Minor Test (XI-NEET)

th
12 Minor Test
(XI-NEET)
1st & 2nd Batch
Test Date: 19/01/2024 Max. Marks: 720

TEST INSTRUCTIONS
1. This test will be a 3 hours Test.
2. This test consists of Physics, Chemistry, Biology
3. Each questions is of 4 marks.
4. There are 3 parts in this paper. Part 1 (Physics) has 35 questions in section I and 15
Questions in Section-II. Part 2 (Chemistry) has 35 Questions in Section-I and 15 Questions in
Section-II and Part-3 (Biology) has 100 Questions, 70 questions in Section-I and 30 in
Section-II.
In Part 1 and 2, Section-II has 15 multiple Choice Questions of which candidate can choose
to attempt any 10 Questions.
In Part 3, Section-II has 30 questions of which the candidate can choose to attempt any 20
questions.
5. There will be only one correct choice in the given four choices for each question. For each
question 4 marks will be awarded for correct choice, 1 mark will be deducted for incorrect
choice and zero mark will be awarded for unattempted question.
6. Any textual, printed or written material, mobile phones, calculator etc. is not allowed for the
students appearing for the test.
7. All calculations/written work should be done in the rough sheet provided.

Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letter): ________________________________________________________

Registration No. ______________________________

_____________________
Invigilator Signature

L-1 Coaching Brahmanand Colony, Durgakund, Varanasi; 7525002100 (1)

Minor Test (XI-NEET)

PHYSICS
SECTION-I
1. A particle moves from point P(1, 2, 3) to Q(2, 1, 4) under the action of a constant force

F = ( 2 î + ĵ + k̂ ) N. Work done by the force is

(a) 2 J (b) 4 J (c) 16 J (d) 8 J

2. A block of mass 2 kg is placed on a smooth horizontal surface. Two forces F1 = 20 N and

F2 = 5 N start acting on the block in opposite directions as shown. If block gets displaced by 5 m

in the direction of net force then work done by F2 is

(a) −75 J (b) 75 J (c) −25 J (d) 25 J

3. A particle moves along x-axis from x = 0, to x = 5 metre under the influence of a force.

F = 7 − 2 x + 3x 2 . The work done in the process is

(a) 70 (b) 135 (c) 270 (d) 35

4. A block of mass is lowered with the help of a rope of negligible mass through a distance D with
an acceleration g/3. Work done by the rope is
−2 mgD mgD 2mgD 2 mg
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 3 3
5. A uniform chain of length L and mass M overhangs a horizontal table with its two-third part on
the table. The friction coefficient between the table and the chain is µ. The work done by the
friction during the period the chain slips off the table is
1 2 4 6
(a) − µMgL (b) − µMgL (c) − µMgL (d) − µMgL
4 9 9 7
6. A particle of mass m 1 is moving with a velocity v1 and another particle of mass m 2 is moving
with a velocity v 2 . Both of them have the same momentum but their different kinetic energies
are E 1 and E 2 respectively. if m 1 > m 2 then
E1 m 1
(a) E1 < E 2 (b) = (c) E1 > E 2 (d) E1 = E 2
E2 m 2

7. If kinetic energy of a body is increased by 300% then percentage change in momentum will be

(a) 100% (b) 150% (c) 265% (d) 73.2%

8. Two cars of same mass are moving with velocities v1 and v 2 respectively. If they are stopped
v
by supplying same braking power in time t 1 and t 2 respectively then 1 is
v2
t t2 t t1
(a) 1 (b) 12 (c) m 1 (d)
t2 t2 t2 t2

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

9. Two springs have their force constants in the ratio of 3 : 4. Both the springs are stretched by
applying equal force F. If elongation in first spring is x then elongation in second springs is

4 3
(a) 3x (b) 4x (c) x (d) x
3 4
10. When a long spring is stretched by 2 cm, its potential energy is U. If the spring is stretched by 10
cm, the potential energy stored in it will be

U
(a) (b) 5U (c) 10U (d) 25U
5
11. Particle is released from a height H. At a certain height from the ground its K.E. is twice the P.E.
The height & speed of the particle at that instant are

H gH 2H gH H 2gH H
(a) h = ;V = 2 (b) h = ;V = 2 (c) h = ;V = (d) h = ; V = 2gH
3 3 3 6 4 3 3

12. A motor pump lifts 300 liter of water per minute from a well 20 m deep and delivers the water
with the speed of 10 m/s. The power of the pump is

(a) 1200 Watt (b) 1250 Watt (c) 1400 Watt (d) 2500 Watt

13. If F = (60î + 15 ĵ − 3k̂ ) N and v = ( 2 î − 4 ĵ + 5k̂ ) m / s , then instantaneous power is

(a) 195 watt (b) 45 watt (c) 75 watt (d) 100 watt

14. A particle moves in one dimension from rest under the influence of a force that varies with the
distance travelled by the particle as shown in the figure. The kinetic energy of the particle after it
has travelled 3 m is

(a) 4 J (b) 2.5 J (c) 6.5 J (d) 5 J

15. In a certain field, the potential energy is U = ax2 − bx 3 , where a and b constants. The particle is
in stable equilibrium at x equal to

a 2a 2a
(a) Zero (b) (c) (d)
3b 3b b
16. A person starts walking and comes back to its initial position after 2 h, then which of the
following quantity is zero?

(a) Path length (b) Average speed (c) Displacement (d) Time

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

17. Acceleration-time graph of a particle is shown in the diagram, if particle starts with velocity u =
2.4 m/s, then its velocity at t = 8s is

(a) 4.2 m/s (b) 5.2 m/s (c) 6.2 m/s (d) 7.2 m/s

18. A car travelling with a velocity of 80 km/h slowed down to 44 km/h in 15 s. The retardation is

(a) 0.67 m / s 2 (b) 1 m /s 2 (c) 1.25 m /s 2 (d) 1.5 m /s 2

19. A body starts from origin and moves along x=axis so that its position at any instant is

x = 4 t 2 − 12 t where t is in second and v in m/s. What is the acceleration of particle?

(a) 4 m / s2 (b) 8 m /s 2 (c) 24 m / s 2 (d) 0 m /s 2

20. A wheel of car is rotating at a frequency of 10Hz. If it is stopped in 7 sec. find the no. of
revolutions it makes before top.

(a) 35 revolutions (b) 30 revolutions (c) 25 revolutions (d) 20 revolutions

21. A 1 kg stationary bomb is exploded in three parts having mass 1 : 1 : 3 respectively, parts having
same mass move in perpendicular direction with velocity 30 m/s, then the velocity of bigger part
will be

10 15
(a) 10 2 m / sec (b) m / sec (c) 15 2 m / sec (d) m / sec
2 2

22. Two masses m 1 = 5 kg and m 2 = 4.8 kg tied to a string are hanging over a light frictionless
pulley. What is the acceleration of the masses when it is free to move? (g = 9.8 ms −2 )

(a) 0.2 ms −2 (b) 9.8 ms −2 (c) 5 ms −2 (d) 4.8 ms −2

23. Arrangement of two block system is as shown. The net force acting on 1 kg and 2 kg blocks are
(assuming the surfaces to be frictionless) respectively

(a) 4N, 8N (b) 1N, 2N (c) 2N, 4N (d) 3N, 6N

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

24. In figure, the blocks A, B and C each of mass m have acceleration a 1 , a 2 and a 3 respectively. F1

and F2 are external force of magnitude 2mg and mg respectively. Then,

(a) a 1 = a 2 = a 3 (b) a 1 > a 3 > a 2 (c) a 1 = a 2 , a 2 = a 3 (d) a 1 = a 2 , a 1 = a 3

25. Three blocks of masses 2 kg, 3 kg and 5 kg are placed in contact as shown in the diagram. A
horizontal force of 30 N is applied on 2 kg block. Find the contact force between (a) 2kg and 3kg
block and (b) 3kg and 5kg block

(a) N 1 = 14N ; N 2 = 15 N (b) N 1 = 20N ; N 2 = 15N

(c) N 1 = 15N ; N 2 = 24 N (d) N 1 = 10N ; N 2 = 5N

26. Calculate the amount of heat Required to convert 100 gram ice at 0o C into steam at 100 o C.
(a) 32 Kcal (b) 54 Kcal (c) 64 Kcal (d) 72 Kcal
27. Heating curve of two substance in solid state is given below then :-

(a) L A > L B (b) L A < L B (c) L A = L B (d) None of these

28. 10 g of ice at 0o C is kept in a calorimeter of water equivalent 10 g. How much heat should be
supplied to the apparatus to evaporate the water thus formed? (Neglect loss of heat)
(a) 6200 cal (b) 7200 cal (c) 13600 cal (d) 8200 cal
29. The root mean square velocity of the molecules in a sample of helium is 5/7th that of the

molecules in a sample of hydrogen. If the temperature of hydrogen sample is 0o C , then the

temperature of the helium sample is about :-

(a) 0o C (b) 0 K (c) 273 o C (d) 100 o C

30. When water is heated from 0o C to 10o C , its volume :-

(a) decreases (b) increases
(c) remains unchanged (d) first decreases and then increases

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

31. Gas at a pressure P0 is contained in a vessel. If the masses of all the molecules are halved, their

speed doubled, the resulting pressure P will be :-

(a) 4P0 (b) 2 P0 (c) P0 (d) P0 / 2

32. A gas is allowed to expand isothermally, the root mean square velocity of the molecules.
(a) Will increase (b) Will decrease
(c) Will remain unchanged (d) Depends on the other factors
33. O 2 gas is filled in a cylinder. When pressure is increased 2 times, temperature becomes four

times. then how much times their density will become :-

1 1
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) (d)
4 2
34. Match the column -I with column-II
Column-I Column-II
(A) Isobaric process (p) No heat exchange
(B) Isothermal process (q) Constant pressure
(C) Adiabatic process (r) Constant internal energy
(D) Isochoric process (s) Work done is zero

(a) (A)→ (q), (B)→(r), (C)→(p), (D)→(s) (b) (A)→ (r), (B)→(q), (C)→(s), (D)→(p)
(c) (A)→ (q), (B)→(r), (C)→(s), (D)→(p) (d) (A)→ (r), (B)→(s), (C)→(q), (D)→(p)
35. Find work done in process ABCD :-

(a) 4 P0 V0 (b) 2 P0 V0 (c) 3 P0 V0 (d) P0 V0

SECTION-II
Note : Students have to attempt any 10 Questions out of the following 15 (from 36 to 50) given
below.
36. A string with a mass density of 4 × 10 −3 kg / m is under tension of 360 N and is fixed at both

ends. One of its resonance frequencies is 375 Hz. The next higher resonance frequency is 450 Hz.
The mass of the string is -

(a) 2 × 10 −3 kg (b) 3 × 10 −3 kg (c) 4 × 10 −3 kg (d) 8 × 10 −3 kg

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

37. A steel wire 0.72 m long has a mass of 5.0 × 10 −3 kg. If the wire is under tension of 60 N, what is

the speed of the transverse waves on the wire?

(a) 186 m/s (b) 2 × 93 m / s (c) 93 m/s (d) 45 m/s

πx
38. The equation of a stationary wave is Y = 10 sin cos 20 πt. The distance between two
4
consecutive nodes in metres is -
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 8
39. Velocity of sound waves in air is 330 m/s. For a particular sound in air, a path difference of 40
cm is equivalent to a phase difference of 1.6 π. The frequency of the wave is :
(a) 165 Hz (b) 150 Hz (c) 660 Hz (d) 330 Hz
40. A particle is executing S.H.M. along a straight line. The graph showing the variation of kinetic,
potential and total energy K, U and T respectively with displacement is -

(a) (b) (c) (d)

41. In a gaseous medium on increasing temperature 800 K, speed of sound becomes 5 times of

initial then initial temperature of medium in o C is :

(a) 27 o C (b) 300 o C (c) − 73o C (d) 73o C `

42. Two waves of same frequency, constant phase difference but different amplitude superpose at a
point :
(a) The resultant intensity varies periodically as a function of time
(b) there will be no interference
(c) There will be interference in which the minimum intensity will not be zero
(d) There will be interference in which the minimum intensity is zero
43. When sound wave travels from air to water, which are of the following remain constant :
(a) wavelength (b) velocity (c) frequency (d) intensity
44. The phase difference between the instantaneous velocity and acceleration of a particle executing
simple harmonic motion is :
(a) π (b) 0.707 π (c) zero (d) 0.5 π

45. A particle is oscillating in SHM. What fraction of total energy is kinetic when the particle is at
A/2 from the mean position (A is the amplitude of oscillation)
(a) 3/4 (b) 2/4 (c) 4/7 (d) 5/7

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

d2 x
46. A particle executes simple harmonic motion according to equation 4 + 320x = 0. Its time
dt 2
period is :
2π π π 2π
(a) s (b) s (c) s (d) s
5 3 2 5 2 5 3

47. A body executing S.H.M. along a straight line has a velocity of 3 ms −1 when it is at a distance of

4 m from its mean position and 4 ms −1 when it is at a distance of 3 m from its mean position. Its

angular frequency and amplitude are :

(a) 2 rad s −1 & 5 m (b) 1 rad s −1 & 10 m (c) 2 rad s −1 & 10 m (d) 1 rad s −1 & 5 m

48. A stretched wire of some length under a tension is vibrating with its fundamental frequency. Its
length is decreased by 45% and tension is increased by 21%. Now its fundamental frequency :
(a) increases by 50% (b) increases by 100% (c) decreases by 50% (d) decreases by 25%
49. A transverse wave is travelling along a string from left to right. The adjoining figure represents
the shape of the string at a given instant. At this instant, among the following, choose the wrong
statement :

(a) Points D, E and F have upwards positive velocity

(b) Points A, B and H have downwards negative velocity
(c) Points C and G have zero velocity
(d) Points A and E have minimum velocity
50. S 1 , S 2 are two coherent sources (having initial phase difference zero) of sound located along x-

axis separated by 4λ where λ is wavelength of sound emitted by them. Number of maxima

located on the elliptical boundary around it will be : [ S 1 and S 2 are assumed to be at focus of

ellipse]

(a) 16 (b) 12 (c) 8 (d) 4

L-1 Coaching Brahmanand Colony, Durgakund, Varanasi; 7525002100 (8)

Minor Test (XI-NEET)

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-I
1. In which one of the following molecules, the central atom said to adopt sp 2 hybridisation?
(a) BeF2 (b) BF3 (c) C 2 H 2 (d) NH 3
2. Which of the following molecules does not have a linear arrangement of atoms?
(a) H 2 S (b) C 2 H 2 (c) BeH 2 (d) CO 2
3. The angle between the overlapping of one s-orbital and one p-orbital is
(a) 180° (b) 120° (c) 109°28' (d) 120°60'
4. Identify a molecule which does not exist.
(a) Li 2 (b) C 2 (c) O 2 (d) He 2
5. Consider the following species
CN + , CN − ,NO and CN
Which one of these will have the highest bond order?
(a) CN + (b) CN − (c) NO (d) CN
6. Which of the following pairs of ions is isoelectronic and isostructural?
(a) CO 23 − , NO 3− (b) ClO −3 , CO 23 − (c) SO 23 − , NO −3 (d) None of these

7. In PO 34− ion, the formal charge on each oxygen atom and PO bond order respectively are
(a) –0.75, 0.67 (b) –0.75, 1.0 (c) –0.75, 1.25 (d) –3, 1.25
8. Which one of the following has the highest dipole moment?
(a) AsH 3 (b) SbH 3 (c) PH 3 (d) NH 3
9. Match the xenone compounds in column I with its structure in column II and assign the correct
code:
Column-I Column-II
A. XeF4 (i) Pyramidal
B. XeF6 (ii) Square planar
C. XeOF4 (iii) Distorted octahedral
D. XeO 3 (iv) Square pyramidal
Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (b) (iii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(c) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
10. From the following pairs of ion which one is not an iso-electronic pair?
(a) O 2 − , F − (b) Na + , Mg 2 + (c) Mn 2 + , Fe 3+ (d) Fe 2 + , Mn 2 +
11. Identify the incorrect match.
Name IUPAC official name
(A) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium
(B) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium
(C) Unnihexium (iii) Seaborgium
(D) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium
(a) (B), (ii), (b) (C), (iii) (c) (D), (iv) (d) (A), (i)

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

12. For the second period elements the correct increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy is
(a) Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne (b) Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
(c) Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne (d) Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne
13. The first ionisation potential (in eV) of Be and B, respectively are
(a) 8.29, 9.32 (b) 9.32, 9.32 (c) 8.29, 8.29 (d) 9.32, 8.29
14. The number of σ bonds, π bonds and lone pair of electron in pyridine, respectively are
(a) 12, 3, 0 (b) 11, 3, 1 (c) 12, 2, 1 (d) 11, 2, 0
15. The correct structure of 2, 6-dimethyl-dec-4-ene is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

16. Which among the given molecules can exhibit tautomerism?

(a) III only (b) Both I and III (c) Both I and II (d) Both II and III
17. The order of decreasing reactivity towards an electrophilic reagent, for the following
(i) Benzene (ii) Toluene (iii) Chlorobenzene (iv) Phenol
Would be
(a) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) (b) (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii)
(c) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i) (d) (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii)
18. Among the following compound (I–III), the correct order of reaction with electrophile is

(a) II > III > I (b) III < I < II (c) I > II > III (d) I > III > II
19. Which one of the following has the shortest carbon-carbon bond length?
(a) Benzene (b) Ethene (c) Ethyne (d) Ethane
20. Which compound amongst the following is not an aromatic compound?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

21. Which of the following compound is most reactive in electrophilic aromatic substitution?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

22. Consider the following compounds/species. The number of compounds/species which obey
Huckel's rule is ....................

(I) (II) (III)

(IV) (V)
(a) 6 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 4

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

23. Which of the following chemical system is non aromatic?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

24. Some meta-directing substituents in aromatic substitution are given. Which one is most
deactivating?
(a) −C ≡ N (b) − SO 3H (c) −COOH (d) −NO 2
25. Among the following compound one that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is
(a) benzoic acid (b) nitrobenzene (c) toluene (d) benzene
26. Which one of the following is most reactive towards electrophilic reagent?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

27. Which one of the following is most reactive towards electrophilic attack?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

28. The correct order of reactivity towards the electrophilic substitution of the compounds aniline (I),
benzene (II) and nitrobenzene (III) is
(a) II < III < I (b) I > II > III (c) III > II > I (d) II > III > I
29. The IUPAC name of
CH3 − CH − CH = C − CHO
| |
OH CH3
(a) 4-hydroxy-1-methyl pentanal
(b) 4-hydroxy-2-methyl pent-2-en-1-al
(c) 2-hydroxy-4-methyl pent-3-en-5-al
(d) 2-hydroxy-3-methyl pent-2-en-5-al
30. The compound which shows metamerism is:
(a) C 4 H10 O (b) C 5 H12 (c) C 3H8O (d) C 3H6 O
31. Amount of oxalic acid present in a solution can be determined by its titration with KMnO 4
solution in the presence of H2 SO 4 . The titration gives unsatisfactory result when carried out in
the presence of HCl because HCl
(a) gets oxidized by oxalic acid to chlorine
(b) Furnishes H+ ions in addition to those from oxalic acid
(c) Reduces permanganate to Mn 2 +
(d) Oxidises oxalic acid to carbon dioxide and water
32. Statement-1: The weight percentage of a compound A in a solution is given by
Mass A
% of A = × 100
Total mass of solution

Statement-2: The mole fraction of a component A is given by,

No. of moles of A
Mole fraction of A =
Total no. of moles of all components

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

(a) If both statement 1 and statement 2 are true and the statement 2 is the correct explanation of
the statement 1.
(b) If both statement 1 and statement 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of
the statement 1
(c) If statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false
(d) If statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true
33. 116 mg of a compound on vaporisation in a Victor Meyer's apparatus displaces 44.8 ml of air
measured at S.T.P. The molecular weight of the compounds is
(a) 116 (b) 232 (c) 58 (d) 44.8
34. A certain dye absorbs light of λ = 4000 Å and then fluoresces light of 5000 Å. Assuming that
under given conditions 50% of the absorbed energy is re-emitted out as fluorescence, calculate
the ratio of number of quanta emitted out to the number of quanta absorbed.
5 8 3 8
(a) (b) (c) (d)
8 5 8 3
35. + and – sign of the lobes of p y orbital represents
(a) +ve and –ve signs are geometric sign of wave functions
(b) +ve and –ve sign are +ve and –ve charge
(c) +ve represents maximum probability of finding electron and –ve represents minimum
probability of finding electrons
(d) All of the above
SECTION-II
Note : Students have to attempt any 10 Questions out of the following 15 (from 36 to 50) given
below.
36. In an isochoric process the increase in internal energy is
(a) Equal to the heat absorbed
(b) Equal to the heat evolved
(c) Equal to the work done
(d) Equal to the sum of the heat absorbed and work done
37. An ideal gas is allowed to expand both reversibly and irreversibly in an isolated system. If Ti is

the initial temperature and Tf is the final temperature, which of the following statements is

correct:
(a) Tf and Ti are both same for reversible and irreversible processes

(b) (Tf )irrev > (Tf )rev

(c) Tf > Ti for irreversible process but Tf and Ti for irreversible process is same

(d) (Tf )rev > (Tf )irrev

38. Given that

C + 2S → CS 2 ∆H°f = +117.0 kJ mol −1 (1)

−1
C + O 2 → CO 2 ∆H°f = −393.0 kJ mol (2)
−1
S + O 2 → SO 2 ∆H°f = −297.0 kJ mol (3)

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

The heat of combustion of

CS 2 + 3O 2 → CO 2 + 2SO 2 is

(a) −807 kJ mol −1 (b) −1104 kJ mol −1 (c) 807 kJ mol −1 (d) 1104 kJ mol −1

39. Given the following data:

Substance ∆H° (kJ/mol) S° (J/mol K) ∆G° (kJ/mol)
FeO(s) –266.3 57.49 –245.12
C (Graphite) 0 5.74 0
Fe(s) 0 27.28 0
CO(g) –110.5 197.6 –137.15
Determine at what temperature the following reaction is spontaneous?
FeO(s) + C(Graphite) → Fe(s) + CO(g)

(a) 298 K
(b) 668 K
(c) 964 K
(d) ∆G° is +ve, hence the reaction will never be spontaneous
40. Statement-1: When a real gas is allowed to expand adiabatically through a fine hole from a
region of high pressure to a region of low pressure, the temperature of gas falls in a completely
insulated container.
Statement-2: Work is done at the cost of internal energy of the gas.
(a) If both statement 1 and statement 2 are true and the statement 2 is the correct explanation of
the statement 1.
(b) If both statement 1 and statement 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of
the statement 1
(c) If statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false
(d) If statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true

41. For the reaction, 2NO 2(g) ↽ ⇀ 2NO(g) + O 2(g) K c = 1.8 × 10 −6 at 184°C and R = 0.083 J K −1 mol −1 .

When K p and K c are compared at 184°C, it is found that:

(a) K p > K c (b) K p < K c

(c) K p = K c (d) K p & K c depends upon pressure of gases

42. A quantity of PCl 5 was heated in a 10 litre vessel at 250°C; PCl 5 (g) ↽ ⇀ PCl 3 (g) + Cl 2 (g) . At
equilibrium the vessel contains 0.1 mole of PCl 5 , 0.20 mole of PCl 3 and 0.2 mole of Cl 2 . The
equilibrium constant of the reaction is
(a) 0.02 (b) 0.05 (c) 0.04 (d) 0.025

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

43. If in the reaction N 2 O 4 = 2NO 2 , α is that part of N 2 O 4 which dissociates, then the number of

moles at equilibrium will be

(a) 3 (b) 1 (c) (1 − α )2 (d) (1 + α )

44. Some gaseous equilibrium are given below:

K
CO + H 2 O ↽ ⇀ CO 2 + H 2
K
2CO + O 2 ↽ 1 ⇀ 2CO 2
K
2H 2 + O 2 ↽ 2 ⇀ 2H 2 O

find out the relation between equilibrium constants:

(a) K = K 1K 2 (b) K = (K 1K 2 )2 (c) K = (K 1K 2 )−1/2 (d) K = (K 1 / K 2 )1/2

45. The effect of increasing the pressure on the homogeneous gaseous equilibrium

2A + 3B ↽ ⇀ 3A + 2B is

(a) Forward reaction is favoured (b) Backward reaction is favoured

(c) No effect (d) None of the above
46. The vapour density of PCl 5 is 104.25 but when heated to 230°C, its vapour density is reduced to

62. The percentage dissociation of PCl 5 at this temperature will be

(a) 6.8% (b) 68% (c) 46% (d) 64%

47. Lemon juice normally has a pH of 2. If all the acid in the lemon juice is citric acid and there are
no citrate salts present, then what will be the citric acid concentration [HCit] in the lemon juice?
(Assume that only the first hydrogen of citric acid is important)

HCit ⇌ H + + Cit − , K a = 8.4 × 10 −4 mol L−1

(a) 8.4 × 10 −4 M (b) 4.2 × 10 −4 M (c) 16.8 × 10 −4 M (d) 11.9 × 10 −2 M

48. Equal volumes of two solutions of a strong acid having pH3 and pH4 are mixed together. The
pH of the resulting solution will then be equal to
(a) 3.5 (b) 3.26 (c) 7 (d) 1.0
49. Let the solubilities of AgCl in pure water, 0.01 M CaCl 2 , 0.01 M NaCl and 0.05 M AgNO 3 be

s1 ,s 2 ,s 3 and s 4 respectively. What is the correct order of these quantities? Neglect any

complexation.
(a) s1 > s 2 > s 3 > s 4 (b) s1 > s 2 = s 3 > s 4 (c) s1 > s 3 > s 2 > s 4 (d) s 4 > s 2 > s 3 > s1

50. K SP for MX 4 and solubility (S) for MX 4 is related by:

(a) S = [K SP / 256]1/5 (b) S = [128K SP ]1/4

(c) S = [256 K SP ]1/5 (d) S = [K SP / 128]1/4

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

BOTANY
SECTION-I
1. Kingdom–Plantae includes
(a) algae, bryophytes and pteridophytes
(b) algae, bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms
(c) algae, fungi, pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms
(d) algae, pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms
2. Classification done on the basis of cytological information, chromosome structure and their
behaviour, is known as
(a) molecular classification (b) cytotaxonomy
(c) chemotaxonomy (d) karyotaxonomy
3. Identify the given figures of algae and select the correct option.

(a) A–Chlamydomonas, B–Chara, C–Volvox (b) A–Volvox, B–Ulothrix, C–Laminaria

(c) A–Chara, B–Laminaria, C–Volvox (d) A–Porphyra, B–Polysiphonia, C–Fucus
4. Photosynthetic pigment(s) of class–Rhodophyceae (red algae) is/are
(a) chlorophyll-a and b (b) chlorophyll-a and c
(c) chlorophyll-a only (d) chlorophyll-a and d
5. Read carefully the table and fill up the blanks.
Classes Major pigments Stored food Cell wall Flagellar Number
and Position of
Insertions
Chlorophyceae A Starch Cellulose 2-8, equal, apical
Phaeophyceae Chlorophyll a Mannitol, laminarin C 2, unequal, lateral
and c,
fucoxanthin
Rhodophyceae Chlorophyll a B Cellulose D
and d,
phycoerythrin

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

A, B, C and D in the above table refers to

A B C D
(a) Chlorophyll-a and d Starch and Cellulose 2-10, equal apical
laminarin
(b) Chlorophyll-a and c Mannitol and Cellulose and algin 2-8, equal, lateral
starch
(c) Chlorophyll-a and b Floridean starch Cellulose and algin Not present
(d) Chlorophyll-a and b Mannitol and Cellulose Not present
floridean starch
6. Observe the diagrams given below and choose the correct option for A, B and C.

(a) A–Antheridiophore, B–Archegoniophore, C–Endospore

(b) A–Archegoniophore, B–Antheridiophore, C–Gemma cup
(c) A–Antheridiophore, B–Archegoniophore, C–Gemma cup
(d) A–Archegoniophore, B–Antheridiophore, C–Seta cup
7. Go through the following figures and identify these plants (A, B and C).

(a) A–Equisetum, B–Selaginella, C–Fern (b) A–Selaginella, B–Fern, C–Salvinia

(c) A–Fern, B–Salvinia, C–Equisetum (d) A–Salvinia, B–Equisetum, C–Fern
8. In gymnosperms, the leaves are well-adapted to withstand extremes of temperature, humidity
and wind. Which is/are the xeric character(s) of conifers?
(a) Needle-like leaves (b) Thick cuticle
(c) Sunken stomata (d) All of the above

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

9. Identify the figures A, B and C and choose the correct option.

(a) A–Cycas, B–Ginkgo, C–Pinus (b) A–Cycas, B–Pinus, C–Ginkgo

(c) A–Ginkgo, B–Cycas, C–Pinus (d) A–Pinus, B–Cycas, C–Ginkgo
10. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Arrangement of veins in leaf lamina is called venation
(b) In reticulate venation, veinlets form a network
(c) In parallel venation, veins run parallel to each other within a lamina
(d) Leaves of dicotyledonous plants possess parallel venation
11. Choose the incorrect statement.
(a) Stamens when attached to petals, they are epipetalous
(b) Stamens when attached to sepals, they are epiphyllous
(c) If one margin of the appendage overlaps that of the next one like in China rose, it is called
twisted aestivation
(d) If there are five petals, the largest overlap the two lateral petals, which in turn overlap the
two smallest petals it is vexillary aestivation
12. Read the following statements.
I. The corolla is the outermost whorl of the flowers.
II. Calyx is composed of sepals.
III. Corolla maybe tubular, bell-shaped, funnel-shaped or wheel-shaped.
IV. Asterile stamen is called staminode.
Choose the correct option.
(a) Statements I and II are correct (b) Statements III and IV are correct
(c) Statements II and III are incorrect (d) Statements I and IV are incorrect
13. Match the following columns.
Column I Column II
(Regions of root tip) (Features)
A. Root cap 1. Lengthwise growth
B. Meristematic zone 2. Root hairs
C. Elongation zone 3. Fast cell division
D. Maturation zone 4. Thimble-like structure

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 1 4 3 2
14. Match the following columns.
Column I Column II
(Modification in leaves) (Examples)
A. Leaf tip tendrils 1. Pitcher plant and Venus flytrap
B. Bud is absent in the axil of leaflets 2. Cacti
C. Spines (modified leaves) 3. Compound leaf
D. Leaves modified to catch insects 4. Gloriosa
E. Fleshy leaves with stored food 5. Garlic and onion
Codes
A B C D E
(a) 1 2 3 4 5
(b) 5 4 3 2 1
(c) 4 3 2 1 5
(d) 4 2 3 1 5
15. Choose the correct option for identification of A to D in the given diagram.

(a) A–Epidermal cell, B–Guard cell, C–Subsidiary cell, D–Chloroplast

(b) A–Epidermal cell, B–Subsidiary cell, C–Chloroplast, D–Guard cell
(c) A–Epidermal cell, B–Chloroplast, C–Subsidiary cell, D–Guard cell
(d) A–Guard cell, B–Chloroplast, C–Subsidiary cell, D–Epidermal cell
16. Ground tissue does not include
I. epidermis II. vascular bundle
III. sclerenchyma IV. collenchyma
V. parenchyma
Select the right combination from the above given options.
(a) I and II (b) III and IV (c) I and V (d) I and IV

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

17. Choose the incorrrect pair.

(a) Vascular bundle without cambium – Closed
(b) Vascular bundle with cambium in between xylem and phloem – Open
(c) Xylem and phloem are arranged in an alternate manner – Radial
(d) Xylem and phloem are situated at different radius – Conjoint
18. ‘Omnis cellula-e-cellula, (all cells arise from pre-existing cells). Who gave this concept and
modified the cell theory?
(a) Schleiden and Schwann (b) Virchow
(c) Robert Brown (d) Leeuwenhoek
19. Which of the following represents the incorrect pair?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
20. Identify the component labelled as A in the given diagram of cell membrane?

(a) External protein (b) Integral protein

(c) Sugar (d) Lipid
21. In the given diagram of types of chromosomes, identify A-D.

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

(a) A–Telocentric chromosome, B–Acrocentric chromosome, C–Submetacentric chromosome, D–

Metacentric chromosome
(b) A–Acrocentric chromosome, B–Telocentric chromosome, C–Metacentric chromosome, D–
Submetacentric chromosome
(c) A–Submetacentric chromosome, B–Metacentric chromosome, C–Telocentric chromosome, D–
Acrocentric chromosome
(d) A–Metacentric chromosome, B–Submetacentric chromosome, C–Acrocentric chromosome, D–
Telocentric chromosome
22. Ribosomes are
I. Non-membrane bound. II. Absent in plastids and mitochondria.
III. Present in the cytoplasm andRER. IV. Take part in protein synthesis.
Which of the following option is most appropriate?
(a) Only II is correct (b) I and II are correct
(c) I, II, III and IV are correct (d) I, III and IV are correct
23. Consider following features.
I. Double membrane bound organelle.
II. Contain 70S ribosomes and RNA.
III. Possess small circularDNA.
Select the correct option of organelle groups which possess all the above characteristics.
(a) Nucleus, centrosome, mitochondria (b) Nucleus, mitochondria and chloroplast
(c) Mitochondria and chloroplast (d) Chloroplast and vacuole
24. Choose the element, which is negligible in living matter.
(a) Si (b) Mg (c) Ca (d) S
25. The R-group in proteinaceous amino acid makes them different. Name the amino acids A-C
correctly according to the R groups given in each structure.

(a) A–Glycine, B–Serine, C–Alanine

(b) A–Alanine, B–Glycine, C–Serine
(c) A–Serine, B–Glycine, C–Alanine
(d) A–Serine, B–Alanine, C–Glycine

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

26. Adenosine, guanosine, thymidine, uridine, cytidine are all ........ but adenylic acid, guanylic acid,
uridylic acid, cytidylic acid are ...... .
(a) nucleotides, nucleosides (b) nucleosides, nucleotides
(c) nucleotides, nucleic acids (d) nucleosides, nucleic acids
27. The term metabolism means
(a) sum of all the enzymatically catalysed chemical reactions constantly taking place in the cells
and tissues of the living organisms
(b) processes that change the small molecules into larger ones
(c) processes that convert the large molecules into smaller ones
(d) None of the above
28. Identify, whether the given conditions are anabolic or catabolic.

I. Glucose 
→ Lactic acid

II. Amino acids 

→ Proteins
(a) I–Catabolic; II–Catabolic (b) I–Anabolic; II–Catabolic
(c) I–Catabolic; II–Anabolic (d) I–Anabolic; II–Anabolic
29. Choose the correct graph, showing the effect of pH on the velocity (V) of a typical enzymatic
reaction.

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
30. Which of the following statements is/are correct for polysaccharides?
I. The polysaccharides are found as a part of the acid insoluble pellet.
II. These are long chains of sugars.
III. They are threads containing different monosaccharides as building blocks.
IV. Cellulose is a polymeric polysaccharide consisting of only one type of monosaccharide, i.e.
fructose.
V. Inulin is a polymer of fructose.
(a) All are correct (b) All are correct except IV
(c) III and IV (d) Only IV

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

31. Match the following columns.

Column I Column II
(Enzymes) (Characteristics)
A. Dehydrogenases 1. Interconversion of optical, geometrical positional isomers
B. Ligases 2. Group transfer
C. Isomerases 3. Oxidoreduction between two substrates
D. Hydrolases 4. Linking together of two bonds
E. Transferases 5. Hydrolysis of bonds
Codes
A B C D E
(a) 5 4 1 2 3
(b) 4 3 5 2 1
(c) 5 4 2 3 1
(d) 3 4 1 5 2
32. The cell cycle of mammalian cell and yeast, respectively, takes about
(a) 24 hrs, 90 min (b) 60 min each (c) 30 min, 24 days (d) 90 min, 24 hrs
33. The interphase is divided into three phases, namely
(a) G1-phase, M-phase and G2-phase (b) M-phase, S-phase and divisional phase
(c) G1-phase, synthesis phase and G2-phase (d) M-phase, G2-phase and divisional phase
34. Match the stages of meiosis in Column I to their characteristic features in Column II and select
the correct option using the codes given below.
Column I Column II
(Phases) (Events)
A. Pachytene 1. Pairing of homologous chromosomes
B. Metaphase-I 2. Terminalisation of chiasmata
C. Diakinesis 3. Crossing over takes place
D. Zygotene 4. Chromosomes align at equatorial plate
Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 2 4 3 1 (d) 4 3 2 1
35. Select the correct option. CBSE-AIPMT 2015
Column I Column II
(Features) (Stages of cell division)
A. Synapsis aligns homologous chromosomes 1. Pachytene
B. Synthesis of RNA and protein 2. Zygotene
C. Action of enzyme recombinase 3. G2-phase
D. Centromeres do not separate, but chromatids move 4. Anaphase-I
towards opposite poles
Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 2 1 3 4

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

SECTION-II
Note : Students have to attempt any 10 Questions out of the following 15 (from 36 to 50) given
below.
36. Name the phases of cell cycle at which one of the following events occur.
I. Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator.
II. Centromere splits and chromatids separate.
III. Pairing between homologous chromosomes takes place.
IV. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes takes place.
(a) I. Metaphase II. Anaphase III. Zygotene IV. Pachytene
(b) I. Metaphase-I II. Anaphase-II III. Diplotene IV. Diakinesis
(c) I. Metaphase II. Anaphase III. Pachytene IV. Diplotene
(d) I. Metaphase-II II. Anaphase-I III. Diakinesis IV. Diplotene
37. Which one is the correct equation of photosynthesis?
Light
(a) 6CO 2 + 6H 2 O 
→ 6O 2 + C 6 H12 O 6
Chlorophyll

Light
(b) 6CO 2 + 12H 2 O 
→ C 6 H12 O 6 + 6O 2 + 6H 2 O
Chlorophyll

Light
(c) C 6 H12 O6 + 6O 2 + 6H 2 O 
→ 6CO 2 + 12H 2 O + Energy
Chlorophyll

Light
(d) C 6 H12 O6 + 6O 2  → 6CO 2 + 6H 2 O + Energy
Chlorophyll

38. Identify A, B and C in given figure.

(a) A–Stroma wall, B–Granum, C–Stroma (b) A–Stroma lamella, B–Granum, C–Stroma
(c) A–Stroma lamella, B–Stroma, C–Granum (d) A–Stroma wall, B–Stroma, C–Granum
39. PS-I has absorption peak at …A…. and PS-II has absorption peak at…B.
Choose the correct option and fill the blank.
(a) A–700 nm; B–800 nm (b) A–680 nm; B–700 nm
(c) A–700 nm; B–680 nm (d) A–800 nm; B–700 nm

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

40. Identify A, B and C in the given figure and choose the correct option from the set (A-C) given
below.

(a) A–Reduction, B–Carboxylation, C–Regeneration

(b) A–Reduction, B–Regeneration, C–Carboxylation
(c) A–Carboxylation, B–Reduction, C–Regeneration
(d) A–Carboxylation, B–Regeneration, C–Reduction
41. Law of limiting factor in relation to photosynthesis is proposed by
(a) Blackman (b) Wiseman (c) Calvin (d) Emerson
42. Match the following with respect to early experiments of photosynthesis.
Scientists Experiments
A. Joseph Priestley 1. Showed that plants release O2
B. Jan Ingenhousz 2. Showed that sunlight is essential for photosynthesis
C. Julius von Sachs 3. Proved that plants produce glucose when they grow
D. Cornelius van Neil 4. Showed that hydrogen reduces CO2 to carbohydrates
Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 2 4 3
43. In the eukaryotes, ……A…… takes place within the chloroplasts, whereas the breakdown of
complex molecules to yield energy takes place in the ……B…… and in the ……C…… .
(a) A–photosynthesis, B–cytoplasm, C–mitochondria
(b) A–respiration, B–cytoplasm, C–mitochondria
(c) A–respiration, B–chloroplast, C–cytoplasm
(d) A–photosynthesis, B–chloroplast, C–cytoplasm

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

44. The complete combustion of glucose in respiration is represented by

(a) C 6 H12 O 6 + 6O 2 → +6CO 2 + 6H 2 O + Energy
(b) C 6 H12 O 6 + 6CO 2 → +6O 2 + 6H 2 O + Energy
(c) C 6 H12 O 6 + 6O 2 + 6CO 2 → +6CO 2 + 6H 2 O + Energy
(d) C 6 H12 O 6 + 6O 2 + 6CO 2 + ATP → 6CO 2 + 6H 2 O + 6O 2 + Energy
45. Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate, the first irreversible reaction of glycolysis, is
catalysed by
(a) hexokinase (b) enolase
(c) phosphofructokinase (d) aldolase
46. The following is a simplified scheme showing the fate of glucose during aerobic and anaerobic
respiration. Identify the end products that are formed at stages indicated as A, B, C and D.
Identify the correct option from those given here.

(a) A–Carbon dioxide and water, B–Pyruvic acid, C–Ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide, D–Lactic
acid
(b) A–Pyruvic acid, B–Carbon dioxide and water, C–Lactic acid, D– Ethyl alcohol and carbon
dioxide
(c) A–Pyruvic acid, B–Carbon dioxide and water, C–Ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide , D– Lactic
acid
(d) A–Pyruvic acid, B–Ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide, C–Lactic acid, D–Carbon dioxide and
water
47. Identify A and B in the given figure and choose the correct option.

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

(a) A–Root apical meristem; B–Shoot apical meristem

(b) A–Shoot apical meristem; B–Root apical meristem
(c) A–Permanent tissue; B–Radicle tissue
(d) A–Radicle tissue; B–Apical tissue
48. Identify the phytohormone responsible for the given functions.
I. Horizontal growth of seedlings.
II. Swelling of the axis and apical hook formation in dicot seed.
III. Promoting senescence and abscission of leaves and flowers.
IV. Highly effective in fruit ripening.
V. Promotes rapid internode/petiole elongation in deep water rice plants.
Choose the correct option.
(a) ABA (b) GA (c) Cytokinin (d) Ethylene
49. Match the following columns.
Column I Column II
(PGRs) (Types)
A. IAA 1. Gases
B. N6-furfurylaminopurine 2. Terpenes
C. ABA 3. Derivatives of carotenoids
D GA3 4. Adenine derivatives
E. C2 H4 5. Indole compounds
Codes
A B C D E
(a) 1 2 3 4 5
(b) 5 4 3 2 1
(c) 5 4 1 2 3
(d) 4 5 1 2 3
50. Match the following columns.
Column I Column II
(Scientists) (PGRs)
A. Darwin and Darwin 1. Kinetin
B. E Kurosawa 2. Gibberellin
C. Skoog and Miller 3. Auxin
D H H Cousins 4. Ethylene
Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 2 4 1

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-I
1. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
(Organism) (Method of reproduction)
A. Planaria (1) Fragmentation
B. Hydra (2) Regeneration
C. Fungi (3) Binary fission
D. Amoeba (4) Budding
Codes:
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 1 3 2 4
2. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the codes given below:
Column-I Column-II
A. Growth (1) Production of progeny
B. Reproduction (2) Sum of all chemical reaction occurring in body
C. Metabolism (3) Sense and respond to environmental stimuli
D. Consciousness (4) Increase in mass and number
Codes:
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 2 4 3 1
3. In Mangifera indica Linn., the specific epithet is
(a) Mangifera (b) indica (c) Linn. (d) Both a and b
4. Which of the following is against the rules of ICBN?
(a) Handwritten scientific names should be underlined
(b) Every species should have a generic name and a specific epithet
(c) Scientific names are in latin and should be in Italic fonts
(d) Generic and specific names should be written starting with small letters
5. Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the codes given below:
Column-I Column-II
A. Order (1) Solanum
B. Kingdom (2) Solanaceae
C. Family (3) Plantae
D. Genus (4) Tuberosum
E. Species (5) Polymoniales
Codes
A B C D E
(a) 5 3 2 1 4
(b) 4 2 5 3 1
(c) 1 5 3 4 2
(d) 3 4 1 5 2

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

6. Which of the following options represents the correct classification for the given animal?

Phylum Class Order Family Genus Species

(a) Chordata Vertebrata Chiroptera Felidae Canis Tigris
(b) Chordata Mammalia Carnivora Felidae Panthera Tigris
(c) Vertebrata Mammalia Carnivora Felidae Panthera Tigris
(d) Mammalia Felidae Carnivora Feliaceae Panthera Leo
7. Choose the correct about 3–domain system
(a) Two domain are dedicated for prokaryotic while one domain is dedicated for eukaryotic
(b) One domain is dedicated for prokaryotic while two domains are for eukaryotic
(c) It has seven kingdom which are categorised in 3–domain
(d) It has six kingdom of which one kingdom is in first and third domain while 5-kingdom is
second domain.
8. Choose the incorrect option.
(a) Complete digestive system - Two openings, mouth and anus
(b) Incomplete digestive system - Single opening system
(c) Open circulatory system - Blood is circulated through tubes
(d) Closed circulatory system - Arteries veins and capillaries present
9. Choose the incorrect match
(a) Tube-within-tube body plan: Nemathelminthes, Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca,
Echinodermata, Chordata
(b) Cell-aggregate type body plan: Coelenterates
(c) Blind-sac type body plan: Platyhelminthes and coelenterates
(d) All of the above
10. The diagram below shows the diploblastic and triploblastic germ layers in the animals. Identify
the correct option in which they are found.

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

(a) A – Molluscs, B – Chordates (b) A – Annelida, B – Porifera

(c) A – Coelenterates, B – Platyhelminthes (d) A-Molluscs, B – Porifera
11. Choose the correct label for A, B, C and D in the broad Classification of Kingdom Animalia based
on common fundamental features as given below.

A B C D
(a) Bilateral Porifera Ctenophora Coelomate
(b) Radial Pseudocoelomate Sponge Flat worm
(c) Bilateral Porifera Ctenophora Coelomate
(d) Radial Ctenophora Porifera Acoelomate
12. Identify the correct labels A and B.
Notochord Nerve Cord
A Part of nervous system
Found in chordates only Found in chordates as well as non-chordates
Dorsal side in chordates B
(a) A = Exoskeleton, B = Dorsal in chordates as well as in non-chordates
(b) A = Endoskeleton; B = Ventral in chordates as well as in non-chordates
(c) A = Exoskeleton; B = Ventral in chordates and dorsal in nonchordates
(d) A = Mesodermal form Endoskeleton; B = Dorsal in chordates and ventral in nonchordates
13. Match the following Columns:
Column-I Column-II
(Phylum) (Characteristics Features)
(A) Porifera (1) Canal system
(B) Aschelminthes (2) Water vascular system
(C) Annelida (3) Muscular pharynx
(D) Arthropoda (4) Joined appendages
(E) Echinodermata (5) Parapodia
Select the correct option
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(a) 1 3 5 4 2
(b) 1 2 3 4 5
(c) 5 4 3 2 1
(d) 4 3 1 2 5

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

14. Assertion: Aschelminthes represent pseudocoelomates.

Reason: In aschelminthes, mesoderm is present as scattered pouches in between ectoderm and
endoderm.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
15. Consider the following statements about cnidarians:
(I) They have tissue level of organization and triploblastic.
(II) Digestion is extracellular and intracellular.
(III) Corals secrete calcium bicarbonate form a skeleton.
(IV) Corals may harbour some photosynthetic dinoflagellates for taking nutrition.
(V) They possess a central gastrovascular cavity with a single opening mouth in hypostome.
(a) Statements I and III are correct (b) Statements II, IV and V are correct
(c) Statements I, II and III are correct (d) Statements III and IV are incorrect
16. Identify the correct option specifying the names of the animals A, B, C and D.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(a) Pleurobranchia Tapeworm Taenia Aurelia
(b) Fasciola Tapeworm Liverfluke Aurelia
(c) Pleurobranchia Roundworm Taenia Adamsia
(d) Fasciola Roundworm Liverfluke Adamsia
17. Consider the following statements:
(I) Triploblastic, bilateral symmetry
(II) Metamerically segmental and coelomate animals
(III) Dioecious
(IV) Closed circulatory system
(V) Lateral appendages
(VI) Annelida
Which of the following information’s belongs to the given animal.
(a) I, II, IV, VI (b) I, III, IV, V (c) II, III, IV, V (d) III, IV, V, VI

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

18. The following flow chart for division of sub phylum vertebrata fill in the parts A, B, C and D and
choose the correct option.

A B C
(a) Ostracodermi Pisces Tetrapoda
(b) Cyclostomata Pisces Tetrapoda
(c) Ostracodermi Cyclostomata Pisces
(d) Pisces Tetrapoda Cyclostomata
19. The most unique mammalia character is
(a) the presence of two pairs of limbs (b) reproducing young ones
(c) the presence of mammary glands (d) the presence of skin
20. Heart is always four chambered in
(a) mammals (b) aves
(c) reptiles (d) both (a) and (b)
21. Identify A, B, C and D in the table given below.
Amphibins Reptiles Birds Mammals
Scales usually absent A Present on hind limbs Absent
Cloaca Cloaca Cloaca B
present present absent
Erthrocytes oval, RBC oval, biconvex Erythro cytes oval, RBC circular
biconvex and and nucleated biconvex x and biconcave and
nucleated nucleated nonnucleated
Three chambered Three chambered C Four chambered heart
heart heart with left systemic arch
External ear absent External ear may be D External ear with
present pinna present
(a) A = Scales absent B = Cloaca mainly present
C = Four chambered heart with left systemic arch D = External ear absent
(b) A = Scales present B = Cloaca mainly absent
C = Three chambered heart D = External ear absent
(c) A = Scales absent B = Cloaca mainly present
C = Three chambered heart with right systemic arch D = External ear present
(d) A = Scales present B = Cloaca mainly absent
C = Four chambered heart with right systemic arch D = External ear absent

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

22. Assertion: Duck bill platypus is a Bird.

Reason: True mammals are all viviparous while platypus are egg laying.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
23. Which two of the following changes (I-IV) usually tend to occur in the plain dwellers when they
move to high altitudes (3,500 m or more)?
I. Increase in red blood cell size
II. Increase in red blood cell production
III. Increase breathing rate
IV. Increase in thrombocyte amount
Changes occurring are
(a) II and III (b) III and IV (c) I and IV (d) I and II
24. Match the following columns.
Column I Column II
(Animals) (Respiratory organ)
A. Earthworm 1. Moist cuticle
B. Arthropods 2. Gills
C. Fishes 3. Lungs
D. Birds/reptiles 4. Trachea
Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 1 2 4 3
25. Father of Zoology
(a) Lamarck (b) Aristotle (c) Levosier (d) NOTA
26. Identify the correct and incorrect match about respiratory volume and capacities and mark the
correct answer.
I. Inspiratory Capacity [IC] = Tidal Volume [TV] + Residual Volume [RV].
II. Vital Capacity [VC] = Tidal Volume [TV] + Inspiratory Reserve Volume [IRV] + Expiratory
Reserve Volume [ERV].
III. Residual Volume [RV] = Vital Capacity [VC] − Inspiratory Reserve Volume [IRV].
IV. Tidal Volume [TV] = Inspiratory Capacity [IC] − Inspiratory Reserve Volume [IRV].
(a) I, II and III incorrect, IV correct (b) I and III incorrect, II and IV correct
(c) I, II and IV correct, III incorrect (d) I, III, II and IV correct

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

27. Match the following columns.

Column I Column II

A. Vestibule 1. Prevents entry of food in trachea

B. Epiglottis 2. Contraction of diaphragm
C. Inspiration 3. Relaxation of diaphragm
D. Expiration 4. Inside the nose
Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 2 1 3
28. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Plasma= Blood − Lymphocytes
(b) Serum = Blood + Fibrinogen
(c) Lymph = Plasma +RBC + WBC
(d) Blood = Plasma + RBC + WBC + Platelets
29. Which of the following four components of the blood are necessary for clotting?
(a) Calcium, vitamin-K, albumin and globulin
(b) Calcium, prothrombin, fibrinogen and platelets
(c) Calcium, heparin, prothrombin and fibrinogen
(d) Calcium, prothrombin, platelets and vitamin-A
30. The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person. The P-wave represents the

(a) initiation of the ventricular contraction (b) beginning of the systole

(c) end of systole (d) contraction of both the atria
31. Choose the correct option for X, Y and Z.
Blood Group Antigen on RBCs Antibody in Plasma Donor’s Group
A A Anti b A, O
B B Anti a B, O
AB X Nil Z
O Nil Y O
(a) X–B; Y–A; Z–AB (b) X–AB; Y–Nil; Z–AB, A,B,O
(c) X–AB; Y–anti-AB; Z–AB, A,B,O (d) X–AB; Y–anti AB; Z–AB, AB

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

32. Match the following columns.

Column I Column II
A. Tricuspid valve 1. Between left atrium and left ventricle
B. Bicuspid valve 2. Between ventricle and pulmonary artery
C. Semilunar valve 3. Between right atrium and right ventricle
Code
A B C A B C
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 1 3 2
(c) 3 1 2 (d) 2 1 3
33. pH of human urine is
(a) 9 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 3
34. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water
(b) The descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water
(c) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water
(d) The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to electrolytes
35. Volume of urine is regulated by
(a) aldosterone (b) aldosterone and ADH
(c) aldosterone, ADH and testosterone (d) ADH
SECTION-II
Note : Students have to attempt any 10 Questions out of the following 15 (from 36 to 50) given
below.
36. Match the following columns.
Column I Column II
A. Ultrafiltration 1. Henle’s loop
B. Concentration of urine 2. Ureter
C. Transport of urine 3. Urinary bladder
D. Storage of urine 4. Malpighian corpuscle
5. Proximal convoluted tubule
Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 5 4 1 2 (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 4 5 2 3 (d) 5 4 1 3
37. Study the given structure and match A,B,C,D,E,F and G with correct option.

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

(a) A – Afferent arteriole, B – Proximal convoluted tubule, C – Henle's loop, D – Distal convoluted
tubule, E – Peritubular capillaries, F – Collecting duct, G – Vasa recta
(b) A – Efferent arteriole, B – PCT, C – Henle's loop, D – DCT, E – Peritubular capillaries, F –
Collecting duct, G – Vasa recta
(c) A – Afferent arteriole, B – Peritubular capillaries, C – Henle's loop, D – DCT, E – PCT, F –
Collecting duct, G – Vasa recta
(d) A – Afferent arteriole, B – Henle's loop, C – Collecting duct, D – PCT, E – DCT, F – Peritubular
capillaries, G – Vasa recta
38. The number of carpals per limb of human beings is
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
39. Out of ‘X’ pairs of ribs in humans only ‘Y’ pairs are true ribs. Select the option that correctly
represents values of X and Y and provides their explanation. ’
(a) X = 12, Y = 7 True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and ventrally to
the sternum.
(b) X = 12, Y = 5 True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and sternum on
the two ends.
(c) X = 24, Y = 7 True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column, but are free on
ventral side.
(d) X = 24, Y = 12 True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column, but are free on
ventral side
40. Identify A, B and C in the given diagram and choose the correct option.

(a) A–Cervical vertebrae, B– Coccyx, C –Sacrum

(b) A–Cervical vertebrae, B– Coccyx, C –Atlas
(c) A–Cervical vertebrae, B– Coccyx, C –Axis
(d) A–Cervical vertebrae, B– Sacrum, C –Coccyx

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

41. Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with the example in human skeletal system.’
Types of Joint Example

(a) Cartilaginous joint Between frontal and parietal

(b) Pivot joint Between third and fourth cervical vertebrae
(c) Hinge joint Between humerus and pectoral girdle
(d) Gliding joint Between carpals
42. Myasthenia gravis is a …A… disorder affecting …B… junction leading to fatigue, weakening and
paralysis of skeletal muscle.
Fill in the blanks A and B with an appropriate option.
(a) A–autoimmune, B–neuromuscular
(b) A–liver, B–neuromuscular
(c) A–spleen, B–neuromuscular
(d) A–bone and muscle, B–neuromuscular
43. Six of the 206 bones of human axial skeleton occur in
(a) skull (b) middle ear
(c) pectoral girdle (d) pelvic girdle
44. Fused vertebrae in humans are
I. Sacral II. Coccygeal III. Thoracic
IV. Cervical V. Lumber
(a) I and II (b) III and IV (c) IV and V (d) II and V
45. Match the following columns.
Column I Column II

A. Patella 1. Foot
B. Carpals 2. Top of shoulder
C. Metatarsals 3. Knee
D. Clavicle 4. Wrist
Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 4 3 1
46. Integration system in the body is
(a) nervous system and respiratory system
(b) endocrine system and circulatory system
(c) circulatory system and digestive system
(d) nervous and endocrine system

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

47. If,a Pateint Bhola came to the OPD of All India Institute of Medical Science,Delhi with Complain of
Dyspnea & Pulmonologist observed the Wheezing Sound during chest inspection from
Stethoscope & the problem of Bhola is increased during seasonal Variations.
After Analysis of their CBC (Complete Blood Count) - it is observed that Eosinophils value is
Raised.
What may be the Probable diagnosis by Pulmonologist from following options?
(a) Heart Attack (b) Silicosis (c) Asthma (d) Angina
48. Assertion- Human have capability to produce concentrate Urine.
Reason- They have Well develop LH & VR which May participates in Counter Current
Mechanisms.
(a) Both Assertion & Reason are not True (b) Both Assertion and Reson are True
(c) Assertion is True but Reason is False (d) Both Assertion and Reason are False
49. If,a Pateint of Heart came to the Cardiology OPD of All India Institute of Medical Sciences,Dr.
Mittal Suggested to their Resident doctor for measurements of the Vitals.
On Measurements of Vitals it is observed that-
P.R.=78 times/Min.,
BP= 150/90,
Body Temperature= 99*F,
Po2 Saturation level is around 95%,
What will be the value of MAP for this Pateint?
(a) 93 mm Hg (b) 60 mm Hg (c) 110 mm Hg (d) 120 mm Hg
50. Which of the statements are not correct?
1. RV= 1200 Ml,
TLC= 6000 Ml,
TV= 500 Ml,
FRC= 2300 Ml,
VC= 4600 Ml,
2. ⁠C.O. = S. V. x H.R.
3. GFR= 125ml / Sec.
4. ⁠Sympathetic N. System Causes Bradycardia,

5. ⁠Alpha -1 Antitrypsin may Effective in Respiratory Disorders as Emphysema.

6. ⁠Sarcomere = 1/2 I + 1 A + 1/2 I & it is named as Anatomical unit of muscle Contraction,

7. ⁠Malfunctioning of kidney leads to Renal Calculi,

8. ⁠ALH is not Permeable for Water.

9. ⁠U Shape HL is Present in Renal Medulla.

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

10. ⁠ Most of the Nephrons are Cortical Nephrons.

11. ⁠Radula- Molluscs,

Statocyst- Arthropoda,
Parapodia-Annelids,
Bioluminescence-Ctenophore,
Compound Eyes-Arthropoda.
12. ⁠T Wave - Repolarisation of Ventricles.
13. There are 7 Obligate categories in which Kingdom is present on Top & Species is present on
Base.
14. ⁠Trachea Divides at T5 level.

15. ⁠Kidney lies from T12 - S3.

16. Scapula lies in between 2nd to 7th ribs & they are considered under Pectoral girdle of body that
present on ventral side of body.
17. ⁠1 Kidney have almost 1 Billion Nephrons.

18. ⁠ Struthio is Uricotilics yet Macaca is Ureotilics.

19. ⁠Metagenesis is observed in Obelia,

20. ⁠Metastasis is observed in Malignant Cancer Cell,

21. ⁠Blue Green Algae belongs from Green Alagae (Chlorophycae).

22. ⁠Aurelia-Jelly fish,

Lepisma- Silver fish,
Hippopotamus- Sea Horse,
Nematode- Ascaris.
(a) 4, 6, 7, 9, 13, 15, 17, 21, 22 only (b) 4, 6, 7, 9, 15, 16, 17, 21 only
(c) 4, 6, 7, 9, 15, 16, 17, 21, 22 only (d) NOTA

***

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Minor Test (XI-NEET)

12th Minor Test XI-NEET (1st & 2nd Batch) #Answer–Key#

PHYSICS Date:19-01-2025
1. a 6. a 11. a 16. c 21. a 26. d 31. b 36. d 41. c 46. c
2. c 7. a 12. b 17. a 22. a 27. b 32. c 37. c 42. c 47. d
3. b 8. d 13. b 18. a 23. c 28. d 33. d 38. a 43. c 48. b
4. a 9. d 14. c 19. b 24. b 29. a 34. a 39. c 44. d 49. d
5. b 10. d 15. a 20. a 25. a 30. d 35. c 40. a 45. a 50. a
CHEMISTRY
1. b 6. a 11. c 16. a 21. a 26. a 31. c 36. a 41. a 46. b
2. a 7. c 12. b 17. d 22. d 27. a 32. b 37. b 42. c 47. d
3. a 8. d 13. d 18. c 23. d 28. b 33. c 38. b 43. d 48. b
4. d 9. a 14. b 19. c 24. d 29. b 34. a 39. c 44. d 49. c
5. b 10. d 15. b 20. c 25. c 30. a 35. a 40. a 45. c 50. a
BOTANY
1. b 6. b 11. b 16. a 21. a 26. b 31. d 36. a 41. a 46. b
2. b 7. b 12. b 17. d 22. d 27. a 32. a 37. b 42. a 47. b
3. b 8. d 13. b 18. b 23. c 28. c 33. c 38. b 43. a 48. d
4. d 9. b 14. c 19. c 24. a 29. c 34. a 39. c 44. a 49. b
5. c 10. d 15. b 20. c 25. b 30. b 35. a 40. c 45. a 50. b
ZOOLOGY
1. a 6. b 11. b 16. c 21. d 26. b 31. c 36. b 41. d 46. d
2. b 7. a 12. d 17. a 22. d 27. b 32. c 37. a 42. a 47. c
3. b 8. c 13. a 18. b 23. a 28. d 33. b 38. d 43. b 48. b
4. d 9. b 14. a 19. c 24. b 29. b 34. a 39. a 44. a 49. c
5. a 10. c 15. b 20. d 25. b 30. d 35. b 40. d 45. c 50. c

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

12th Minor Test XI-NEET (1st & 2nd Batch) #Answer–Key#

PHYSICS Date:19-01-2025
51. a 56. a 61. a 66. c 71. a 76. d 81. b 86. d 91. c 96. c
52. c 57. a 62. b 67. a 72. a 77. b 82. c 87. c 92. c 97. d
53. b 58. d 63. b 68. a 73. c 78. d 83. d 88. a 93. c 98. b
54. a 59. d 64. c 69. b 74. b 79. a 84. a 89. c 94. d 99. d
55. b 60. d 65. a 70. a 75. a 80. d 85. c 90. a 95. a 100. a
CHEMISTRY
51. b 56. a 61. c 66. a 71. a 76. a 81. c 86. a 91. a 96. b
52. a 57. c 62. b 67. d 72. d 77. a 82. b 87. b 92. c 97. d
53. a 58. d 63. d 68. c 73. d 78. b 83. c 88. b 93. d 98. b
54. d 59. a 64. b 69. c 74. d 79. b 84. a 89. c 94. d 99. c
55. b 60. d 65. b 70. c 75. c 80. a 85. a 90. a 95. c 100. a
BOTANY
51. b 56. b 61. b 66. a 71. a 76. b 81. d 86. a 91. a 96. b
52. b 57. b 62. b 67. d 72. d 77. a 82. a 87. b 92. a 97. b
53. b 58. d 63. b 68. b 73. c 78. c 83. c 88. b 93. a 98. d
54. d 59. b 64. c 69. c 74. a 79. c 84. a 89. c 94. a 99. b
55. c 60. d 65. b 70. c 75. b 80. b 85. a 90. c 95. a 100. b
ZOOLOGY
51. a 56. b 61. b 66. c 71. d 76. b 81. c 86. b 91. d 96. d
52. b 57. a 62. d 67. a 72. d 77. b 82. c 87. a 92. a 97. c
53. b 58. c 63. a 68. b 73. a 78. d 83. b 88. d 93. b 98. b
54. d 59. b 64. a 69. c 74. b 79. b 84. a 89. a 94. a 99. c
55. a 60. c 65. b 70. d 75. b 80. d 85. b 90. d 95. c 100. c

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