KOLEJ MATRIKULASI

NEGERI SEMBILAN

YGOLOIB
EDITION 2021/2022

KOLEKSI

SB015 SOALAN
 MOLECULES OF LIFE
PART A: STRUCTURED QUESTIONS

1.1 Water

1. FIGURE 1A shows a molecule of water.

r.

(i) State one (1) property of water. [1 mark]

(ii) State the maximum number of hydrogen bonds that can be formed by
a water molecule with other water molecules. [1 mark]

1.2 Carbohydrates

2.
a. State two characteristics used in monosaccharide classification [2 marks]
b. Maltose is type of dissacharide. draw the hydrolysis process of maltose. [2 marks]
c. Figure 1 shows the structure of polysaccharide A and B that can be found in a plant cell.

Polysaccharide A
Polisakarida A

Polysaccharide B
Polisakarida B

Figure 1
Rajah 1

(i) Name the Polysaccharide A and B. [2 marks]

(ii) Differentiate the structure of polysaccharide A and B based on the following aspect: [2 marks]
(iii) How does consumption of vegetable cellulose in daily diet help you? [2 marks]

1
3. FIGURE lB shows a breakdown of a disaccharide.

(i) Identify the monomer of disaccharide V. [1 mark]

(ii) Explain the formation of disaccharide V. [3 marks]
(iii) Name the bond that link the monomers in V. [1 mark]

1.5 DNA and RNA molecules

4. Figure 1 shows the structure of a macromolecule that is made of two strands of polymers

Figure 1
Rajah 1

(a) Identify the type of polymer and describe it’s an arrangement. [2 marks]
(b) Explain why the molecule has the same amount of purine and pyrimidines [4 marks]

1.2 Carbohydrates

5. Figure 1 shows part of cellulose, the major component of cell walls in plants.

2
 a) Cellulose is an important raw material in the production of cloth and cellophane [3 marks]
because of its tensile strength. Explain briefly how cellulose provides the strength.

1.4 Proteins

6. Figure 1.2 shows the structure of the amino acid alanine and cysteine.

Alanine Cysteine
Alanina Sistina

i) Draw a dipeptide based on structure in Figure 1.2 [2 marks]

ii) Name the bond formed between the two amino acid [1 mark]

PART A: ESSAY QUESTIONS

1.1 Water

1. Describe five properties of water and the importance of each. [10 marks]

2. Explain five properties of water in relation to hydrogen bonds that make it so [10marks]
vital to all living organisms.

1.3 Lipids

3. Distinguish between saturated and unsaturated fat. [10 marks]

4. Describe the structure of a triacylglycerol and explain the formation [10 marks]

5. Explain the formation and breakdown of triglyceride. [5 marks]

1.5 DNA and RNA molecules

6. Differentiate between DNA and RNA. [10 marks]

7. Compare the structure and functions between DNA and RNA [10 marks]
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 C ELL STRUCTURES AND FUNCTIONS
PART A : STRUCTURED QUESTIONS

2.1 Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

1. Figure 1 shows two types of cells X and Y.

Figure 1
a) i) Identify cell X and cell Y. [2marks]
ii) Compare between cell X and cell Y based on Figure 1. [2marks]
b) i) What are the TWO main components of structure V? [2marks]
ii) What happen to the size of Wwhen cell Y is placed in hypotonic solution? Give your reason.
[2marks]
c) Based on FIGURE 1,give two reasons why cell X and Y are eukaryotic cells. [2marks]

2.2 Structures and functions : cell membrane and organelles

2. Figure 2 shows a cross section of a plasma membrane. [PSPM PDT 2016/2017]

Figure 2
a) Name the structures labeled C and D. [2marks]
b) What is the name of the membrane model in Figure 2? [1mark]
c) Give brief descriptions of the model. [2marks]
d) State the function of structure labelled F. [1mark]
e) Give TWO examples of passive transport across plasma membrane. [2marks]
f) State TWO functions of protein membrane. [2marks]
 3. Figure 3 shows the structure of cell membrane

Figure 3
a) i) Name Component A. [1marks]
ii) Explain the component A is able assemble itself into the structure shows in Figure 3.
[3 marks]
iii) How does component B stabilise the fluidity of the membrane at difference temperature?
[3marks]
b) Describe how glucose is passively transported across membrane. [4marks]

4. Figure 4 shows two types of organelle found in animal cells.

Figure 4

a) Identify structure X. [1mark]

b) What is the function of organelle A? [1mark]
c) i) Describe how the structures of organelle B help it to function as the site of energy synthesis.
[1mark]
ii) Why organelle B can synthesis its own enzyme? [1mark]

5.
a) Differentiate the structure of animal and plant cells. [3marks]
b) Relate the function of cell membrane with its phospholipid components. [2marks]
c) Give two (2) structural between compact bone and hyaline cartilage. [2 marks]

6. a) Figure 5 shows the structure of an organelle.

 Figure 5
i) Name Q and R. [2marks]
ii) A poison inhibit enzyme at Q. Name the process that is affected by the poison.
[1mark]
iii) List the structural similarities between organelle in FIGURE 5 and prokaryote.
[2marks]

7.
d) Differentiate the structure of animal and plant cells. [3marks]
e) Relate the function of cell membrane with its phospholipid components. [2marks]

2.3 Cell are grouped into tissues.

8. Figure 6 below shows three types of muscles A, B and C.

Figure 6

a) What is the function of structure T? [1mark]

b) What is the functional unit for muscle contraction in A. [1mark]
c) Differentiate the structure between A and C. [3marks]
d) Explain the function of B in oesophagus. [2marks]
e) What contribute to the striation in A and C? [2marks]
 2.4Cell transport

9. Figure 7 shows the mechanism in active transport.

Figure 7
i) Name process A and B. [2marks]
ii) Explain process A. [2marks]
iii) Give one (1) difference between process A and B with
exocytosis. [1mark]

10. Figure 8 shows the transport of substance across the membrane by using transport protein X and

Y.

Figure 8
i) Name the type of transport which involves X. [1mark]
ii) Differentiate the transport mechanism between protein X and Y. [3marks]
iii) What will happend to the movement and concentration of the ions across membrane if
protein X fails to function? [2marks]

PART B : ESSAY QUESTIONS

 2.2 Structures and functions : cell membrane and organelle

1. a. A human liver cell produces many types of proteins to be used outside of the cell. Using your
knowledge on the endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi body, explain the path of proteins production to
excretion in cell. [10 marks]
b.Plasma membrane is semi-permeable. State the importance of this characteristic and
identify the main components of the membrane that contribute to this characteristic.[10marks]

2.3 Cells are grouped into tissues.

2. a) Differentiate between animal and plant cells [8 marks]
b) Explain the structure and function of the following cells: [12 marks]
i) Parenchyma
ii) Collenchyma

2.4 Cell transport

3. a) Give the difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes [6marks]

b) Describe the transport mechanism across membrane of eukaryotic cells. [6marks]
c) Describe the difference between structure of plant and animal cells and draw a relevant
labelled diagram to show the differences.[8marks]

4. a) Compare between passive transport and active transport. [8marks]

b) Describe the types of muscle. [12marks]

5. a) Briefly explain the movement of substances across the membrane through facilitated diffusion
and osmosis.
[6marks]
 TOPIC: CELL DIVISION

PART A: STRUCTURED QUESTIONS

3.1 Cell cycle

1) Figure 1 shows a cell cycle and one of the stages in mitosis B.

Figure 1

a) Name the mitotic stage shown in B. Shade the area on the cell cycle the stage represented by B in figure
1. [2 marks]
b) State the chromosomal behaviour shown in B [1 mark]
c) Give one important event that occurs during the S phase in the cell cycle. [1 mark]
d) A cat has 38 chromosomes in its somatic cell. How many chromosomes are inherited from the female
parents? Explain your answer. [2 marks]

2) Figure 2 shows a cell cycle

Figure 2

a) Name phase P. [1 mark]

b) Describe the events that occur in phase Q. [2 marks]
c) Explain the importance of phase R. [3 marks]
3) Figure 3 shows the cell cycle of a somatic cell.
Figure SEQ Figure \* ARABIC
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 Figure 3

a) Name phase S and T. [2 marks]

b) Differentiate process T in animal and plant cells. [3 marks]

3.2 Mitosis

4) Figure 4 shows a diploid cell which consists of eight chromosomes undergoes cell division.

Figure 4

a) Identify the process and stage of cell division in figure 2. [2 marks]

b) Give reason for your answer in 2(a)(i) [1 mark]
c) Name the structure Y and Z. [2 marks]
d) State what happens if structure Z is absent. [1 mark]
e) Give two importance of cell division in figure 2. [2 marks]
f) State the result of cell division if a nondisjunction of chromosome labelled X occurs. [2 marks]

5) Figure 5 shows the type of cells L and M.

 L M
Figure 5

i. Name the events of cell division that occur in both types of cells in Figure 3.2. [1 mark]
ii. Differentiate process 3(b)(I) between cell L and M? [2 marks]

6) Figure 6 shows a mitotic division that occurs in animal cell (2n = 4).

Figure 6

a) Identify the phase in FIGURE 6. State one (1) event that occurs during this phase. [2 marks]
b) Draw and label chromosomal behavior before the phase shown in Figure 6. [3 marks]

7) Figure 7 shows the two stages of a cell division in a somatic cell.

 T U
Figure 7

i. Identify stages T and U. [2 marks]

ii. Based on the answer in 3(a)(i), differentiate between stage T and U. [2 marks]

3.3 Meiosis

8) a) Figure 8 shows different stages of cell division in an organism.

Figure SEQ Figure

Figure 8\* ARABIC 8

i. Name the type of cell division. [1 mark]

ii. State the reason for your answer in a (i) [2 marks]
b) Name the important event that occurs during stage X. [1 mark]
c) Draw the chromosomal behavior during stage Y in the space provided in Figure 2. [1 mark]
d) Differentiate the chromosomal behavior between stage Z shown in Figure 2 and mitotic anaphase.
[2 marks]
e) State Three importance of cell division in Figure 8. [3 marks]
9) Figure 9 shows various stages A - F in meiosis.

Figure 9

a) Arrange the stage of meiosis A-F shown in Figure 1.2 according to the correct sequence . [1 mark]
b) What of the stage in Figure 9 represents anaphase I? Give your reason. [2 marks]
c) What happens to the number of chromosomes at the end of the meiosis? [ 1 mark]

10) Figure 10 shows the chromosomal behaviour in a cell during meiosis.

Figure 10

a) Based on Figure 10, how many DNA is produced in each gamete? [1 mark]
b) How does meiosis cause genetic variation? [1 mark]
11) Figure 11 shows different stages of cell division in P and Q. The alleles G, g. H, h occupy the loci on the
chromosome.
Figure SEQ Figure \* ARABIC 11
 Figure 11

a) Give the name and function of structure S. [2 marks]

b) Identify the stage of cell division in P and Q [2 marks]
c)Give three differences of cell division in P and Q. [3 marks]
d) What is the allele combination for each daughter cell after the completion of cytokinesis in P and Q?
[2 marks]

PART B: ESSAY QUESTIONS

3.1 The cell cycle

1) Describe the interphase stage of the cell cycle in eukaryote. [10 marks]
2) Explain the subphase of interphase in the cell cycle. [10 marks]

3.2 Mitosis
1) Describe three events that are unique in meiosis I. [10 marks]
2) Explain the behaviour of chromosomes at each stage of meiosis I. [7 marks]

3.3 Meiosis
1) Describe 4 similarities and 6 differences between mitosis and meiosis I. [10 marks]
 TOPIC: GENETIC INHERITANCE
PART A: STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
4.1 Mendelian genetics: monohybrid and dihybrid
1) In pea plants, smooth seed shape allele (A) is dominant over wrinkled shape allele (a) and yellow colored allele
(B) is dominant over green colored seed allele (b). A cross was done between pure breed smooth, yellow seeded
plant with wrinkled, green seeded plant producing F 1 generation. Then the F 1 generation were self-crossed and
produced F2 progenies as shown below.

Phenotype Number of pea plant

Smooth, yellow 370
Smooth, green 110
Wrinkled, yellow 120
Wrinkled, green 40

a) Does the above cross follow Mendelian ratio? Give reason to your answer. [2 marks]
b) What are the genotypes for both parents? [2 marks]
c) Draw the genetic diagram to show the above cross until F2 generation. [7 marks]
d) Calculate the percentage of F2 generation expected:
i. to be heterozygous for only one pair of alleles? [1 mark]
ii. to be pure breed? [1 mark]
iii. can be used as test cross parents? [1 mark]

2) The phenotype of tomatoes is controlled by two genes, A (fruit shape) and B (skin type). Round fruit is dominant to
long fruit and smooth skin is dominant to hairy skin.
i. State the phenotype of tomatoes with genotypes Aabb and aaBB. [2 marks]
ii. Tomatoes with genotype AaBb were crossed with tomatoes with genotype aabb. Use Punnett square to show
this cross and the ratio of offspring phenotypes. [4 marks]

3) In garden pea plant, purple flower (P) and inflated pod shape (F) is dominant over white flower (p) and constricted
pod shape (f).
i. Use a Punnett square to show the test cross of a heterozygous garden pea plant. [3 marks]
ii. What is the genotypic ratio of the F1 generation? [1 mark]
iii. What are the phenotypes of the F1 generation? [1 mark]
iv. Which Mendel’s law explains the combination of alleles in the above cross? [1 mark]

4) Peas that produced yellow and round seeds were crossed with peas that produced green and wrinkled seeds. F1
progeny were all yellow and rounds. F1 progeny were self-fertilized to produce F2 progeny. Genes that control seed
color was indicated as G (yellow); g (green) and gene that control seed texture were indicated as R (round); r
(wrinkled).
a) i. State the type of Mendelian inheritance describes above. [1 mark]
ii. Give your reason to the answer in a) i. [1 mark]
b) What are the genotype of both parental strains? [2 marks]
c) Determine the gametes produced from the crossing in (b). [1 mark]
d) Write all the genotypes and phenotypes of the F1 generation. [2 marks]
e) What are the four phenotype and its phenotypic ratio if the two seed traits (color and texture) were inherited
independently in F2 generation. [2 marks]
f) what are the dominant alleles involved in e)? [1 mark]

4.2 Deviations from the Mendelian Inheritance

5) Haemophilia A is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder that prevents blood clotting.
i. Define X-linked recessive inheritance. [2 marks]
ii. Mary, a haemophilia carrier, marries John, who has a normal X chromosome. Using suitable symbols, draw a
Punnett square to show the possible genotypes and phenotypes of their offspring including the ratio of
haemophilic offspring. [5 marks]

6) When a true breed sweet pea plant with purple flower (P) and long pollen (L) is crossed with a true-breed sweet
pea plant with white flower (p) and round pollen (l), all the progeny has purple flower and long pollen. A dihybrid
test cross will produce the following number of progeny:
Phenotype Number of Progeny
Purple, long 129
Purple, round 50
White, long 43
White, round 132
TABLE 1
i. State the dominant traits of the sweet pea plant. [1 mark]
ii. What type of inheritance shown at TABLE 1? State your reason. [2 marks]
iii. Use a Punnett square to show the dihybrid test cross. [3 marks]
iv. Calculate the map distance between genes P and L. [3 marks]

7) In sesame plants, the one-pod fruit (H) is dominant to the three-pod fruit (h), and normal leaf (F) is dominant
to wrinkled leaf (f). A cross was done between homozygous one-pod, normal leaf plant with homozygous three-
pod, wrinkled leaf plant. The F1 generation was then crossed with three-pod and wrinkled leaf plant, producing the
following progenies:
150 one pod and normal leaf
147 three-pod and wrinkled leaf
51 three-pod and normal leaf
48 one-pod and wrinkled leaf
a) State the condition of the cross that produced the above progenies. Give your reasons. [2 marks]
b) What is the genotype of the F1 generation? [1 mark]
c) Draw the genetic diagram to represent the crosses in question above and give the phenotypic ratio of the
produced progenies. [4 marks]
d) Calculate the distance between these two genes. [2 marks]
e) Map these genes. [1 mark]

8) FIGURE 3 shows a testcross

a) What is the purpose of a testcross? [1 mark]

b) State the Mendel’s second law [2 marks]
c) Give a genotype of
i. The two parents of P [2 marks]
 ii. Use punnet square to show the progenies of the above testcross. [2 marks]
d) How do recombinant genotype form? [1 mark]
e) Assume that a total of 300 progenies are produced, and the map distance between A and D is 18cM, calculate the
most ideal number of each recombinant progeny. [2 marks]

4.3 Genetic mapping

9) A test cross was carried out on Drosophila sp. with grey body and normal wing produces the following progenies:

Phenotype Number of progeny

Grey body, normal wing 869
Black body, vestigial wing 877
Grey body, vestigial wing 111
Black body, normal wing 109

i. Determine the genotypes of both parents in the above cross. (Assume that allele G codes for grey body and allele
W codes for normal wing). [1 mark]
ii. Calculate the genetic distance between the body color and wing size genes. [3 marks]

10) Heterozygous fruit flies with a black body and purple eyes were mated with homozygous flies that have grey body
and red eyes. They produced 1000 offspring, 880 of the two parental types (black body, purple eyes and grey body,
red eyes) and 120 of the two recombinants types (grey body, purple eyes and black body, red eyes).
i. Calculate the percentage of recombinant types of offspring. [1 mark]
ii. Determine map units between the body and eye colour loci. [1 mark]

PART B: ESSAY QUESTIONS

4.1 Mendelian genetics: monohybrid and dihybrid
1) Allele for red flower (R) is dominant over allele for white flower (r). A true breed red flowered plant is crossed with
a true breed white flowered plant. The F1 generation is self-crossed. Construct genetic diagrams of the crosses.
[8 marks]

2) State Mendel’s first and second laws. Explain the conditions which these laws are applicable. [10 marks]

3) Ismail has brown hair and blue eyes. He is married to a woman with black hair and brown eyes, heterozygous for
both genes. Explain how their children would have black hair and blues eyes. (the trait of brown eyes and black
hair is dominant over blue eyes and brown hair) [10 marks]

4.2 Deviations from the Mendelian Inheritance

4) The inheritance of coat colour in cattle is controlled by multiple alleles with a dominance hierarchy as follows: S >
sh > sc > s. The S allele produces a white band all over the cattle’s body known as the ‘Dutch band’, the sh allele
produces spots on the skin known as ‘Hereford’, the sc allele produces solid colour, and the s allele produces
“Holstein’ spots. Homozygous “Dutch band’ males are crossed to ‘Holstein’ females. The F1 females are crossed
to ‘Hereford’ males of the shsc genotype. With the aid of genetic diagram, determine the expected genotypic and
phenotypic frequencies in the F2 progeny. [10 marks]

5) A man with AB blood group marries a woman with B blood group. The couple has three boys and one girl with
different types of blood group. With the aid of a genetic diagram, describe the crossing. [10 mark]

6) Explain polygenic inheritance. [8 marks]

7) With the aid of genetic diagram, explain incomplete dominance and its inheritance in snapdragon (Antirrhinum sp.).
 [12 marks]

8) Explain multiple alleles using human blood group as an example. [8 marks]

9) Give the definition for sex-linked genes. Explain sex-linked inheritance by using the color blindness as
an example [12
marks]
 TOPIC 5.0: POPULATION GENETIC
5.1 Gene pool concept.
5.2 Hardy -Weinberg Law

STRUCTURE QUESTIONS

1. A farmer has 2000 cows. A total of 1500 of the cows are brown coated and the rest are white coated. Allele B
for the brown coat is dominant, while allele b for the white coat is recessive. Assume theta the population of the
cows is at genetic equilibrium and bred randomly.
a) Calculate the frequency for the dominant and recessive alleles of the population. [2 marks]
b) Calculate the genotype frequencies in the F1 generation if the cows are left to breed randomly.
[ 3marks]
c) If the farmer adds another 1000 homozygous dominant brown cows into the population, calculate the
new dominant allele frequency. [2 marks]
d) State three (3) conditions for the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium to be achieved. [3 marks]

2. Long wings in Drosophila are dominant to vestigial wings. In a population of 10000 Drosophila, 550 has
vestigial wings. Assume that the population is in Hardy – Weinberg equilibrium.
a) Calculate the frequency of the recessive allele. [2 marks]
b) Calculate the frequency of the homozygous dominant genotype. [2 marks]
c) Calculate the number of heterozygous Drosophila in the population. [3 marks]
d) State three (3) assumption in the Hardy – Weinberg equilibrium. [3 marks]

3. One out of 16 people in a particular country is affected by β-thalassemia major which is a genetic disorder.
Assume the population in the country fulfil Hardy-weinberg equilibrium.
a) Determine the allele frequency for β-thalassemia major. [2 marks]
b) Calculate the number of carrier among 10,000 populations in the country. [4 marks]

4. In a population of 13,000 wild chickens, 16% have short legs which is a recessive trait. Assuming the
population is in Hardy- Weinberg equilibrium, how many wilds chickens are heterozygote in the next
generation if the population size increases to 15,000? [7 marks]

5 In a population of mice, allele for yellow fur (E) is dominant over allele for grey fur (e). It was found that 16
of the mice have grey fur. It is assumed that the populations are at genetic equilibrium.
a) Give TWO assumptions used in the Hardy Weinberg equilibrium. [2 marks]
b) Calculate the frequency of yellow and grey fur alleles. [3 marks]
c) Calculate the number of heterozygotes mice in a population of 1000 mice. [2 marks]

6. In a population of 1000 snails that mate randomly , 800 of the snails are grey in which shell colour is
controlled by two alleles ; G for grey and g for white ( the population is assumed to be in Hardy – Weinberg
equilibrium)
a) Calculate the dominant and recessive allele frequencies [3 marks]
b) Calculate the number of snails which are heterozygous for this trait. [2 marks]
 TOPIC: MUTATION

PART A: STRUCTURED QUESTIONS

7.2 Gene mutation

1) a) Figure 1.1 shows types of small-scale mutations that affect mRNA and amino acids sequences.

Figure 1.1

i. Identify gene mutation I ,II and III. [3 marks]

ii. Among mutation I, II and III which is the least severe? Give a reason. [2 marks]
iii. Give two differences between mutation I and III. [2 marks]

b) Figure 1.2 shows normal and mutation sequences of haemoglobin

Figure 1.2

i. Name the disease caused by the mutation in Figure 1.2 [1 mark]

ii. The heterozygous gene for mutated haemoglobin above is resistant to malaria. Give your reasons.
[2 marks]

1
 2) Table 1 shows an example of point mutation at an amino acid site which codes Lysine.

No mutation Mutation W Mutation X Mutation Y

DNA TTC TTT ATC TCC

RNA AAG AAA Z AGG
Protein Lys Lys STOP Arg

Table 1

a) Identify mutation W, X and Y. [3 marks]

b) Differentiate between mutation X and Y. [2 marks]
c) State the RNA sequence for Z. [1 mark]

3) Figure 2 shows mutation at a codon in a gene coding for β-globin.

Figure 2

a) Name and define the gene mutation shown in above . [2 marks]

b) What is the effect of gene mutation in Figure 2 [2 marks]
c) State one effect of mutant β-globin [1 mark]

4) Explain briefly how insertion of a nucleotide base in a gene can shorten a specific protein during frameshift
mutation. [3 marks]

5) Table 2 below shows a sequence of DNA coding that has been mutated.

Table 2

2
 a) Define mutation. [1 mark]
b) i. State the type of gene mutation shown in Table 2. [1 mark]
ii.Identify the disease. [1 mark]
iii. Explain your answer in 5(b)(ii). [4 marks]
c) Explain the effects of this mutation to the infected individual. [3 marks]
d) State another type of gene mutation. [1 mark]

7.3 Chromosomal mutation

6) a) Define chromosomal mutation. [1 mark]

b) State all types of chromosomal aberrations [2 marks]
c) What happens during cell division that leads to alteration of chromosome number mutation to occur?
[1 mark]

7) Figure 3 shows a karyotype of a person with Down syndrome

Figure 3

a) What type of the alteration of chromosomal number mutation shows in Figure 3? [1 mark]
b) State three physical characteristics of Down syndrome individuals. [3 marks]
c) Explain how chromosomal mutation may cause Down syndrome. [2 marks]

8) a) Name two types of chromosome mutation. [2 marks]

b) State two diseases caused by chromosome mutation. [2 marks]

3
9) Figure 4 shows formation of polyploidy in plants.

Figure 4

a) Why is plant C sterile? [1 mark]

b) Suggest how plant C can reproduce. [1 mark]
c) How does the process X produce fertile offspring? [2 marks]
d) Describe the reproductive characters of plant D. [3 marks]
e) Apart of the process shown in Figure 4 suggests another method on how plant D can be formed.
[1 mark]

10) a) Figure 5.1 shows the types of chromosomal aberration.

Figure 5.1

i. Define chromosomal aberration. [1 mark]

ii. Identify chromosomal aberration S and T. [2 marks]
iii. State two differences between chromosomal aberration S and T. [2 marks]

4
b) Figure 5.2 shows the karyotypes of two individuals suffering from genetic disorders.

Figure 5.2

i. Name the genetic disorder for individual A and B. [2 marks]

ii. Give three characteristics of individuals B. [3 marks]
iii. How does the genetic disorder in individual A occur? [3 marks]

11) a) Explain how chromosomal number can be altered and cause Down syndrome. [4 marks]

b) Figure 6 shows the hybridization of two plant species, Galeopsis pubescens and Galeopsis speciosa
which produced G. tetrahit

Figure 6

Based on Figure 6, answer the following questions.

i. Identify the type of ploidy. [1
mark]
ii. Determine the ploidy number for the sterile hybrid, F1. [1
mark]
iii. Give a reason why the F1 hybrids are sterile. [1
mark]

5
PART B: ESSAY QUESTIONS

7.1 Mutation classification and types

1) Describe spontaneous mutation and induced mutation. [8 marks]

7.2 Gene mutation

2) Explain briefly frameshift mutation. [10 marks]

7.3 Chromosomal mutation

3) State the main cause of mutation in chromosomal number and explain the consequence from the
mutation. [10 marks]

4) Differentiate between Klinefelter syndrome and Turner syndrome. [12 marks]

6
 TOPIC 8.0: RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

PART A: STRUCTURED QUESTIONS

8.1 Recombinant DNA Technology

1) Figure 1 shows the process of producing recombinant DNA molecule.

Figure 1
a) Name the bond that is digested (cut) by the restriction enzyme in step A. [1 mark]
b) Identify part B. [1 mark]
c) Name the enzyme that is involved in step C. [1 mark]
d) Give one example of plasmid. [1 mark]
e) Give three characteristics of plasmid as a cloning vector. [3 marks]
f) Name a technique that is used to ensure a plasmid contains foreign DNA. [1 mark]
 2) Figure 2.1 is DNA sequence of a gene segment. Figure 2.2 shows a restriction site for enzyme SmaI.

a) Show how enzyme SmaI cuts the gene segment to produce blunt ends. [2 marks]

3) a) Describe the functions of restriction in gene cloning. [2 marks]

b) What is the characteristic of a good host cell to be used in recombinant DNA technology? [2 marks]
c) Name the enzyme used to join DNA fragments and state how it works. [2 marks]

4) Figure 3 shows two DNA strands P and Q.

a) Identify the restriction enzymes which cut P and Q. [2 marks]

b) How many pieces of DNA fragments are produced by cutting P with restriction enzymes?
[1 mark]
c) List the sticky ends base sequence of cleaved P and Q. [2 marks]
d) What would happen if the restriction enzyme in bacterial cell fails to function? [1 mark]

8.2 Methods in Gene Cloning

1) a) Figure 1.1 shows the steps of gene cloning.

i. Name the tools that are used in: [2 marks]

ii. State the characteristic of the tool in step 2. [2 marks]
iii. Name the organism that is commonly used as a host cell. [1 mark]
iv. Give two characteristics of the host cell in 1(c ). [2 marks]

b) Figure 1.2 shows Plasmid M.

Gene of interest is inserted between ampicillin gene. The recombinant DNA molecules is then
transformed into a host cell. Will the host cell survive in a medium containing ampicillin?
Explain briefly. [2 marks]
2) a) Describe how recombinant plasmid are formed. [4 marks]
b) Explain the application of blue/white screening in selecting recombinant plasmid. [3 marks]

3) Table 1 shows the results of screening process in recombinant DNA technology by using antibiotics and
X-gal.

a) Identify the screening technique used. [1 mark]

b) Why does the tetracycline antibiotics inhibit the growth of bacterial colony? [1 mark]
c) What is the function of ampicillin in the screening process? [1 mark]
d) What is indicated by the white colonies? [1 mark]
e) Explain your answer in 3(d). [3 marks]

4) Figure 2 below shows the gene cloning process.

 a) Name the enzymes that used to cut and join the DNA fragments. [2 marks]
b) Why do the plasmid and gene of interest need to be cut by the same enzyme? [1 mark]
c) Explain how enzyme B attaches desired DNA to the plasmid. [2 marks]
d) Name the process which introduces molecule C into bacterial cells. [1 mark]
e) Describe how screening technique can detect recombinant plasmid. [5 marks]
f) State three subsequent steps after cutting the donor DNA and the plasmid DNA. [3 marks]

5) Figure 3 below shows part of a process involved in gene cloning.

 a) Name step A and structure B. [2 marks]
b) What is the type of enzyme involved in step A? [1 mark]
c) Explain how the enzyme acts in producing structure B. [4 marks]
d) State another type of end that can be formed. [1 mark]
e) State the modifying enzyme involved in subsequent step and how it works. [2 marks]
f) Give two characteristics of plasmid as a cloning vector. [2 marks]
g) Explain the characteristics of E.coli as host cell. [4 marks]

8.3 Application of Recombinant DNA Technology

1) a) Give two examples of genetically modified organism used in agriculture. [2 marks]

b) Figure 1 shows the productions of human insulin using DNA recombinant technology.
 i. Give two advantages of using complementary DNA (cDNA) in gene cloning. [2 marks]
ii. Name molecule Q. [1 mark]
iii. Name an organism that can be used as a host in gene cloning. [1 mark]
iv. Name the enzyme that joins the plasmid vector with the human cDNA. [1 mark]
v. State two advantages of producing insulin through genetic engineering. [2 marks]
vi. Name another method that can be used to produce many copies of gene. [1 mark]

2) Figure 2 shows part of the stages in the synthesis of human insulin using recombinant DNA technology.

a) Identify molecule X and Y. [2 marks]

b) What would be the consequences if enzyme reverse transcriptase or DNA polymerase are
non-functional? [2 marks]
c) Explain briefly how sticky ends are linked when cDNA and Y molecule are mixed.[2 marks]
 d) State one benefit of insulin production using this method. [1 mark]

PART B: ESSAY
8.1 Recombinant DNA Technology
1) Describe the characteristic of restriction enzyme and give one example. [7 marks]
2) a) What are the differences between a plasmid and chromosome? [8 marks]
b) Give the definition for restriction enzyme and explain how these enzymes involved in recombinant
DNA technology. [5 marks]

8.2 Methods in Gene Cloning

none
8.3 Application of Recombinant DNA Technology
1) Describe the steps in the production of insulin cDNA. [7 marks]
2) How are bacteria genetically engineered to produced human insulin? [7 marks]
 TOPIC: REPRODUCTION AND DEVELOPMENT

PART A: STRUCTURE QUESTIONS

8.2 Sexual reproduction in flowering plants

1) FIGURE 1 shows an embryo sac of a flowering plant.

FIGURE 1

a) State the location in the flower where the embryo sac is present.
[1 mark]
b) How many nuclei are there in the embryo sac? [1 mark]
i. Two cells will be fertilized by male gametes. Name that cell and what are the end products?
ii. State how the two male gametes are developed. [2 marks]
c) What happens to the embryo sac and embryo after fertilization?
[2 marks]

2) FIGURE 2 shows the vertical section through a flower carpel.

FIGURE 2

a) Identify P and Q. [2 marks]

b) Name the structure that will be developed from the ovary and integument after fertilization.
[2 marks]
c) Explain briefly the consequences if R fails to undergo meiosis. [3 marks]
3) FIGURE 3 shows a process that occurs in flowering plants.

FIGURE 3

a) Explain the process shown in FIGURE 3 [5 marks]

4) FIGURE 4 shows the germination of a pollen grain in flowering plant.

FIGURE 4

i.Name cell X and Y in FIGURE 4. [2 marks]

ii.If the pollen tube penetrates the embryo sac, state the fertilization mechanism that would occur.
[1 mark]
iii.Describe the process in 4(ii). [4 marks]
8.3 Human Reproductive System

5) FIGURE 5 shows the reproductive cycle of the human female.

FIGURE 5

a) Name the two cycles involved in the female reproductive cycle. [2 marks]
b) Identify homones Q and R. [2 marks]
c) Identify phase B. [1 mark]
d) Relate the roles of hormone R to the function of hormone P. [2 marks]
e) Briefly explain the function of X if fertilization occurs. [3 marks]

6) FIGURE 6 shows fertilization in human.

FIGURE 6

a) Identify structure A and B. [2 marks]

b) Briefly explain the events during fertilization as shows in FIGURE 6. [4 marks]
 c) Only one of the egg cells is fertilized. What happens to the other haploid cells? [1 mark]
d) Give two (2) important genetic consequences of fertilization. [2 marks]
e) What happens to the secondary oocyte if there is no sperm successfully enter the egg cells?

[1 mark]
7) FIGURE 7 shows the menstruation cycle in human.

FIGURE 7

a) Name phases A and B. [2 marks]

b) Identify the structure that produce these hormones. [2 marks]
c) State one importance of the following hormone
[2 marks]
d) i. Name the event that occurs at X in ovary. [1 mark]
ii. Describe the hormone level after X. [1 mark]
e) If fertilization occurs, which hormone is responsible for the thickness of endometrial walls?

[1 mark]

8) FIGURE 8 shows hormonal control during spermatogenesis in human males.

 FIGURE 8

a) Identify gland A [1 mark]

b) State the function of hormone [1 mark]
c) Explain the hormonal regulation when sperm count is high [3 marks]
d) State the phases in ovarian cycle and explain the events that occur in each phase
[5 marks]

9) FIGURE 9 shows concentration of hormones during pregnancy.

FIGURE 7

a) Name hormones X, Y and Z. [3 marks]

b) State why hormone X declines after the first trimester of pregnancy. [2 marks]
c) During second trimester of pregnancy, 20% of women may experience bleeding. Relate
bleeding with the level of hormone during pregnancy. [2 marks]
 d) Explain briefly why levels of hormone Y remains high hormone Z drops at the end
of pregnancy.
[3 marks]

10) FIGURE 10 shows the levels of different ovarian hormones if a female reproductive cycle.

FIGURE 10
i. Name hormone X and Y. [2 marks]
ii. State the function of hormone Y. [1 mark]
iii. Why does the level of both hormones start to decline on day 24? [2 marks]

11) FIGURE 11 shows a process of spermatogenesis in humans.

FIGURE 11

a) Identify process P and T in FIGURE 11. [2 marks]

b) State the importance of process T. [1 mark]
c) Name the cell that provide nutrients during spermatogenesis. [1 mark]
d) What happened if the cell in 11(c) is absent in seminiferous tubule? [1 mark]
PART B: ESSAY QUESTIONS

1. a) Explain hormonal regulation of the menstrual cycle.

[10 marks]
b) Explain the formation of haploid, diploid and triploid nuclei in plant reproduction. [10 marks]

2. a) Compare spermatogenesis and oogenesis.

[8 marks]
b) Describe in sequence the role of hormones involved in menstrual cycle. [12 marks]

3. a) Explain the sequence of post-fertilization events in humans, from zygote to the formation of germ
,layers. [12 marks]
b) Describe double fertilization in flowering plants. [8 marks]

4. a) Explain how female gametophytes are formed in flowering plants. [7 marks]

b) Explain the hormonal control of spermatogenesis. [10 marks]

5. a) With the help of a labelled diagram, describe the structure of the secondary oocyte. [7 marks]

6. a) Explain the oogenesis process in a human. [7 marks]

b) Explain the interaction of the hormones which leads to the development of follicles in human
reproductive system. [ 6 marks]

7) a) Explain the development of pollen grain and the formation of male gametes in flowering plants.
[7 marks]
b) Explain the hormones involvement during the first trimester of pregnancy. [7 marks]
 GROWTH
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS

10.2 Type of growth curve

1. FIGURE 8 shows a standard bacterial growth curve in a culture.

(a) Identify and name the phase in FIGURE 8 that has the highest growth rate. [2 mark]
(b) Predict what happened to the number of bacteria after it passed the Z time. [1 mark]

10.3 Growth patterns

2. Figure 9 shows the growth pattern in an animal. Identify and describe

Identify and describe the growth pattern shown. [2 marks]

1
3. Figure 9 shows two types of plant growth patterns.

Q
P

Give TWO differences between P and Q. [2 marks]

4. FIGURE 9 shows a growth pattern of an organism

a) State the type of organism which shows growth pattern in FIGURE 9. [1 mark]
b) What causes the initial drop in dry mass of this organism? [1 mark]

2
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