A residential dehumidifier is an application belonging to the

_____ category.

A. domestic
refrigeration
B. commercial air-conditioning

C. domestic air-conditioning

D. industrial refrigeration
The air-conditioning system for cabins on a luxury ocean
liner belongs to the _____ category.

A. marine and transportation

refrigeration
B. commercial air conditioning

C. industrial refrigeration

D. none of the above

A residential refrigerator is similar in purpose and operation
to a commercial _____.

A. walk-in

B. reach-in

C. display case

D. self-service display case

The condenser of a commercial display case that is located
within the unit is called

A. remote the unit is called

B. local condenser

C. integral condenser

D. b and c
Which of the following characteristics of early refrigeration
systems still applies to today’s units?

A. bulky

B. relatively expensive

C. poor efficiency

D. all of the above

Mechanical refrigeration systems make it possible to

A. process, freeze, store, transport and display

perishable products

B. make buildings inhabitable in the summer heat

C. develop new chemicals and other new useful

materials
D. All of the above
Which of the following is not a category of refrigeration
applications?

A. domestic refrigeration

B. commercial refrigeration

C. industrial refrigeration

D. transportation air-conditioning
Which of the following is not an industrial refrigeration
application/

A. meat display cases

B. ice manufacturing plants

C. large food-packing plants

D. creameries
Which of the following variables is most often maintained by
a commercial air-conditioning unit?

A. temperature

B. air purity

C. air motion

D. humidity
Providing clean, filtered air for trouble free operation of
equipment and instrumentation is a function of _____.

A. industrial refrigeration process

B. industrial air-conditioning process

C. commercial air-conditioning process

D. comfort air-conditioning process

_____ is one of the most common applications of mechanical
refrigeration.

A. preservation of perishable commodities

B. Comfort air-conditioning

C. Industrial refrigeration

D. None of the above

Which of the following is not a disadvantage of the
refrigeration method of food preservation

A. the process must begin very soon after the fool is

harvested
B. the vitamin content of the food is maintained

C. the refrigeration process must be continuos until

the food is consumed
D. this method requires relatively expensive and
bulky equipment
which of the following is not a method of food preservation?

A. refrigeration

B. canning

C. dehydration

D. grilling
Which of the following is not a plant, animal or fungi?

A. mold

B. enzyme

C. yeast

C. yeast
Which of the following microorganism is most affected by the
movement of air?

A. mold

B. enzyme

C. yeast

C. bacteria
The reproductive activity of microorganisms is increased
by

A. lowering the temperature of the environment

B. increasing the temperature of the environment

C. decreasing the humidity of the environment

D. all of the above

Which of the following conditions destroys molds?

A. exposure to ultraviolet lights

B. lowering its temperature

C. reducing the relative humidity of its environment

D. all of the above

Wrapping and refrigerating food products extends the
storage life of

A. meats

B. fruits

C. vegetables

D. all of the above

The approximate storage life of fresh strawberries is
_____.

A. 5 to 7 weeks

B. 1 to 3 weeks

C. 7 to 10 days

D. none of the above

Which of the following is not a form of moisture loss from
frozen food products?

A. sublimation

B. spoilage

C. freezer burn

D. dehydration
_____ is a method used to reduce the dehydration of
sensitive fruits and vegetables during the chilling process

A. Vacuum chilling

B. Water chilling

C. Ice chilling

D. none of these
Which of the following is not a process characterstics
controlled in long-term storage chambers?

A. temperature

B. air velocity

C. humidity

D. air purity
The freezing method that uses a brine to directly absorb heat
from the food product is called ____freezing

A. brine

B. contact

C. immersion

D. blast
Which of the following is not a step in preparing vegetables
for frozen storage?

A. cleaning

B. chilling

C. coating with syrup

D. blanching
Which of the following is not a step in preparing fruit for
frozen storage?

A. cleaning

B. storage

C. coating with syrup

D. blanching
Spiral belt freezing units are typically used for _____ freezing
processes.

A. air blast

B. immersion

C. indirect contact

D. all of the above

Loss of food juices by osmosis is a consequence of the
_____ freezing processes.

A. air blast

B. immersion

C. indirect contact

D. all of the above

Heat transfer that occurs primarily by conduction is used for
_____ freezing processes.

A. air blast

B. immersion

C. indirect contact

D. all of the above

A disadvantage of sharp freezing is the

A. increase in juice losses upon thawing

B. increase in the size of the ice crystals that form

in the food

C. decrease in quality experienced by the food

during freezing

D. all of the above

Frozen storage chamber temperature set points are usually
_____.

A. 5 degree F

B. 0 degree C

C. -20.5 degree C

D. a and b
Which of the following devices should be used to measure a
pressure of 90 kPa?

A. pressure gauge

B. compound gauge

C. barometer

D. all of the above

The height of the mercury column in a barometer placed on a
mountain with a local pressure of 13.5 psi will be

A. 25 inches

B. 698 mm

C. 93.1 kPa

D. all of the above

The electric meter on a home or building measures the
amount of _____ that was converted over the billing period

A. work

B. energy

C. power

D. none of the above

Which of the following processes does not alter the kinetic
energy level of a substance?

A. fusion

B. adding sensible heat to a solid

C. adding sensible heat to a liquid

D. superheating a vapor
An evaporator in a refrigeration unit makes use of which heat
transfer modes?

A. conduction

B. radiation

C. convection

D. all of the above

When a service technician places his/her hand on a suction
line to check the operation of a system, he/she is using
which heat transfer modes?

A. conduction

B. radiation

C. convection

D. all of the above

Energy added to a vapor is known as

A. latent heat of vaporization

B. superheat

C. sensible heat of vapor

D. none of the above

Which of the following sequences accurately indicates the
responses that occur when heat is transferred from a gas?
A. Sensible heat of solids, latent heat of fusion, sensible
heat of vapors, latent heat of vaporization
B. Sensible heat of vapors, latent heat of fusion, sensible
heat of liquid, latent heat of vaporization
C. Sensible heat of vapors, latent heat of vaporization,
sensible heat of liquids, latent heat of fusion,sensible
heat of solids
D. Latent heat of vaporization, sensible heat of liquids,
latent heat of fusion, sensible heat of solids
As liquid changes phase to a vapor, its enthalpy _____.

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. constant
As a liquid changes phase to a solid, its entropy _____

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. constant
The vaporization process that occurs at temperatures below
the triple point of a substance is _____

A. evaporation

B. sublimation

C. boiling

D. condensation
The vaporization process that occurs when the vapor
pressure of a substance is equal to the atmospheric pressure
is

A. evaporation

B. sublimation

C. boiling

D. condensation
As the pressure of the vapor increases, the amount of
work it can do increases and its enthalpy _____

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. constant
As a gas is heated in an isothermal process, its volume?

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. constant
As a gas is cooled in an isobaric process, its volume?

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. constant
As a gas is heated in an isometric process, its volume?

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. constant
As the volume of the gas decreases, its specific gas
constant?

A. increases

B. decreases
C. remains the same

D. constant
Vapors do not behave as ideal gases because they
experience

A. friction

B. volume

C. temperature changes

D. all of the above

In an isobaric process, changes in pressure can be caused
by changes in

A. temperature

B. volume

C. density

D. none of the above

Boyle’s law states that pressure and volume changes in gas
process are ______ related

A. directly

B. not

C. inversely

D. ideally
The entropy of a process in which an ideal gas
experiences a reduction in its internal energy?

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. none of the above

The polytropic exponent approaches one when the change
in the process ______approaches zero.

A. temperature

B. volume

C. pressure

D. work
The change in kinetic energy of a gas process ___ as
the change in temperature of the process path
increases.
A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. none of the above

The final temperature of an isobaric process decreases if the
system work is a ______ quantity and the surroundngs
transfer heat to the system

A. positive

B. linear

C. negative

D. nonlinear
As the volume of an isothermal expansion process
approaches its final value, the rate of change in the
system pressure?
A. increases

B. remains the same

C. decreases

D. none of the above

If air, hydrogen, oxygen and carbon dioxide undergo
adiabatic expansion processes having identical initial and
final values of pressure and volume, which gas will do more
work on the surroundings?

A. air

B. hydrogen

C. carbon dioxide

D. oxygen
During the compression process, the internal energy of
the refrigerant vapor.

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. none of the above

The quantity of energy absorbed by a unit mass of refrigerant
in the evaporator is called

A. capacity

B. mass flow rate

C. refrigeration effect

D. volume flow rate

Which of the following vapor-compression cycle process is
adiabatic?

A. vaporization

B. condensing

C. throttling

D. superheating
Subcooling inceases the ______of the refrigeration cycle.

A. capacity

B. mass flow rate

C. refrigeration effect

D. volume flow rate

As the saturation pressure of the refrigerant in the
evaporator increases, the refrigerant effect of the
process.
A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. none of the above

The component in the refrigeration cycle that is used to store
refrigerant is called the

A. receiver

B. metering device

C. compressor

D. evaporator
The component in the refrigeration cycle that expands
refrigerant is called the

A. condenser

B. metering device

C. compressor

D. evaporator
The component in the refrigeration cycle that subcools
refrigerant is called the

A. condenser

B. metering device

C. compressor

D. evaporator
The component in the refrigeration cycle that has a negative
heat transfer value is the

A. condenser

B. metering device

C. compressor

D. evaporator
The condenser is designed to transfer ______ heat to the
condensing medium that was absorbed in the evaporator

A. more

B. the same

C. less

D. constant
The refrigeration effect per unit mass of refrigerant
circulated ___ as the vaporizing temperature increases.

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. none of the above

A smaller temperature difference between the refrigerant in
the liquid line and that in the evaporator ___ the mass flow
rate of refrigerant needed per ton of refrigeration effect.
A. increases

B. remains the same

C. decreases

D. decreases by 10%
The difference between the saturation pressure in the
evaporator and that in the condenser ___ as the suction
temperature decreases.
A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. none of the above

The COP and the efficiency of a refrigeration cycle ___ as
the vaporizing temperature increases.

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. constant
The volume of vapor that the compressor must handle per
minute per ton ___ as the vaporizing temperature increases.

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. constant
The quantity of heat rejected at the condenser per unit
capacity per minute ___ as the vaporizing temperature in the
evaporator decreases.
A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. constant
As the condensing temperature increases, the cycle's
refrigeration effect?

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. constant
The mass flow rate of refrigerant per unit capacity ___ as the
condensing pressure decreases.

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. no effect
The volume of refrigerant vapor compressed per unit
capacity ___ as the condensing temperature increases.

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. increases by 10%
As the pressure drop in a liquid line increases, the flow liquid
refrigerant ______.

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. decreases by 20%
Pressure drops cause the saturation temperature of the fluid
to ______

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. decreases by 10%
Pressure drops cause the specific volume of a vapor to
______.

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. no effect
As the pressure drop across the liquid line decreases, the
refrigeration effect of the cycle?

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. no effect
As fluids flow through a pipe, their potential energy?

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. no effect
The heat of compression ___ as the suction vapor becomes
superheated.

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. no effect
The heat content of a refrigeration cycle ___ when a liquid-
suction line heat exchanger is installed.

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. no effect
The COP of a refrigeration process ___ with subcooling.

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. fixed
Superheating ______ the possibility of sending liquid into the
compressor.

A. increases

B. decreases

C. does not affect

D. fixed
Which method of leak testing can be used with hydrocarbon
refrigerants?

A. soap bubbles

B. halide torch

C. electronic detectors

D. a and c
Which of the following factors is not used to determine the
toxicity of a refrigerant?

A. exposure time

B. concentration

C. the amount of refrigerant in the system

D. its latent heat of vaporization

Which of the following refrigerant is most hazardous?

A. R-113

B. R-717

C. R-11

D. R-152a
Which of the following is not a hydrocarbon refrigearnt?

A. propane

B. isobutane

C. butane

D. inane
A mixture of two or more refrigerants is called a ______

A. zeotrope

B. halocarbon

C. desicant

D. absorbent
Desiccants are used to remove ______ from refrigerants.

A. oil

B. moisture

C. acids

D. all of the above

As an oil-miscible refrigerant mixes with oil, the viscosity of
the oil ___?

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. fixed
The society that sponsors research on refrigerants is called
___?

A. ASHRAY

B. ASREA

C. ASHRAE

D. ARI
Which of the following refrigerant groups denotes a more
toxic vapor?

A. A3

B. A1

C. B3

D. a and b
Oil separators are used in systems where?

A. oil return is likely to be inadequate

B. nonmiscible refrigerants are used

C. the amount of oil in circulation is likely to be excessive

D. all of the above

Which evaporator design incorporates secondary surface
heat transfer?

A. bare-tube

B. finned-tube

C. embossed surface-plate

D. a and b
Eutectic filled plate evaporators have a higher ___ than
evacuated plate evaporators.

A. mass

B. thermal capacitance

C. holdover capacity

D. all of the above

Which evaporator circuit configuration is less effective when
used in dry-expansion feed applications?

A. single

B. crossflow

C. split

D. counterflow
Which of the following evaporator feed methods produces
the greatest tube surface wetting without the use of a liquid
pump?
A. dry-expansion

B. circulated refrigerant

C. flooded

D. overfeed
What type of forced convection unit cooler is used in
vegetable storage applications that require a velocity of
approximately 120 m/min?
A. low velocity

B. high velocity

C. medium velocity

D. standard velocity
Which defrost method is commonly used small commercial
applications where ice forms on the evaporator surfaces?

A. off-cycle

B. electric

C. hot gas

D. all of the above

Which of the following liquid-chilling evaporator types
incorporates crossflow heat exchange?

A. double-pipe

B. shell-and-tube

C. Baudelot

D. flooded chiller barrel

Which of the following dry-expansion evaporator
configurations is most efficient?

A. crossflow with distributor

B. counterflow with distributor

C. counterflow with header

D. crossflow with header

Which type of brine is used in applications where it may
come in contact with food?

A. calcium chloride

B. propylene glycol

C. Baudelot

D. sodium chloride
What is the concentration of calcium chloride by mass
needed to obtain a freezing (crystallization) temperature of
13degree F?
A. 15.5%

B. 14.5%

C. 21.5%

D. over 30%
As the TD of the evaporator decreases, the amount of
moisture that condenses on the coil surfaces ____?

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. fixed
As the value of the SHR of a process increases, the
temperature difference between the entering and leaving
airstream ___.
A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. fixed
What is the range of relative humidity that can be maintained
with a forced-convection evaporator operating with a
15degree F TD?
A. 91-95%

B. 81-85%

C. 86-90%

D. 76-80%
A medium velocity dry surface air-cooling coil having a
volume flow rate of 1,000 cfm would have a face area of
___?
A. 1 ft2

B. 3 ft2

C. 2 ft2

D. 4 ft2
If the required capacity of a coil is less than its rated capacity
the TD will ___?

A. increase

B. decrease

C. remain the same

D. vary
As the length of the tubes in a chiller barrel increase, the
pressure drop across the inlet and outlet of the barrel ___.

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. varies
___ decreases the volumetric efficiency of a compressor.

A. Increasing the suction pressure

B. Decreasing the suction pressure

C. Decreasing the discharge pressure

D. Reducing the clearance volume

The mechanical efficiency of the compressor ___ as the
compressor load increases.

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. varies
The saturated suction temperature used in the selection of a
compressor corresponds to the pressure of the vapor at the
___.
A. inlet of the compressor

B. evaporator inlet

C. outlet of the evaporator

D. inlet of the condenser

Which of the following does not decrease the volumetric
efficiency of a compressor?

A. decreasing the discharge pressure

B. decreasing the suction pressure

C. increasing the compression ratio

D. increasing the cylinder heating

The mass flow rate of refrigerant ___ as the saturation
temperature of the evaporator decreases.

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. varies
Which power value is not affected by changes in the
compression efficiency?

A. indicated power

B. shaft power

C. compressor power

D. friction power
The type of compressor that has a single reciprocating blade
is a ___ compressor.

A. roller

B. scroll

C. rotary vane

D. reciprocating
As the temperature of the evaporator increases, the sonic
velocity of the vapor ___.

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. varies
The type of compressor that incorporates a volute is a ___
compressor.

A. roller

B. scroll

C. rotary vane

D. centrifugal
Which of the following does not increase the chance of a
compressor surging?

A. increasing the discharge pressure

B. increasing the suction pressure

C. decreasing the compression rotational speed

D. decreasing the evaporator temperature

The type of compressor that develops the least amount of
vapor pulses is a ______ compressor

A. roller

B. scroll

C. rotary vane

D. centrifugal
The type of compressor that uses compliant gate rotors is a
___ compressor.

A. roller

B. scroll

C. rotary vane

D. screw
The type of compressor that uses slide valves to vary
capacity is a ___ compressor.

A. roller

B. scroll

C. rotary vane

D. screw
As the rotational speed of a rotary compressor increases, its
capacity ___.

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. varies
The type of compressor that uses ring valves is a ___
compressor.

A. roller

B. scroll

C. rotary vane

D. reciprocating
As the condensing temperature of a centrifugal system
decreases, the power required by the compressor _____.

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

D. varies
Which of the following is not a normal function of lubricating
oil used in refrigeration system?

A. develop hydrodynamic seal

B. transport debris

C. transfer heat

D. increase wear
The resistance that a fluid offers to flow as a consequence of
it's internal friction forces is called

A. viscosity

B. pour point
C. viscosity
index
D. lubricity
The level of solubility of refrigerants in an oil is a function of
temperature and ______

A. viscosity

B. dielectric strength
C. pour point

D. none of the above

The rate at which the viscosity of an oil changes as its
temperature changes is called _______

A. viscosity

B. pour point

C. viscosity
index
D. floc point
Oil foaming is a consequence of of ______.

A. oil temperature

B. refrigerant solubility

C. refrigerant pressure

D. oil viscosity
Reducing refrigerant migration during the off cycle ______ oil
foaming

A. increases

B. decreases

C. has no effect on

D. varies
Which of the following strategies will reduce oil foaming in a
system?

A. pump down cycle

B. oil additives

C. crankcase heaters

D. all of the above

Which of the following oils is not normally used with HFC
refrigerants

A. solenoid valve

B. check valve

C. crankcase heater

D. all of the above

An electric device used to reduce foaming in a crankcase is
a ______

A. oil temperature

B. refrigerant solubility

C. refrigerant pressure

D. oil viscosity
The lowest temperature at which an oil can flow is called
______

A. viscosity

B. pour point

C. viscosity index

D. lubricity
The scale factor for hard water used in a condenser with a
water velocity of 4 ft/sec is ______

A. 0.003

B. 0.005

C. 0.002

D. none of the above

As the altitude of a forced air-cooled condenser increases,
the surface area of the coil or volume flow rate of the fan
must ______
A. increase

B. decrease

C. remain the same

D. vary
As the water temperature entering a water-cooled condenser
decreases, the power drawn by the compressor ______

A. increases

B. decreases

C. will not change

D. fixed
Reducing the design temperature difference of an air cooled
condenser ______ the amount of heat it can reject to the
ambient.
A. increases

B. decreases

C. will not change

D. varies
Reducing the fouling in a water-cooled condenser ______ its
rate of heat transfer.

A. increases

B. decreases

C. will not change

D. varies
The temperature difference of a wastewater-cooled
condenser is ______ that of a recirculated water system.

A. greater than

B. equal to

C. less than

D. fixed
The surface area of the tubes in a water-cooled condenser
must ______ if the LMTD is less than the design value and
the saturated temperature is to remain constant
A. be increased

B. remain the same

C. be decreased

D. vary
The specific heat of air is ______ that of water

A. greater than

B. equal to

C. less than

D. proportional
A measure of the average thermal intensity of the gas and
vapor molecules in the atmosphere is the ______

A. DB temperature

B. WB temperature

C. DP temperature

D. enthalpy
A measure of the amount of water vapor that can be
absorbed by the atmosphere under its current conditions is
called ______

A. DB temperature

B. WB temperature

C. DP temperature

D. relative humidity
The ratio of the current partial pressure of the water vapor in
the atmosphere to the saturation pressure of the water vapor
at the current DB depression is called the ______.

A. DB depression

B. WB temperature

C. DP temperature

D. relative humidity
The saturation temperature of the water vapor in the
atmosphere is called

A. DB temperature

B. WB temperature

C. DP temperature

D. relative humidity
Tower fill is not used to increase the

A. surface area of the water

B. time the water is exposed to the air

C. velocity of the atmosphere

D. tower drift
Chemicals are not added to tower water to reduce ______.

A. algae

B. foaming

C. cycles of concentration

D. bacteria
As the amount of saturated air drawn back into a tower
decreases, the tower approach ______

A. increases

B. remains the same

C. decreases

D. varies
As the amount of scale on the refrigerant tubes of an
evaporative condenser increase, the amount of make up
water ______
A. increases

B. remains the same

C. decreases

D. varies
As the amount of scale on the refrigerant tubes of an
evaporative condenser increase, the refrigeration effect of
the system______
A. increases

B. remains the same

C. decreases

D. varies
As the cycles of concentration in a tower or evaporative
condenser increases, the potential for scale formation on hot
surfaces ______

A. increases

B. remains the same

C. decreases

D. varies
The ______ can only be effectively employed in industrial
processes that have a relatively constant refrigeration load

A. hand expansion valve

B. thermal expansion valve

C. automatic expansion valve

D. electric expansion valve

The device used to transfer forces across a sealed boundary
is called a ______

A. seat

B. port

C. needle

D. diaphragm
The device used to minimize the effects of a large pressure
drop across the evaporator is called a(n) ______

A. diaphragm

B. external equalizer

C. internal equalizer

D. none of the above

An externally equalized valve should be used whenever the
pressure drop through the evaporator produces a greater
than ______ change in the saturation temperature

A. 1.2 degree F

B. 1.2 degree C

C. 1 degree F

D. none of the above

Which of the following is not considered when determining
the pressure drop available for a TXV?

A. distributor

B. changes in elevation

C. refrigerant pressure

D. filters
As a general rule, the external equalizer connection is made
on the suction line approximately ______ beyond the
expansion valve’s sensing bulb in the direction of the
compressor.

A. 24 in

B. a or c

C. 60 cm

D. neither of the above

When sensing bulb charge is used in low and medium-
temperature applications that do not require pressure limiting
characteristics?

A. liquid cross-charge

B. gas cross-charge

C. straight liquid charge

D. straight gas charge

As the evaporator temperature of a system using a straight
liquid-charged sensing bulb decreases, the superheat of the
TXV ______

A. increases

B. remains constant

C. decreases

D. varies
The maximum operating pressure of an evaporator can be
limited through the use of a ______ sensing bulb.

A. liquid cross-charge

B. straight gas charge

C. gas cross-charge

D. b and c
As the amount of superheat in a system using a straight
liquid-charged sensing bulb increases, the needle of the TXV
______ the flow of refrigerant

A. increases

B. does not change

C. decreases

D. varies
Which type of metering device can be used in multiple
flooded evaporator applications?

A. low-side float

B. short tube restrictor

C. high-side float

D. capillary tube
Which type of metering device does not require a critical
refrigerant charge?

A. low-side float

B. short tube restrictor

C. high-side float

D. capillary tube
Which type of metering device is used in heat pump
applications?

A. low-side float

B. short tube restrictor

C. high-side float

D. capillary tube
Which type of metering device is has a critical length
dimension?

A. low-side float

B. short tube restrictor

C. high-side float

D. capillary tube
Which type of metering device can be used to create a check
valve in a heat pump system?

A. low-side float

B. short tube restrictor

C. high-side float

D. capillary tube
Which type of metering device can be used in package air-
conditioning unit?

A. short-tube restrictor

B. a and c

C. capillary tube

D. low-side float
Which of the following system characteristics does not affect
the flow rate through a stationary short tube restrictor?

A. condenser pressure

B. orifice size

C. subcooling

D. fluid direction
Which of the following system changes has the least effect
on the flow rate through a stationary short tube restrictor?

A. rise in condenser pressure

B. increase in subcooling

C. decrease in evaporator pressure

D. fixed condenser pressure

Which of the following is not a consideration when selecting
a cap tube for an application?

A. condenser pressure

B. heat of compression

C. evaporator pressure

D. flow rate of refrigerant

As the subcooling of a refrigerant increases, the flow through
a high-side float ______

A. increases

B. remain the same

C. decreases

D. varies
Refrigerant piping is designed and installed in a manner that
______

A. minimizes refrigerant pressure losses in the

connecting piping

B. ensures the continuous return of oil to the

compressor crankcase

C. prevents liquid refrigerant from entering the

compressor during start-up
D. all of the above
A receiver tank is used to ______

A. hold the excess refrigerant during lighter

loads
B. collect oil from the base of a riser

C. separate liquid from vapor refrigerant

D. all of the above

Which fitting produces the greatest pressure drop?

A. 90 degree standard elbow

B. 90 degree street ell

C. 45 degree standard
elbow
D. 45 degree street ell
Which style valve produces the least change in the
saturation temperature of refrigerant flowing through it?

A. globe

B. check

C. gate

D. angle
Which of the following changes may increase the flashing in
a liquid line?

A. increasing the subcoolong

B. increasing the pipe diameter

C. decreasing the pipe length

D. decreasing the line diameter

As the refrigerant load decreases, the amount of refrigerant
catering through-flow receiver _____

A. increases

B. remains the same

C. decreases

D. varies
Discharge line lubricant separators are not usually employed
in systems ______

A. operating at low temperatures

B. utilizing non-oil returning evaporators

C. systems with a small range of capacity control

D. They are used in all of the above systems

A device used as a visual indicator of the charge in a
refrigeration system is a ______

A. sight glass

B. drier

C. pressure switch

D. strainer
Which pressure regulating valve maintains a low limit in an
evaporator?

A. OROA

B. SPR

C. ORI

D. EPR
As the amount of superheat in a system using a straight
liquid-charged sensing bulb increases, the needle of the TXV
______ the flow of refrigerant

A. low-side float

B. EPR

C. SPR

D. OROA
Which type of control requires a control differential?

A. throttling

B. modulating

C. two-position

D. a and c
______ is a device used to remove acids from a system after
a burn-out

A. receiver

B. suction filter-drier

C. suction line heat exchanger

D. oil separator
Which of these devices does not operate in response to a
change in its inlet pressure?

A. EPR

B. ORI

C. SPR

D. a and c
Which of the following high-side pressure regulators
operates on an increase in differential pressure?

A. ORI

B. ODO

C. OROA

D. none of the above

Which of the following system characteristics is not needed
when selecting the proper water regulating valve for a water-
cooled application?

A. the necessary flow rate of water

B. the condensing pressure

C. the available water pressure drop

D. the minimum ambient temperature

Which of the following methods cannot be used for oil level
equalization between multiple compressors operating in
parallel?

A. a crankcase pressure equalizing tube along with

an oil equalizing tube
B. oil level controls on each crankcase fed from
an oil receiver
C. a single pipe located below the oil level in the
crankcases
D. all of the above
If a compressor has more capacity than the evaporator, the
saturated suction pressure will be ______ design conditions.

A. greater than

B. the same as

C. less than

D. identical
The device used in a control loop to measure the controlled
variable is called a ______

A. controlled device

B. controller

C. summing junction

D. sensor
If the thermal capacitance of a process is low, the control
differential must be ______ to prevents short-cycling of the
compressor

A. increased

B. decreased

C. changing the differential has no bearing on

short-cycling
D. identical
Which type of control requires a control differential?

A. throttling

B. modulating

C. two-position

D. a and b
When the pressure on the high-pressure side of the system
decreases below the high-limit set point ______ the control
differential, an auto resetting high-pressure control closes the
control circuit to the condensing unit, enabling the
compressor
A. plus

B. times

C. minus

D. divide
Which method of compressor capacity control does not
produce a reduction in condensing power requirements
when the compressor capacity is decreased?

A. cylinder unloading

B. multiple compressor

C. variable speed drive

D. hot gas bypass

A hot gas bypass valve responds to changes in the system’s
______ pressure.

A. liquid line

B. discharge

C. suction

D. none of the above

As the difference between the cut-in and cut-out pressures
increases, ______.

A. the range increases and short-cycling increases

B. the range increases and short-cycling decreases

C. the range decreases and short-cycling is unaffected

D. the range decreases and short-cycling increases

As the load of a refrigeration system increases, the on cycle
of the compressor ______

A. increases

B. remains the same

C. decreases

D. approaches zero
Intercoolers are devices used in direct staged system to
______

A. increase the temperature of the liquid refrigerant

leaving the condenser
B. reduce the pressure of the liquid refrigerant
leaving the condenser
C. reduce the pressure of the vapor entering a
higher stage compressor
D. reduce the temperature of the vapor entering
higher stage compressor
Which type of intercooler mixes the liquid refrigerant from the
condenser with the discharge vapor of the lower stage
compressor?

A. open

B. dry expansion

C. shell and coil

D. none of the above

Which of the following systems has the most complicated oil
return system?

A. direct staged

B. ammonia absorption

C. cascade

D. lithium bromide absorption

The type of unit that incorporates several stages of
compression using different refrigerant is called a ______
system

A. direct expansion

B. absorption

C. cascade

D. direct stage
Which refrigerant is not used in the high stage of a cascade
system?

A. R - 23

B. R - 717

C. R - 22

D. R - 134a
The flow cycle for the refrigerant in an absorption chiller is
______

A. from the condenser to the absorber to the evaporator

to the generator

B. from the condenser to the generator to the absorber

to the evaporator
C. from the condenser to the evaporator to the absorber
to the generator
D. from the condenser to the absorber to the generator
to the evaporator
The refrigerant in an absorber changes phase from a vapor
to a liquid in the ______

A. evaporator

B. absorber

C. rectifier

D. generator
The weak solution in an absorber develops in the ______

A. evaporator

B. absorber

C. condenser

D. generator
The strong solution in an absorber develops in the ______

A. evaporator

B. absorber

C. condenser

D. generator
The refrigerant in an absorber releases its high pressure
latent heat of condensation in the ______

A. evaporator

B. absorber

C. condenser

D. generator
Highest pressure drop in a vapor-compression refrigeration
cycle occurs in the:

A. compressor

B. evaporator

C. compressor

D. expansion valve