAMMAR
IV/Choose the word or phrase A, B, C, or D that best completes that best the sentences
or substitutes for the underlined word or phrase. (3points).
16. These plants_______ in a damp climate.
A. root B. found C. exist D. flourish
17. New York is_______ by its hundreds of tall offices and apartment buildings.
A. symbolized B. characterized C. realized D. famous
18. Washington State is famous_______ its apples.
A. with B. to C. on D. for
19. About 90 percent of all the people_______ New Jersey live_______ cities.
A. in/ in B. on/ in C. in/ at D. in/ on
20. The match has been_______ from Wednesday night to Friday night because of the bad
weather.
A. cancelled B. competed C. postponed D. watched
21. _______ been diverted, they would have arrived early.
A. Hadn’t the plane B. Had the plane not
C. The plane had not D. The plane not had
22. I won’t lend you this money_______ to pay it.
A. in case you promise B. if you promise
C. if you didn’t promise D. unless you promise
23. The door was locked_______.
A. a five minutes ago by Ann B. with Ann five minutes ago
C. by Ann five minutes ago D. in five minutes ago by Ann
24. This park is the orphanage where lots of orphaned and abandoned animals are taken care
of.
A. look after B. involved in C. dealt with D. moved in
25. Many people come to the national parks to see the work being done to protect
endangered species.
A. plants or animals that may be dangerous to people
B. plants or animals that disappeared from the world
C. plants or animals that are about to die
D. planets and animals that may soon become extinct

26. When the wastes are poured into the atmosphere, the air become contaminated and
unpleasant to breath.
A. dense B. dirty C. pure D. spoiled
27. The cattle drank from a river polluted with toxic chemical.
A. waste B. lived C. hurt D. poisonous
28. “Should we turn left or go straight?” “Hmm. I’m not sure which way_______”.
A. do we turn B. to turn C. should we turn D. it turned
29. “Why don’t you join us for the coffee, Don?” After the movie, we asked
Don_______.
A. Would he join us for coffee B. why he didn’t join us for the coffee
C. to join us for coffee D. join us for coffee
30. Somebody forgot this hat. I wonder_______.
A. whose this hat B. whose hat this is C. whose hat is D. is this whose hat
V/ Complete the following sentences with the correct forms of the given words. (1point).
31. All the newspaper praised the_______ of the firemen. BRAVE
32. Saucepans are sold in the_______ good department. HOUSE
33. The group called” Friends of the Earth” is concerned about the_______ of the natural
environment. CONSERVE
34. The thief replaced the diamond with a_______ stone. WORTH
35. _______ about the company” s future meant that few people wanted to invest money in
it. CERTAIN
VI/Choose the best answer A, B, C or D. (2points).

36. Elderly people often belong to a_______ group.
A. low- fat B. poor- quality C. high- tech D. low-income
37. Reporters took_______ every word of his speech.
A. in B. down C. out D. after
38. I didn’t buy oranges; she gave them to me_______ nothing.
A. as B. for C. in addition to D. due to.
39. All his plans for starting his own business fell_______.
A. in B. through C. down D. away
40. Frank_______ when he noticed a large packing case lying on the floor.
A. has about to leave B. had about to leave
C. is about to leave D. was about to leave
41. Rosa suggested_______ a suit and tie when he went for the interview.
A. him to wear B. he must wear C. he wear D. that he wear
42. Hello! Aviation Electronics? Could I speak to Mr. Jones on_______ 8183, please.
A. branch B. extension C. system D. exchange
43. _______ the book, please return it to me.
A. Should you find B. Will be finding
C. Will you find D. Will you have found
44. The tests in this book are arranged, _______.
A. in order of difficult B. in order of difficulty
C. in orderly difficult D. in the order of difficulty

45.The increase from5 million to 350 speakers of English has not_______ because of any
special merits in the language itself.
A. come to B. come up C. come about D. come forward
Part C: READING:
VII/Read the following passage and choose the options that best complete the blanks.
(2points).
A new threat to our health seems to have arisen in our midst, confusion and stress caused
by technology. All you need to do to (46)_______ this to yourself is to telephone a large
company; a recorded voice will offer you a be wildering list of choices, and when you have
finished answering its questions, you will probably be (47)_______ to several minutes of
piped music before you eventually make (48)_______ with a human being. But the stress
you undergo as a result is negligible compared to the impression on the telegraph
(49)_______ on people 150 years ago. Until then, message could only travel as fast as a
messenger could carry them. But now they could be sent great distances in seconds. Before
long, submarine cables were (50)_______ across the oceans, and thirty years later, the
network reached 20,000 towns around the world. When the first transatlantic able was
completed in 1858, the Queen and the President exchanged messages, preachers found
(51)_______ for it in the Bible, and the New York jewelers, Tiffany’s, bought unused pieces
of the cable and sold them as souvenirs. But then, as now, everyone was not (52)_______ of
the technological advantages.
Information arrived so quickly, often (53)_______ what had previously been transmitted,
that businessmen had to work much harder to (54)_______ up with developments. They
arrived home tired and stressed. If we find difficulty with the Internet, which is
technological evolution, not revolution, our (55)_______ had afar harder task in getting used
to the invention in the first place.
46. A. confirm B. prove C. show D. test
47. A. oppressed B. subdued C. subjected D. submitted
48. A. collision B. connection C. communication D. contact
49. A. did B. got C. made D. worked
50. A. said B. lain C. put D. set
51. A. apology B. argument C. excuse D. justification
52. A. believed B. convinced C. pleased D. satisfied
53. A. contradicting B. differing C. disagreeing D. objecting
54. A. keep B. maintain C. remain D. stay
55. A. ancestors B. elders C. fathers D. forerunner
VIII/Read and answer the questions. (1point).
From the beginning, Philadelphia was a prosperous settlement. At the time of the
American Revolution, a hundred years later, it was a political center and one of the large
American cities as it is today.
Philadelphia contains so many buildings of historical interest. On July 4, 1776, the

Declaration of Independence was signed in the famous Independence Hall now. There we
can also see the Liberty Bell, which was rung on that memorable occasion, and the room
where the Constitution of the United States was adopted. The City was once the headquarter
of Revolution, and from 1790 to 1800 it was the capital of the new republic.
Answer the questions.
56. Was the Philadelphia a prosperous from the beginning?
57. What did it become at the time of the American Revolution?
58. When and where was the Declaration of Independence signed?

59. What can we also see there?
60. When was it rung?
IX/ Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct answers. (2points).
Situated in the central mountains of Alaska, a peak named Denali rises 20,320 feet above
sea level. It is the highest peak in North America and the central of Denali National park.
One of America’s greatest Wilderness area, the park has had limited access to visitors in
1990. The increasing popularity of this park is prompting serious discussions about the
future use of Denali as well as how to preserve wilderness areas in general.
One important issue of land use arises when parts of National Parks are owned by
individuals. In Denali, though most of land in this vast tract of more than a million acres is
owned as mining tracts. These mining tracts in Denali were once abundant source of gold,
but they were sources of heavy metals such as arsenic and lead that polluted rivers and
streams. Environmentalists are successful in getting the government to require mining
companies to submit statements showing the potential impact of a mining project before
they are allowed to begin mining. Because of this requirement, many individuals closed their
mines and some sold their land to the National Park Service. Some land owners, however,
are wondering if it is better to sell their land to the government or keep it for possible future
use. Tourism in this previously remote area is bound to rise, as more roads are built to
provide easier access to the park. This increase in the number of visitors creates a demand
for hotels and other real estate development. The economic implications of this are of
interest to the land owners, but are dismaying to those interested in preserving the wilderness.
61. What is the primary focus of this passage?
A. controversies over land use in Denali. B. miners selling their property in Denali
C. Alaska building more roads to Denali D. limiting tourist access to Denali
62. The word “ wilderness” could be replaced by the word_________.

A. dangerous B. natural C. rural D. pastoral
63. Which of the following is the most similar to the word “abundant”?
A. plentiful B. sparse C. hopeful D. absolute
64. According to the passage, which of the following are pollutants in the Denali area?
A. gold B. pesticides C. human waste D. arsenic
65. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the phrase “potential impact”?
A. approximate cost B. expected value C. proposed size D. possible effects
66. The word “preserve” is similar to_________.
A. protect B. enclose C. investigate D. foster
67. The word “tract” is similar to_________.
A. trail B. resort C. frontier D. expanse
68. The author infers that some mine owners might hesitate to sell their land to the Park
Service for which of the following reasons?
A. There may be increasing demand for the ore in the mines
B. They might want to move the towns.
C. They might receive more money selling their land to developers.
D. They might want to build a house on their property.
69. What is the author’s purpose in writing this passage?
A. to demonstrate the changes in Denali National Park
B. to use Denali as an example of common park issues
C. to introduce the wonders of the wilderness area of Denali

D. to explain the problems occurring in Denali Park
70. Which of the following would most likely be the topic of the next paragraph in this
passage?
A. conflict between land owners and environmentalist
B. the role of the National Park Service in development
C. tourist needs in Denali Park
D. wildlife in the park
PART D: WRITING
Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first sentence
(2,4 points).
71. They’re going to paint the house for us at the weekend
We’re going……………………………………………………………………
72. I couldn’t concentrate because it was so noisy.
There was too…………………………………………………………………..
73. I work in a factory which has more than a thousand employees
There…………………………………………………………………………….
74. Mackenzie wrote four best- sellers before he was twenty.
By the age of…………………………………………………………………….
75. She left university two years ago.
It is……………………………………………………………………………….
76. Jenny does not play tennis as well as she used to.
Jenny used to…………………………………………………………………….
77. Tim insisted on being told the complete story.
Nothing but………………………………………………………………………
78. It was to be another twenty- five years before Michael returned to his hometown.
Not until………………………………………………………………………….
79. It was wrong of you not to call the doctor at once.
You should………………………………………………………………………..
80. I can meet you if you arrive before eleven.
So…………………………………………………………………………………
81. I’m sure she didn’t do it on purpose.
She can’t…………………………………………………………………………..
82. Driving fast is dangerous, whether you are an experienced driver or not.
However…………………………………………………………………………
Circle the letter of the underlined portion which is not correct.
83. She was studying medicine while I last saw her.
A B C D
84. Although the traffic was heavy he went to his office late.
A B C D
85. I hope that she would have a good time next Sunday.
A B C D
86. She asked them if they will spend their holidays at the seaside.
A B C D
87. When I first met him he is working in a bank.
A B C D
X/ Write a description of a city or town in Vietnam you know well, (about 150- 200
words) ( 2,6 points).
ANSWER KEYS
Part A.PRONUNCIATION AND VOCABULARY
I/ Phonetics: Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently
from the rest (1point).
1. B 2. C 3. A
Pick out a word which is stressed on different position from the others.
4. C 5. D
II/ Vocabulary. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to complete each sentence:
(1points).
6. B 7. D 8. C 9. D 10. C
III/Complete the passage with appropriate words from the box. (1point).
11. comic, 12. character, 13. moustache, 14.short, 15. terrifying
PART B: LEXICO- GRAMMAR
IV/Choose the word or phrase A, B, C, or D that best completes that best the sentences
or substitutes for the underlined word or phrase. (3points).
16. D 17. B 18. D 19. A 20. C 21. B 22. D 23. C 24. A 25. D 26. B 27. D 28. B 29.
C 30. B.
V/ Complete the following sentences with the correct forms of the given words. (1point).
31. BRAVERY, 32. HOUSEHOLD, 33. CONSERVATION, 34. WORTHLESS 35.

UNCERTAINLY
VI/Choose the best answer A, B, C or D. (2points).
36. D 37. B 38. B 39. A 40. D 41. C 42. B 43. A 44. D 45. C
Part C: READING:
VII/Read the following passage and choose the options that best complete the blanks.
(2points).
46. B 47. C 48. D 49. C 50. A 51. D 52. B 53. A 54. A 55. A
VIII/Read and answer the questions. (1point).
56. Yes, it was.
57. It became a political center and one of the large American cities as it to day.
58. The Declaration of Independence was signed on July 4, 1776 in the famous
Independence Hall in Philadelphia.
59. We can also see the Liberty Bell.
60. It was rung on that memorable occasion.
IX/ Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct answers. (2points).
61. A 62. B 63. A 64. D 65. D 66. A 67. D 68. C 69. B 70. A
PART D: WRITING
Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first sentence
(2,4 points).
71. We’re going to have the house painted at the weekend.

72. There was too much noisy for me to concentrate
73. There are more than a thousand employees in the factory where (in which) I work
74. By the age of twenty Mackenzie had written four best -sellers.
75. It is two years since she left university.
76. Jenny used to play tennis better than she does now.
77. Nothing but the complete story would satisfy Jim (Nothing but the complete story was
enough for him.)
78. Not until twenty – five years later did Michael return to his hometown.
79. You should have called the doctor at once.
80. So long as arrive before eleven, I can meet you.
81. She can’t have done it on purpose.
82. However experienced you are, driving fast is dangerous.
Circle the letter of the underlined portion which is not correct.
83. B – WHEN 84. A – BECAUSE 85. B – WILL HAVE
86. B – WOULD SPEND 87. C – WAS WORKING.
X/ Write a description of a city or town in Vietnam you know well, (about 150- 200
words) (2,6 points).
Mời bạn đọc tham khảo 1 số đoạn văn mẫu Tiếng Anh về thành phố yêu thích tại đây:
https://vndoc.com/doan-van-tieng-anh-ve-thanh-pho-yeu-thich/download
10
SỞ GD&ĐT LẠNG SƠN ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LẦN THỨ XI
CHU VĂN AN MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 10
Thời gian: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
SỐ PHÁCH
Họ và tên:…………………………………………………………………….........
Trường :…………………………………………………………………………….Số báo
danh: …………….. Phòng thi số : ……………….
Giám thị 01 Giám thị 02

(Ký và ghi rõ họ tên) (Ký và ghi rõ họ tên)
……………………………….. ……………………………….
1
TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI

LẦN THỨ XI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - KHỐI:10
CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
(Đề thi gồm 10 trang)
THÍ SINH LÀM BÀI TRỰC TIẾP VÀO BẢNG CHO SẴN TRONG TỜ ĐỀ THI
Điểm Giám khảo 1 Giám khảo 2 Số phách

Bằng số Bằng chữ
LISTENING (40 pts)

I. Questions 1 - 10. (20pts)
Listen to an interview with Mick Davidson, an animal rights activist, and complete the sentences.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer. Write your
answers in the correspondent numbered boxes.
* Animal rights protesters destroyed expensive_______ (1) at a research laboratory.
* Davidson believes that using animals in experiments is a _______(2).
* Firms need a lot of money to set up _________ (3).
* Davidson hasn’t got any shoes that are made of ________(4).
* Newspapers publish _______ (5) that Mick Davidson has written.
* Davidson damaged a fur coat in a shop in _______ (6).
* In one illegal action, Davidson removed video _______ (7) from a laboratory, which halted the research.
* In the attack on a laboratory, Davidson and his ADG colleagues took thirty _____(8) away with them.
* Davidson doesn’t support the use of ________ (9), except against property.
* The ADG has apologized to people that they have harmed without _________ (10).
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
II. Questions 1 - 5. (10 points)
You are going to listen to a conversation with a woman who wants to join an international social
club. Listen and complete the form. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A
NUMBER for each answer. Write your answers in the correspondent numbered boxes.
International Social Club
APPLICATION FORM
Name: Jenny Foo
Age: 21
Nationality: (1) _______________
Address: (2) _____________ Road, Bondi
Mobile phone: (3) _______________
Occupation: (4) _______________
Free time interests: (5) _______________
Yours answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
2
III. Questions 1 - 5 (10 points)

You will hear a radio with a road safety expert on the topic of road rage then choose the best answer.
Write your answers in the correspondent numbered boxes.
1. James says that drivers become angry if _____________.
A. they think they will be delayed. B. other drivers threaten them.
C. other people don’t drive as well as they do. D. they lose control of their car.
2. Revenge rage can lead motorists to ________________.
A. chase after dangerous drivers. B. become distracted whilst driving.
C. deliberately damage another car. D. take unnecessary risks.
3. Most ‘revenge ragers’ are ______________.
A. young male drivers. B. drivers of large vehicles.
C. inexperienced drivers. D. people who drive little.
4. What, according to James, does the experiment with grass show?
A. people living in country areas are better drivers.
B. strong smells help us drive more safely.
C. our surroundings can affect the way we drive.
D. regular breaks on a journey keep drivers calm.
5. James thinks the hi - tech car _________________.
A. sounds less irritating than a passenger. B. is not very reliable.
C. could cause further anger. D. would be difficult to control.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
LEXICO - GRAMMAR (60 pts)

I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions and write your answers
in the correspondent numbered boxes. (20 pts)
1. At school he had a good academic record, and also __________ at sports.
A. prevailed B. excelled C. surpassed D. achieved
2. Christine’s face _______ up when she heard the good news.
A. showed B. cleaned C. warmed D. lit
3. I think Candy _______ the prize if she plays this well during the competition.
A. is in for winning B. may as well win C. is set for winning D. is bound to win
4. Mrs. Brown always ________ in a crowd because she wore large hats.
A. found against B. looked up C. stood out D. showed up
5. She ________ on the computer for more than two hours when she decided to stop for a rest.
A. has worked B. has been working
C. was working D. had been working
6. ______ lectures at your university?
A. Haven’t students got to attended B. Don’t students have to attend
C. Needn’t students have attended D. Mustn’t students to attend
7. To get a passport, you must send in your birth ________ and two photos.
A. certificate B. license C. paper D. card
8. Have you ever visited New York harbor _________ the famous Statue of Liberty stands?
A. on where B. that C. on that D. where
9. _________ smart he was, he couldn't figure out how to solve the puzzle.
A. Although B. However C. Much as D. Despite
10. Mary is so______ that people told her all their troubles.
A. dependent B. confidential C. permission D. sympathetic
11. It’s essential that every student ______ the exam before attending the course.
A. pass B. passes C. would pass D. passed
3
12. Ancient Egyptians mummified their dead through the use of chemicals, ________ancient Peruvians
did through natural processes.
A. because B. whereas C. even though D. whether or not
13. I wrote to them a fortnight ago but ______ I haven’t had a reply.
A. as yet B. these days C. so long D. just now
14. It’s not surprising that he became a writer because he always longed to see his name______.
A. in type B. in print C. in letters D. in edition
15. The prospects of picking up any survivors are now ______.
A. thin B. narrow C. slim D. restricted
16. Marge walked away from the discussion. Otherwise, she ______ something she would regret later.
A. will say B. might say C. said D. might have said
17. Rita's very_______ and easily gets upset when people criticize her.
A. sensitive B. level - headed C. sensible D. open - minded
18. "Fantastic sale. Everything must be sold _______of the price!"
A. regardless B. in vain C. despite D. without
1 9 . In bacteria and in other organisms, _______ is the nucleic acid DNA that provides the genetic
information.
A. both B. and C. it D. which
20.________ I am aware, there were no problems during the first six months.
A. As far as B. So much as C. Much more than D. Except that
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
II. Fill each gap of the following sentences with the correct form of the word in brackets. Write your
answers in the correspondent numbered boxes. (20 pts)
1. Water _________are things such as detergents, pesticides, oil, and other chemicals. (POLLUTE)
2. There are so many swear words in this article that I think it’s________. (PRINT)
3. Under her fine editorship, ________ has increased by 100,000. (CIRCULATE)
4. Deaths caused by reckless driving are ________. (AVOID)
5. In electronics, we learn to repair______ appliances. (HOUSE)
6. A recent report has warned of global food _______ unless the current system of farming and food
distribution is changed. (SHORT)
7. Increasing world ______ will lead to the rise in demand for energy, food and fresh water.
(PROSPEROUS)
8. The spiral and the helix are everywhere, ______, curving shapes whose incredible regularity contrasts so
sharply with the random world around them. (GRACE)
9. Although a vast amount of information, imagery, and commentary has been made available, it is
difficult to determine the authenticity and______ of information contained in web pages. (RELY)
10. In many countries, mobile phones now ______ land - line telephones, with most adult and many
children now owning mobile phones. (NUMBER)
Your answers
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
4
III. Fill in the gaps of the following sentences with suitable particles or prepositions. Write the
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (0) has been done as an example. (10pts)
0. Poachers aren’t being punished enough for their crimes; many are let _______ without charges.
1. She’s a nature enthusiast and she will certainly jump______ the opportunity of visiting Yellow Stone
National Park.
2. “Please go on talking while I’m jotting_______ my notes.” he said.
3. Unless your wife stops leading her extravagant lifestyle, you won’t get _______ on the poor salary you
obtain.
4. It's like banging your head _____ a brick wall.
5. This led _____ the criticism that the music they played was no longer relevant to today's South Africans.
6. I wish my friends would call me first before they drop______.
7. He came ______ a large sum of money when his uncle died.
8. You look tired. Are you ______ the weather?
9. The book abounds ______ close - up images from space.
10. A brief outline of the course were handed ______ to the students at the first meeting.
Your answers
0. off 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
IV. There is ONE mistake in each of the following sentences. Find out the mistake and correct it.
Write your answers in the correspondent numbered boxes. No. (0) has been done for you. (10pts)
0. Most people are afraid from sharks.
1. A dolphin locates underwater objects in its path by doing a series of clicking and whistling sounds.
2. The council said that they had no option apart to closing the sports center.
3. More than 600 million individual bacterium live on the skin of humans.
4. In several parts of Asia, there is still a strong market for traditional medicines making from these animal
parts.
5. If a species does not have the natural genetic protection against particular diseases, an introduced
disease can have severely effects on that species.
6. The number of the books in the library have risen to over five million.
7. I'm tired because I stayed up late to do all my homeworks last night.
8. Sliding across the snow at skis is one of the most ancient methods of transport known to man.
9. At a crime scene, the police will tell you to get back although they don’t want civilians to interfere with
the investigation.
10. At school I disliked the chemistry’s teacher because she was always picking on me.
Your answers
0. from of
1. 6.
2.. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
5
READING (50 points)

I. For the following questions, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap.
Use only one word in each gap. Write your answer in corresponding numbered boxes. (10pts)
The Great Pyramid of Giza is probably the most famous of the seven wonders of the ancient world.
It ___________ (1) built by King Khufu (known as Cheops to the Greeks) around 2450 BC, and its
neighbor, ___________ (2) is a little smaller, was constructed later __________ (3) his son Khefren. By
the time of the beautiful Queen Cleopatra, they _________ (4) already stood against the desert skyline
through the reigns of more ___________ (5) a hundred kings or pharaohs. For centuries archaeologists
have puzzled over the reasons for their construction. Now a new solution __________ (6) the mystery has
been proposed, according to which Great Pyramid was intended as a focus for __________ (7) pharaoh’s
complicated funeral ceremony. Astronomers think the narrow passages __________ (8) from the royal
burial chambers were aligned with certain stars in the 26,000 - year cycle of the constellations,
___________ (9) that the dead king’s soul could be launched to the stars. The latest discovery is a hitherto
unopened door in the depths of the Pyramid. Who can imagine what ___________ (10) behind it?
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8 9. 10.
II. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your
answer in corresponding numbered boxes. (10pts)
Some famous places are disappointing: dirty, cramped, and a bit of a cliché. But there are others (1)
______, even though you've seen every television program ever made about them, are every (2) ______ as
wonderful as you'd imagined. The Grand Canyon is one of these and so, despite being next door to a main
road, is Stonehenge. Another is Venice which, in its entirety, (3) ______ a great work of art, each decaying
aspect revealing an (4) ______ glimpse of water or startling architecture, each individual building or piazza
(5) ______ an exquisite sense of proportion. I return to Venice every two years in the course of my work
and on each of these occasions I have found something new to (6) ______ at. Alarm cries about how (7)
______ this can last are sounded every now and then each time the water levels rise. But the fact that this
city is (8) ______ into the sea seems to add to its romantic atmosphere. Far more serious is the
depopulation, for it seems that just about every week another family leaves. Since 1945 more than half the
population of Venice has moved to the mainland. The rich (9) ______ the great palazzos along the Grand
Canal and visit every once in a while, but leave the windows dark for the rest of the time. Mass tourism
threatens (10) ______ very structure of the city. It is a sad victim of its own success.
1. A. then B. which C. these D. those
2. A. bit B. piece C. portion D. fragment
3. A. retains B. remains C. keeps D. maintains
4. A. unforeseen B. unexpected C. unimaginable D. unbelievable
5. A. concealing B. exhibiting C. displaying D. presenting
6. A. marvel B. compliment C. praise D. stare
7. A. far B. much C. often D. long
8. A. emerging B. floating C. falling D. sinking
9. A. gain B. own C. hold D. master
10. A. a B. this C. the D. that
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
6
III. Read the following passage about the future life. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D)
according to the passage. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts)
The modern comic strip started out as ammunition in a newspaper war between giants of the
American press in the late 19th century. The first full - color comic strip appeared in January 1894 in the
New York World, owned by Joseph Pulitzer. The first regular weekly full - color comic supplement,
similar to today’s Sunday funnies, appeared two years later, in William Randolph Hearst’s rival New York
paper, the morning Journal.
Both were immensely popular, and publishers realized that supplementing the news with comic
relief boosted the sale of papers. The Morning journal started another feature in 1896, the “Yellow Kid,”
the first continuous comic character in the United States, whose creator, Richard Outcault had been lured
away from the “World” by the ambitious Hearst. The “Yellow Kid’ was in many ways a pioneer. Its
comic dialogue was the strictly urban farce that came to characterize later strips, and it introduced the
speech balloon inside the strip, usually placed above the characters’ heads.
The first strip to incorporate all the elements of later comics was Rudolph Dirks’s “Katzenjammer
Kids,” based on Wilheim Busch’s Max and Moritz, a European satire of the nineteenth century. The
“Kids” strip, first published in 1897, served as the prototype for future American strips. It contained not
only speech balloons, but a continuous cast of characters, and was divided into small regular panels that
did away with the larger panoramic scenes of earlier comics.
Newspaper syndication played a major role in spreading the popularity of comic strips throughout
the country. Though weekly colored comics came first, daily black - and - white strips were not far behind.
They first appeared in the Chicago American in 1904. it was followed by many imitators, and by 1915
black - and - white comic strips had become a staple of daily newspapers around the country.
A. A comparison of two popular comic strips.
B. The differences between early and modern comic strips.
C. The effects of newspapers on comic strip stories.
D. Features of early comic strips in the United States.
2. Why does the author mention Joseph Pulitzer and William Randolph Hearst?
A. They established New York’s first newspaper.
B. They published comic strips about the newspaper war.
C. Their comic strips are still published today.
D. They owned major competitive newspapers.
3. The passage suggests that comic strips were popular for which of the following reasons?
A. They provided a break from serious news stories.
B. Readers enjoyed the unusual drawings.
C. Readers could identify with the characters.
D. They were about real - life situations.
4. To say that Richard Outcault had been lured away from the ‘World’ by Hearst (line 9) means which
of the following?
A. Hearst convinced Outcault to leave the World.
B. Hearst fired Outcault from the World.
C. Hearst warned Outcault to leave the World.
D. Hearst wanted Outcault to work for the World.
5. The word “it” in line 10 refers to ___________.
A. The “Yellow Kid” B. dialogue C. farce D. balloon
6. According to the passage, the “Yellow Kid” was the first comic strip to do all of the following EXCEPT
_____________.
A. feature the same character in each episode.
B. include dialogue inside a balloon.
C. appear in a Chicago newspaper.
D. characterize city life in a humorous way.
7
7. The word “incorporate” in line 12 is closest in meaning to __________.

A. affect B. create C. combine D. mention
8. The word “prototype” in line 14 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. story B. humor C. drawing D. model
9. The word “staple” in line 20 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. regular feature B. Popular edition C. new version D. huge success
10. In what order does the author discuss various comic strips in the passage?
A. alphabetical order by title.
B. in the order in which they were created.
C. according to the newspaper in which they appeared.
D. from most popular to least popular.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10
IV. Read the following passage then do the tasks that follow. (10 points)
A SILENCE FORCE
A. There is a legend that St Augustine in the fourth century AD was the first individual to be seen
reading silently rather than aloud, or semi - aloud, as had been the practice hitherto. Reading has come a
long way since Augustine’s day. There was a time when it was a menial job of scribes and priests, not the
mark of civilization it became in Europe during the Renaissance when it was seen as one of the attributes
of the civilized individual.
B. Modern nations are now seriously affected by their levels of literacy. While the Western world has
seen a noticeable decline in these areas, other less developed countries have advanced and, in some cases,
overtaken the West. India, for example, now has a large pool of educated workers. So European countries
can no longer rest on their laurels as they have done for far too long; otherwise, they are in danger of
falling even further behind economically.
C. It is difficult in the modern world to do anything other than a basic job without being able to read.
Reading as a skill is the key to an educated workforce, which in turn is the bedrock of economic
advancement, particularly in the present technological age. Studies have shown that by increasing the
literacy and numeracy skills of primary school children in the UK, the benefit to the economy generally is
in billions of pounds. The skill of reading is now no more just an intellectual or leisure activity, but rather a
full - fledged economic force.
D. Part of the problem with reading is that it is a skill which not appreciated in most developed
societies. This is an attitude that has condemned large swathes of the population in most Western nations to
illiteracy. It might surprise people in countries outside the West to learn that in the United Kingdom, and
indeed in some other European countries, the literacy rate has fallen to below that of so called less
developed countries.
E. There are also forces conspiring against reading in our modern society. It is not seen as cool among
a younger generation more at home with computer screens or a Walkman. The solitude of reading is not
very appealing. Students at school, college or university who read a lot are called bookworms. The tern
indicates the contempt in which reading and learning are held in certain circles or subcultures. It is a
criticism, like all such attacks, driven by the insecurity of those who are not literate or are semi - literate.
Criticism is also a means, like all bullying, of keeping peers in place so that they do not step out of line.
Peer pressure among young people is so powerful that it often kills any attempts to change attitudes to
habits like reading.
F. How should people be encouraged to read more? It can easily be done by increasing basic reading
skills at an early age and encouraging young people to borrow books from schools. Some schools have
classroom libraries as well as school libraries. It is no good waiting until pupils are in their secondary
school to encourage an interest in books’ it needs to be pushed at an early age. Reading comics, magazines
and low brow publications like Mills and Boon is frowned upon. But surely what people, whether they be
8
adults or children, read is of little import. What is significant is the fact that they are reading. Someone
who reads a comic today may have the courage to pick up a more substantial tome later on.
G. But perhaps the best idea would be to stop the negative attitudes to reading from forming in the
first place. Taking children to local libraries brings them into contact with an environment where they can
become relaxed among books. If primary school children were also taken in groups into bookshops, this
might also entice them to want their own books. A local bookshop, like some local libraries, could perhaps
arrange book reading for children which, being away from the classroom, would make the reading activity
more of an adventure. On a more general note, most countries have writers of national importance. By
increasing the standing of national writers in the eyes of the public, through local and national writing
competitions, people would be drawn more to the printed word. Catch them young and, perhaps, they just
might then all become bookworms.
A. The Reading Passage above has seven paragraphs (A - G). Choose the most suitable heading from
the List of Headings below. Write the appropriate numbers (i - xi) in boxes 1 - 5. (5 points)
Paragraph D and G have been done for you as an example. Any heading may be used more than once.
List of Headings
i Reading not taken for granted
ii Taking children to libraries
iii Reading: the mark of civilization
iv Reading in St Augustine’s day
v A large pool of educated workers in India
vi Literacy rates in developed countries have declined because of people’s attitude
vii Persuading people to read
viii Literacy influences the economies of countries in today’s world
ix Reading benefits the economy by billions of pounds
x The attitude to reading amongst the young
xi Reading becomes an economic force
1. Paragraph A: ………
2. Paragraph B: ………
3. Paragraph C: ………
Paragraph D: …vi..
4. Paragraph E: ……….
5. Paragraph F:……….
Paragraph G:…vii…
B. Do the following statements agree with the information in the reading text. (5 points)
In boxes 6 - 10, write
Yes if the statement agrees with the information
No if the statement contradicts the information
Not Given if there is no information about the statement
6. European countries have been satisfied with past achievements for too long and have allowed other
countries to overtake them in certain areas.
7. Reading is an economic force.
8. The literacy rate in less developed nations is considerably higher than in all European countries.
9. If you encourage children to read when they are young the negative attitude to reading that grows in
some subcultures will be eliminated.
10. People should be discouraged from reading comics and magazines.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10
9
V. For questions 1 - 5, choose the best phrase or sentence A - H (given below the text) to fill each of the
blanks in the following text. Write on letter (A - H) in corresponding numbered boxes. Three of the suggested
answers do NOT fit at all. (10pts)
SHORT OF FUNDS
You see, I started the job with the highest of hopes. I mean, I’d never really thought of fund - raising as a
career, but at the end of the day it’s a job, isn’t it? It pays the bills. Well, it would have done if they hadn’t
kept ____________ (1).That was the trouble. First they wanted me to phone their precious sponsors, then
they said I should forget them and concentrate on ____________ (2). And of course, I was having to input
everything on this all - singing, all - dancing computer - you wouldn’t believe the things it could do! I
wasn’t getting on well with my boss either - you could tell I just wasn’t her flavor of the month. Who
knows why? ____________ (3). But when she discovered I hadn’t raised any money at all in the whole
three months I’d been there it all went pear - shaped and I found myself out on my ear. Well, I never liked
it much there anyway. Being unemployed isn’t ____________ (4). I’ve got enough money to tide me over
till about September. I’m still looking around for something else, but if there’s absolutely nothing and push
comes to shove, I might try and ____________ (5) on the internet. It can’t be that difficult, can it?
A. I must have raised a lot of money to please her

B. the end of the world
C. I must have done something to upset her
D. the end of the tunnel
E. moving the goalpost
F. go on business
G. attracting new donors
H. set up my own business
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
PART IV. WRITING (50points)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the sentence before it.
(10 points)
1. The telephone rang right after he had left the room.
→ Hardly……………………………………………………………………………..
2. But for his contributions, the project wouldn’t have been completed successfully.
→ If it ………………………………………………………………………………..
3. Mark is a passionate skier and he also takes part in skateboarding tournaments.
→ Apart from………………………………………………………………………...
→ So long …………………………………………………………………………...
5. The journalists only heard about the changes to the wedding plans when they arrived at the venue.
→ It was only ………………………………………………………………………………………….
II. For each of the sentences below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the
original one, using the word given. DO NOT CHANGE the word given. (10 points)
1. Tim looks nothing like his father. (TAKE)
→Tim……………………………………………………………………………….his father.
2. There's no point asking Lynda to help as she's really busy. (WASTE)
→It's……………………………………………… asking Lynda to help as she's really busy.
3. I'm sure it was Anna I saw in town as I recognized her coat. (MUST)
→It ………………………………………………Anna I saw in town as I recognized her coat.
4. He made unsuccessful attempt to buy the company. (WITHOUT)
→ He…………………………………………………………………………………..success.
5. I'd be grateful if you would check these accounts for me. (MIND)
→ Would……………………………………………………………………………….for me?
10
III. Write a paragraph of about 150 - 180 words to express your opinion on the following topic (30
pts)
“Participating actively in volunteer work makes you become a responsible person to the community.”
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
- - - - - - - - - Hết - - - - - - - - - -
Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm
11
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI

SỞ GD&ĐT LẠNG SƠN TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XI
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - KHỐI: 10
CHU VĂN AN Ngày thi: 01 tháng 08 năm 2015
Thời gian: 180 phút
LISTENING (40 pts)
I. Questions 1 - 10. (20 pts)

Listen to an interview with Mick Davidson, an animal rights activist, and complete the sentences.
1. equipment 2. crime 3. research experiments 4. leather 5. articles
6. London 7. recordings 8. animals 9. violence 10. intention
II. Questions 11 - 20. (10 pts)

You are going to listen to a conversation with a woman who wants to join an international social
club.
1. Malaysian 2. 13 Angle sea 3. 040 422 9160 4. Economist 5. dancing
III. You will hear a radio with a road safety expert on the topic of road rage then choose the best
answer. (10 points)
1. A 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. C
LEXICO - GRAMMAR (60 pts)
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions (20pts)
1. B 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. D
6. B 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. D
11. A 12. B 13.A 14. B 15. C
16. D 17. A 18. A 19. C 20. A
II. Fill each gap of the following sentences with the correct form of the word in brackets. (20 pts)
1. pollutants 6. shortage
2. unprintable 7. prosperity
3. circulation 8. graceful
4. unavoidable 9. reliability
5. household 10. outnumber
III. Fill in the gaps of the following sentences with suitable particles or prepositions. (10pts)
0. off 1. at 2. down 3. by
4. against 5. to 6. in/by 7. into
8. under 9. in/with 10. out
IV. There is ONE mistake in each of the following sentences. Find out the mistake and correct it.
Write your answers in the correspondent numbered boxes. No. (0) has been done for you. (10pts)
0. from of
1. doing making 6. have has
2. to from 7. homeworks homework
3. bacterium bacteria 8. at on
4. making made 9. although because
5. severely severe 10. chemistry’s teacher chemistry teacher
* Học sinh xác định đúng lỗi nhưng không sửa hoặc sửa sai thì được nửa số điểm quy định (0,5pts)
12
III. READING (50 points)

I. For the following questions, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap.
Use only one word in each gap. (10pts)
1. was 2. which 3. by 4. had 5. than
6. to 7. the 8. leading 9. so 10. lies/ is/ waits
II. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. (10pts)
1. B 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. C
6. A 7. D 8. D 9. B 10. C
III. Read the following passage about the future life. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D)
according to the passage. (10 pts)
1. D 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. A
6. C 7. C 8. D 9. A 10. B
IV. Read the following passage then do the tasks that follow. (10 points)
1. iii 2. viii 3. xi 4. x 5. vii
6. Yes 7. Yes 8. Not Given 9. Yes 10. No
V. For questions 1 - 5, choose the best phrase or sentence A - H (given below the text) to fill each of the
blanks in the following text. (10pts)
1. E 2. G 3. C 4. B 5. H
PART IV. WRITING (50 pts)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the sentence before it.
(10 pts)
1. Hardly had he left the room when the telephone rang.
2. If it had not been for his contributions, the project wouldn’t have been completed successfully.
3. Apart from being a passionate skier, Mark also takes part in skateboarding tournaments.
4. So long as you promise not to do anything wrong, you are allowed to play in my garden.
5. It was only when the journalists arrived at the venue that they heard about the changes to the wedding
plans.
II. For each of the sentences below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the
original one, using the word given. DO NOT CHANGE the word given. (10 pts)
1. doesn’t take after
2. a waste of time
3. must have been
4. attempted to buy the company without
5. you mind checking these accounts
III. Write a paragraph of about 150 - 180 words to express your opinion on the following topic
(30 pts)
“Participating actively in volunteer work makes you become a responsible person to the community.”
Marking scheme
1. Completion: 3pts - The writing is complete.
- The writing is neither too long nor too short.
2. Content: 9 pts - Provide relevant and convincing ideas about the topic.
- Supported by specific example and/or reasonable justifications.
3. Organization: 8pts - Present the right form of a paragraph
- Ideas are well organized and presented with unity, cohesion and coherence.
4. Language: 7 pts - Use a wide range of vocabulary and structures.
- Good use and control of grammatical structures.
5. Handwriting, punctuation - Intelligible handwriting.
and spelling: 3pts - Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.
- - - - - THE END - - - - -
13
SỞ GD – ĐT BẮC NINH ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TRƯỜNG
TRƯỜNG THPT THUẬN THÀNH SỐ 1 NĂM HỌC 2016-2017
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH 10
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề
(Học sinh làm bài trên tờ đề thi)
Họ và tên : ………….……………………………..Lớp: ……….. Số báo danh:…………...
A. PHONETIC:
Find the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others.
1. A.pardon B. hard C. parent D. Park
2. A.rose B. cover C. nose D. over
3. A. increase B. ink C. pink D. thank
4. A. beloved B. naked C. ploughed D. learned
5.A. thief B. thus C. these D. their
6. A. match B. toothache C. orchestra D.chorus
7. A. guard B. figure C. gamble D. gentle
8.A. spread B. introduce C. destroy D. soldier
9.A. clear B. gear C. bear D. year
10. A. scientiest B. natural C. tiny D. plant
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
B. LEXICO – GRAMMAR
PART II. Choose the answer A, B, C or D which best fits the space in each of the following
sentences.
1. _ saying was so important that I asked everyone to stop talking and listen.
A. What the woman was B. That the woman was
C. The woman was D. When was the woman
2. -“Do you mind if I take a seat?” - “ _.”
A. Yes, I don’t mind B. No, do as you please
C. No I mind D. Yes, do as you please
3. As the two teams left the football ground, the 100,000 _ gave them a standing ovation.
A. bystanders B. spectators C. viewers D. audiences
4 My parents lent me the money. _ , I couldn’t have afforded the trip.
A. However B. Therefore C. Only if D. Otherwise
5. It is interesting to take _ a new hobby such as collecting stamps or going fishing.
A. over B. on C. in D. up
6. Jack made me _ him next week.
A. promise calling B. to promise calling C. to promise to call D. promise to call
7. “I passed the TOEFL test, Mom.” -“_ .”
A. All right B. Thank you C. Well done D. Good luck
8. The bad weather caused serious damage to the crop. If only it _ warmer.
A. was B. were C. has been D. had been
9. - “Eric is really upset about losing his job.” - “ Well, once myself, I can understand.”
1
VnDoc - Tải tài liệu, văn bản pháp luật, biểu mẫu miễn
phí
A. Having been fired B. Fired C. Having fired D. Being fired
10. you, I’d think twice about that decision. I could be a bad move.
2
VnDoc - Tải tài liệu, văn bản pháp luật, biểu mẫu
miễn phí
A. Were I B. Should I be C. If I am D. If I had been
11. The teacher asked a difficult question, but finally Ted _ a good answer.
A. put up with B. keep pace with
C. made way for D. came up with
12. Not only __ to speak to him, but she also vowed never to see him again.
A. she refused B. did she refuse C. she did refuse D. when she refused
13. The judge _ _ the pedestrian for the accident.
A. accused B. charged C. caught D. blamed
14. She had to borrow her sister’s car because hers was _ .
A. out of work B. out of order C. on duty D. off work
15. We should participate in the movement __ _ to conserve the natural environment.
A. to organize B. organizing C. which organized D. organized
16. His brother refuses to even listen to anyone else’s point of view. He is very__ _.
A. open-minded B. kind-hearted C. narrow-minded D. absent-minded
17. There is _ in my bedroom.
A. a square wooden old table B. an old square wooden table
C. a wooden old square table D. an old wooden square table
18. “I am sorry. I broke the vase”. - “_ .”
A. OK. Go ahead B. Yes, certainly
C. Don’t worry. Things break D. I’d rather not.
19. One’s fingerprints are _ other person.
A. different from B. different from any
C. differ from any D. different from those of any
20. He is very happy because he passed his exam with colours.
A. flying B. failing C. imagining D. changing
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
PART III. From four underlined parts, choose the one that needs correction, then correct it.
For example : The teacher did not allow the students discussing the take-home exam with each other.
discussing → to discuss
1. A Geiger counter is an electronic instrument is used to measure the presence and intensity of
radiation.
2. A dolphin locates underwater objects in their path by making a series of clicking and whistling
sounds.
3. In spite of its small size, Europe had a great impact on world history than other continents.
4. Before she moved here , Alene has been president of the organization for four years.
5. That Marta's been chosen as the most outstanding student on her campus make her parents very
happy.
6. My cousin composes not only the music, but also sings the songs for the major Broadway musicals.
7. Our civilization is so commonplace to us that rarely we stop to think about its complexity.
8. Ever since the world began, nations have difficulty in keeping peace with their neighbors.
9. Those of us who have a family history of heart disease should do yearly appointments with our
doctors.
10. If one had thought about the alternatives, he would not have chosen such difficult a topic for a
term paper.
3
miễn phí
Your answers
Mistake Correction
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
PART IV. Fill in each space in the following sentences with the most suitable prepositions.
1. I'm afraid Tom's _ work. But Jack's in. Would you like to speak to him?
2. Have you been to the theatre recently? ~ Yes, I was _ the Old Vie last night.
3. At first I found the work very tiring, but _ a few weeks I got used to it.
4. _ the daytime the streets are crowded but at night they are quite deserted.
5. I saw Tom at the bus stop this morning but couldn't speak to him because we were standing _a
queue.
6. He is always in a hurry. He drives __ _ a tremendous speed.
7. Write ink and put your name on the top of the page.
8. The man with the pipe and red hair is the brother of the girl __ blue.
9. He sits at his desk all day with his head in his hands. It gets __ my nerves.
10. The children hastily changed _ bathing things and jumped into the river with shouts of
delight.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
PART V. Give the correct form of the word in bracket to complete the passage.
1. We found it _ _ (thrill) to your wonderful news.
2. He left the room without any __ (explain).
3. He didn’t feel happy because he worked _ _ (success).
4. Many people expressed _ _ (disagree) with the whole idea.
5. There was a _ _ (wide) dissatisfaction with the government’s policies.
6. Her health has _ _ (bad) considerably since we last saw her.
7. A lot of plants and animals could be used as medicines against cancer, AIDS, heart diseases and
other (sick).
8. He was (information) of the consequences in advance.
9. I was kept _ _ (wake) last night by the noise from a party in the flat above.
10. This road is so bad that it needs _ _ (surface).
C. READING
PART VI. Read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C, or D to each of the questions
Large animals that inhabit the desert have evolved a number of adaptations for reducing the
effects of extreme heat. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect rather than absorb the
Sun's rays. Desert mammals also depart from the normal mammalian practice of maintaining a
4
miễn phí
constant body temperature. Instead of trying to keep down the body temperature deep inside the body,
which would involve the expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals allow their temperatures to
rise to what would normally be fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degrees Celsius have been
measured in Grant's gazelles. The overheated body then cools down during the cold desert night, and
indeed the temperature may fall unusually low by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel.
This is an advantage since the heat of the first few hours of daylight is absorbed in warming up the body,
and an excessive buildup of heat does not begin until well into the day.
Another strategy of large desert animals is to tolerate the loss of body water to a point that would
be fatal for non-adapted animals. The camel can lose up to 30 percent of its body weight as water
without harm to itself, whereas human beings die after losing only 12 to 13 percent of their body
weight. An equally important adaptation is the ability to replenish this water loss at one drink. Desert
animals can drink prodigious volumes in a short time, and camels have been known to imbibe over
100 liters in a few minutes. A very dehydrated person, on the other hand, cannot drink enough water to
dehydrate at one session, because the human stomach is not sufficiently big and because a too rapid
dilution of the body fluids causes death from water intoxication.
The tolerance of water loss is of obvious advantage in the desert, as animals do not have to remain
near a water hole but can obtain food from grazing sparse and far-flung pastures. Desert-adapted
mammals have the further ability to feed normally when extremely dehydrated, it is a common
experience in people that appetite is lost even under conditions of moderate thirst.
1. What is the main topic of the passage?

A. Weather variations in the desert B. Adaptations of desert animals
C. Diseased of desert animals D. Human use of desert animals.
2. According to the passage, why is light coloring an advantage to large desert animals?
A. It helps them hide from predators.
B. It does not absorb sunlight as much as dark colors.
C. It helps them see their young at night
D. It keeps them cool at night.
3. The word "maintaining" is closest in meaning to _.
A. measuring B. inheriting C. preserving D. delaying
4. The author uses of Grant's gazelle as an example of _.
A. an animal with a low average temperature
B. an animal that is not as well adapted as the camel
C. a desert animal that can withstand high body temperatures
D. a desert animal with a constant body temperature
5. When is the internal temperature of a large desert mammal lower?
A. Just before sunrise B. In the middle of the day
C. Just after sunset D. Just after drinking
6. The word "tolerate" is closest in meaning to _ .
A. endure B. replace C. compensate D. reduce
7. What causes water intoxication?
A. Drinking too much water very quickly B. Drinking polluted water
C. Bacteria in water D. Lack of water.
8. What does the author imply about desert-adapted mammals?
A. They do not need to eat much food. B. They can eat large quantities quickly
C. They easily lose their appetites. D. They can travel long distances looking for
food.
9. Why does the author mention humans in the second paragraph?
A. To show how they use camels. B. To contrast them to desert mammals.
C. To give instructions about desert survival. D. To show how they have adapted to desert life.
10. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an adaptation of large desert animals?
A. Variation in body temperatures B. Eating while dehydrated
C. Drinking water quickly D. Being active at night.
5
miễn phí
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
PART VII. Read the text below and decide which answer A, B, C or D best fits each space.
When you read something in a foreign language, you frequently (1)_ _ across words you do
not fully understand. Sometimes you check the meaning in a dictionary and sometimes you (2) .
The strategy you adopt depends very much upon the (3) of accuracy you require and the time
at your disposal.
If you are the sort of person who tends to turn to the dictionary frequently, it is worth
remembering that every dictionary has its (4)_ _. Each definition is only an approximation and
one builds up an accurate picture of the meaning of a word only after meeting it in a (5)_ _ of contexts.
It is also important to recognize the special dangers of dictionaries that translate from English into
your native language and vice versa. If you must use a dictionary, it is usually far safer to (6) an
English-English dictionary.
In most exams you are not permitted to use a dictionary. (7) you are allowed to use one, it
is very time-consuming to look up words, and time in exams is usually limited. You are, (8) ,
forced to guess the meaning of unfamiliar words.
When you find unknown words in an exam text, it is very easy to panic. However, if you develop
efficient techniques for guessing the meaning, you will (9)_ _ a number of possible problems and
help yourself to understand far more of the text than you at first thought likely.
Two strategies which may help you guess the meaning of a word are: using contextual clues, both
within the sentence and outside, and making use of clues (10) from the formation of the word.
1. A. put B. drop C. see D. come

2. A. look B. guess C. examine D. inspect
3. A. extent B. range C. degree D. level
4. A. limitations B. values C. advantages D. entry
5. A. multiple B. variety C. variation D. diversity
6. A. survey B. consult C. refer D. inquire
7. A. or else B. Provided C. Although D. Even if
8. A. so B. therefore C. completely D. so that
9. A. surpass B. get over C. go over D. overcome
10. A. derived B. extracted C. coming D. originated
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
D. WRITING
PART VIII. Complete the second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first one.
1. This will be my student's first performance in Canada.
→ This will be the first time …………………………………………………………………………...
2. This course will take us six months to complete.
→ In six months time …………………………………………………………………………………..
3. The number of people who understand his ideas exceed his expectations.
→ More people …………………………………………………………………………………………
6
miễn phí
4. She'll have to make her presentation at the end of his speech.
→ The moment he ……………………………………………………………………………………..
5. Sharon will finish her exams. Then she will have more free time.
→ Once …………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. Both Mary and Peter prefer jazz to classical music.
→ Neither………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. They repaired my car at the garage in town.
→ I............................................................................................................................................................
8. This is the last time I will speak to you.
→ I...........................................................................................................................................................
9. I prefer staying in to going out.
→ I'd rather..............................................................................................................................................
10. They passed the driving test because of the easy questions.
→ If ……………………………………………………………………………………………………
THE END
7
phí
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM- TIẾNG ANH 10
A. PHONETICS
1. C
2. B
3. B
4. C
5. A
6. A
7. D
8. D
9. C
10. B
B. LEXICO – GRAMMAR
PART I:
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. D
6. D 7. C 8. D 9. A 10.A
11. D 12. B 13. D 14. B 15. D
16. C 17. B 18. C 19. D 20. A
PART II
1. is used → used 6. composes not only → not only composes

2. their path → its path 7. rarely we stop → rarely do we stop
3. great impact → greater impact 8. have difficulty → have had difficulty
4. has been → had been 9. do yearly → make yearly
5. make → makes/made 10. such difficult → so difficult
PART III
1. at 2. at 3. for 4. in 5. in
6. at 7. in 8. in 9. on 10. into
PART IV
1. thrilling
2. explanation
3. unccessfully
4. disagreements
5. widespread
6. worsened
7. sicknesses
8. informed
9. awake
10. resurfacing
C. READING
PART V
1. B 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. A
6. A 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. D
8
phí
PART VI
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. B
6. B 7. D 8. B 9. D 10. A
D. WRITING – 5 ĐIỂM
Pa r t IX: 2 điểm = 0,2 / 1 câu đúng

This will be the first my student has performed in Canada.
1. time
my student has given the performance in Canada.
In six months time we will have completed this course.
2.
More people understand him than he expected./ has expected/ expects.
3.
The moment he finishes she'll have to make her presentation.
4.
Once Sharon finishes her exams, she will have more free time
5.
Neither Mary nor Peter prefers classical music to jazz.
6.
I had my car repaired at the garage in town.
7.
I will not/never speak to you (again).
8.
I'd rather stay in than go out.
9.
the questions hadn’t been easy, they wouldn’t have passed the driving test.
the questions had been (more) they would have failed the driving test.
I
difficult,
10. f
It hadn’t been for the easy
questions,
9
SỞ GD & ĐT THANH HÓA KÌ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 10
TRƯỜNG THPT HOÀNG LỆ KHA NĂM HỌC 2018-2019
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
Số báo danh Ngày thi: …/ 01/ 2019
..................... Thời gian: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
Đề thi có 06 trang

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
 Bài nghe gồm 2 phần, thí sinh được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau khoảng 15 giây.Thí sinh
có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài nghe.
PART I. Listen to passage. Choose the best answer for each question below. (5ps)
1. How many percents do graduate schools in the United States increase in applications from
international students this year?
A. seven percents B. eight percents C. nine percents D. ten percents
2. When is the increase the same as?
A. two years ago B. three years ago C. four years ago D. five years ago
3. Which countries showed the biggest increases in applications to enter master’s and doctoral
programs this fall?
A. China B. China, Mexico
C. Mexico and Brazil D. China, Mexico and Brazil
4. Which is the top area of study for international students?
A. Engineering B. Business C. Physical D. Earth sciences
5. Who made the survey?
A. South Korea B. The Council of Graduate Schools
C. India D. Brazil
PART II. You'll hear a conversation between two people. Listen and fill in the blanks .
(10pts)
This is the VOA Special English Agriculture Report.
Some (6)_________ in the Netherlands are spending (7)_________ hundred thirty thousand
dollars on a (8)_________ The people are scientists at the University of Maastricht. They want
to (9)_________ that they can make a hamburger that tastes good and does not require an
animal to be (10)_________
Researcher Mark Post and his team have been growing muscle-tissue cells in a laboratory
with muscle taken from (11)_________
MARK POST: “We have committed ourselves to make a couple of thousand of these small
tissues and then assemble them (12)_________ a hamburger.” Several teams around the world
are trying to (13)_________ meat without killing animals. So far the Dutch team appears to
have (14)_________ the most progress.
Mr. Post says he wants to show that the world’s growing demand for meat could be (15)
______ more efficiently and with less harm to the environment.

Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in
the same line. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (3pts)
16. A. seat B. heat C. bread D. leave
17. A. crooked B. involved C. requested D. needed
18. A. flood B. good C. foot D. look
1
Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words
in each question. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (2pts)
19. A. pollution B. accident C. relation D. agreement
20. A. picture B. number C. water D. canal
Question I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. Write the
21. 1. Even if you are rich, you should save some money for a __________day.
A. rainy B. foggy C. snowy D. windy
22. He managed to finish his thesis under the _____ of his tutor.
A. guidance B. help C. aid D. assistance
23. A: Congratulation! You did great. B: __________
A. That’s okay B. It’s my pleasure
C. You’ve welcome D. It’s nice of you to say so
24. “You . __________have cooked so many dishes. There are only three of us for lunch.”
A. wouldn’t B. oughtn’t C. needn’t D. couldn’t
25. The trouble started only__________the other man came into the room.
A. when B. until C. and then D. too soon
26. You’ll have to __________a better idea than that if you want to win .
A. come in for B. get down to C. bring out D. come up with
27. The curriculum at the public school is as good__________of any private school.
A. or better than B. as or better than that
C. as or better that D. as or better than those
28.Taxis don't follow any schedule: they come and go ________.
A. chronologically B. punctually C. in sequence D. at random
29. Samuel Clemens, __________under the pen name Mark Twain, created characters that
reflected purely American traits and habits.
A. wrote B. who wrote C. and he wrote D. he wrote
30.They received __________advice from their parents that they became successful.
A. so good B. such a good C. so good an D. such good
Question II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on your
answer sheet .(8 pts)
31. The police are stopping all the cars. They (look)_________ for the escaped prison.
32. The woman said she (live) ______________ in this village for over fifty years.
33. The envelop (lie) ____________ on the table has no stamp on it.
34. Peter along with his parents (watch) _________ TV at the moment.
35. It’s a great pity you didn’t come to Brighton with us last Saturday. As you have never seen the
sea before, it (be) _________ a new experience for you.
36. Don’t make the children (come)___________with us if they don’t want to.
37. If you want to see us, come to Tom’s on Sunday. We (wait) _________ for you there
at midday.
38. (Do) ________________ his homework, Nam went to bed late last night.
Question III. Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on your
answer sheet. (7pts)
39. They used to be _________ enemies, but now they have managed to bury the hatchet for the
sake of mutual benefits. (RECONCILE)
2
40. List the problems facing poor and _________ countries. (POPULATE)
41. I think most of the local ________ around here are very friendly. ( INHABIT)
42. It is ________ for beginning students to make mistakes in English. (AVOID)
43. Both Nam and Hoa are stamp _______They share the same hobby (COLLECT)
4 4. Their plan seemed to be _________ possible. (THEORY)
45. Air ______is a big problem in many cities in the world.( POLLUTE)
Question IV. The passage below contains 5 mistakes ( from 46 to 50 ). Recognize the mistakes
and write their correct forms in your answer sheet. (5 pts)
Line
1 Personal space is a term that refers to the distance we like to kept between ourselves
2 and other people. When someone we do not know well gets too close we usually begin
3 to feel comfortable. If a business colleague comes closer than 1.2 meters, the most
4 common response is to move away. Some interesting studies have done in libraries. If
5 strangers come too close, many people get up and leave the building, others use
6 different methods such as turning their back on the intruder. Live in cities has made
7 people develop new skills for dealing with situations where they are very close to
8 strangers. Most people on so crowd trains try not to look at strangers; they avoid skin
9 contract, and apologize if hands touch by mistake. People using newspapers as a barrier
10 between themselves and other people, and if they do not have one, they stare into the
11 distance, making sure they are not looking into anyone’s eyes..
Example: Line 1: kept→ keep

Question I. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the text below. Write the answers
on your answer sheet. (10 points)
The birthday cake is traditionally highly decorated,and typically covered(51)______ lit
candles when presented; the number of candles often equals the(52)________of the person.The
person (53)_______birthday it is makes a silent wish and then (54)____out the candles;if done
in one breath,the wish is supposed to come (55)______,but only if the person keeps the wish to
himself(or herself). It is also common for the "birthday boy" or" birthday girl" to cut the initial
(56)______of the cake as a newlywed couple might with a wedding cake.Birthday cakes have
been a tradition dating back as (57)_______as the Middle Ages when the English would
conceal symbolic items (58)_______as gold coins,rings and thimbles inside their cakes.Each
item was associated with a prediction.For example, a person (59)_______a gold coin in a
birthday cake would supposedly (60)_______wealthy.
Question II. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for
each space. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10pts)
YOU CAN’T ESCAPE THE INTERNET
Over the last few years, the use of the Internet has increased dramatically in French
schools, offices, and homes and this trend continues to grow. Who could have imagined, even
in the last decade, that we would be able to (61) _______our friends, colleagues and clients
around the world simply through the (62) _______ of a mouse and a modem? There is no
doubt, like any invention, that the Internet can be used for good or bad but it is here to stay and
has (63) _______ the way we communicate.
In the world of business, no corporation can be competitive unless it has (64) _______to
the Internet. It has become essential to advertise your product and service in this way and an
increasing number of companies are using this opportunity to reach a greater number of (65)
_______ consumers. Indeed, the bigger the website, (66) _______ professional the company
seems to be.
3
Similarly in education, the opportunities that the Internet can (67) _______are vast.
More and more students are (68) _______ on the Internet for their research; for instance, a
physics undergraduate in Paris can download information from a university library in the
States in minutes. From the latest research in scientific and linguistic fields to new theories in
psychology and history; all this may be published on the world-wide web.
What will be the future for the Internet in France? It has been (69) _______ that 60% of
homes and 50% of business will have access to the Internet within five years. Children,
students and professionals will be able to (70) _______and explore the world as they have
never done before.
61. A. contact B. keep touch C. stay in touch D. talk
62. A. tick B. running C. clap D. click
63. A. modified B. been changed C. adapted D. revolutionized
64. A. access B. use C. approach D. downloading
65. A. future B. competent C. potential D. would-be
66. A. more and more B. the more C. more D. the most
67. A. take B. provide C. support D. miss
68. A. relying B. surfing C. working D. downloading
69. A. established B. announced C. claimed D. calculated
70. A. log on B. take on C. log off D. switch on
Millions of people are using cell phones today. In many places, it is actually considered
unusual not to use one. In many countries, cell phones are very popular with young people.
They find that the phones are more than a means of communication - having a mobile phone
shows that they are cool and connected.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health
professionals worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer
health problems from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate
about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such
ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health.
On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some
people who use mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be
detected with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at
young age because of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He
would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for
about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor
blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't agree.
What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation.
High-tech machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile
phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to
worry about.
As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile
phones less often. Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile
phone only when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient,
especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says
they are bad for your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone too often
71. According to the passage, cell phones are especially popular with young people because
__________ .
A. they make them look more stylish.
B. they keep the users alert all the time.
C. they cannot be replaced by regular phones.
D. they are indispensable in everyday communications.
4
72. The word "means" in the passage most closely means ________ .
A. meanings B. expression C. transmission D. method
73. Doctors have tentatively concluded that cell phones may _________ .
A. cause some mental malfunction B. change their users’ temperament.
C. change their users’ social behaviours. D. damage their users’ emotions.
74. "Negative publicity" in the passage most likely means _________ .
A. information on the lethal effects of cell phones.
B. widespread opinion about bad effects of cell phones
C. the negative public use of cell phones.
D. poor ideas about the effects of cell phones.
75. The changes possibly caused by the cell phones are mainly concerned with ______ .
A. the resident memory. B. the mobility of the mind and the body.
C. the smallest units of the brain. D. the arteries of the brain.
76. The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cell phone too often, ________ .
A. had a problem with memory. B. abandoned his family.
C. suffered serious loss of mental ability. D. could no longer think lucidly.
77. The word "potentially" in the passage most closely means_________ .
A. certainly B. possibly C. privately D. obviously
78. According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is ________ .
A. their radiant light. B. their rading power.
C. their power of attraction. D. their invisible rays.
79. According to the writer, people should __________ .
A. keep off mobile phones regularly.
B. never use mobile phones in all cases.
C. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies.
D. only use mobile phones in urgent cases.
80. The most suitable title for the passage could be __________ .
A. The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are Popular.
B. The Way Mobile Phones Work.
C. Technological Innovations and Their Price
D. Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time

Question I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible
in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (5 pts)
81. My grandfather had completely forgotten that he phoned me last night.
My grandfather didn’t have any____________________________________.
82. It wasn’t until he came back to the office that he remembered his mobile phone.
Not until _______________________________________________.
83. Immediately after his appointment to the post, the new editor fell ill.
 No sooner _______________________________________________.
 So long _______________________________________________.
85. If you changed your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.
 Were you _______________________________________________.
Question II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible
in meaning to the sentence printed before it by using the word given. Do not change the form of
the given word. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (5pts)
86. I don’t mind whether we go to the seaside or not this year. (DIFFERENCE)
5
It doesn’t ________________________ whether we go to the seaside or not this year.
87. I would prefer you not to phone me at work. (RATHER)
I ______________________________________________________________
88. He is determined to campaign for his son’s freedom. (INTENTION)
He has ________________________________________________________
89. “It is not worth worrying about the past” I told him. (POINT)
I told him that_________________________________________________________
90. I tried as hard as I could, but I just couldn’t get the money. (MATTER)
No _____________________________________________________________

Some people say that we can get benefits from playing sports. Use relevant evidence and
examples to support this idea. You should write about 200 - 250 words.
----------------- THE END--------------------
6
SỞ GD & ĐT THANH HÓA KÌ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 10
TRƯỜNG THPT HOÀNG LỆ KHA NĂM HỌC 2018-2019
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HD CHẤM Ngày thi:…. /01 / 2019
( HDC gồm 02 trang) Thời gian: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)

PART I. For questions 1-5, tick () A, B or C. (5pts)
1. C 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. B
PART II. You will hear a conversation between two people. Listen and complete questions 6-
10. (10pts)
6.people 7. three 8. hamburger 9. prove 10.killed
11. cow 12. into 13. produce 14. made 15. satisfied
Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in
the same line. Write the answers on your answer sheet (3pts)
16.C 17.B 18.A
Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words
in each question. Write the answers on your answer sheet (2pts)
19.B 20.D

Question I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts)
21.A 22.A 23.D 24.C 25.A
26.D 27.B 28. 29.B 30.D
Question II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on your
answer sheet .(8 pts)
31. must be looking 35. would have been
32. had been living/had lived 36. come
33. lying 37. will be waiting
34. is watching 38. Having done
Question III. Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on your
answer sheet. (7pts)
39. irreconcilable 43. collectors
40. overpopulated 44. theoretically
41. inhabitants 45. polluion
42. unavoidable
Question IV. The passage below contains 5 mistakes ( from 31 to 36 ). Recognise the mistakes
and write their correct forms in your answer sheet. (5 pts)
46. Line 3: comfortable → uncomfortable
47. Line 4: have done → have been done
48. Line 6: Live → Living
49. Line 8: crowd → crowded
50. Line 9: using → use

Question I. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the text below. Write the answers
on your answer sheet. (10 pts)
51. with 52. age 53. whose 54. blow 55. true
56. piece 57. far 58. such 59. finding 60. become
7
Question II. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for
each space. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10pts)
61. A 62. A 63. D 64. A 65. C
66. B 67. B 68. A 69. D 70. A
71. A 72. D 73. A 74. B 75. C
76. A 77. B 78. D 79. D 80. C

Question I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible
in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
81. My grandfather didn’t have any recollection of phoning me last night.
82. Not until he came back to the office đi he remember his mobile phone.
83. No sooner had he been appointed to the post than the new editor fell ill.
84. So long as you promise not to do anything wrong,you are allowed to play in my garden.
85. Were you to change your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.
Question II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible
in meaning to the sentence printed before it but using the word given. Do not change the form
of the given word. (5pts)
86. It doesn’t make any/ much difference to me whether we go to the seaside or not this year.
87. I would rather you did not phone me at work.
88. He has no intention to stop campaigning for his son’s freedom.
89. I told him that there was no point in worrying about the past.
90. No matter how hard I tried, I couldn’t get the money.
Marking scheme: The impression mark should be based on the following scheme
1. Format: 2 pts ( coherence, cohesion , style )
The essay should include 3 parts:
a. Introduction: should be put in one paragraph in which students’ points of view are expressed
clearly
b. Body: should consist of from two to three paragraphs. Each paragraph must have a topic
sentence, reasonings and examples.
c. Conclusion (summary of the main reasons, students’ comment)
2. Content : 5pts
A provision of main ideas and details as appropriate to support the argument.
3. Language : 3pts (grammatical accuracy , a wide range of vocabulary and structures )
B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM:
- Tổng điểm toàn bài : 100 điểm
- Thang điểm: 20
Tổng số điểm các câu làm đúng
Điểm bài thi =
5
- Điểm bài thi được làm tròn đến 0,25
8
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TRƯỜNG
TRƯỜNG THPT THUẬN THÀNH 2 NĂM HỌC 2018 – 2019
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Môn thi: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 10

Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
PART I: LISTENING
I/ Listen to the passage about gorillas and choose the best answer A, B, C, or D:
1. Which of the following can be a group leader?
A. The biggest and strongest adult male gorilla.
B. A female gorilla.
C. The biggest adult female gorilla.
D. A grown-up gorilla.
2. With whom do baby gorillas sleep at night?
A. Their sisters B. Their mothers
C. Their fathers D. Their mothers and sisters
3. Why do hunters kill mountain gorillas?
A. For their skin B. For their nest
C. For the trees they live D. For food
A. Mountain gorillas live in Africa
B. Scientists study gorillas and show a different picture of mountain gorillas
C. Life for mountain gorillas is peaceful
D. A gorilla sometimes eat worms
5. What can be learned from the passage?
A. Mountain gorillas are not as dangerous as they look B. Mountain gorillas live in groups
C. Mountain gorillas eat mainly plants D. All A, B and C are correct
II/ Listen to a radio news story about a 90-year-old American woman climbing Mount Whitney and fill in
each blank with one missing word or number:
A ninety-year-old woman has climbed Mount Whitney in California for the _______(1) time. At ______
(2) metres, Mount Whitney is the highest mountain in California. The woman says the _______ (3) from the top
is __________ (4), so she tries to climb it often. She also says that the mountain has kept her young and
________ (5). In spite of her old age, the woman tries to climb the mountain very often.
III/ Listen to the conversation between Bob and Sally. Decide whether the statements are true (T) or
false (F):
1. In 1995 Sally joined the Star Sports Club.
2. There are five people in her family.
3. She has a lot of free time.
4. She likes not only sports but also reading.
5. She wants to be a writer.
PART II: PHONETICS

I/ Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest.
1. A. signed B. profited C. attracted D. naked
2. A. writers B. laughs C. loves D. awards
3. A. balance B. challenge C. career D. happy
4. A. intestine B. mind C. spine D. reliable
5. A. banned B. cleared C. kissed D. raised
II/ Choose the word which is stress on different position from the others.
1. A. limitation B. inequality C. entertainment D. eliminate
2. A. satisfy B. expensive C. knowlegde D. primary
3. A. pursue B. enrol C. equal D. become
4. A. student B. police C. listen D. husband
5. A. poverty B. discriminate C. violent D. loneliness
PART III: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

I/ Choose the best answers to complete the sentences:
1. Could you _____________ doing the washing up ? – Sure.
A. help me B. mind C. give me a hand with D. do me a favor
2. They will come to our house _____________ ten minutes.
A. in B. to C. for D. during
3. It is _____________ to work in this city with so much noise and pollution
A. healthy B. health C. unhealthy D. healthful
4. Tuan: I think we should use shower instead of bath to save water. Lan: - _____________.
A. Yes, I’d love to B. That’s a good idea C. I’m sorry D. Yes, I’ll take it
5. One of my relatives is _____________ to garlic
A. stimulating B. stressful C.sensitive D. allergic
6.Creating a habit requires encoding a new set of automatic behaviors, while _____________ a habit requires a
completely different approach.
A. hitting B. sticking C. beating D. kicking
7. She made fun of me because I am from Africa. It was a_______________discrimination.
A. gender B. race C. education D. age
8. His dream of becoming a reputed lawyer finally____________true.
A. makes B. takes C. comes D. goes
9. If your camara is faulty, you should return it to the _____________.
A. creator B. manufacturer C. inventor D. builder
10. I_____________ in the lounge for ten minutes.
A. was told waiting B. was told to wait C. was telling to be waited D. was told to be waited
II/ Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions:

1. Were you disappointed ____________ your examination results?
2. Why don’t you apply ____________a position in that company?
3. This machine hasn’t been used ____________ ages.
4. Her whole life was devoted ____________ helping the poor and the miserable.
5. She has decided to go ____________ a diet.
III/ Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets:

1. John ( send ) _____________ a box full of chocolate to Jane yesterday?
2. Your windows need (clean) _____________.Would you like me (do) ___________them for you.
3. It ‘s dark. It (rain) _______________ .
4. I had better (wash) ______________ my clothes today, or they will be very smelly.
5. Max uses his phone (call) _____________ his family and friends
6. More than 10 pages ( type ) ____________ so far.
7. Every day, the dishes ( wash ) _____________ by Jane but today the washing-up ( do ) ________ by Jame.
8. She ( never / see ) _____________ her parents again.
IV/ Find ONE wrong word in each of the following sentences then correct it:
Eg. To recording your voice, you can download a mobile application.
recording-> record
1. As planned, we will drive from our city to the sea.
2. Long has waited for his friends for noon.
3. Seventeen muscles are use when we smile or frown.
4. The house is built 10 years ago
5. The heart can said to be the most sophisticated and efficient pump as it runs without rest for one’s whole life.
V/ Give the correct form of the words in the following sentences:
1. Gender____________________cannot prevent a person from pursuing a job. DIFFERENT
2. Studies have shown that ___________ for invention mostly comes from natural world. INSPIRE
3. Gender_____________________makes women lose a lot of opportunities. DISCRIMINATE
4. She had to face_____________________when she lived far from home. LONELY
5. Women should have ____________________ chances in all areas. EQUALITY
6. Scientists and __________ have observed things in nature to design new products to serve humans. INVENT
7. It is hard to get rid of__________________completely. POOR
8. __________________at school is more and more common now. It should be eliminated as soon as possible.
VIOLENT
9. Your idea is not practical. Therefore, I_______________with you. AGREE
10. She was_______________when she was very young. SUCCESS
PART IV: READING

I/ Read the text and choose the option A, B, C or D that best fits each blank:
I went to Australia on a student program last year and I like to (1)_______you about it. I was very
(2)_______when I knew I was going to Australia because I had never been there before. I didn’t think about the
problems of speaking English (3)_______I met my host family. At first I couldn’t communicate with them
because my English was so bad. All the five years I had been learning English wasn’t much used at all
(4)_______we didn’t have real practice at school. Even though my grammar was good, my pronunciation
wasn’t. My problem is (5)_______ ‘l’ and ‘r’. For example, Australian people often asked “What do you eat in
Vietnam?” I wanted to tell them that we eat rice, but they didn’t understand when I said “We eat lice”.
1. A. say B. tell C. talk D. speak
2. A. exciting B. excites C. excited D. excite
3. A. after B. until C. when D. while
4. A. although B. even C. because D. so
5. A. pronouncing B. speaking C. reading D. Telling
II/ Read the text and answer the following questions by choosing the option A, B, C or D:
We know that every year less than 100 people are attacked by sharks and about 5 to 10 of these people die.
But, let's look at the other side of the story - How many sharks do people kill? Well, I think you already know
this: People kill many more sharks. Every year, people hunt and kill thousands of sharks. One reason people
kill sharks is for sport; they hunt them just for fun. Some people started to have contests to see who kill the
most sharks or the biggest sharks. Another reason that people kill sharks is for food. In some countries, such as
the United States and Great Britain, shark meat is a popular food. In other countries, such as China, people use
shark fins to make soup. Because so many people like to eat shark, fishing boats catch a lot of sharks to sell for
food.
So, for both of these reasons, people are killing many sharks. Some biologists are getting worried that the
number of sharks is getting too small. That's why many biologists think we should stop killing so many sharks,
and instead try to protect them - or else some day they may all be gone. Some countries have already passed
some laws to help protect sharks. The United States, for example, has passed laws that limit the number of
sharks that people can kill for food or for sport. So even though some people like to hunt sharks, we do need to
protect them.
1. How many sharks are hunted and killed every year?
A. thousands B. many C. five to ten D. one hundred
2. People want to kill sharks because________ ___
A. they are afraid of sharks. B. shark meat is a popular food.
C. they get their enjoyment from killing sharks D. B and C are correct.
3. The number of sharks in the world is _____ ______
A. not getting worried by some biologists. B. being killed.
C. getting bigger. D getting smaller.
4. Why do biologists want to protect sharks?
A. Because they want to learn more about sharks.
B. Because of the number of sharks that were killed.
C. Because they are afraid someday sharks may no longer exist.
D. Because shark fins can be used in medicine.
5. Which of the following is Not mentioned in the passage?
A. The governments prohibited people from killing sharks.
B. Laws have been passed in sharks' defence.
C. People like to hunt sharks.
D. People are killing many sharks for some reasons.
III/ Read the following passage, then fill in each blank with a suitable word:
Smoking causes lung cancer, which is the number one cancer among men. Ninety percent of the people
(1) _________ get lung cancer die. Smoking is also the leading (2) ________ of mouth cancer, tongue cancer,
and throat cancer. Many (3) __________ have heart disease and pneumonia. Smoking causes one million early
deaths in (4) _________ world every year.
Smokers not only harm themselves but also harm others. Smokers breathe smoke out into the air. They
breathe it out on their children and their wives or husbands. Children whose parents smoke have more breathing
and lung problems (5) __________ other children. Women who are married to smokers are more likely to have
lung cancer than those married to non-smokers.
We are all aware that smoking is bad. So why do people smoke?
PART V: WRITING
I/ Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed
before it.
1. The teacher made her students work hard for the exam.
→ The students .................................................................................................................
2. Maria eats very little so as not to put on weight
→ Maria eats very little because .......................................................................................
3. Governments must eliminate hunger as soon as possible.
→ Hunger ……………………………………………………………………..…………..
4. It is said that the robber was caught while climbing up a fence.
→ The robber .......................................................................................................................
5. I haven’t been to a night club before.
→ This is ...............................................................................................................................
II/ Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given:
1. Your hair needs cutting. ( get )
→ You .......................................................... cut .
2. The library stays open until seven o’clock. ( close )
→ The library ..................................................... until seven o’clock.
3. The teacher scolded Jim for not paying attention. ( by )
→ Jim ............................................................ for not paying attention.
4. Mary finds the volunteer work in this charity organisation interesting. (interested)
→ Mary is ……………………………………………………………………………
5. My appointment with Dr. Gibson is at 10 o’clock tomorrow. (have)
→ At 10 o’clock tomorrow, I am ......................................................... appointment with Dr. Gibson.
III/ Write a paragraph of about 80-100 words about the benefits of smartphones.
* The end*
ĐÁP ÁN
ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TRƯỜNG
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – KHỐI 10
NĂM HỌC: 2018-2019
PART I: LISTENING
I/ Listen to the passage about gorillas and choose the best answer A, B, C, or D:
1. A 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. D
II/ Listen to a radio news story about a 90-year-old American woman climbing Mount Whitney and fill in
each blank with one missing word or number:
1. twenty-third 2. 4,418 3. view 4. wonderful 5. healthy
III/ Listen to the conversation between Bob and Sally. Decide whether the statements are true (T) or false
(F):
1. T 2. T 3. F 4. T 5. F
PART II: PHONETICS

I/ Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. C
II/ Choose the word which is stress on different position from the others.
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. B
PART III: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

I/ Choose the best answers to complete the sentences:
1. C 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. D
6. D 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. B
II/ Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions:

1. with 2. for 3. for 4. to 5. on
III/ Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets:

1. Did John send 5. to call
2. cleaning/ to do 6. have been typed
3. is going to rain 7. are washed/ is being done
4. wash 8. will never see
IV/ Find ONE wrong word in each of the following sentences then correct it:
Eg. To recording your voice, you can download a mobile application.
recording-> record
1. will => are going to
2. for => since
3. use => used
4. is => was
5. can => is
V/ Give the correct form of the words in the following sentences:

1. differences 6. inventors
2. insperation 7. poverty
3. discrimination 8. Violence
4. loneliness 9. disagree
5. equal 10. successful
PART IV: READING
I/ Read the text and choose the option A, B, C or D that best fits each blank:
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. A
II/ Read the text and answer the following questions by choosing the option A, B, C or D:
1. A 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. A
III/ Read the following passage, then fill in each blank with a suitable word:
1. who 2. cause 3. smokers 4. the 5. than
PART V: WRITING
I/ Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before
it.
1.→ The students were made to work hard for the exam by the teacher
2.→ Maria eats very little because she wants to lose weight/ she doesn’t want to put on weight.
3. → Hunger must be eliminated by governments as soon as possible.
4. → The robber is said to have been caught while climbing up a fence.
5. → This is the first time I have ever been to a night club.
II/ Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given:
1. ................ need to get your hair.....................
2. .......................doesn’t close ...........................
3. .................. was scolded by the teacher .................
4. ..................... interested in the volunteer work in this charity organization................
5. .................... going to have an .........................
III/ Write a paragraph of about 80-100 words about the benefits of smartphones.
* The end*
A. LISTENING (1 pt)
Part 1. You will hear a tour guide talking to a group of tourists about a coach trip. For each
question put a tick in the correct box.
1. What is the change of plan?
A. They will visit two towns.
B. They will look round a university.
C. They will visit a wild life park.
2. Where will they stop for coffee?
A. near a waterfall B. by a lake C. on a mountain
3. The town of Brampton became well known because of its ___________.
A. shops B. university C. museum
4. What animals will they see in the wildlife park?
A. lions B. monkeys C. tigers
5. What time will they arrive back at the hotel?
A. 5.30 B. 6.45 C. 7.15
Part 2. You will hear a woman talking on the radio about a competition. For each question, fill
in the missing information in the numbered space.
This month's competition
Prize: a computer and a (6) ………………………….. printer
Write a story
• length: fewer than (7) ………………………….. words
• subject: a short (8) ………………………….. story which takes place in the future
Write your name, address, telephone number and (9) ………………………….. at the end.
Story must arrive on or before (10) …………………………..
I. TRẮC NGHIỆM NGÔN NGỮ (3,5 điểm)
PART 1: PHONETICS (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from
that of the rest in each o f the following questions.
1
11. A. embarrassed B. blessed C. naked D. adopted

12. A. instead B. breakfast C. already D. breathe
Task 2: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose main stress pattern is different from that o f the
rest in each of the following questions.
13. A. photographer B. destination C. participant D. professional
14. A. geographical B. biological C. agricultural D. environmental
15. A. campfire B. provide C. destroy D. conserve
PART 2: LANGUAGE FUNCTION (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following exchanges.
16. Two friends Diana and Anne are talking about their upcoming exams.
- Diana: “Our midterm exams will start next Tuesday, are you ready?”
- Anne: “___________”
A. I’m half ready. B. God save you.
C. Thank you so much D. Don’t mention it!
17. Lucy is asking for permission to play the guitar at Pete’s home.
- Lucy: “Is it all right if I play the guitar in here while you’re studying?”.
- Pete: “______”.
A. Oh, I wish you wouldn’t. B. Well, I’d rather not.
C. Well, actually, I’d prefer it if you didn’t. D. Well, if only you didn’t.
18. Mr Smith is having lunch in a restaurant.
- Mr. Smith: "Could you bring me some water?" - Waiter: "_________."
A. No, thanks. B. Of course you can.
C. I'm afraid not. D. Certainly, sir.
19. Mary and John are talking about John's new house.
- Mary: "What a lovely house you have" - John: "_________."
A. Thanks. Hope you will drop in. B. I think so.
C. No problem. D. Of course, thanks.
20. Lucy is asking for permission to play the guitar at Pete’s home.
- Lucy: “Is it all right if I play the guitar in here while you’re studying?”. - Pete: “______”.
A. Oh, I wish you wouldn’t. B. Well, I’d rather not.
C. Well, actually, I’d prefer it if you didn’t. D. Well, if only you didn’t.
2
PART 3: SYNONYM AND ANTONYM (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)

Task 1. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following sentences.
21. Thanks to the invention of microscope, biologists can now gain insights into the nature of the
human cell.
A. deep understanding B. far-sighted views C. spectacular sightings D. in-depth studies
22. Laws on military service since 1960 still hold good.
A. remains for good B. is still in good condition
C. stands in life D. remains in effect
23. In rural Midwestern towns of the USA, the decisions that affect most residents are made at
general assemblies in schools and churches.
A. concerts B. public libraries C. gatherings D. prayer services
Task 2. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following sentences.
24. Nutritionists believe that vitamins circumvent diseases.
A. defeat B. nourish C. help D. treat
25. The young are now far more materialistic than their precedents years ago.
A. monetary B. greedy C. spiritual D. object - oriented
PART 4: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (2.0 pts - 0.1/ each)
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following sentences.
26. The doctor _______ the cut on my knee and said it had completely healed up.
A. examined B. investigated C. researched D. looked into
27. The school was closed for a month because of serious _______ of fever.
A. outcome B. outburst C. outset D. outbreak
28. I agree with most of what you said, but I can't _______ your idea of letting children leave school
at the age of 14.
A. go along with B. put up with C. keep up with D. come up with
29. The climate of China is similar in many ways to _______.
A. which of the United States B. that of the United states
C. the United States D. this of the United States
30. He soon received promotion, for his superior realized that he was a man of considerable _______.
3
A. opportunity B. ability C. possibility D. future

31. These old houses are going to be _______ soon.
A. run down B. knocked out C. pulled down D. laid out
32. The stolen jewels were _______ a lot of money.
A. worth B. priced C. valued D. cost
33. Whether you stay or leave is a matter of total _______to me.
A. disinterest B. importance C. indifference D. interest
34. I’m terribly sorry! I didn’t break that vase on _______.
A. my mind B. time C. purpose D. intention
35. Bill Gates is probably the best known and most successful _______in computer software.
A. pioneer B. navigator C. generator D. volunteer
36. We don’t sell foreign newspapers because there is no _______for them.
A. request B. claim C. requirement D. demand
37. One wonders whether the current political _______ is right for such a move.
A. environment B. climate C. state D. standpoint
38. She _______ modern art. She visits all the local exhibitions.
A. looks down on B. goes in for C. fixes up with D. comes up against
39. The judge _______ the murderer to a lifetime imprisonment.
A. accused B. convicted C. sentenced D. prosecuted
40. She got up early; otherwise she ________ her bus.
A. would have missed B. would miss C. missed D. had missed
41. She believes that all countries should _______ the death penalty as it is inhumane.
A. put down to B. catch up on C. get down to D. do away with
42. What an excellent student she is! She almost has no _________ the exercise.
A. difficult to finish B. difficulty to finish C. difficulty in finishing D. difficult finishing
43. Henry was overweight, so he went on s strict diet and _________ twenty kilos.
A. missed B. lost C. failed D. fell
44. Staying in a hotel costs ______ renting a room in a dormitory for a week.
A. twice as much as B. as much as twice C. twice more than D. twice as
45. In spite of his abilities, Peter has been ______ overlooked for promotion.
A. repeat B. repeatedly C. repetitiveness D. repetitive
4
II. TỰ LUẬN KIẾN THỨC NGÔN NGỮ (1,5 điểm)

PART 1: WORD FORM (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)
Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the following sentences.
46. I hadn't been to the city for 20 years and it was almost …………………………..………... recognize
47. His boss told him off because he had behaved ……………………….……………... responsible
48. They all cheered ……………………….……………..as their team came out. enthusiasm
49. Jim is one of the most ……………………….……………..members of the committee. speak
50. The damage caused by the terrible storm two days ago was ………………………….…. estimate
by the government. The real figures go up every minute.
51. We always have a bed ready in the spare room in case visitors expect
arrive ……………………….……………...
52. ……………….……..energy sources such as wind and wave power are pollution-free. new
53. Barbara is very ……………………….………..about birds. She knows a lot about them. know
54. She is one of the greatest ……………………….……………..to appear in this theatre. perform
55. I’m sorry for my ……………………….……………..but I hate being kept waiting. patient
PART 2: ERROR CORRECTION (0.5 pts – 0.1/ each)
There are 05 errors in the following passage. Identify the errors, write the line number and
correct them. Write your answers in the numbered spaces below. Number (00.) is done as an
example.
Line Passage
1 The other day, when I was in London, I ran out an old friend of mine who had
2 been at university with me. Although we hadn’t seen each other since ages and had lost
3 touch, it was just like old times, and he told me all his news. He moved to London after
4 leaving university, and started to train as a accountant. He left after a few months
5 because he didn’t find it very interesting, and he didn’t feel like spending the rest of his
6 life in an office. His parents were very helpful – they didn’t try to make him carrying on
7 training as a chartered accountant, and said they would continue to support him though
8 the fact that he didn’t have a job to go to. He soon found work doing what he really
9 wanted – writing for a TV show. After the first series, the producer let him have his own
10 TV show even though he was relative young, and it turned out to be a great success.
5
Line Error Correction

00. out  into
56. 
57. 
58. 
59. 
60. 
PART 3: PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)
Supply each space with a suitable preposition or adverbial particle to complete each of the
following sentences.
61. Tom was absent four days at school last month because his grandmother passed ………………….
62. I’ll see you ………………… tomorrow, so I can drive you to the airport.
63. I am too young to settle …………………. I want to travel around the world before I get married.
64. I bought this skirt without trying it …………………. I hope it's OK.
65. Fortunately, Marie getting ………………… with her new co-workers.
66. I really need to go on a diet. I put ………………… weight over the holidays.
67. I just needed a bit of time to think it ………………… before I told him what I had decided.
68. I need to get a new passport. It runs ………………… next month.
69. When I went to the bank to ask for a loan, I had to fill ………………… hundreds of forms.
70. You have to face ………………… your problems rather than avoid them.
KỸ NĂNG NGÔN NGỮ
PART 1: READING (2 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: GUIDED CLOZE TEST
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits each blank in the following passage.
Men are lazy in the home, according to an official survey (71) _______ today. They have about
six hours' a week more free time than wives, but play a very little (72) _______ in cooking, cleaning,
washing, and ironing, according to the Social Trends Survey by the Central (73) _______ Office.
Nearly three quarters of married women (74) _______ to do all or most of the housework, and
among married men the proportion who admitted that their wives did all or most of the housework
was only slightly lower. The survey (75) _______ that washing and ironing was the least popular
task among men, with only one per cent (76) _______ this duty, compared with 89 per cent of
6
women, and 10 per cent sharing equally.Only 5 per cent of men (77) _______ the evening meal, 3
percent carry out household cleaning duties, 5 per cent do household shopping, and 17 per cent wash
the evening dishes.
But when household gadgets break down, (78) _______ are carried out by 82 per cent of
husbands. The survey says that, despite our economic problems, the majority of Britons are
substantially better (79) _______ than a decade ago. We're healthier, too - eating healthier foods and
smoking less.The (80) _______ Briton, not surprisingly, is more widely-traveled than a decade ago.
More people are going abroad for holidays, with Spain the favorite destination.
71. A. furnished B. emerged C. published D. edited
72. A. work B. role C. section D. part
73. A. Statistical B. Cardinal C. Ordinal D. Numerical
74. A. emitted B. pronounced C. claimed D. uttered
75. A. pointed B. evolved C. planned D. showed
76. A. burdening B. forming C. performing D. formulating
77. A. prepare B. undertake C. process D. fit
78. A. fittings B. fixings C. amendments D. repairs
79. A. on B. through C. over D. off
80. A. medium B. average C. popular D. normal
Task 2: READING COMPREHENSION
Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question below.
A useful definition of an air pollutant is a compound added directly or indirectly by humans
to the atmosphere in such quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials adversely.
Air pollution requires a very flexible definition that permits continuous change. When the first air
pollution laws were established in England in the fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to
compounds that could be seen or smelled-a far cry from the extensive list of harmful substances
known today. As technology has developed and knowledge of the health aspects of various
chemicals has increased, the list of air pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even water vapor
might be considered an air pollutant under certain conditions.
Many of the more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and
nitrogen oxides, are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentrations of these pollutants
were altered by various chemical reactions; they became components in biogeochemical cycles.
7
These serve as an air purification scheme by allowing the compounds to move from the air to the
water or soil. On a global basis, nature's output of these compounds dwarfs that resulting from
human activities. However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city.
In this localized region, human output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the
natural purification scheme of the cycles. The result is an increased concentration of noxious
chemicals in the air. The concentrations at which the adverse effects appear will be greater than the
concentrations that the pollutants would have in the absence of human activities. The actual
concentration need not be large for a substance to be a pollutant; in fact the numerical value tells us
little until we know how much of an increase this represents over the concentration that would occur
naturally in the area. For example, sulfur dioxide has detectable health effects at 0.08 parts per
million (ppm), which is about 400 times its natural level. Carbon monoxide, however, has a natural
level of 0.1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about 15 ppm.
A. The economic impact of air pollution B. What constitutes an air pollutant
C. How much harm air pollutants can cause D. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere
82. The word "adversely" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. negatively B. quickly C. admittedly D. considerably
83. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that ________.
A. water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas
B. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled
C. the definition of air pollution will continue to change
D. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities
84. The word "altered" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. eliminated B. caused C. slowed D. changed
85. Natural pollutants can play an important role in controlling air pollution for which of the
following reasons?
A. They function as part of a purification process.
B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants.
C. They are less harmful to living beings than are other pollutants.
D. They have existed since the Earth developed.
8
86. According to the passage, which of the following is true about human generated air pollution in
localized regions?
A. It can be dwarfed by nature's output of pollutants in the localized region.
B. It can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants.
C. It will damage areas outside of the localized regions.
D. It will react harmfully with naturally occurring pollutants.
87. The word "noxious" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. harmful B. noticeable C. extensive D. weak
88. According to the passage, the numerical value of the concentration level of a substance is only
useful if ________.
A. the other substances in the area are known
B. it is in a localized area
C. the naturally occurring level is also known
D. it can be calculated quickly
89. The word "detectable" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. beneficial B. special C. measurable D. separable
90. Which of the following is best supported by the passage?
A. To effectively control pollution, local government should regularly review their air pollution laws.
B. One of the most important steps in preserving natural lands is to better enforce air pollution laws.
C. Scientists should be consulted in order to establish uniform limits for all air pollutants.
D. Human activities have been effective in reducing air pollution.
PART 2: WRITING (2 pts)
Task 1: SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (1.0 pt – 0.2/ each)
Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that their meanings remain unchanged,
using the words given.
 At the foot ........................................................................................................................................................................................................................
92.While I strongly disapprove of your behaviour, I will help you this time.
 Despite my ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................
93. If I were you, I wouldn't take too many classes this semester. (shoes)
 .....................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
9
94. It was easy for us to get tickets for the concert. (no)
 ....................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
95. “Why can’t you do your work more carefully?” Helen’s boss said to her. (for)
 .....................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
VII. WRITING (1 pt)
In about 100- 150 words, write a paragraph about the disadvantages of television
10
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HÀ NỘI ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TRƯỜNG
TRƯỜNG THPT LƯU HOÀNG NĂM HỌC 2018 – 2019
Môn thi:Tiếng Anh - Lớp: 10
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề)
Section A: Phonetic (2 marks )

I: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
2. A. approach B. children C. chocolate D. stomach
3. A. recognised B. stringed C. conquered D. watched
1 2 3 4
II: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
1. A. ensuring B. protecting C. providing D. widening
2. A. physically B. equality C. remarkably D. discriminate
3. A. enrol B. rural C. allow D. prefer
4. A. introduce B. stimulate C. recognize D. emphasize
1 2 3 4
Section B: Vocabulary, Grammar and structure (9 marks)
I: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
1. Wedding ceremonies are ____ now than they used to be in the past.
A. less complicated B. the most complicated
C. as complicated D. the least complicated
2. We were lost in the forest, ____ luckily my friend had a map in his backpack.
A. and B. so C. for D. but
3. In towns please drive slowly! You ...... drive faster than 50 kph.
A. don't have to B. mustn't C. mayn’t D. needn’t
4. Although I have taken some aspirin, theheadache ________ away.
A. isn‘t going B. isn’t going to C. not go D. won’t go
5. Mahatma Gandhi fought for the rights of coloured people in general and the Indians ____.
A. in time B. in particular C. in contrast D. in fact
6. My report.................... when my boss ____ the hall.
A. was made - was entering B. made - entered
C. was being made - was entering D. was being made - entered
7. “Thank you very much for helping the disadvantaged children here!” - “____”
A. What a pity! B. It’s our pleasure.
C. Sorry, we don’t know. D. That's nice of you!
8. John made me ____ a lot with his hilarious jokes.
A. laughing B. to laugh C. laugh D. laughed
9. This concert marks nine years since the death of Trinh Cong Son, a prominent ____ of
modern Vietnamese music.
A. comedian B. actor C. contributor D. figure
10. To Hoa, her father is the greatest person in the world and he always sets a good ____ for
her.
A. role B. behavior C. example D. action
11. After marriage, Mrs. Hoa always keeps good ____ with her mother-in-law.
A. association B. relation C. friendship D. relationship
12. It’s not too late to ____ your bad habits (smoking, drinking, overeating, etc.) and
immediately start living a happier, healthier life.
A. get rid B. give on C. kick D. remember
13. “Do you mind if I have a look at your project on community development?" – “____”
A. No, not at all. B. Yes, it's a good project.
C. Yes, you're welcome. D. As quickly as possible.
14. You can get access ____ the Interne, via a range of devices such as desktop or laptop
computers, mobile phones, and tablets.
A. for B. in C. of D. to
15. My computer is used for ____ music and video.
A. having played B. play C. playing D. to play
16. Poor women in disadvantaged areas should ____ more help by governments.
A. offer B. be offered C. be offering D. offered
1 2 3 4
5 6 7 8
9 10 11 12
13 14 15 16
II: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
1. Measles are an infectious disease that causes fever and small red spots.
A B C D
2. Mahatma Gandhi fought against the rights of poor people and women in India and became a
A B C
hero for millions of people.
D
3. Rosy said that she will come back there on another project the following year.
A B C D
4. Harry offered lending a hand with keeping the school environment clean.
A B C D
1 2 3 4
III: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
1. When collapsing the wings, a flying car is just a little bit bigger than a normal car.
A. dropping B. fixing C. folding D. opening
2. This game show has attracted many participants since it was aired in 2015.
A. breathed B. impacted C. introduced D. broadcasted
1 2
IV: Mark the letter A. B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
1. A smartphone is too costly for him to even have a normal on
A. economical B. expensive C. priceless D. valuable
2. Stores everywhere compete to sell their distinctive versions of Christmas cake before the
holiday.
A. different B. various C. similar D special
1 2
V: Give the correct form of the words in brackets:
1,The practice of acupunture involves placing hair-thin needles in ................ pressure points
throughout the body ( vary )
2, After he had flirted her for a long time, they ...................fell in love ( gradual )
3. Exercising regularly is a powerful weapon to enhance .............. well-being ( psychology )
4. People who volunteer in their community have a personal ............. to the area (attach)
5. Mother Teresa was said to be one of the most ...................personalities of the twentieth
century ( influence )
6. Traffic ..................... has been considered one of the most serious and urgent problems of
our country ( congest )
7. The petrol .................. of this type of motorbike is estimated approximately 2 litres per 100
km ( consume )
8. My uncle is very ...........about rhinos. He has studied about them for a long time (
knowledge )
1, 2, 3, 4,
5, 6, 7, 8,
VI. Fill in each of the blanks with ONE suitable preposition.
1, Damage to the building resulted ………….. an unusually highwind.
2, Before going…………..details tell me what it isabout.
3, She applied for training as a pilot, but they turned her ………. because of her poor eyesight.
4, There was a huge decline _______ the number of tigers.
1, 2, 3, 4.
Section C: Reading (5 marks)
I: Choose the best answer from the four options to complete each of the numbered
blanks in the following passage. Write your answer in the right box below.
HOW TRANSPORTATION AFFECTS OUR LIFE?
Without transportation, our modern society could not (1) ______. We would have no
metal, no coal and no oil nor would we have any (2) ______ made from these materials. (3)
______ we would have to spend most of our time (4) ______ food and food would be (5)
______ to the kinds that could grow in the climate and soil of our
neighborhood.Transportation also (6) ______ our lives in other ways. Transportation can
speed a doctor to the side of a sick person, even if the patients’ lives on an isolated farm. It can
take police to the (7) ______ of a crime within a moments of being noticed. Transportation (8)
______ teams of athletes to compete in national and international sports contests. In time of
disasters transportation can rush aid to persons in areas stricken by floods, families and
earthquakes.
1: A. establish B. exist C. take place D. happen
2: A. producers B. production C. products D. productivity
3: A. Even B. Besides C. Although D. However
4: A. rising B. taking C. buying D. raising
5: A. connected B. focused C. limited D. relate
6: A. influences B. makes C. affects D. effects
7: A. scene B. place C. location D. site
8: A. brings B. fetches C. enables D. gets
1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7. 8.
II: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Fog is a cloud in contact with or just above the surface of land or sea. It can be a major
environmental hazard. Fog on highways can cause chain-reaction accidents involving dozens
of cars. Delays and shutdowns at airports can cause economic losses to airlines and
inconveniences to thousands of travelers. Fog at sea has always been a danger to navigation.
Today, with supertankers carrying vast quantities of oil, fog increases the possibility of
catastrophic oil spills.
The most common type of fog, radiation fog, forms at night, when moist air near the ground
loses warmth through radiation on a clear night. This type of fog often occurs in valleys, such
as California's San Joaquin Valley. Another common type, advection fog, results from the
movement of warm, wet air over cold ground. The air loses temperature to the ground and
condensation sets in. This type of fog often occurs along the California coast and the shores of
the Great Lakes. Advection fog also forms when air associated with a warm ocean current
blows across the surface of a cold current. The thick fogs of the Grand Banks of
Newfoundland, Canada, are largely of this origin; because here the Labrador Current comes in
contact with the warm Gulf Stream. Two other types of fog are somewhat more unusual.
Frontal fog occurs when two fronts of different temperatures meet, and rain from the warm
front falls into the colder one, saturating the air. Steam fog appears when cold air picks up
moisture by moving other warmer water.
1:The first paragraph focuses on which aspect of fog?
A. its composition B. its dangers C. its causes D. its beauty
2:The word "catastrophic' is closest in meaning to______.
A. inevitable B. accidental C. unexpected D. disastrous
3:According to the article, fog that occurs along the California coast is generally______.
A. frontal fog B. radiation fog C. steam fog D. advection fog
4:It can be inferred from the passage that the Labrador Current is______.
A. cold B. polluted C. weak D. warm
5: The author of the passage is probably an expert in the field of______.
A. transportation B. physics C. meteorology D. economics
6: According to the article, fog that forms through radiation process of moist air is generally
______.
A. steam fog B. frontal fog C. advection fog D. radiation fog
7: Which is NOT true of the frontal fog?
A. The warm front has rain falling into the colder front.
B. The air is soaked.
C. It forms when two fronts of different temperatures meet.
D. It is quite common.
8: Which of the following is NOT caused by fog?
A. Shutdowns at airports. B. Temperature losses.
C. Tankers’ crash. D. Pile-up accidents.
1: 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7. 8.
III. Choose the most suitable heading from the box for each paragraph below. There is
ONE EXTRA heading that you DO NOT need to use (1 m).
HEADINGS
A. The amount that American eat
B. Americans even getting fatter
C. Changing meal times everywhere
D. Why Americans love fast food
E. How American schools deal with obesity among teenagers
1: ______
In the past year, the adult obesity rate rose in 48 of America’s 52 states. Despite the
campaigns to make people aware of the dangers of over-eating, about 119 million, or 64% of
US adults are either overweight or obese. Worryingly, this figure is predicted to rise to 73% by
the end of this year. What does this mean for America? Already 300,000 deaths each year are
caused by obesity (only smoke kills more people), and the annual cost to the country is around
$100 billion.
2: ______
Many people blame for the fast food industry, along with sedentary life styles, for the
worrying increase. The average American now consumes about three hamburgers and four
portions of French fries every week. That’s 90 grams of fat and 2.250 calories (the average
person needs about 2.000 calories a day). A recent survey found that every month 90% of
America children eat at least one meal in fast food restaurant.
3: ______
Most Americans know that fast food isn’t good for them. It is high in calories, fat, salt
and sugar. Yet fast-food restaurants are part of American life. After World War II, higher
salaries and productivity, together with technological developments and increased
consumerism, made fast food restaurants popular. It presented a modern lifestyle, and is still a
popular place for teenagers to get together with friends. The food is cheap, and many say they
love the taste. The advertising is often aimed at children, with offers of entertainment and free
gifts.
4: ______
Another in fast food sales – not only in the USA, but all over the world – is our
increasingly busy lifestyles. In the past, families ate a home-cooked meal together at dinner
time. These days, meals can be eaten at any hour of the day, and people rely on easy, instant
food – not always nutritious – that is available “24/7”. America invented the “TV dinner”, and
it is something most people around the world now enjoy.
1. 2. 3. 4.
Section D: Writing (4 marks )
I) Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means the same meaning as the
sentence printed before it. ( 2marks )
1. They regret ever doing business with him.
→ They wish ........................................................................................
2. He didn't study his lessons very carefully, so he gets bad marks now.
→If he.................................................................................................................
3. Although Judy was severely disabled, she took part in many sports
→ Despite .........................................................................................................
4. The film was so interesting that I couldn’t go to bed.
→ It was ...............................................................................................................
5, “You should take more exercise if you want to lose weight.” the doctor said to me
→ The doctor advised ..................................................................................
6, Everyone is going to reconsider the decision next week.
→ The decision is ...................................................................................................
7, I last had my hair cut when I left her.
→I haven’t ................................................................................................................
8. “Why didn’t you go to the club last nigh?” the girl said to Jim.
→ The girl asked .....................................................................................................
II) Rewrite the following sentences using the words given so that it means exactly the
same as the first sentence. (2 marks )
1. The owners of the restaurants are usually very rich. Who
→...................................................................................
2. I’d prefer you not to drink tea at night. Rather
→ ...................................................................................
3, I only recognized him when he took off his hat. Not until
→ ......................................................................................
4, You needn’t hurry. There’s still much time left. Necessary
→........................................................................................
----------HẾT----------
Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm!
Họ và tên thí sinh: ...................................... Số báo danh: ................
Chữ ký giám thị coi thi số 1: Chữ ký giám thị coi thi số 2:
Đáp án
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HÀ NỘI ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TRƯỜNG
TRƯỜNG THPT LƯU HOÀNG NĂM HỌC 2018 – 2019
Môn thi:Tiếng Anh - Lớp: 10
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề)
Section A: Phonetic (2 marks )

I: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
2. A. approach B. children C. chocolate D. stomach
3. A. recognised B. stringed C. conquered D. watched
1 2 3 4
II: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
1. A. ensuring B. protecting C. providing D. widening
2. A. physically B. equality C. remarkably D. discriminate
3. A. enrol B. rural C. allow D. prefer
4. A. introduce B. stimulate C. recognize D. emphasize
1 2 3 4
Section B: Vocabulary, Grammar and structure (9 marks)
I: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
1. Wedding ceremonies are ____ now than they used to be in the past.
A. less complicated B. the most complicated
C. as complicated D. the least complicated
2. We were lost in the forest, ____ luckily my friend had a map in his backpack.
A. and B. so C. for D. but
3. In towns please drive slowly! You ...... drive faster than 50 kph.
A. don't have to B. mustn't C. mayn’t D. needn’t
4. Although I have taken some aspirin, theheadache ________ away.
A. isn‘t going B. isn’t going to C. not go D. won’t go
5. Mahatma Gandhi fought for the rights of coloured people in general and the Indians ____.
A. in time B. in particular C. in contrast D. in fact
6. My report.................... when my boss ____ the hall.
A. was made - was entering B. made - entered
C. was being made - was entering D. was being made - entered
7. “Thank you very much for helping the disadvantaged children here!” - “____”
A. What a pity! B. It’s our pleasure.
C. Sorry, we don’t know. D. That's nice of you!
8. John made me ____ a lot with his hilarious jokes.
A. laughing B. to laugh C. laugh D. laughed
9. This concert marks nine years since the death of Trinh Cong Son, a prominent ____ of
modern Vietnamese music.
A. comedian B. actor C. contributor D. figure
10. To Hoa, her father is the greatest person in the world and he always sets a good ____ for
her.
A. role B. behavior C. example D. action
11. After marriage, Mrs. Hoa always keeps good ____ with her mother-in-law.
A. association B. relation C. friendship D. relationship
12. It’s not too late to ____ your bad habits (smoking, drinking, overeating, etc.) and
immediately start living a happier, healthier life.
A. get rid B. give on C. kick D. remember
13. “Do you mind if I have a look at your project on community development?" – “____”
A. No, not at all. B. Yes, it's a good project.
C. Yes, you're welcome. D. As quickly as possible.
14. You can get access ____ the Interne, via a range of devices such as desktop or laptop
computers, mobile phones, and tablets.
A. for B. in C. of D. to
15. My computer is used for ____ music and video.
A. having played B. play C. playing D. to play
16. Poor women in disadvantaged areas should ____ more help by governments.
A. offer B. be offered C. be offering D. offered
1 2 3 4
5 6 7 8
9 10 11 12
13 14 15 16
II: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
1. Measles are an infectious disease that causes fever and small red spots.
A B C D
2. Mahatma Gandhi fought against the rights of poor people and women in India and became a
A B C
hero for millions of people.
D
3. Rosy said that she will come back there on another project the following year.
A B C D
4. Harry offered lending a hand with keeping the school environment clean.
A B C D
1 2 3 4
III: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
1. When collapsing the wings, a flying car is just a little bit bigger than a normal car.
A. dropping B. fixing C. folding D. opening
2. This game show has attracted many participants since it was aired in 2015.
A. breathed B. impacted C. introduced D. broadcasted
1 2
IV: Mark the letter A. B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
1. A smartphone is too costly for him to even have a normal one.
A. economical B. expensive C. priceless D. valuable
2. Stores everywhere compete to sell their distinctive versions of Christmas cake before the
holiday.
A. different B. various C. similar D special
1 2
V: Give the correct form of the words in brackets:
1,The practice of acupunture involves placing hair-thin needles in ................ pressure points
throughout the body ( vary )
2, After he had flirted her for a long time, they ...................fell in love ( gradual )
3. Exercising regularly is a powerful weapon to enhance .............. well-being ( psychology )
4. People who volunteer in their community have a personal ............. to the area (attach)
5. Mother Teresa was said to be one of the most ...................personalities of the twentieth
century ( influence )
6. Traffic ..................... has been considered one of the most serious and urgent problems of
our country ( congest )
7. The petrol .................. of this type of motorbike is estimated approximately 2 litres per 100
km ( consume )
8. My uncle is very ...........about rhinos. He has studied about them for a long time (
knowledge )
1 , various 2, gradually 3, Psychological 4, attachment
5, influential 6,congestion 7, consumption 8, knowledgeable
VI. Fill in each of the blanks with ONE suitable preposition.
1, Damage to the building resulted ………….. an unusually highwind.
2, Before going…………..details tell me what it isabout.
3, She applied for training as a pilot, but they turned her ………. because of her poor eyesight.
4, There was a huge decline _______ the number of tigers.
1, from 2, into 3, down 4. in
Section C: Reading (5 marks)
I: Choose the best answer from the four options to complete each of the numbered blanks in
the following passage. Write your answer in the right box below.
HOW TRANSPORTATION AFFECTS OUR LIFE?
Without transportation, our modern society could not (1) ______. We would have no
metal, no coal and no oil nor would we have any (2) ______ made from these materials. (3)
______ we would have to spend most of our time (4) ______ food and food would be (5)
______ to the kinds that could grow in the climate and soil of our
neighborhood.Transportation also (6) ______ our lives in other ways. Transportation can
speed a doctor to the side of a sick person, even if the patients’ lives on an isolated farm. It can
take police to the (7) ______ of a crime within a moments of being noticed. Transportation (8)
______ teams of athletes to compete in national and international sports contests. In time of
disasters transportation can rush aid to persons in areas stricken by floods, families and
earthquakes.
1: A. establish B. exist C. take place D. happen
2: A. producers B. production C. products D. productivity
3: A. Even B. Besides C. Although D. However
4: A. rising B. taking C. buying D. raising
5: A. connected B. focused C. limited D. relate
6: A. influences B. makes C. affects D. effects
7: A. scene B. place C. location D. site
8: A. brings B. fetches C. enables D. gets
1B 2C 3B 4D
5C 6C 7A 8C
II: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Fog is a cloud in contact with or just above the surface of land or sea. It can be a major
environmental hazard. Fog on highways can cause chain-reaction accidents involving dozens
of cars. Delays and shutdowns at airports can cause economic losses to airlines and
inconveniences to thousands of travelers. Fog at sea has always been a danger to navigation.
Today, with supertankers carrying vast quantities of oil, fog increases the possibility of
catastrophic oil spills.
The most common type of fog, radiation fog, forms at night, when moist air near the ground
loses warmth through radiation on a clear night. This type of fog often occurs in valleys, such
as California's San Joaquin Valley. Another common type, advection fog, results from the
movement of warm, wet air over cold ground. The air loses temperature to the ground and
condensation sets in. This type of fog often occurs along the California coast and the shores of
the Great Lakes. Advection fog also forms when air associated with a warm ocean current
blows across the surface of a cold current. The thick fogs of the Grand Banks of
Newfoundland, Canada, are largely of this origin; because here the Labrador Current comes in
contact with the warm Gulf Stream. Two other types of fog are somewhat more unusual.
Frontal fog occurs when two fronts of different temperatures meet, and rain from the warm
front falls into the colder one, saturating the air. Steam fog appears when cold air picks up
moisture by moving other warmer water.
1:The first paragraph focuses on which aspect of fog?
A. its composition B. its dangers C. its causes D. its beauty
2:The word "catastrophic' is closest in meaning to______.
A. inevitable B. accidental C. unexpected D. disastrous
3:According to the article, fog that occurs along the California coast is generally______.
A. frontal fog B. radiation fog C. steam fog D. advection fog
4:It can be inferred from the passage that the Labrador Current is______.
A. cold B. polluted C. weak D. warm
5: The author of the passage is probably an expert in the field of______.
A. transportation B. physics C. meteorology D. economics
6: According to the article, fog that forms through radiation process of moist air is generally
______.
A. steam fog B. frontal fog C. advection fog D. radiation fog
7: Which is NOT true of the frontal fog?
A. The warm front has rain falling into the colder front.
B. The air is soaked.
C. It forms when two fronts of different temperatures meet.
D. It is quite common.
8: Which of the following is NOT caused by fog?
A. Shutdowns at airports. B. Temperature losses.
C. Tankers’ crash. D. Pile-up accidents.
1: B 2. D 3.D 4. A
5. C 6. D 7. D 8.B
III. Choose the most suitable heading from the box for each paragraph below. There is
ONE EXTRA heading that you DO NOT need to use (1 m).
HEADINGS
A. The amount that American eat
B. Americans even getting fatter
C. Changing meal times everywhere
D. Why Americans love fast food
E. How American schools deal with obesity among teenagers
1: ______
In the past year, the adult obesity rate rose in 48 of America’s 52 states. Despite the
campaigns to make people aware of the dangers of over-eating, about 119 million, or 64% of
US adults are either overweight or obese. Worryingly, this figure is predicted to rise to 73% by
the end of this year. What does this mean for America? Already 300,000 deaths each year are
caused by obesity (only smoke kills more people), and the annual cost to the country is around
$100 billion.
2: ______
Many people blame for the fast food industry, along with sedentary life styles, for the
worrying increase. The average American now consumes about three hamburgers and four
portions of French fries every week. That’s 90 grams of fat and 2.250 calories (the average
person needs about 2.000 calories a day). A recent survey found that every month 90% of
America children eat at least one meal in fast food restaurant.
3: ______
Most Americans know that fast food isn’t good for them. It is high in calories, fat, salt
and sugar. Yet fast-food restaurants are part of American life. After World War II, higher
salaries and productivity, together with technological developments and increased
consumerism, made fast food restaurants popular. It presented a modern lifestyle, and is still a
popular place for teenagers to get together with friends. The food is cheap, and many say they
love the taste. The advertising is often aimed at children, with offers of entertainment and free
gifts.
4: ______
Another in fast food sales – not only in the USA, but all over the world – is our
increasingly busy lifestyles. In the past, families ate a home-cooked meal together at dinner
time. These days, meals can be eaten at any hour of the day, and people rely on easy, instant
food – not always nutritious – that is available “24/7”. America invented the “TV dinner”, and
it is something most people around the world now enjoy.
1. B 2. A 3. D 4. C
Section D: Writing (4 marks )
I) Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means the same meaning as the
sentence printed before it. ( 2marks )
1. They regret ever doing business with him.
→ They wish they had never done business with him
2. He didn't study his lessons very carefully, so he gets bad marks now.
→If If he had studied his lessons very carefully, he wouldn’t get bad marks now.
3. Although Judy was severely disabled, she took part in many sports
→ Despite her severe disability, Judy took part in many sports./ Despite her being severely
disabled, Judy took part in many sports./
4. The film was so interesting that I couldn’t go to bed.
→ It was such an interesting film that I couldn’t go to bed.
5, “You should take more exercise if you want to lose weight.” the doctor said to me
→ The doctor advised me to take more exercise if I wanted to lose weight
6, Everyone is going to reconsider the decision next week.
→ The decision is going to be reconsidered next week.
7, I last had my hair cut when I left her.
→I haven’t had my hair cut since I left her.
8. “Why didn’t you go to the club last nigh?” the girl said to Jim.
→ The girl asked Jim why he hadn’t gone to the club the night before/ the previous night.
II) Rewrite the following sentences using the words given so that it means exactly the same
as the first sentence. (2 marks )
1. The owners of the restaurants are usually very rich. Who
→ The people who own the restaurants are usually very rich.
2. I’d prefer you not to drink tea at night. Rather
→ I’d rather you didn’t drink tea at night.
3, I only recognized him when he took off his hat. Not until
→ Not until he took off his hat did I recognize him
4, You needn’t hurry. There’s still much time left. Necessary
→ It isn’t necessary for you to hurry. There’s still much time left.
----------HẾT----------
Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm!
Họ và tên thí sinh: ...................................... Số báo danh: ................
Chữ ký giám thị coi thi số 1: Chữ ký giám thị coi thi số 2:

Bản sao của P2 Tuyen tap de HSg anh Van 10

Uploaded by

Document Informationclick to expand document information

Document Informationclick to expand document information

Copyright:

Available Formats

Bản sao của P2 Tuyen tap de HSg anh Van 10

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Bản sao của P2 Tuyen tap de HSg anh Van 10

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO PHÚ YÊN ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TRƯỜNG

TRƯỜNG THPT NGÔ GIA TỰ LỚP 11 THPT - NĂM HỌC 2019-2020

Lưu ý: Đề thi có 06 trang. Thí sinh làm bài trên đề thi

At the show, you can:

ANSWERS: 0. win  won

III. Fill in the gap with ONE suitable word (2 points )

II. Writing: (3 points )

II. (2points) (0,4p /1 sentence)

VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

II. Writing: (3 points )

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 10

MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2019 - 2020

A. LISTENING (15 points)

13. It would be 385 pounds for them to visit Portugal.

C. In order pass this test D. So that to pass this test

73. The word “Nevertheless” in line 21 is closest meaning to

86. Unfortunately you/ not available/ that day/ I/ write instead.

82. I bought the hair drier(0.5) on Wednesday, November 22 nd .(0.5)

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 10

MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2019 - 2020

B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR: ( 6 ms)

b. The Camp is quite far from the Aegean Sea

9. a. outskirt b. top c. side d. edge

7. The cinema didn’t become an industry until 1915

III. 2 điểm ( mỗi thì chia đúng được 0.25 đ)

Chú ý: Thí sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy thi

A. They were preserved. B. They were sold.

C. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS

A. wiped out B. destroyed C. demolished D. attacked

64. A. chat B. debate C. broadcast D. lecture

SỞ GD&ĐT HẢI DƯƠNG ĐÁP ÁN - BIỂU ĐIỂM

C. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS

II. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer

III. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer

II. (10 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer

II. (10 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer

Part II: (10 points):

Part III: (10.0 points)

9. It’s no use …………. a language if you don’t try to speak it

Part I: Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D.

1. What is the main topic of the passage?

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

Section C: Writing (25 điểm)

SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (16 POINTS)

Trang 1/8 - Mã đề thi 135

Question13: In most ………. developed countries, up to 50% of ……..population enters higher

Trang 2/8 - Mã đề thi 135

Trang 3/8 - Mã đề thi 135

C. the growing number of schools in frontier communities

Trang 4/8 - Mã đề thi 135

Trang 5/8 - Mã đề thi 135

Trang 6/8 - Mã đề thi 135

Trang 7/8 - Mã đề thi 135

Question 62 : According to Clement Clark Moore’s poem

Trang 8/8 - Mã đề thi 135

ĐIỂM GIÁM KHẢO SỐ 1 GIÁM KHẢO SỐ 2 SỐ PHÁCH

Question 5-10: Fill in the gaps numbered 5-10:

PART B : PHONETICS ( 5pts )