PSAE ACT Practice

Test IIII
ACT-55C-SAMPLE

PI 1

1. According to the information in the passage, a

sample of marble from which of the following
buildings would be expected to have the
greatest concentration of calcium nitrate on its
surface?
D. A 25-year-old building in a city with high levels
of nitrogen dioxide in the atmosphere.

PI 2

Each sample of marble had a surface area of 24

square centimeters (cm2).
Initial surface area of the sample was the same for all
4 marble samples.

PI 3

Comparing results of Samples 1 and 3 supports the

hypothesis that marble corrodes more quickly when
exposed to:
A. sulfuric acid than when exposed to nitric acid.

PI 4

50

4.1

In Experiment 1, if the scientist had added nitric acid

with a concentration of 50 ppm to a sample of
marble with a surface area of 24 cm 2,
approximately how much marble would have been
lost after 24 hours?
G. 4.1 mg

PI 5

If the scientist were to repeat Experiment 1, but

break every sample of marble into 4 pieces
to increase the surface area exposed to the
acid, how would the mass of marble lost
most likely be affected?

When a sample is broken into 4 pieces,

the surface area is increased.
The acid can then affect more of the
marble surface.
X4=
surface area = 10 cm2
Surface area = 24 cm

surface area = 40 cm2

PI 6
According to the passage, if a scientist
wants to study the effect of nitrogen
dioxide on marble corrosion, the scientist
should measure the amount of which of
the following substances on the surface of
the marble?
Nitric acid, produced when nitrogen
dioxide reacts with water, reacts with
calcium carbonate to form calcium nitrate.
J. Calcium nitrate

PII 7

Difference =

12
8
8 C
9
CC

According to Table 2, by approximately how many

degrees does the boiling point of a linear
hydrocarbon differ from that of a branched
hydrocarbon with the same number of carbon
atoms?
B. 10 C

PII 8
According to
Tables 1 and 3,
which hydrocarbon
has the lowest
density?
Find the lowest
values for density
in Table 3, then
match the number
of carbons for that
hydrocarbon with
those in Table 1.
G. Branched
butane

PII 9

As the number of
carbon atoms
increases, the
boiling point:

D. Increases as
the density
increases.

PII 10

How do the
structures of
butanes (4
carbon atoms)
correspond to
their density?
The cyclic
butane has a
higher density
than the linear
and the linear
has a higher
density than the
branched.

PII 11

Were looking
for boiling
points
which are
lower than
10 C.

Which hydrocarbons in Table 2 are gases at 10 C?

D. The linear and cyclic propanes and and linear
and branched butanes.

PIII 12
In Experiment 1, if an
additional trial were
conducted using the
plastic sphere, the
spheres measured
time of fall would
most likely be
nearest:

F. 0.70 sec.
G. 0.75 sec.
H. 0.80 sec.
J. 0.90 sec.

PIII 13

The students measured

the times required for a
200 g wooden sphere
and a 50 g plastic
sphere to fall 2.5 m to
Earth

The students conducted

Experiments 1 and 2 using
both the wooden sphere
and the plastic sphere,
most likely to determine if a
spheres acceleration was
affected by its composition
and its: A. mass.

PIII 14
When an object falls from a low altitude to
Earth and gravity is the only force acting
upon it, the object will have an acceleration
of 9.8 meters/second2 (m/sec2).

The best evidence that the spheres were

influenced by forces in addition to gravity
was that, during each experiment, the
observed values of acceleration were:
significantly lower that 9.8 m/sec2.

PIII 15

If the plastic spheres are dropped 5 times

from an altitude of 1m, the average
measured time of fall will most likely be:
What we know: In Experiment 1, the plastic
spheres were dropped at a distance of 2.5
m to Earth.
The average time for fall of the plastic
spheres for 2.5 m to Earth is 1.60 sec.
If 2.5 m yields 1.60 sec, then 1m would yield
0.64 sec. So A. less than 0.80 sec.

PIII 16
In Experiment 1, should the students have
used a stopwatch that was accurate to the
nearest second, and why?
H. No, because the spheres took less than 1
sec to fall to Earth.

PIII 17
To show that a spheres acceleration is
affected by air resistance, in addition to the
experiments in the passage, which of the
following experiments can be performed?
A. In a sealed vacuum chamber containing
no air, the spheres are dropped from
heights of 2.5 m and 9.7 m.

PIV 18
The Cellularization Theory does NOT include
the hypothesis that the earliest metazoans
were:
F. ciliated.
G. aquatic.
H. hollow.
J. bilaterally symmetrical.

PIV 19
The development of which of the following
characteristics is addressed in the passage
by the Colonial Theory, but NOT by the
Cellularization Theory?
A. Body symmetry
B. Ciliated tissues
C. Multinucleated cells
D. Reproductive cells

PIV 20
Supporters of all 3 theories would agree
with the conclusion that the first
metazoans:

F. evolved from protozoans.

G. are older than the first protozoans.
H. had many nuclei in each cell.
J. were radially symmetrical.

PIV 21
Which of following types of organisms, if
present today, would provide the most
support for the Colonial Theory?
A. Flagellated protozoans living in dense colonies
B. Flagellated protozoans living in hollow
colonies
C. Ciliated protozoans living in dense colonies
D. Ciliated protozoans living in hollow colonies

PIV 22

Assuming that the Separate Line Theory is

correct, which of the following conclusions can be
made about modern hydras, which are radially
symmetrical, and modern flukes, which are
bilaterally symmetrical?
F. Hydras and flukes evolved from radially
symmetrical metazoans.
G. Hydras and flukes evolved from bilaterally
symmetrical metazoans.
H. Hydras and flukes are more closely related to
each other than to protozoans.
J. Hydras and flukes are only distantly related
through protozoans.

PIV 23

Which of the following questions is raised by

the Colonial Theory, but is NOT answered
in the passage?
A. Why did the first flatworm-like metazoans
have cilia?
B. Why were some colonial cells better
suited for reproduction?
C. How could 2 lines of metazoans evolve
from protozoans?
D. How were multinucleated cells
transformed into cells with single nuclei.

PIV 24
Proponents of all 3 theories would agree with which
of the following conclusions about the evolution
of metazoans?
F. Bilaterally and radially symmetrical metazoans
evolved at different times.
G. The first metazoan was a jellyfish-like organism
with flagella.
H. The evolution of metazoans led to the extinction
of protozoans.
J. Bilaterally symmetrical metazoans are more
advanced than radially symmetrical metazoans.

PV 25
Which of the following assumptions was made in the
design of Experiment 1?
D. Simulated plant cover acts like natural plant cover
in protecting the soil from erosion by water.

PV 26
According to the results of Ex 1 and 2, one can
minimize soil erosion by:

Increasing plant cover, decreasing the amount of

trampling, and using land covered with Soil 2.

PV 27
If Experiment 2 were repeated using a
different soil containing 50% sand, which
of the following would be the expected
water storage in soil hoofprints and
sediment runoff on a plot subjected to 60%
trampling?

Soil 1 = 60%

Soil 2 = 25%

Soil (different) = 50%

Water stored = 10% less than the 60% sand, so 10% of 0.79 cm = 0.71 cm

PV 28
In Experiment 2, after 30% trampling, water stored
in the two soil types was similar, but sediment
runoff was not. Which of the following
statements is the most likely explanation for the
difference in sediment runoff?
A soil with a smaller percent sand is less susceptible
to erosion than soil with a higher percent sand.

PV 29
If Experiment 1 were
repeated using a
soil containing 50%
sand with 70%
plant cover, which
of the following
would be closest to
the expected
sediment runoff
from this soil?
Soil 1 = 60% sand = 492 g/m2
Soil 2 = 25% sand = 200 g/m2
PV 29 Soil = 50% sand = ?

A.
B.
C.
D.

175 g/m2
200g/m2
425 g/m2
500 g/m2

PV 30
To further investigate
the effect of
vegetation cover on
soil erosion, the
scientists should
repeat Experiment:

F. 1, using plots planted

with different
grasses.

PVI 31
According to Figure 2,
at approximately
which of the following
altitudes would a
weather instrument
measuring air
temperature be
unable to distinguish
between tropical and
arctic air masses.
A.12.0 km, B. 13.5 km,
C.15.5 km, 16.5 km

PVI 32
According to Figure 1,
several atmospheric
layers overlap one
another. Which of the
following describes
atmospheric layers that
share part of a common
altitude range?
F.
G.
H.
J.

Stratosphere and mesosphere

Stratosphere and thermosphere
Mesosphere and thermosphere
Mesosphere and chemosphere

PVI 33
According to Figure 1 and Table 1, if the
weather instruments rose above 13.7
km, the air pressure would most likely:
A. Increase to more than 1,000 mb.
B. Stay at 200 mb.
C. Decrease to less than 200 mb.
D. Decrease to 1,000 mb.

PVI 34

According to Figure 1,
a weather instrument
reading an air
pressure of 5 mb is
most likely in which
of the following
layers.
F. Troposphere
G. Ozonosphere
H. Mesosphere
J. Ionosphere

PVI 35

The air temperature decreased with increasing

altitude on Day 2 only.

PVII 36
According to the
passage, the most
effective antiseptic
against
microorganisms is the
one that leaves the:

G. Lowest percentage
of surviving
microorganisms in
the shortest time of
exposure.

PVII 37
According to the information
presented in Table 1 and
Figure 1, what conclusion
about the use of alcohol as
an antiseptic may be
reached?

A. Dissolving chemical agents in

alcohol increases their
effectiveness as anitseptics.

PVII 38
Is the statement tinctures are
more effective against
microorganisms than
aqueous solutions of the
same antiseptic supported
by the information presented
in Figure 1, and why?
F.Yes, because tincture of
Merthiolate is more effective
against microorganisms than
is aqueous Merthiolate.

PVII 39
After you thoroughly
wash your hands
with plain soap and
water for 2 minutes,
your hands probably
carry:

D. Fewer bacteria than

before; most are still
alive.

PVII 40
According to Figure 1,
if a researcher
prepared a
disinfectant solution
of 60% alcohol, the
time of exposure
required to kill 90%
of the bacteria
present would be:
J. Greater than 120
sec.